ALL UNIT CIRCULARS

Question 0

A Captain reviewing “Low Water Pressure Procedures” at company drill was incorrect when he stated that?

A) All Engines and Squads shall obtain pressure readings on the hydrants nearest quarters during the first full week in May and record them on the Hydrant Pressure Chart.

B) The Hydrant Pressure Chart shall be posted at the housewatch desk throughout the entire year.

C) All units shall, AT ALL TIMES, close down illegally opened hydrants, whenever the Officer determines that such action will not precipitate an incident.

D) Anyone found illegally using a hydrant may be issued a summons.

Answer 0

B) The Hydrant Pressure Chart shall be posted at the housewatch desk throughout the entire year. (Incorrect)

*Posted at housewatch during the SUMMER season.

(AUC 225 - 2.1, 2.2, 2.4, 2.5)

Question 1

Up to 7 defective hydrants can be reported on the CD-63 form. Defective hydrants are classified by codes 1-4. Which choice accurately describes these codes?

A) Code 1 = cap or chain missing

B) Code 2 = broken barrel unserviceable

C) Code 3 = defective but serviceable.

D) Code 4 = unserviceable

Answer 1

C) Code 3 = defective but serviceable.

Code 1 = Broken barrel unserviceable

Code 2 = unserviceable (intact but mechanically defective)

Code 3 = defective but serviceable
(other than missing cap/chain)

Code 4 = cap/chain missing

(AUC 205)

Question 2

At 0900 roll call, members of L-147 are discussing the FDNY SCBA policy. Which statement is correct?

A) Face-piece sharing with another member shall only be done if one members cylinder is depleted.

B) The FAST unit’s FASTPAK may only be used on civilians if it is not possible to remove them from the contaminated area.

C) The wearing or use of SCBA’s may be dispensed with only when authorized by the IC.

D) If an SCBA is malfunctioning, as to cut off the air supply, remove the face piece and the regulator.

Answer 2

C) The wearing or use of SCBA’s may be dispensed with only when authorized by the IC.

(AUC 220 1.3)

A - Facepiece sharing with other members/civilians is prohibited.

B - For civilians, utilize a FASTPAK other than the one assigned to the FAST unit.

D - Leaving the facepiece donned and removing only the regulator will provide some protection to the member’s face.

Question 3

The Iroquois Natural Gas Pipeline carries natural gas that is non toxic, lighter than air, which can be an asphyxiant, and is combustible in concentrations from _______?

A) 5%-10%

B) 5%-15%

C) 7%-15%

D) 5%-20%

Answer 3

B) 5%-15%

AUC 150 1.1

Question 4

Except in the event of an immediate threat to life or property, no valves of the Iroquois Natural Gas Pipeline should be opened or closed without the approval of the FDNY IC in consultation with Con Ed Iroquois personnel. Do you agree or disagree with this statement?

A) Agree

B) Disagree

Answer 4

A) Agree

AUC 150 4.5

Question 5

Units arrive on scene of a reported leak in the Iroquois Natural Gas Pipeline. Which point below would be considered incorrect?

A) Initial actions should be to set up a perimeter and eliminate ignition sources.

B) Patrolling the pipeline to locate the leak will be done by the first arriving Engine and Ladder companies.

C) If the gas is escaping without ignition, the use of fog lines to assist may actually hinder the dissipation of gas.

D) If the natural gas has ignited, consider shutting down the gas supply.

Answer 5

B) Patrolling the pipeline to locate the leak will be done by the first arriving Engine and Ladder companies. (Incorrect)

(AUC 150 7.1)

*Squad or SOC support with meters will do this.

Question 6

The first arriving BC operating at an alarm for a reported leak in the Iroquois Natural Gas Pipeline would be incorrect in which choice below?

A) Upon confirmation of a leak, transmit a 2nd alarm for the street box nearest the location.

B) When the leak is located, establish an Incident Command Post at a location consistent with existing conditions.

C) In the event of a sub leak, a Marine Company will be assigned to patrol the sub sea pipeline.

D) All venting will normally occur I’m Northport L.I. And must be coordinated by the IC with the Iroquois Gas Control Center.

E) Flag persons must be positioned at least 1000 feet on each side of the incident to warn members immediately upon any suspicious indication do an approaching train.

Answer 6

B) When the leak is located, establish an Incident Command Post at a location consistent with existing conditions. (Incorrect)

(AUC 150 7.1)

*The IC will set up an OPERATIONS POST consistent with existing conditions.

Question 7

During a training exercise on the Iroquois Natural Gas Pipeline, it would be accurate to state that after consulting Iroquois/ConEd personnel, valves shall _________________?

A) Only be partially closed

B) Only be fully closed

C) Be partially or fully closed.

D) Under no circumstances be even partially closed.

Answer 7

A) Only be partially closed

(AUC 150 8.1)

*No full closures at any drill

Question 8

While operating at a Brush Fire, members should be aware of all of the following terms except which?

A) Looking at the fire from the rear of the blackened area, the left side is called the left flank.

B) The head of the fire is called the leading edge.

C) Fingers are isolated small fires downwind from the main fire.

D) Bog fires start on the surface and burn downward into the soft spongy ground.

Answer 8

C) Fingers are isolated small fires downwind from the main fire. (Incorrect)

(AUC 151 3.3)

• SPOT FIRES are isolated small fired downwind from the main fire.
• Fingers are strips of long, thin sections of fire extending outward from the main blackened fire area.

Question 9

Regarding the use of Brush Fire Units (BFU), it would be correct to state _________________?

A) BFU’s have MDTs and can also be dispatched by radio.

B) BFU’s shall always be designated by their assigned number on Department radio and handie-talkie (“BFU 3 to Command”).

C) BFU winches can be used for self extrication or used to tow out full sized apparatus.

D) BFU’s can knock over trees, go through hedgerows, or traverse streams.

Answer 9

B) BFU’s shall always be designated by their assigned number on Department radio and handie-talkie (“BFU 3 to Command”).

(AUC 151 4.5)

A - BFU’s DO NOT HAVE MDTs

C - Winches can tow SIMILAR SIZES VEHICLES

D - BFU CANNOT knock over trees and traverse streams

Question 10

Units operating at Brush fires should know all of the following special vehicles/equipment are accurately described except which?

A) ATVs are equipped to remove injured members utilizing a mounted Stokes basket.

B) The one inch Forestry Hose, in 100 foot lengths, is intended only for wild land operations.

C) BFUs can be used for vehicle fires that are a sufficient distance off the road, which makes a hose stretch impractical.

D) A mini manifold supplied by one 2 1/2” line can supply up to three 1” hose lines.

E) The Rescue apparatus winch can be used to extricate bogged down apparatus.

Answer 10

D) A mini manifold supplied by one 2 1/2” line can supply up to three 1” hose lines. (Incorrect)

(AUC 151 4.7.1)

*Mini manifold can supply up to FOUR (4) 1” hose lines.

Question 11

First alarm engines arriving at the scene of a brush fire would be correct to consider all of the following tactics except which?

A) A unit should not self commit to any operation unless a structure is exposed.

B) The initial attack should concentrate on mobility. Avoid hooking up to hydrants except to protect exposures.

C) The best time to move in for a close attack is when the wind diminishes.

D) Never attack or operate in front of the fire.

E) Brush fires should be attacked and extinguished from the flanks first, the units should move to the interior burning areas.

Answer 11

D) Never attack or operate in front of the fire. (Incorrect)

(AUC 151 5.4.3)

*AVOID this however it is acceptable TO PROTECT LIFE.

Question 12

A captain conducting drill on brush fire operations was correct in which statement he made?

A) Streams should be directed at the flames above the burning brush.

B) Fire burning on hillsides will burn rapidly towards the top of the hill. Therefor units should be positioned at the top of the hill to protect exposures, and attack the fire from that position.

C) Using a water curtain to break up heat waves is generally effective.

D) Members can raise brooms in the air or operate streams into the air to verify their location to the IC.

Answer 12

D) Members can raise brooms in the air or operate streams into the air to verify their location to the IC.

(AUC 151 5.5.6)

A - direct streams AT BURNING BRUSH

B - position at top of hill but ATTACK FROM BOTTOM

C - water curtain to break up heat is INEFFECTIVE

Question 13

Never operate a hose line beneath a high voltage line at a brush fire incident because electric current may be transmitted via the particles in the smoke. Do you agree or disagree with this statement?

A) Agree

B) Disagree

Answer 13

A) Agree

AUC 151 5.11.11

Question 14

The primary use of the NYPD helicopter at brush fire operations is for ___________________?

A) Implementation of fireground strategy

B) Control of field forces

C) Air Recon

D) Water Drops

Answer 14

C) Air Recon

AUC 151 9.1

Question 15

A Battalion Chief special called to a 3rd alarm brush fire as the Air Recon Chief should be aware that the _________________________?

A) Helicopter will not fly in winds over 30 mph.

B) Helicopter has limited operating time of 1-2 hours.

C) Responding BC should call the NYPD Aviation Base and inform them of the response.

D) Use of the Bambi bucket is under the control of the ARC, in consult with the IC.

Answer 15

C) Responding BC should call the NYPD Aviation Base and inform them of the response.

(AUC 151 9.5)

A - Helicopter will not fly in winds over FORTY (40) MPH.

B - Helicopter has limited operating time of TWO-THREE (2-3hrs)

D - Bambi bucket under control of IC IN CONSULT WITH THE ARC.

Question 16

General operational guidelines at manhole emergencies are accurately stated in which choices below?

1. Cordon and tape off the immediate danger area for both FD and civilians, while stretching precautionary hose lines in the street beyond the predictable limits of fire or explosion.
2. Endangered vehicles shall be removed from the danger area, and traffic control boxes must be considered when deciding the area of danger.
3. After members pull a manhole cover, units may operate hose lines into them when fire conditions dictate and only when using a fog nozzle.
4. The hose stream should be operated directly into the manhole until a Con Ed employee requests you to stop.

A) 1 only B) 2 & 4 C) 3 & 4 D) 1 & 2

Answer 16

A) 1 only

(AUC 180 2.1, 2.3, 2.4)

2 - DO NOT move vehicles in danger areas

3 - DO NOT pull manhole covers

4 - DO NOT operate line directly into manhole (let it roll in)

Question 17

The IC has ordered an engine company to await the arrival of the Con Ed emergency crew. You as the engine officer would be correct if you knew which of the choices below?

A) That if the ETA of the emergency crew was more than 30 min, the IC could order the manhole be protected by traffic cones and tape, and all units go 10-8.

B) That if the ETA of the emergency crew was more than 20 min, the IC could also order you to return to quarters while leaving two members on the scene.

C) That if one member was left at the scene, and the unit returned to quarters, the battalion would provide relief for that member.

D) That if the ETA of the emergency crew was more than 15 minutes, the IC could order you to leave one member at the scene while you respond to assigned alarms.

Answer 17

A) That if the ETA of the emergency crew was more than 30 min, the IC could order the manhole be protected by traffic cones and tape, and all units go 10-8.

(AUC 180 2.6)

B - If crew was more than THIRTY (30) min, IC could order ONE (1) member be left at the scene.

C - It is the COMPANY OFFICERS RESPONSIBILITY to provide relief for the member left on scene. (Not the battalion’s)

D - THIRTY (30) min

Question 18

When discussing transformer vault features with a probie, the Lt. was correct in which point?

A) The greatest hazard is the amount of electricity, but asbestos and PCB’s may also be present.

B) All transformers in vaults contain dielectric oil with PCB’s in the 10-49 PPM range. This makes this a non-PCB transformer and units may operate as if no PCB’s are present.

C) Transformers convert primary voltage (27,000) to secondary voltage (120 volts), and members should be concerned with only the higher voltage as being potentially fatal.

D) Transformer vaults are located underground and are easily noticed by members.

Answer 18

A) The greatest hazard is the amount of electricity, but asbestos and PCB’s may also be present.

(AUC 180 3.1.A)

B - The New York City Fire Department considers a transformer with
ANY AMOUNT of PCBs as a PCB Transformer. Operate
accordingly.

C - BOTH voltages are potentially fatal.

D - OVERHEAD transformers are easily recognized (underground vaults are not)

Question 19

When operating at a transformer vault incident, members shall use full PPE and SCBA even in light smoke conditions, and shall also take how many of the following actions?

1. Due to the amount of flammable liquid, stretch a precautionary hoseline and be prepared to initiate a foam operation.
2. Teams of two members shall examine exposures taking CO readings in the meter room, surrounding rooms, and on the first floor.
3. Make entry into the vault prior to Con Ed arrival if a known life hazard exists in the vault.
4. Be prepared to re-examine exposures on a periodic basis as conditions can change rapidly.

A) One B) Two C) Three D) All

Answer 19

C) Three (choices 1, 2 & 4 are correct)

(AUC 180 3.3)

3 - WAIT FOR CON ED (even if a known life hazard exists)

Question 20

When a snow or ice emergency is imminent, or Phase A or B of AUC 200 has been established, units shall insure how many of the following items are placed on the apparatus?

1. At least 3 extra lengths of 2 1/2” rolled or folded hose on each engine and ladder.
2. Specialized hydrant connection set up
3. Containers of salt and/or sand.
4. Tire chains, spare links and a link tool.
5. 1 shovel
6. Vehicle recovery strap with shackle

A) Two B) Three C) Four D) All

Answer 20

C) Four (2,3,4 & 6 are correct)

(AUC 200 3.3.3.C)

1 - At least SIX (6) EXTRA LENGTHS OF 2 1/2”

5 - TWO (2) SHOVELS

Question 21

During cold-weather operations a Lt. should know that which of the following guidelines should not be followed?

A) Tower ladders, deck pipes, multi-versals, manifolds and pumps shall be drained after use and daily.

B) Officers shall extend the search after arrival at box locations, as tightly closed buildings could hide evidence of fire.

C) During intermittent line operations, the nozzle shall be cracked slightly to prevent freezing.

D) Aerial ladders shall not be raised unless absolutely necessary, and retracted at the earliest opportunity.

Answer 21

A) Tower ladders, deck pipes, multi-versals, manifolds and pumps shall be drained after use and daily. (Incorrect)

(AUC 200 4.2.1)

*Shall be drained FOLLOWING EACH ROLL CALL

Question 22

Units arrive at the scene of a building fire on the second floor of a four-story OLT. Poor street conditions exist due to a heavy snowfall. Which would be considered a proper tactic for units to take?

A) The 1st arriving engine and the 1st and 2nd arriving ladder company shall enter the block.

B) Preference shall be given to the engine company to enter the block prior to the ladder, with the ladder company carrying portable ladders.

C) The engine apparatus should slowly proceed forward into the block for greater traction, and position the hose bed just past the building in anticipation of a backstretch.

D) If hydrants are inaccessible or frozen, units should consider the use of standpipes in nearby buildings.

Answer 22

D) If hydrants are inaccessible or frozen, units should consider the use of standpipes in nearby buildings.

(AUC 200 5.3.10 C & D)

A - ONLY FIRST DUE UNITS will enter the block.

B - LADDER GETS PREFERENCE (if building is greater than 3 stories)

C - Engine apparatus should proceed BACKWARD into block.

Question 23

Members must use their SCBA in all of the following situations except?

A) Working on a fire escape and exposed to smoke.

B) Cutting a hole on a roof and exposed to toxic substances.

C) Performing a search inside a manhole

D) Searching for a water leak in a commercial building that has very few windows.

Answer 23

D) Searching for a water leak in a commercial building that has very few windows. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 220, TB SCBA 2.2)

• WINDOWLESS BUILDING (USE SCBA)

Question 24

A ladder company is operating as an entire unit performing overhaul on the 1st floor of a commercial building. Which one of the following members in the IDLH area operated correctly?

A) The Irons FF completely removed his facepiece because his SCBAS cylinder was depleted.

B) The Can FF removed the SCBA regulator because his SCBA was malfunctioning and cutting off his air supply.

C) The OV FF whose SCBA cylinder was depleted, notified his officer he was leaving immediately, by himself, to go change his air cylinder.

D) The officer, whose cylinder was depleted, left with the Roof FF to exchange cylinders. He left the LCCS in charge temporarily of the remaining members of the unit until his return.

Answer 24

B) The Can FF removed the SCBA regulator because his SCBA was malfunctioning and cutting off his air supply.

(AUC 220 2.2)

A - Irons FF should have completely removed his REGULATOR

B - Correct

C - Never leave ALONE

D - TEMPORARY SUPERVISION MUST BE AN OFFICER

Question 25

Facepiece sharing is prohibited with?

A) Only civilians

B) Only members

C) Civilians and members, unless extreme conditions allow for no other actions.

D) Civilians and members in all circumstances

Answer 25

D) Civilians and members in all circumstances

(AUC 220 2.7)

FACEPIECE SHARING NOT ALLOWED.

Question 26

Members operating at a 3rd alarm took the following actions to provide an interim air supply for trapped individuals:

1. When a member became trapped who could not be removed, they ran and quickly got the nearest available FAST PAK.
2. When a civilian was trapped who could not be removed, they ran and quickly got the nearest available FAST PAK.
3. When a member became trapped who could not be removed, they ran and quickly got a spare SCBA.
4. when a civilian was trapped who could not be removed, they ran and quickly got a spare SCBA.

How many of these actions were correct?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

Answer 26

2 - When a civilian is trapped you can use a FAST PAK OTHER THAN THE FAST TEAMS FAST PAK.

C) 3 (Choices 1,3,4 are correct)

(AUC 220 2.8)

Question 27

At 0308 hours first alarm units respond to a report of a fire in a deli and on arrival at the scene determine that there is a minor smoke condition showing from the storefront window. After cutting a padlock, they are able to gain entry easily through the front entrance with no other damage. They then find a very small electrical fire that they extinguish with the can. Because they cannot locate anyone to safeguard the premises, they consider using the Battalion padlock. In this situation they would be correct to think that using the Battalion lock is?

A) Appropriate provided there is no other damage to the entire perimeter

B) Inappropriate because of the nature of the occupancy

C) Inappropriate because they forced entry

D) Inappropriate because there was a fire condition.

Answer 27

A) Appropriate provided there is no other damage to the entire perimeter.

(AUC 231, 2.1)

Question 28

After using the Battalion lock to safeguard a premises, who is responsible to notify the dispatcher for entry on their Secured Premises List?

A) Company officer, from the scene, and should place the key on the apparatus.

B) Company officer, on return to quarters, and he should place key on the apparatus.

C) BC, from the scene, and he should place the key in Battalion vehicle

D) BC, on return to quarters, and he should place key in Battalion office

Answer 28

B) Company officer, on return to quarters, and he should place key on the apparatus.

(AUC 231, 4.2)

Question 29

Regarding the selection of chauffeurs, department policy is accurately indicated in all of the following points except?

A) Members must have 3 years experience in the FDNY to be considered for Chauffeur Training School.

B) The Chauffeur Qualification checklist shall be a tool to assist the training officer and forwarded with the candidate when they are selected to attend Chauffeur Training School.

C) Members who have passed Chauffeur Training School are eligible for a position as a regular unit chauffeur.

D) If qualified chauffeurs are not assigned as Chauffeurs and/or Tiller FFs for an extended period of time, they shall practice operating the apparatus during drills and responding to alarms.

Answer 29

D) If qualified chauffeurs are not assigned as Chauffeurs and/or Tiller FFs for an extended period of time, they shall practice operating the apparatus during drills and responding to alarms. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 254, 3)

• They shall practice during drill and RETURNING FROM ALARMS.

Question 30

The company commander must be aware that regarding the training and availability of School Trained Chauffeurs, it is accurate to state that?

A) Prior to attending CTS, each member must be given at least 10 hours of driver training.

B) Training shall be conducted by having members drive and/or operate the apparatus at MUD, inspection all activities, and responding and returning from alarms.

C) When a company commander believes a member is proficient I’m driving and operating the apparatus, am entry shall be made in the Company Journal.

D) If a company commander believes a members performance as a chauffeur is less than satisfactory, he may recommend, by written report with all relevant facts to the Chief of Operations that the members chauffeur designation be revoked.

E) ECCs transferred to ladder companies and LCCs transferred to Engine companies will have their prior unit chauffeur designation revoked 12 months after they transfer.

Answer 30

D) If a company commander believes a members performance as a chauffeur is less than satisfactory, he may recommend, by written report with all relevant facts to the Chief of Operations that the members chauffeur designation be revoked.

(AUC 254, ADD 1)

A - at least 5 HOURS OF DRIVER TRAINING

B - Training conducted while RETURNING from alarms (not responding)

C - entry made in OFFICER RECORD JOURNAL

D - Correct

E - Designation revoked IMMEDIATELY AFTER TRANSFER

Question 31

You are the officer on overtime working in Reserve Apparatus 506 that has been activated and established in the quarters of Engine 206 as a CFR Engine for a 6x9 tour. In this situation you would be incorrect to think that you should?

A) Post a 3rd copy of the riding list at the HW desk

B) ID yourself to the Brooklyn CO as “Engine 506 acting Engine 206”

C) Utilize the Battalion Depot for your initial supply of CFR-D equipment and any further needed supplies during the tour.

D) Have a minimum compliment of 2 CFR trained FFs.

Answer 31

C) Utilize the Battalion Depot for your initial supply of CFR-D equipment and any further needed supplies during the tour. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 259 5.2)

• Tech Services initially / then Batt. Depot for additional supplies

Question 32

When a reserve apparatus is utilized, who is responsible for a “Lost Property Report” is any equipment is lost during the tour?

A) The officer in charge of the apparatus while it was out of storage

B) The officer on duty in the unit at which the apparatus is stored.

Answer 32

A) The officer in charge of the apparatus while it was out of storage

(AUC 259, 7.2)

Question 33

The primary consideration at PCB incidents is the safety of civilians and fire personnel. There are several different substances that are found in transformers that are used as coolants. Which one is incorrect?

A) If “oil” is shown in the type of fluid/coolant column, the PCB level will be “0”, a number or blank. If blank, assume equipment is PCB Contaminated (50-499 PPM PCB)

B) Silicon is a non PCB type of dielectric fluid used as a replacement for PCB fluids in a transformer.

C) A transformer cooled by air will contain large amounts of PCB.

D) Carcasses are “PCB transformers” taken out of service. If drained, they will always contain residual dielectric fluid.

Answer 33

C) A transformer cooled by air will contain large amounts of PCB. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 266 5.2.1)

• Transformer cooled by air will NOT CONTAIN PCB.

Question 34

The NYC Fire Department considers a transformer with any amount of PCBs as a PCB transformer. Which is an incorrect procedure to take at a PCB incident?

A) Entrance into the contaminated or suspected area shall be kept to a minimum.

B) Deactivation of transformers shall be performed only by ConEd Personnel or FD members when accompanied by Engineering personnel.

C) When extinguishing fire, fog or foam shall be used for flammable liquids. Water shall be used for structural members.

D) Use of self contained masks is mandatory even in areas of light smoke condition. Breathing apparatus shall be used at all times until the Officer in Command confirms that the area is free of toxic gases.

Answer 34

B) Deactivation of transformers shall be performed only by ConEd Personnel or FD members when accompanied by Engineering personnel. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 266 PCB INCIDENTS 6.4.2)

• Deactivation of transformers shall only be performed by CON ED OR
  ENGINEERING PERSONNEL. (NOT FD UNITS)

Question 35

Decontamination procedures shall be implemented only when members or equipment are exposed to levels of PCBs of _______ PPM or higher.

A) 25

B) 50

C) Any amount

D) 500

Answer 35

B) 50 PPM

(AUC 266 PCB INCIDENTS 8.1)

• Federal Regulations = Less than 50 PPM is non-PCB
  FDNY = any transformer that has PCBs is considered to be a PCB
  transformer.

Question 36

Which is an incorrect action for a High Rise Roof Team Officer to take?

A) Insure all members have their personal harness.

B) Approach the helicopter after receiving the signal from the pilot, co-pilot or crew chief.

C) Supervise loading and unloading in view of the pilot as directed by the crew chief.

D) Monitor the HT TAC U channel during flight.

E) After the helicopter has landed on the roof, select an assembly point near the helispot. Avoid using a bulkhead or other roof projection.

Answer 36

E) After the helicopter has landed on the roof, select an assembly point near the helispot. Avoid using a bulkhead or other roof projection. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 269 ADD 1, 4.3.5)

• Select assembly point AWAY FROM HELISPOT, NEAR BULKHEAD
  OR ROOF PROJECTIONS.

Question 37

Which safety requirement is not correctly stated?

A) All members must wear a personal safety harness or Life Saving Belt during flight operations as a High Rise Roof Chief or member of a High Rise Roof Team.

B) Raise nothing above the head in vicinity of the helicopter.

C) Do not approach the tail section under any circumstances.

D) Air Rescue Teams shall board the air rescue Bell 412 from amid ship.

Answer 37

D) Air Rescue Teams shall board the air rescue Bell 412 from amid ship. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 269 ADD 2, 3.1,2)

• Board Bell 412 from the FRONT.

Question 38

The Air Recon Chief, High Rise Roof Chief, and High Rise Roof Teams will all wear Mustang Survival Personal Flotation Devices (PFDs). Which is the incorrect point about these devices?

A) The High Rise Roof Chief and High Rise Roof Team will don PFDs over their bunker gear prior to boarding the aircraft.

B) The Air Recon Chief will don PFDs over the work duty uniform prior to boarding the aircraft and will not be wearing any other PPE.

C) PFDs must be inflated manually by the member only after exiting the aircraft.

D) Although not designed for firefighting, PFDs can be worn while operating at fires.

Answer 38

D) Although not designed for firefighting, PFDs can be worn while operating at fires. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 269 ADD 2, 3.1.2)

• PFDs need to be REMOVED PRIOR TO OPERATING AT A FIRE.

Question 39

Units would be operating properly in which choice below at an incident involving emotionally disturbed persons (EDPs)?

A) Units encountering possibly emotionally disturbed persons who are exhibiting bizarre behavior at an incident shall immediately notify the dispatcher to request a 10-47 for “Possible EDP”.

B) When persons are threatening to jump from a window, the primary concern shall be on the safety of the persons threatening to jump.

C) No attempts to forcible restrain the person shall be made by members at any time.

D) Units should not force entry to the door to an apartment which is on fire and contains an EDP until arrival of police personnel, and then done only at police request.

Answer 39

A) Units encountering possibly emotionally disturbed persons who are exhibiting bizarre behavior at an incident shall immediately notify the dispatcher to request a 10-47 for “Possible EDP.

(AUC 271 Policy Statements on EDPs 1.1)

A - Correct

B - Primary concern is PEOPLE ON SIDEWALK/STREET BELOW.

C - No attempts to forcibly restrain the EDP shall be made UNLESS
there is a direct threat of physical harm to FFs.

D - ABSENT of clear indications of fire or other imminent danger of a
type which mandates immediate FD action, forcible entry will be
delayed until PD arrives.

Question 40

A Satellite Unit is made up of a Satellite apparatus and a companion 2,000 GPM Engine Company. Regarding the satellite apparatus, it would be incorrect to state?

A) It does not have any pumping capabilities.

B) It has two 3 1/2” gated female inlets and one 4 1/2” unchecked female inlet on each side of the apparatus.

C) When responding, the satellite apparatus shall be staffed with at least two firefighters, with the officer responding in the pumper.

D) If it is to be supplied by multiple hose lines for use of the deluge gun, the 3 1/2” gated inlet should be supplied first.

Answer 40

D) If it is to be supplied by multiple hose lines for use of the deluge gun, the 3 1/2” gated inlet should be supplied first (INCORRECT)

(AUC 274 1.2,3)

• UN-GATED INLETS supplied 1st

Question 41

You are the officer of a Satellite Unit responding to a 2nd alarm to a structural fire near the waterfront on the West Side of Manhattan. Regarding the water supply for your unit and the possible hookup sites, you would be correct to think?

A) The use of a drafting site should be considered prior to a fire boat to supply the Satellite units.

B) Pumpers operating at draft are capable of delivering their full capacity of 2000 GPM; this is not so when being supplied by fireboats.

C) If during a drafting operation non-potable river or bay water is introduced into the potable water system, the dispatcher must be notified ASAP.

D) When the hydrant main size is less than 24” it is recommended that a 2nd hydrant or another pumper augment the water supply.

Answer 41

C) If during a drafting operation non-potable river or bay water is introduced into the potable water system, the dispatcher must be notified ASAP.

(AUC 274, 4.4)

A - Satellite should be supplied by fireboat FIRST.

B - BOTH can deliver full pump capacity.

C - Correct

D - When hydrant main size is less than 12 INCHES, it is recommended
that a 2nd hydrant or another pumper augment the water supply.

Question 42

All appliances supplied by Satellite pumpers, including the manifold, shall not be shut down before consulting the Satellite Officer or Chauffeur and shutting down shall always be initiated at the 2,000 GPM pumper. Do you agree or disagree with this statement?

A) Agree

B) Disagree

Answer 42

B) Disagree

(AUC 274, 7.3)

• EXCEPT for manifolds that are protected by Ross Relief Valves.

Question 43

The officer of Satellite unit is operating at a multiple alarm where the IC instructs him to prepare to use his deluge gun on the upper floors of the building. The officer would be correct to think?

A) The further from the building he operates the deluge gun, the better the angle achieved as the gun is directed to upper floors.

B) A good nozzle pressure for the 2” and 2 1/2” tips is 200 psi.

C) A good nozzle pressure for the 3” and 3 1/2” tips is 250 psi.

D) The deluge gun shall not be placed into operation except on orders of the Water Resource Officer.

Answer 43

A) The further from the building he operates the deluge gun, the better the angle achieved as the gun is directed to upper floors.

(AUC 274, 5.3)

A - Correct

B - 2” and 2 1/2” tips = 125 psi

C - 3” and 3 1/2” tips = 100 psi

D - IC orders deluge gun operation

Question 44

An engine company responding to a structural fire comes upon a town hydrant setup, where both hydrants are painted red and have two 4 1/2” outlets. Regarding the use of these hydrants, it would be correct to state that engine companies should?

A) Avoid the use of these special hydrants

B) Use these hydrants at any time as they are excellent supplies of water.

C) Use these hydrants only at fires that are not in the multiple alarm stage.

D) Use these hydrants only if hooking up to them with a hard suction.

Answer 44

A) Avoid the use of these special hydrants.

AUC 274 ADD 1

Question 45

Upon arrival at an incident at a ABR In Process School, what shall be your immediate action?

A) Contact the principal or person in charge concerning the status and/or location of all non-ambulatory students for action and/or relay to the IC.

B) Contact the Fire Safety Director concerning the status and/or location of the alarm.

C) Have the LCC immediately ladder the Holding Area windows on the upper floors.

D) Contact the dispatcher and have him relay the information from the ISP to you over the department radio.

Answer 45

A) Contact the principal or person in charge concerning the status and/or location of all non-ambulatory students for action and/or relay to the IC.

(AUC 277)

Question 46

A company commander is working when the department locksmith comes to quarters to change the lock combination of the entrance door. Who should the captain notify of the change?

A) Chief of Operations via letterhead report

B) Borough Command via email

C) Battalion and Division via memo

D) Supervising Dispatcher via telephone

Answer 46

D) Supervising Dispatcher via telephone.

AUC 300, 2.1.4

Question 47

Ladder companies responding with 4 firefighters shall generally operate without which position covered?

A) Roof

B) OV

C) Can

D) FE

Answer 47

B) OV

AUC 287 ADD 1, 2.7

Question 48

In which scenario is the 2nd arriving engine company, after conferring with the 1st arriving engine officer, generally capable of stretching and operating a 2nd hose line without assisting the 1st engine company with the 1st hose line?

A) Structures 3 stories or less and the amount of hose required is 4
lengths or less.

B) Structures 2 stories or less and the amount of hose required is 5 lengths or less.

C) Structures 1 story and the amount of hose required is 5 lengths or less.

D) Structures 1 and 2 stories and the amount of hose required is 4 lengths or less.

Answer 48

D) Structures 1 and 2 stories and the amount of hose required is 4 lengths or less.

(AUC 287, 4.6)

Question 49

A company officer should have knowledge of Roster Staffing alarm assignment and response policies of the FDNY. Which of the following choices reflects a correct knowledge or the policies set forth in AUC 287? (More than one correct)

A) On receipt of an alarm for a structural response from an ERS, telephone or other form of verbal communication, two engines, two ladders, special units and one battalion chief will always be assigned.

B) If an alarm is received from two sources for an incident requiring a structural response, a total of three engines and two ladders will be assigned, along with special units and one battalion chief.

C) Upon receipt of a 7-5 signal, the 1st due officer should know that three engine companies will be assigned to respond.

D) Upon transmitting a 10-14 signal, the 1st due officer should know that three engine companies will be assigned to respond.

Answer 49

B) If an alarm is received from two sources for an incident requiring a structural response, a total of three engines and two ladders will be assigned, along with special units and one battalion chief.

D) Upon transmitting a 10-14 signal, the 1st due officer should know that three engine companies will be assigned to respond.

(AUC 287, 5.1)

A - IF AVAILABLE these units will respond.

B - Correct

C - Upon receipt of 10-75 SIGNAL, a 4th engine will respond.

D - Correct

Question 50

Which point concerning Roster Staffing Overtime and detailing members is correct?

A) Each firefighter will have the opportunity to work 96 hours of scheduled overtime.

B) The Battalion Chief and company officer are to ensure that when a unit is in excess of their required staffing level due to RSOT, and a detail is to be provided from that unit, that the RSOT firefighter shall be detailed in all instances.

C) Firefighters shall provide to the greatest extent possible that details to other quarters, as well as awaiting relief, are distributed equitably.

D) Mutual exchanges of RSOT will only be permitted where the exchange is completed within 30 days of the schedule tour.

Answer 50

D) Mutual exchanges of RSOT will only be permitted where the exchange is completed within 30 days of the schedule tour.

(AUC 287, 3.5)

A - PROBIES AND FF ON FINAL LEAVES DONT GET RSOT.

B - NOT in all instances. NOT a firefighter with special skills (ex: LCC or
ECC)

C - COMPANY COMMANDER keeps records, not firefighters.

D - Correct

Question 51

Detailing of firefighters from their assigned units to units in other quarters is essential to the department’s responsibility to provide equal fire protection for all areas of the city. Which point mentioned below is not in accord with detailing policies of the FDNY?

A) An officer whose unit is scheduled for AM training must leave quarters with the day tour members no later than 0915, therefore if that unit is awaiting a detail the battalion will insure his/her timely arrival.

B) Members detailed to units within one mile, or approximately 20 blocks, of their quarters have the option of walking, taking public transportation, or using their private vehicles.

C) Details after the start of the tour within the Battalion or Division shall have the unit providing the detail transport the member to the quarters where the member is detailed, and if the providing unit is unable to do so, the unit receiving the detail shall do the transporting.

D) A member may be directed to use public transportation, and if he is displaying a badge and carrying bunker gear, helmet and boots they would be permitted free use of subways and local buses.

Answer 51

C) Details after the start of the tour within the Battalion or Division shall have the unit providing the detail transport the member to the quarters where the member is detailed, and if the providing unit is unable to do so, the unit receiving the detail shall do the transporting. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 287, 8.1.2)

• The Administrative Battalion shall direct the company RECEIVING the
  detail to proceed to quarters and pick up member. If receiving
  company is unable to pick up member, then the unit providing
  the detail shall do the transporting. (Help yourself first - if you are
  getting a detail in your house, you go pick the, up)

Question 52

All members shall use proper terminology to describe staffing levels over the department radio. How many of the following choices display good knowledge of the terminology to be used as per AUC 287?

1. A ladder company officer responding to a structural fire with four
   firefighters acknowledged by stating, “We are responding under
   staffed”
2. An engine company with 4 firefighters was assigned to a gas leak in
   an occupied MD. The officer acknowledged with a 10-14 signal in
   lieu of a 10-4 signal.
3. A ladder company officer responding to a car fire with three
   firefighters acknowledged by stating they are responding “under
   manned”
4. An engine company officer responding to a 2nd alarm brush fire with
   4 firefighters acknowledged with a 10-14 signal in lieu of a 10-4
   signal.

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

Answer 52

A) One (Choice #2 is correct)

(AUC 287, section 11)

1 - Ladder company w/ 4 FFs = “we are responding with 4 FFs”

2 - Correct / Engine company with 4 FFs responds with 10-14

3 - Ladder company w/ 3 FFs = “we are understaffed with 3 FFs”

4 - Engine company responding to 2nd alarm = straight 10-4 signal

Question 53

You are a lieutenant of an engine company that has been reduced to just yourself, the ECC and the Control FF due to LOD medical leaves during the tour. Which of the following would be a correct action on your part?

A) Place the company OOS, but respond to any verbal alarms received while in quarters.

B) Respond to only structural alarms, while awaiting details, and state to the dispatcher, “we are responding with Reduced Staffing”

C) Respond to all alarms, and if only unit on scene conduct operations according to normal SOP’s.

D) Respond to all alarms, and if only unit on scene, stretch a line to outside of IDLH atmosphere if confronted with a working fire.

Answer 53

D) Respond to all alarms, and if only unit on scene, stretch a line to outside of IDLH atmosphere if confronted with a working fire.

(AUC 287, ADD 1)

• Take a defensive position, cannot enter IDLH (unless known life haz)

Question 54

In which of the following actions was a captain correct when leaving quarters for BISP-AM with a contractor performing work in quarters?

A) Had the housewatch firefighter close and lock the apparatus and entrance doors after the rig pulled out of quarters.

B) Had the contractor leave quarters, and told him he could return at 1300 hours.

C) Had the firefighter running the Super Bowl Pool store the large sum of money he collected in his locker, and ensure it was kept locked while the unit was out of quarters.

D) Had the doors to the department chaplain’s car, which was stored in quarters, locked and had a set of keys stored in a secure location at the housewatch.

Answer 54

D) Had the doors to the department chaplain’s car, which was stored in quarters, locked and had a set of keys stored in a secure location at the housewatch.

(AUC 300 2.1.2)

A - FF OTHER THAN the housewatchman.

• If there is a contractor in quarters, and the doors and windows can be locked or secured, the officer on duty shall notify the contractor that the contractor will be held accountable while his/her personnel are working in quarters during the absence of the unit.

Question 55

You are a captain of a unit responding as 2nd due Ladder to a phone alarm for a fire in a MD. Your unit is fully staffed. You hear the 1st due ladder transmit “We are responding with 4 FFs”. Which alternate action should you anticipate ordering on your arrival?

A) Have Roof FF perform 1st due OV duties, and assign the OV FF to perform 2nd due OV duties.

B) Have the OV FF perform 1st due OV duties, and assign the Roof FF to perform 2nd due OV duties.

C) Have the LCC perform the 1st due OV duties, and assign the OV FF to perform 2nd due OV duties.

D) Have the Can FF perform 1st due OV duties, and assign the Roof FF to perform, 2nd due OV duties.

Answer 55

B) Have the OV FF perform 1st due OV duties, and assign the Roof FF to perform 2nd due OV duties.

(AUC 287, ADD 1, 5)

• The Roof FF, or other designated FF will perform 2nd OV duties.

Question 56

An engine company returns from a false alarm box only to discover that the firehouse has been entered illegally, and the house tax draw has been burglarized while they were out. A witness states that a man ran out of the firehouse and got into a FDNY communications vehicle and drove off. How many of the following should the captain immediately notify?

1. Administrative Battalion and Division
2. Police Precinct
3. BITS
4. Office of the IG
5. Bureau of Fire Investigation
6. Deputy Director or Dispatch Operations

A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5

Answer 56

C) 4 (Administrative Bat & Div, PD, IG & Bureau of Fire Investigation)

(AUC 300, 3.1)

• If department employee is involved (notify IG)
  If false alarm is involved (notify Bureau of Fire Investigation)

Question 57

A member will be assigned to provide security if a company is unable to properly secure quarters. Which choice correctly lists the order of preference for obtaining this member?

A) Light duty or LSS personnel, Detail if staffing above level A (60 engines with 5 firefighters), Overtime

B) Detail if staffing above level A, Light Duty or LSS personnel, Overtime.

C) Detail if staffing above level A, Overtime, Light Duty or LSS personnel

D) Overtime, Light Duty or LSS personnel, Detail if staffing above level A.

Answer 57

B) Detail if staffing above level A, Light Duty or LSS personnel, Overtime.

(AUC 300, 4.2)

Question 58

When FDNY members operate at emergencies involving fallen or damaged trees, certain guidelines must be followed. Which guideline listed below is correctly stated?

A) The FD is responsible for removal of debris from public property, including sidewalks, streets and areas from curb to property line.

B) There are only 2 instances when members may attempt to remove a tree that has fallen on a vehicle; to perform a rescue and to administer 1st aid.

C) Department operations on private property are limited to assisting trapped or injured persons and preventing unauthorized entry into the danger area, but members may also remove trees obstructing the entrance to a building.

D) Parks Department Forestry Division is capable of handling large trees, and once they are on scene and there is no fire or life hazard, the IC shall establish a Unified Command until operations are complete.

Answer 58

C) Department operations on private property are limited to assisting trapped or injured persons and preventing unauthorized entry into the danger area, but members may also remove trees obstructing the entrance to a building.

(AUC 301, 3.3)

A - The department is NOT responsible for the removal of debris from
sidewalks or private property.

B - There are 3 INSTANCES, to perform rescue, administer 1st aid and
to establish an emergency lane.

C - Correct

D - IC will turn operations over to Parks Dept. Forestry Division

Question 59

The sap of a tree is a ___________ conductor.

A) non

B) poor

C) good

D) excellent

Answer 59

D) excellent

AUC 301, 5.6

Question 60

Which operation listed below adhered to department policy as outlined in AUC 301?

A) A member attempting to cut a tree with a chainsaw was operating in the TL basket, kept both feet in the basket, was wearing the installed safety belt, started the saw in the basket and held it outside the basket until he shut it off.

B) A member attempting to clear an emergency traffic lane secured his personal harness to the aerial ladder rung, and after finishing cutting he shut down the chainsaw outside of the beams of the ladder.

C) A company apparatus shall not be used to drag or pull trees that are down in the street, unless there is a life hazard.

D) After Con Ed certified that an electric line that was entangled in a tree was de energized, members attempted to cut the tree with a chainsaw, avoiding the entangled wire.

Answer 60

A) A member attempting to cut a tree with a chainsaw was operating in the TL basket, kept both feet in the basket, was wearing the installed safety belt, started the saw in the basket and held it outside the basket until he shut it off.

(AUC 301, 5.6)

A - Correct

B - CANNOT CUT FROM AERIAL LADDER.

C - CAN USE RIG to drag or pull trees

D - DO NOT CUT or move trees entangled in wires.

Question 61

The Department has implemented a link with Language Line Services to provide immediate over the phone interpretative services for more than 150 languages, 24 hours a day, 7 days a week. This service can be accessed in the following manner: which choice is incorrect?

A) Department telephones within firehouses or EMS stations.

B) Telephones located within a civilian residence or business.

C) Battalion or Division cell phones

D) These services may be accessed to provide language interpretation services during routine services to the public only.

Answer 61

D) These services may be accessed to provide language interpretation services during routine services to the public only.

(AUC 343, 3.1)

• These services provide interpretation services during routine AND
  EMERGENCY situations.

Question 62

Language Identification Cards have been issued to all units to be carried on the apparatus. When interacting with a civilian, is a member encounters a language barrier, the member shall: Please choose the incorrect procedure from the list below?

A) Use the Language Identification Card to help identify the language. The Language ID Card lists the languages most frequently encountered in NYC.

B) Show your members the language list.

C) A Language Line representative will be able to assist in pinpointing the language is it not possible to identify the specific language spoken by the civilian.

D) Contact the Language Line Service via telephone.

E) Language Line interpretation services shall be documented on the official Fire Report or PCR.

Answer 62

B) Show your members the language list (INCORRECT)

(AUC 343, 4.1)

• Show the CIVILIAN the language list.

Question 63

You have just arrived as the 1st due ladder officer at the scene of a box truck that has crashed into the superstructure of the 59th street bridge, it should be noted that there is a heavy fire condition coming from the truck. There are no other units on scene, however you quickly realize that you should utilize the First Responders Bridge Manual Field Guide (green book) in order to identify any affected structural members. You would also know that you should transmit an incident assessment report to the Dispatcher using the sizeup section of the Field Guide. The report should include all of the following except which?

A) What has occurred

B) The life hazard

C) The magnitude and location of damage to the truck.

D) Firefighters actions

E) If the bridge is secured

Answer 63

C) The magnitude and location of damage to the truck. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 344, 1.4)

• Damage to BRIDGE (not truck)

“FOLDS”

F - FF actions
O - what has OCCURED
L - Life Hazard
D - Damage to BRIDGE
S - If bridge is SECURED

Question 64

Who will determine whether to implement rescue, evacuation or defensive tactics at an incident where a truck has crashed into the superstructure of the 59th street bridge with a heavy fire condition coming from the truck?

A) 1st due BC

B) Deputy Chief

C) Command Chief

D) None of the above

Answer 64

C) Command Chief

AUC 344 , 1.5

Question 65

Please choose an incorrect pre-incident guideline procedure from the list below.

A) Pre-Incident Guidelines shall be prepared by the administrative company and emailed to the administrative Battalion for verification and approval as a candidate for a Pre-Incident Guideline.

B) A regularly assigned Battalion Chief shall accompany the administrative company to the site in question for review prior to approval.

C) The on site visit by the administrative Battalion and company shall be made during a time that does not interfere with regularly scheduled BISP periods. These visits cannot take place during daily drill periods or MUD.

D) Any building which has a Pre-Incident Guideline must be included in the CIDS program. The FD designation PG must be included at the beginning of the transmitted data section.

Answer 65

C) The on site visit by the administrative Battalion and company shall be made during a time that does not interfere with regularly scheduled BISP periods. These visits cannot take place during daily drill periods or MUD. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 345, 2 & 3.1)

• Visits CAN take place during MUD and daily drill periods.

Question 66

You are a company commander of a ladder company and you want to schedule your unit for additional training. You have some local infrastructure in your district that is very unique and you want to perform some additional drills at this location while you remain in service, you would know that you need to follow which procedure(s) below?

A) The unit or individual initiating the drill request shall complete and forward a Request for Training Form (TR-1), available on the Intranet, through the chain of command.

B) Once approved through the chain of command, the Borough Command shall email the Scheduling Unit at the Bureau of Training to ensure there are no scheduling conflicts with units involved in the drill.

C) Upon confirmation that no scheduling conflicts exist, the Borough Command shall review and forward the request to the Planning Unit. Final approval shall be granted by the Bureau of Operations.

D) The Scheduling Unit shall be contacted for any scheduling conflicts or variations to drill schedules.

E) None of the above

Answer 66

E) None of the above

(AUC 347, 1 & 2)

• Choices A - E (ONLY IF YOU ARE O.O.S.)

Question 67

When a designated backup unit is staffed with one school trained chauffeur and one company trained chauffeur and is assigned to pick up a special units second piece, they shall be guided by the following: Which is the most correct item from the list below?

A) The company trained chauffeur shall drive the assigned apparatus accompanied by the officer.

B) The school trained chauffeur shall drive the second piece accompanied by another firefighter.

C) The assigned apparatus and the second piece shall travel as a convoy.

D) All of the above

Answer 67

D) All of the above

AUC 348, 3.4

Question 68

If a chauffeur is granted leave after the start of the tour, the officer on duty shall: Please choose the most correct answer.

1. Notify the administrative BC
2. The unit shall remain in service only with a school trained chauffeur
   from the quarters the member was working in when the leave was
   granted.
3. If a school trained chauffeur is required, the BC shall detail a school
   trained chauffeur from any unit within the battalion to cover the
   vacancy.
4. If no school trained chauffeur is available from within the battalion,
   DSCO shall be notified to detail a school trained chauffeur into the
   unit to cover the vacancy.
5. If no school trained chauffeur is available citywide, the unit will be
   placed O.O.S.

A) 1,3,4,5 B) 2,3,4,5 C) 1,2,3,4 D) 1,3,4

Answer 68

D) 1,3,4 (choices 2 & 5 are incorrect)

(AUC 348, 4)

2 - The unit shall remain in service with a school trained chauffeur OR
COMPANY TRAINED CHAUFFEUR from the quarters the member
was working in when the leave was granted.

5 - If no school trained chauffeur is available citywide, THE UNIT WILL
REMAIN IN SERVICE WITH A COMPANY TRAINED CHAUFFEUR.

Question 69

Please choose an incorrect safety item from the list below in regards to positive pressure fans (PPF)?

A) The PPF shall never be transported while in operation.

B) PPFs should be lifted by two members whenever the fans need to come off the ground (e.g. on and off apparatus, up stairs)

C) Fans shall never be refueled inside a structure, unless absolutely necessary.

D) Fans should be inspected and started daily at the beginning of the 9x6 tour. Weekly at MUD, fans shall be started and allowed to run at full RPM for 5 minutes.

E) When running fans at an incident, exhaust hoses must always be attached to the operating fan in order to limit and control the introduction of CO inside the structure.

Answer 69

C) Fans shall never be refueled inside a structure, unless absolutely necessary. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 349, 11)

• Fans are NEVER refueled inside PERIOD.

Question 70

Negative pressurization is the process of creating a lower pressure within a structure utilizing a ladder company’s electric box fan. Please choose the correct procedure from the list below when conducting this type of operation.

A) The fan shall be operated in supply mode.

B) A fresh air exhaust shall be established opposite the operating fan

C) To maximize the efficiency of this operation, the box fan should be low in a window or doorway.

D) Salvage tarps should be used to create a seal around the operating fan, allowing the exhaust fan to create an area of positive pressure.

E) An alternate method, when tarps are not available or the box fan can not be hung, is to position the fan inside the contaminated are facing the exhaust opening 6 to 8 feet back and tilted up at an angle of approximately 30 degrees.

Answer 70

E) An alternate method, when tarps are not available or the box fan can not be hung, is to position the fan inside the contaminated are facing the exhaust opening 6 to 8 feet back and tilted up at an angle of approximately 30 degrees.

(AUC 349, 10)

A - Fan should be operated in EXHAUST mode

B - A fresh air INLET shall be established opposite the operating fan

C - Box fan should be placed AS HIGH AS POSSIBLE in window/door

D - Tarp seal will allow fan to create an area of NEGATIVE pressure

Question 71

You are working as an officer in a ventilation support unit when you are special called to a large commercial fire. Upon your arrival the IC orders you to use your positive pressure fans (PPFs) to mechanically ventilate the one story commercial building using positive pressure. You would know to follow which procedure(s) below? (More than 1 correct)

A) The higher the exhaust opening the better. Having the exhaust opening close to and as high up as possible to the seat of the fire minimizes the smoke damage to the structure.

B) The fans have to make a seal at the inlet. The fan will be set 4 to 6 feet back, as if they were being used to pressurize a stairwell.

C) The angle of the fan shroud will remain at 80 degrees.

D) A rule of thumb is that the exhaust opening should be double the size of the opening where the PPF is placed.

E) Contrary to stairwell pressurization (creating pressure), the objective of mechanical ventilation is to move as much air as possible into the structure or area.

F) All of the above

Answer 71

B) The fans have to make a seal at the inlet. The fan will be set 4 to 6 feet back, as if they were being used to pressurize a stairwell. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 349, 9)

• Fan will be set FARTHER BACK THAN 4-6 FEET (Mechanical Vent.)

Question 72

The sequential ventilation process utilizing positive pressure fans can be implemented when a building has high levels of CO or other contaminants. The process will begin on the ground floor or cellar and continue on each floor until the CO is reduced to acceptable levels. If CO levels are in the ______ PPM range, gasoline powered PPFs will not significantly reduce those levels due to the CO emissions produced by the fans.

A) 0 - 60

B) 9 - 99

C) 100 or greater

D) None of the above, the fans will always reduce CO levels.

Answer 72

A) 0 - 60

AUC 349, 8.2

Question 73

The unit assigned to respond with the positive pressure fans (PPF) to an incident location shall be designated the Ventilation Support Group. Which choice represents the correct terminology for the officers and members of this unit?

A) The officer shall be designated as the “Vent Group Leader”

B) The members assigned to operate the fans shall be designated “Vent Group Lobby Unit”

C) The member assigned the Roof shall be “Vent Group Roof”

D) All of the above

E) B & C Only

Answer 73

E) B & C Only

(AUC 349, 6.1)

A - Officer is “Vent Group SUPERVISOR”

• Note: 10-76 Officer is “Lobby Control Unit Leader”

Question 74

You are working in Ladder 500 and have been assigned as the Vent Support Unit on a 10-77, upon arrival you see a 10 story High Rise Fire Proof Multiple Dwelling and see visible fire on floor number 7. You report to the IC who orders you to pressurize the attack stairwell and confirms that the fire floor is floor number 7. You decide that two fans will be needed for this building and the second fan must be placed on floor number 4, even though no additional pressures are required to maintain the stairwell free of smoke up to floor number 10. Do you agree or disagree with your decision on the number of fans and where the second fan needs to be placed at this operation?

A) Agree

B) Disagree

Answer 74

B) Disagree

(AUC 349, 7.3)

• 1 Fan is good for a 10 story building
• For a 40 story building you need TWO fans
• Above the 10th floor, second fan is placed 3 floors below the fire.

Question 75

The purpose of applying water streams to exposed electrical components at Con Ed facilities is to prevent collateral damage and further loss of power to other areas of the city. In regards tothe application of water in these situations, it would be incorrect to state which methods are permitted when placed at the appropriate, safe distances away?

A) Handlines

B) Tower Ladders

C) Engine apparatus deck gun

D) Ladder Pipe

E) Portable Akron New Yorker Multiversal

Answer 75

A) Handlines (INCORRECT)

(AUC 338, 2.1)

• You DO NOT want to apply water to something you are holding.

Question 76

All of the following nozzles / tips are permitted for these operations when placed at the appropriate, safe distances away, except?

A) Akron Turbomaster Nozzle

B) Aquastream nozzle

C) Solid stream tips

D) Fog tips

Answer 76

B) Aquastream nozzle

(AUC 338, 5.5)

• The Aquastream Master Stream Nozzle carried by all Aerial Ladder
  and Engine Companies is factory pre-set to a fog stream pattern of
  130 degrees. This nozzle shall not be used because it does not
  provide enough stream penetration to allow for maintaining safe
  operating distances.

Question 77

The Tower Ladder is the primary means of applying water to energized electrical components and requires the hydrant being used to be flushed thoroughly. Then the TL waterway should be flushed away from the operation for several minutes until the water runs clear. Regarding the operation of the basket stream, it would be incorrect to state that?

A) The apparatus should be connected to the facilities station ground grid prior to applying water.

B) All members must be removed from the apparatus before applying the stream to the target.

C) If a stream is not reaching its intended target, shut down the water supply at the pumper, and adjust the basket and/or stream pattern.

D) Only fresh water with or without foam shall be used. Do not use salt water.

Answer 77

D) Only fresh water with or without foam shall be used. Do not use salt water. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 338, 5.4.5)

• Use fresh water ONLY.
  DO NOT use foam, salt or any additives.

Question 78

The minimum safe operating distance for applying water on energized or de-energized electrical components of 138kV is ______ feet for 30 degree or greater fog streams, and ______ feet for any stream less than 30 degrees?

A) 15, 25

B) 15, 75

C) 25, 75

D) 25, 125

Answer 78

B) 15, 75

(AUC 338, 5.3)

• 25,125 for 345kV

Question 79

The minimum safe operating distance for applying water on energized or de-energized electrical components of 345kV is ______ feet for 30 degree or greater fog streams, and ______ feet for any stream less than 30 degrees?

A) 15, 25

B) 15, 75

C) 25, 75

D) 25,125

Answer 79

D) 25,125

(AUC 338, 5.3)

• 15, 75 for 138kV

Question 80

Capacitor banks containing exposed electrical conductors are also found at substations in locked cages. Regarding operations at capacitor bank incidents, it would be least accurate to state that?

A) The exposed electrical contacts pose an electrocution hazard.

B) Once power is removed, capacitors no longer contain a deadly electrical charge.

C) Treat all capacitor fires as PCB incidents.

D) Small fires can be extinguished with dry chemical.

Answer 80

B) Once power is removed, capacitors no longer contain a deadly electrical charge. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 338 ADD 2)

• Once power is removed, capacitors STILL RETAIN POSSIBLE
  DEADLY CHARGE.

Question 81

If a Battery Room fire were to occur at a Con Ed substation, which of the following extinguishing agents may be utilized?

A) Water or Carbon Dioxide

B) Water or Dry Chem

C) Dry Chem or Carbon Dioxide

D) Only Dry Chem can be used

Answer 81

B) Water or Dry Chem

(AUC 338, ADD 2, 5.5)

• Use water or dry chemical FROM SAFE DISTANCE.
• Cross reference with Photovoltaic systems = can use Dry Chem or
  Foam

Question 82

Exposed 3” electrical bus that runs overhead is a major hazard found at Con Ed substations as high voltages are carried on the outside skin of the bus. Members arriving at Con Ed or other independent substations should know that when raising aerial ladders or tower ladder buckets, they should maintain a safe clearance of?

A) 10’ from 138kV exposed bus, an 18’ from 345kV exposed bus.

B) 18’ from 138kV exposed bus, and 18’ from 345kV exposed bus.

C) 10’ from the substations exterior fence line where 138kV exposed bus exists, and 18’ from the substations exterior fence line where 345kV exposed bus exists.

D) 18’ from the substations exterior fence line where either 138kV or 345kV exposed bus exists.

Answer 82

D) 18’ from the substations exterior fence line where either 138kV or 345kV exposed bus exists.

(AUC 338, ADD 2, section 6)

• 15,000V to 38,000V = 10 feet

Question 83

Sulfur Hexafluoride Gas (SF6 Gas) is a colorless, odorless gas that can present an asphyxiation hazard in confined areas and below grade spaces. It is used to insulate and extinguish arcs in electrical equipment and is _______ times heavier than air?

A) 3

B) 4

C) 5

D) 6

Answer 83

C) 5

(AUC 338, ADD 2, 3.5)

• Sulfur Hexafluoride Gas (SF6 Gas) is FIVE times heavier than air.

Question 84

First alarm units arriving at a major substation transformer fire would be correct if they took which of the following actions?

A) Responded to the designated muster site, retrieved pertinent hazard information from the lockbox located outside the substation, and met with the Con Ed white hat.

B) Stretched a 3 1/2” line to the sprinkler siamese that protects the transformers and immediately charged the system.

C) Avoided bringing metal tools into the substation, and did not allow any tools to project above their shoulders.

D) Did not place any aerial ladder or any part of a TL over any wall or fence. Portable ladders, as necessary, were placed only against solid, concrete walls.

Answer 84

C) Avoided bringing metal tools into the substation, and did not allow any tools to project above their shoulders.

(AUC 338, ADD 2, 4.1)

A - Con Ed RETRIEVES PERTINENT HAZARD INFO

B - Stretch line but DO NOT charge sprinkler until ordered.

C - Correct

D - DO NOT place portable ladders against fences or walls.

Question 85

When utilizing Positive Pressure Ventilation (PPV) to pressurize the attack stairway at a fire operation, what is the optimum placement of the Positive Pressure Fan (PPF)?

A) 6-8 feet from the attack stairway door on the ground floor at an angle tilt of 75 degrees.

B) 2-3 feet from the attack stairway door on the ground floor at an angle tilt of 60 degrees.

C) 4-6 feet from the attack stairway door on the ground floor at an angle tilt of 80 degrees.

D) 2-3 feet from the attack stairway door on the ground floor at an angle tilt of 80 degrees

Answer 85

C) 4-6 feet from the attack stairway door on the ground floor at an angle tilt of 80 degrees.

(AUC 349 7.2)

Question 86

Lt. Griffin was working a day tour in E-305. E-305/L-151 respond to a car accident on Queens Blvd. where 4 people are injured and transported to local hospitals by EMS. A news crew from Fox 5 arrives at the scene and begins to ask Lt. Griffin questions. He would be correct to provide all of the following information except which?

A) There was a motor vehicle accident.

B) There was 4 patients with injuries

C) All 4 patients are in stable condition

D) 2 patients were transported to Jamaica Hospital and 2 to Elmhurst Hospital.

Answer 86

C) All 4 patients are in stable condition. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 332 3.4.3 A)

• Members SHALL NOT discuss the condition of the patient, care
  provided or other confidentialities.

Question 87

Sequential Ventilation using Positive Pressure Fans (PPF) can be implemented to vent the products of combustion through the attack stairwell. Which statement is incorrect concerning this sequential ventilation?

A) Bulkhead door should be opened in the attack stairwell with all other doors in the attack stair closed, except the door to the fire floor.

B) Fan should be placed at base of evacuation stairwell with the evacuation stairwell bulkhead remaining closed.

C) When venting multiple floors, start at the lowest point and work your way up floor by floor.

D) Avoid cross vent by opening both attack and evacuation stairwell doors on the fire floor.

Answer 87

D) Avoid cross vent by opening both attack and evacuation stairwell doors on the fire floor. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 349 8.1)

• This is the proper procedure, however this CREATES CROSS
  VENTILATION and removes smoke via the attack stair.

Question 88

Which of the following would not be effective when fighting a battery room fire in an electrical transmission and distribution station?

A) Dry chemical

B) Water

C) Carbon Dioxide

D) All of the above

Answer 88

C) Carbon Dioxide

(AUC 338 ADD 2 5.5)

• Carbon Dioxide SHALL NOT BE USED as an extinguishing agent at
  battery room fires. The plastic battery shell may crack when cold CO2
  gas is applied to the fire causing sulfuric acid to spill out and be
  vaporized by the heat.
• Dry Chem extinguishers will work here as will water application from a
  safe distance.

Question 89

Lt. Dykstra is working in E-316 when Battalion 49 stops by for a drill on crime scene operations. Lt. Dykstra was correct in all but which one of the following statements?

A) Take a single path of travel entering and leaving the crime scene and have all required personnel use the same path when possible.

B) Cover all corpses with a sheet, if the body will not be immediately removed.

C) Do not adjust the volume on radios or television in the crime scene area.

D) No obviously dead victim of a hanging should be cut down.

Answer 89

B) Cover all corpses with a sheet, if the body will not be immediately removed. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 317 5.12)

• REFRAIN FROM covering any corpses except in public view.

Question 90

While operating on subway tracks, a member should be directed to halt train traffic with a light. This member should warn train operators by holding a light chest high and move it in a horizontal motion of at least ______ feet.

A) 2

B) 3

C) 4

D) 5

Answer 90

C) 4

AUC 207, 7.4

Question 91

The members of L-151 are drilling on the JFK AirTrain System. Which would be a correct statement regarding AirTrain cars?

A) There are no engineers or supervision on board the air trains.

B) Air trains are comprised of 5 cars. Each carry up to 200 passengers.

C) Air trains have side, front and rear exit doors.

D) If the train is stopped outside a station and the emergency exit door release is pulled, all side exit doors will open.

Answer 91

A) There are no engineers or supervision on board the air trains.

(AUC 207 ADD 12, 3)

B - 1 to 4 cars per AirTrain, each car can carry up to 200 passengers.

C - There are NO front or rear exit doors

D - The doors WILL NOT open unless the release handle is pulled on
the side of the train where a walkway is located.

Question 92

L-153 is responding to a reported fire in a PD, with an acting Lt. and 4 FFs on the apparatus. L-153 would be correct to notify the dispatcher that they are responding?

A) 10-14

B) “Understaffed”

C) “With 4 FFs”

D) “Undermanned”

Answer 92

C) “With 4 FFs”

AUC 287 ADD 1, 2.2

Question 93

All special assignment officers (SA), prior to the completion of their tour, shall fill out the special assignment officers activity report (BP-82) and fax it to?

A) Their assigned Division

B) Their assigned Battalion

C) The officer assignment desk

D) Fire Department Operations Center

Answer 93

A) Their assigned Division

AUC 82, 4.1

Question 94

Prior to attending chauffeur training school, each member must be given at least _____ hours of driver training, not including emergency responses.

A) 3

B) 5

C) 10

D) 24

Answer 94

B) 5

AUC 254 ADD 1, 3

Question 95

During a 9x6 tour, Ladder 120 who is quartered in Bklyn, has been relocated to L-135 in Queens. The officer of Ladder 120 should notify the _______ dispatcher at ________ hours that relief will or may be required.

A) Queens, 1700

B) Brooklyn, 1700

C) Queens, 1800

D) Brooklyn, 1800

Answer 95

A) Queens, 1700

(AUC 217, 4.1)

• Officers on duty with units relocated to another quarters shall (at 0800
  or 1700) notify the dispatcher in the borough in which they are
  relocated, that relief will or may be required.

Question 96

It’s July 4th and you have been assigned to man a reserve Engine company during the Macy’s fireworks show. You will be the Lieutenant of reserve Engine 525 and will respond from the quarters of E-34. When communicating with the Borough Dispatcher, you would be correct to identify your unit as which of the following?

A) “Engine 525 acting Engine 34”

B) “Engine 525”

C) “Reserve Engine 525”

D) “Engine 34 2nd Section”

Answer 96

A) “Engine 525 acting Engine 34”

(AUC 259 5.2)

• Reserve apparatus shall be assigned as if it were a relocator in the
  quarters where needed.

Question 97

Units scheduled for training on a day tour must leave quarters for the training location by what time?

A) 0900 hours

B) 0915 hours

C) 0930 hours

D) 0945 hours

Answer 97

B) 0915 hours

(AUC 287 8.1.2)

• 0915 on day tour
  1815 on night tour

Question 98

Electrical transmission and distribution sub-stations pose numerous hazards to FFs responding to incidents at these locations. Upon arrival units should take certain actions. Which of the following actions should not be taken by a unit operating at a substation without the Con Ed white hat on the scene?

A) Units set up a handline to protect exposed buildings around the sub-station.

B) Units did not direct water into the substation or put water onto electrical equipment unless requested by the Con Ed white hat.

C) A 3 1/2” supply line was stretched and charged to the sprinkler siamese.

D) Units set up a large caliber stream to protect exposed buildings around the sub-station.

Answer 98

C) A 3 1/2” supply line was stretched and charged to the sprinkler siamese. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 338 ADD 2, 5.2)

• 3 1/2” supply line should be stretched to sprinkler siamese but NOT
  CHARGED.

Question 99

Lt. Strawberry is drilling with his members on sound powered telephones and dry standpipe systems in the NYC subway stations. Which statement is correct?

A) Standpipe outlets at the platform level will be located in a locked stainless steel cabinet, which can be opened with a 1620 key.

B) Standpipe outlet will have a 1/2” hose connected to it, which must be removed prior to FDNY operations.

C) The sound powered telephone jacks will be located in a secure metal box that can be opened with subway emergency exit key.

D) During semi-annual subway emergency inspection period, administrative units shall inspect both the dry standpipe systems and sound powered telephones.

Answer 99

D) During semi-annual subway emergency inspection period, administrative units shall inspect both the dry standpipe systems and sound powered telephones.

(AUC 207 ADD 10, 5.1)

A - Standpipe outlets in stainless steel cabinet = Subway key

B - Standpipe outlets in subway DO NOT contain hose.

C - Sound powered telephone in secure metal box = 1620 key

Question 100

While operating as part of a rapid response task force in Queens after Hurricane Irene, Lt. Treelimb, operating as task force leader (TFL) was correct in all but which action in regard to communications with the IC post during this event?

A) As the primary method of communication, he utilized the department administrative radio system (DARS)

B) He utilized the 800 mhz radio when the DARS radio failed.

C) At anytime, he knew he could utilize a cell phone for direct communication with the ICP.

D) He limited his communication via Dept. Radio to emergency transmissions or if established communications failed.

Answer 100

C) At anytime, he knew he could utilize a cell phone for direct communication with the ICP. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 352 4.1)

• ONLY use cell phone IF DARS & 800 MHZ Systems are O.O.S.

Question 101

Lt. Hernandez and the members of his Ladder company are reviewing chain saw operations. Which statement by Lt. Hernandez was correct?

A) Members are not to attempt to remove a tree which has fallen on a vehicle unless such action is required to perform rescue, administer first aid, or establish an emergency lane.

B) Wood is a poor conductor of electricity, therefore trees leaning against power lines have a small chance of being charged.

C) Chainsaws shall not be operated from portable, Aerial, or TLs.

D) Units should always remove a tree that is blocking any exit.

Answer 101

A) Members are not to attempt to remove a tree which has fallen on a vehicle unless such action is required to perform rescue, administer first aid, or establish an emergency lane.

(AUC 301 3.4)

B - Wood is a poor conductor of electricity, however trees CAN
CONDUCT ELECTRICITY. No cutting/moving is to be attempted
until the utility company certifies that power has been removed.

C - Chainsaws MAY BE operated from TL if safety belt is worn and feet
are within basket. Saw is started in the basket and held outside the
basket until shut off.

D - Department procedures on private property are limited to assisting
trapped or injured persons and preventing unauthorized entry to
danger zone. Entrances MAY BE cleared depending on existence of
other adequate means of exit and complexity.

Question 102

While drilling with members from his company on subway operations, a lieutenant made the following statements regarding the blue light. In which choice was he incorrect.

A) Near the blue light there is a power removal box, a telephone, and a fire extinguisher.

B) If we find people on the tracks and are forced to remove power, it is imperative that we contact the desk superintendent via the telephone near the blue light.

C) To operate the phone, depress the button on the handset while dialing the number, then release button to communicate with the desk superintendent.

D) Dial the 4 digit subway control center number listed on the inside of the door cover.

Answer 102

C) To operate the phone, depress the button on the handset while dialing the number, then release button to communicate with the desk superintendent. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 207 8.1)

• Must keep button depressed AT ALL TIMES. Releasing button will
  terminate the call.

Question 103

Your ladder company is operating at the scene of an airplane crash in Brooklyn. You have been ordered by the IC to search for the flight data recorder. You should know that, as a general rule, flight data and voice recorders are located in the rear of the fuselage and can be all but which of the following colors?

A) Square and black

B) Spherical and bright yellow

C) Rectangular and red

D) Rectangular and international orange

Answer 103

A) Square and black (INCORRECT)

AUC 325 6.2.3

Question 104

Which of the following incidents would require a direct notification to the Inspector General’s Office?

A) A theft of city property by a firefighter

B) A firefighter found drinking alcohol while on duty

C) An arrest of a firefighter

D) Misuse of department time by a firefighter

Answer 104

A) A theft of city property by a firefighter

(AUC 268 A 2.14)

A - Theft by FF (Notify IG)

B - FF drinking alcohol (immediate notification to BITS)

C - An arrest of a FF (immediate notification to BITS)

D - Misuse of dept. time (written notification to BITS)

Question 105

While working a 9x6 tour in E-216, you responded to the following runs in which the Battalion Chief did not arrive. You would be required to complete an incident report for all but which one of the following responses?

A) 10-33 Code 1

B) 10-38 Code 3

C) 10-34 Code 3

D) 10-38 Code 4

Answer 105

A) 10-33 Code 1

AUC 210 1, 2

Question 106

On a 6x9 tour in E-273, a civilian knocks on the firehouse door and states she has a 4 day old baby that she does not wish to care for and asks you to take care of it. As the officer in charge, you would be correct to take all but which of the following choices?

A) Place your unit 10-99 and request an ambulance.

B) Inquire if the infant has any medical problems and if it has seen a physician.

C) Make an entry in the company journal and complete an unusual occurrence report.

D) File a report of suspected child abuse of maltreatment.

Answer 106

D) File a report of suspected child abuse of maltreatment. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 306 ADD 2)

• The AMBULANCE crew is responsible for filing the mandated report.

Question 107

Riots have broken out on the streets of Brooklyn and your company has been assigned to respond to alarms in a fire control team (FCT). When responding to an alarm as a convoy, you should expect,mid following the standard formation, the FCT units to respond in what order?

A) Chief, Engine, Ladder, Engine, Police

B) Police, Engine, Engine, Ladder, Chief

C) Engine, Ladder, Chief, Engine, Police

D) Police, Chief, Engine,Ladder, Engine

Answer 107

A) Chief, Engine, Ladder, Engine, Police

(AUC 138 7.2.5)

“CELEP”

Question 108

L-40 has arrived 1st at a reported rubbish fire on the underground subway tracks at a local subway station. The members of L-40 set up a HT relay. Which member was positioned in the wrong location?

A) LCC positioned at the token clerk booth, since it is 40 yards from the bottom of the subway entrance stair.

B) The OV positioned at the foot of the stairs leading to the platform, since it was within 50 yards of the LCC.

C) Roof positioned approximately 100 yards from the stairs on the platform for relay.

D) The Engine officer positioned approximately 100 yards (line of sight) from the Roof FF on the platform.

Answer 108

C) Roof positioned approximately 100 yards from the stairs on the platform for relay. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 207 4.1)

• Roof FF should be approximately FIFTY (50) YARDS from the stairs on
  the platform for relay.

Question 109

Battalion Chief Bro is supervising a drill on photovoltaic systems (PV). He is well versed in these systems and makes a number of statements. Which one is incorrect?

A) FFs must avoid walking on modules since this can expose them to electric shock.

B) FFs should never cut any wires associated with a PV array.

C) Shutting off power at the main electrical panel does not ensure that all power to the building has been removed.

D) The only way to remove power completely is to open the PV disconnect (isolation) switches which can be located on the roof next to the main electrical panel, adjacent to the inverter, nearby the charge controller, in the battery bank area, and outside the building.

Answer 109

D) The only way to remove power completely is to open the PV disconnect (isolation) switches which can be located on the roof next to the main electrical panel, adjacent to the inverter, nearby the charge controller, in the battery bank area, and outside the building. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 351 6.1)

• This DOES NOT ensure all power to the building has been removed.

Question 110

It is 0300 hours and the department mechanic has just determined that your apparatus is not safe to drive. The mechanic has decided to place your company O.O.S. until the arrival of your spare apparatus. As the officer of this unit, you must notify all but which of the following?

A) Administrative BC

B) Administrative DC

C) Dispatcher

D) The Fire Department Operations Center

Answer 110

D) The Fire Department Operations Center (INCORRECT)

AUC 264 3.2

Question 111

Your Engine company has just returned from the 5th false alarm of the night. After backing into quarters, you notice a broken window on the side of the firehouse as well as numerous items missing. You then see a local neighborhood teenager riding his bike across the street, carrying a set of Irons. You would be correct to make all of the following notifications except which choice?

A) The administrative Battalion & Division

B) NYPD

C) The Inspector General

D) Bureau of Fire Investigation

Answer 111

C) The Inspector General (INCORRECT)

(AUC 300 3.1.3)

• Only notify IG for the theft in which a DEPARTMENT EMPLOYEE is
  the suspect.
• Choice D - Notify Bureau of Fire Investigation because a false alarm
  was involved.

Question 112

While working a 9x6 tour in Ladder 120, you arrive 1st at the scene of a Con Ed worker trapped in an electrical vault. You quickly review all you know about operations in these vaults. You were correct in all but which one of your thoughts?

A) The greatest hazard is the amount of electricity that is contained in these vaults.

B) The possibility of asbestos may be present inside the vault.

C) A Rescue company officer or the Safety Battalion will make the determination that the vault is safe for entry by FD personnel.

D) The use of personal protective clothing and SCBA should be stressed, even if a light smoke condition exists.

Answer 112

C) A Rescue company officer or the Safety Battalion will make the determination that the vault is safe for entry by FD personnel. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 180 2.4)

• Con Ed will make the determination that vault is safe for entry by FD.

Question 113

Phase “A” of winter operations has just been implemented. You should ensure that all but which of the following equipment is assembled in readiness and placed on your company’s rig?

A) At least 6 lengths of 1 3/4” hose rolled or folded.

B) 2 shovels

C) Containers of salt and/or sand

D) Specialized hydrant connection set up as determined by individual commanding officers.

Answer 113

A) At least 6 lengths of 1 3/4” hose rolled or folded. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 200 3.3.3 D)

• 6 lengths of 2 1/2” hose
  2 shovels
  Containers of salt/sand
  Specialized hydrant connections

Question 114

A lieutenant working in Manhattan was conducting a drill after a recent manhole fire. He made several correct statements, however was incorrect in which point?

A) If an odor of natural gas is encountered at these incidents, the dispatcher must be notified to request the immediate response of a utility’s gas crew in addition to their electric crew.

B) The area shall be cordoned off to vehicular and pedestrian traffic. All apparatus shall be clear of the area in a safe location. Area shall be tied off. This marks the danger area for civilians only.

C) When operating at manhole emergencies, the location of traffic control boxes must be taken into consideration when deciding the “area of danger”

D) Precautionary lines shall be stretched as necessary. Units should not operate into manholes unless requested by Con Ed on scene.

Answer 114

B) The area shall be cordoned off to vehicular and pedestrian traffic. All apparatus shall be clear of the area in a safe location. Area shall be tied off. This marks the danger area for civilians only. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 180 2.1)

• This is the danger area for CIVILIANS AND FD PERSONNEL.

Choice D - If requested to place water into a manhole, DO NOT direct
the stream directly into the hole. Let water flow/pour into the
manhole. Use fog nozzle to reduce or prevent any shock
hazard.

Question 115

Several situations are listed in AUC 268 in which notification to Bureau of Investigation and Trials (BITS) or the inspector general must be made. Of the following choices, which notification is made incorrectly by Lt. Smith?

A) Telephone notification directly to IG for any allegation concerning thefts by employees during a fire.

B) Telephone notification to BITS for arrest of department employees.

C) Telephone notification to BITS for an on duty incident involving possession or use of drugs or alcohol.

D) Written notification to BITS for misuse or misappropriation of department time.

Answer 115

A) Telephone notification directly to IG for any allegation concerning thefts by employees during a fire. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 268)

• This notification will be made by the INCIDENT COMMANDER at the
  scene via cellular phone to the FIRE OPERATIONS CENTER. The FOC
  will relay the information to the Inspector General’s office.
• Theft by employee “at a fire” implies that the Chief is on scene. The
  incident commander could be a Lieutenant or Captain on different
  runs such as CO, EMS etc.

Question 116

The company officer has many operational responsibilities regarding staffing guidelines after the start of the tout. Which officer did not operate properly as per AUC 287 Add 1?

A) E-266 staffed with 4 FFs acknowledged response via 10-14 button on MDT when responding to a reported fire.

B) L-134 responding to an alarm and staffed with 4 FFs, transmitted to the dispatcher “We are responding with 4 FFs”

C) L-121 responding to an alarm staffed with 3 FFs transmitted to the dispatcher “We are responding understaffed” then stated the positions missing.

D) Units staffed with an officer and a minimum of 2 FFs while awaiting ordered detail(s), shall respond to all alarms.

E) Units staffed with only an officer and a chauffeur shall be placed O.O.S. However, this unit, while still staffed with only a chauffeur and an officer shall respond to any verbal alarms received while in quarters. These members may be detailed to fill vacancies occurring during the remainder of tour.

Answer 116

C) L-121 responding to an alarm staffed with 3 FFs transmitted to the dispatcher “We are responding understaffed” then stated the positions missing. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 287 ADD 1, 2.3)

• Companies responding to alarms and staffed with less than 4 FFs
  shall transmit to the dispatcher “we are responding understaffed” and
  state THE NUMBER OF FIREFIGHTERS RESPONDING.

Question 117

Lt. Coyle was conducting a drill on cellular phone sites with his members. The Lt. Brought up several key points while discussing tactics and procedures regarding cell phone sites. In which statement was he mistaken?

A) Insure TL response on the initial alarm for a reported fire in these buildings.

B) Restrict the use of water and metal tools at these operations.

C) Special call an additional Engine and Ladder for a confirmed fire in these buildings. These additional units could be used for power removal, roof operations and line placement.

D) Avoid cutting the roof opening too close to installation equipment, coaxial cables or support system.

Answer 117

C) Special call an additional Engine and Ladder for a confirmed fire in these buildings. These additional units could be used for power removal, roof operations and line placement. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 331 6.3)

• Special call an Engine and Ladder only if the CELL SITE
  INSTALLATION ITSELF IS INVOLVED.

Question 118

The members of High Rise Unit E-39 were reviewing their equipment. The FFs were correct in all of their statements regarding positive pressure fans (PPF) and their placement with which exception?

A) The optimum placement of the PPF is 6 to 8 feet from the attack stairwell door on the ground floor and directly facing the door to the stairwell at an angle tilt of 30 degrees.

B) The pressure delivered to the attack stairwell by the PPF will be great enough to allow for up to 3 stairwell doors to be open and pressurization to remain effective.

C) One fan can provide the proper pressure in the stairwell up to 10 stories depending on conditions. 2 fans will pressurize a 40 story building when properly positioned.

D) If fire floor is above 10th floor or additional pressures are required to maintain the stairway free of smoke, a second fan must be brought to 3 floors below the fire and set up.

Answer 118

A) The optimum placement of the PPF is 6 to 8 feet from the attack stairwell door on the ground floor and directly facing the door to the stairwell at an angle tilt of 30 degrees. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 349 7.2)

• This is the correct distance for NEGATIVE PRESSURIZATION.
• For the placement of positive pressure fans =
  FOUR (4) - SIX (6) FEET / ANGLE TILT OF EIGHTY (80) DEGREES

Question 119

Members of L-121 were discussing the installation of photovoltaic (solar panel) electrical systems in the new Arverne Housing Development in the Rockaways. L-121s FE firefighter was correct in all but which statement?

A) The opening / removal of skylights and scuttles as well as horizontal ventilation should be the prime focus of ladder company operations.

B) Firefighters must never cut any wires associated with a PV array.

C) The IC should delay overhaul for top floor fires until there is a confirmation that the PV system has been shutdown?

D) A foam line, utilized from a distance and set at a 30 degree spray pattern is recommended to prevent electric current from traveling upstream towards members operating.

Answer 119

D) A foam line, utilized from a distance and set at a 30 degree spray pattern is recommended to prevent electric current from traveling upstream towards members operating. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 351 6.4)

• Foam is an EXCELLENT conductor of electricity.

Question 120

A senior lieutenant, unfamiliar with proper labeling requirements for polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs) incidents made several incorrect statements during a discussion with a deputy chief in the 15th division. Which was the only statement the covering lieutenant made correctly?

A) M2 cars always operate in pairs, one “A” car (odd numbered car) having a pantograph is coupled to a “B” car (even numbered car) having no pantograph. Though there is only 1 pantograph for every 2 cars, there will be a PCB containing transformer in every car which will have attached to it the EPA approved label.

B) If “oil” is shown on the type of fluid column, the PCB level column will either be “0” indicating no PCBs, a number indicating the amount in PPM, or blank. If it is blank, assume equipment is a PCB transformer.

C) For NYC owned transformers classified as “non PCB” 0-49 PPM PCB, the DEP has authorized the placing of a decal with a blue background.

D) Storage of “PCB” items and “PCB” liquid allowed for up to a period not exceeding 30 days.

Answer 120

C) For NYC owned transformers classified as “non PCB” 0-49 PPM PCB, the DEP has authorized the placing of a decal with a blue background.

(AUC 266 ADD 3, 1.5.5)

A - Car “A” is EVEN & has pantograph (“A” car hAs a pantograph)
Car “B” is ODD & has NO pantograph

B - if PCB level column is blank, assume that it is “PCB
CONTAMINATED”

C - Correct

D - PCB Liquids (500 or greater PPM PCB) are NOT ALLOWED to be
stored in a temporary storage site. Only storage of PCB
CONTAMINATED LIQUIDS are allowed to be stored at a temporary
storage site.

Question 121

Lt. Smith attends a drill on the under River subway rail system in his units response area. The members are discussing the best way to remove passengers from a disabled train stuck in the tunnel. Removing passengers from the train to the bench wall, another train or the track bed can be accomplished with the EED (Emergency Evacuation Device). Where can the EED be located in the Under River subway rails?

A) Should be carried by all ladder units

B) Located in the middle of the tunnel equal distance from both ends.

C) Located at last car of every train that travels these tunnels.

D) Located at both ends of the tunnel at the base of the emergency exits.

Answer 121

D) Located at both ends of the tunnel at the base of the emergency exits.

(AUC 207 ADD 11)

• In underground subways (not under River) - EED is 50’ south of
  southbound platform .
• In elevated station - EED is at the area of the full time token booth.
• In under River rail systems - EED is located at both ends of tunnels at
  the base of the emergency exits

Question 122

Lt. Meyers is discussing the use of solar panels on buildings and their impact on firefighting with members during company drill. He would be correct to state all of the following except which statement?

A) Most photovoltaic systems are made primarily of plastic which is an excellent insulator.

B) Photovoltaic systems are able to produce electricity on cloudy days.

C) Residential systems are generally smaller and may contain fewer safety features than the larger commercial system.

D) The basic PV or solar cell produces only a small amount of power, usually 1 or 2 watts.

Answer 122

A) Most photovoltaic systems are made primarily of plastic which is an excellent insulator. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 351 2)

• Most PV systems are made of SILICON

Question 123

Caution and cooperation with the Con Edison white hat will enable units to safely mitigate emergencies and fires at Con Ed substations. In which choice below would members not be operating in accord with general precautions at Con Ed substations?

A) Members did not force entry into a substation and waited for a white hat.

B) Members raised the TL bucket while maintaining 18’ safe clearance horizontally from the substations exterior fence line and did not place booms or bucket against or over the wall or fence.

C) Members avoided brining metal tools into the substation and did not allow any tools to project above their waist.

D) Members did not bring wood or fiberglass hooks into the substation because they can conduct high voltages found in substations.

Answer 123

C) Members avoided brining metal tools into the substation and did not allow any tools to project above their waist. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 338 ADD 2)

• Avoid bringing metal tools and do not allow any any tools to project
  ABOVE YOUR SHOULDER.

Question 124

The department administrative radio system (DARS) is a relatively new communications tool within the FDNY. From the following, choose the incorrect statement regarding the DARS while operating as part of a rapid response vehicle task force?

A) DARS radios are 400 MHz, UHF hand held radios

B) Task forces operating in each Borough shall switch their DARS radio to the designated assigned frequency for that borough.

C) DARS radios may interfere with transmissions of normally assigned HTs and should not be operated in close proximity of each other.

D) The DARS radio is the primary means of communication between the ICP and sector/group supervisors or task force leader.

Answer 124

C) DARS radios may interfere with transmissions of normally assigned HTs and should not be operated in close proximity of each other. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 352 4.1)

• DARS radios DO NOT INTERFERE with transmission of normally
  assigned HTs.

Question 125

A company officer would not order a 1 3/4” hose stretched when the line is not compatible with fire conditions, as in all but which one of the following examples?

A) An advanced fire on arrival

B) A large volume of water is required to cool a superheated fire area.

C) When the officer cannot determine the size or extent of the fire or fire area.

D) A large body of fire present in a large compartmented area.

Answer 125

D) A large body of fire present in a large compartmented area. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 206, 2.1.2 B)

• Fire in an UNCOMPARTMENTED AREA.

Question 126

When discussing brush fires it is important to understand the terminology regarding brush fires and the weather conditions that can affect them. Which point below is incorrect?

A) Serious brush fires occur in the following weather conditions: Low humidity, winds in excess of 15 mph, little or no rain fall the preceding 3 or more days.

B) The head of the fire is the leading edge of the moving fire, while the rear is the side opposite the head.

C) Looking at the fire from the rear of the blackened area, the left side is exposure 4 and the right side is exposure 2.

D) Fingers are long thin strips of fire extending outward from the main blackened area.

Answer 126

C) Looking at the fire from the rear of the blackened area, the left side is exposure 4 and the right side is exposure 2. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 151, 3.2)

• From the rear of the blackened area the left side is the called the LEFT
  FLANK and the right side is called the RIGHT FLANK.

Question 127

From the types of Brush Fires that members may encounter in NYC, the one that is least likely to occur is indicated in which choice below?

A) Bog fire

B) Crown fire

C) Surface fire

D) All are equally as likely to occur

Answer 127

B) Crown fire

(AUC 151, 3.4)

• Crown fires are LEAST LIKELY, these are fires that jump from tree top to tree top. RARELY do these fires occur in NYC.
• Bog fires burn slow and deep and may burn for days.
• Surface fires burn grass, weeds trees and leaves on the ground. These are fast moving fires and are the most common type.

Question 128

Engine company 432 is operating at a Brush fire in Brooklyn when they sink an axle deep into sand and become stuck. BFU 9 is on the scene operating at this fire and is equipped with a winch on its front bumper. BFU 9 hooked its cable up to Engine 432 and extricated it from the sand. Do you agree or disagree with BFU 9’s action?

A) Agree, the action was correct

B) Disagree, the action was incorrect

Answer 128

B) Disagree, the action was incorrect

(AUC 151, 4.5.10)

• Winches = SELF EXTRICATION
  EXTRICATION OF SIMILAR SIZED VEHICLES
  Do not use on full sized apparatus.

Question 129

While responding to a 4th alarm brush fire, Engine Company 201 notices sparks and embers starting additional fires remote from the main body of fire. There are no structures involved but the fire is expanding. The correct action for the lieutenant to take at this time is illustrated in which choice below?

A) Notify the dispatcher, stop and extinguish the fire, go 10-8 when operations are complete.

B) Stop and extinguish the fire, then proceed to the command post, notifying the IC of your actions.

C) Notify dispatcher of this information for relay to the IC.

D) Leave a two firefighter team with extinguishers, brooms, and Indian pumps at the scene and proceed to the command post.

Answer 129

C) Notify dispatcher of this information for relay to the IC.

(AUC 151, 5.1.2)

• DO NOT self commit unless structures are exposed.

Question 130

A group of FFs studying for the lieutenant test were discussing brush fire operations. They were incorrect in which point?

A) Initial attack operations should concentrate on establishing a positive water source. All engines shall hook up to a hydrant.

B) Fire attack should not begin until all exposures are covered.

C) Avoid attacking from the front of the fire, except to protect life.

D) Attack the fire from the flanks and avoid chasing fire.

Answer 130

A) Initial attack operations should concentrate on establishing a positive water source. All engines shall hook up to a hydrant. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 151, 5.11)

• Initial attack should concentrate on MOBILITY.
  Only hook up to a hydrant to PROTECT EXPOSURES.

Question 131

Safety is paramount when operating at brush fires as there are many associated hazards. Which point is not correct in regard to safety at brush fires?

A) When operating in wild land areas, be alert for the presence of abandoned wells, cesspools, foundations or other holes which may be covered or obscured.

B) Avoid walking through piles of rubbish or lumber as nails or glass may be present. Be careful to avoid growths of poison ivy, oak and sumac.

C) Never operate hose lines under high voltage wires.

D) In cold weather, step in the footsteps of members operating in front of you. If the hard surface is broken by a member in front of you, the greater traction you will be provided by the members footsteps.

Answer 131

D) In cold weather, step in the footsteps of members operating in front of you. If the hard surface is broken by a member in front of you, the greater traction you will be provided by the members footsteps. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 151, 5.11)

• AVOID stepping in footsteps made by members in front of you.
  If the hard surface is broken, you may get stuck in the soft, muddy
  surface.

Question 132

Lt. Sandy is working a 9x6 tour 48 hours prior to an expected landfall of a major hurricane. Good things for Lt. Sandy to drill on with the members of his waterfront unit should include all but which of the following items?

A) Insure all apparatus fuel tanks are maintained full at all times

B) Initiate the movement of items from the basement and first floor to interior rooms on upper floors.

C) Bunker gear shall be worn in flooded areas

D) In ground pools, manhole covers dislodged by water, fuel oil and floating debris are all hazards that may be encountered.

Answer 132

C) Bunker gear shall be worn in flooded areas (INCORRECT)

(AUC 159, 5.3.2)

• Bunker gear SHALL NOT BE WORN in flooded areas.

Question 133

During the height of a hurricane, a lieutenant is responding with his unit to a report of people trapped in a flooded area. The lieutenant would be correct if he were to remind his LCC that the maximum depth the apparatus may be driven through is?

A) 18”

B) 24”

C) 50”

D) 36”

Answer 133

A) 18”

AUC 159, 5.4.3

Question 134

A covering Lt. has walked in your quarters and has asked you a question in regard to a 14’ flat bottom boat that he notices stored on the apparatus floor. You made the following statements in regard to this boat. In which one were you not entirely correct?

A) The boat is to be utilized during flooding conditions. No oars or motors are issued with the boat.

B) The boat can be stored either outdoors or indoors.

C) If possible, remove stranded victims to the Water Rescue Company’s point of entry.

D) The flat bottom boat may be utilized to move supporting Engine company personnel and their CFRD equipment to the stranded victim.

Answer 134

D) The flat bottom boat may be utilized to move supporting Engine company personnel and their CFRD equipment to the stranded victim. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 159, Addendum 7)

• We transport the VICTIM TO THE ENGINE COMPANY PERSONNEL.
  DO NOT transport Engine personnel to the victim via flat bottom boat

Question 135

Engine 16 has been ordered by the IC to begin dewatering operations at a major hospital after a severe storm. In regard to FDNY protocol for the use of portable dewatering pumps, members of this pump equipped unit would be incorrect if they were to believe which statement?

A) Ensure that portable dewatering pumps are placed on the apparatus 48 hours prior to the predicted storm impact.

B) Units should not be committed to dewatering operations during a severe storm regardless of conditions.

C) The total number of units committed to dewatering operations should not reduce overall availability of engine and ladder companies below 75%.

D) If u it availability is 75% or greater, DCs can approve dewatering operations in their response areas for all occupancies, including commercial, multiple, and private dwellings.

Answer 135

B) Units should not be committed to dewatering operations during a severe storm regardless of conditions. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 159, Addendum 9)

• You CAN commit to dewatering operations WHEN LIVES ARE
  ENDANGERED.

Question 136

It is 0300 on a Saturday morning. You are a lieutenant operating at a manhole fire where the fire has blown the cover off of the manhole. Your OV FF has also informed you via handie talkie that smoke has extended and is issuing under pressure from the electrical service box inside of the multiple dwelling opposite he manhole. What signal should the BC use at this incident?

A) 10-25 code 1

B) 10-25 code 2

C) 10-25 code 3

D) 10-25 code 4

Answer 136

B) 10-25 code 2

(AUC 180, 1.1)

10-25-1 = FIRE has extended to building (NOT SMOKE)

10-25-2 = Blown cover or smoke issuing under pressure

10-25-3 = Smoke is seeping from manhole

10-25-4 = Fire in a transformer

Question 137

During a recent 9x6 tour, a lieutenant operated with his unit at a 10-25-2 manhole fire. The incorrect action that caused BC Sims to have a strongly worded chat with the officer is best found I. Which choice?

A) The area was taped off marking the danger area for both civilians and FD personnel. Apparatus were clear of the area in a safe location.

B) Electrical services in surrounding buildings were inspected for extension and carbon monoxide.

C) An automobile found directly on top of the smoking manhole was driven off the manhole by FD personnel, in lieu of a civilian.

D) A precautionary line with a fog nozzle was stretched and operated into the manhole as requested by Con Edison personnel. Water was made to flow into the manhole from a distance rather than operating the stream directly into the ma hole.

Answer 137

C) An automobile found directly on top of the smoking manhole was driven off the manhole by FD personnel, in lieu of a civilian. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 180, 2.1)

• DO NOT MOVE VEHICLES ON MANHOLES (members or civilians)

Question 138

You are an Engine company lieutenant operating at a manhole incident where smoke is seeping from a manhole. The BC has informed you that he believes this operation is well within the capabilities of your well trained unit. The utility company has given an ETA of 45 minutes. You can expect any of the following to happen with which exception?

A) You may be ordered to remain on scene and respond to alarms via department radio, leaving one member at the scene.

B) One member may be left at the scene and the unit returns to quarters.

C) If the unit returns to quarters and a member is left on scene, the BC shall provide for relief of members.

D) The manhole can be protected with traffic cones and tape, and all units placed back in service.

Answer 138

C) If the unit returns to quarters and a member is left on scene, the BC shall provide for relief of members. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 180, 2.6)

• The COMPANY OFFICER will provide for relief for members.
  For an ETA of greater than 30 min, perform choices A,B and D.

Question 139

The ladder company that you are in command of has responded to a report of an explosion and fire from a Con Edison sidewalk transformer vault. Upon arrival, light smoke is issuing from the vault and the caller of the alarm has informed you that she saw a person enter the vault prior to the explosion, but she is not sure whether that person exited. From your knowledge of transformers found within NYC, choose an incorrect action/statement?

A) The FDNY considers a transformer with any amount of PCB’s to be a PCB transformer.

B) Even in a light smoke condition, full use of SCBA and PPE are required

C) It is not necessary for members to closely examine these vaults

D) After the Officer in Command determined the vault is safe for entry a cursory search shall be conducted for victims.

Answer 139

D) After the Officer in Command determined the vault is safe for entry a cursory search shall be conducted for victims. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 180, 3.1)

• ONLY CON ED can determine that the vault is safe for entry.

Question 140

You have been special called to the scene of a CO emergency as a Ventilation Support Unit. You have been ordered by the IC to ventilate the building using your positive pressure fans (PPFs). You would know that if CO levels are in the _________ ppm range, gasoline powered PPFs will not significantly reduce those levels due to the co emissions produced by the fans.

A) 0 - 66 ppm

B) 0 - 99 ppm

C) 0 - 200 ppm

D) None of the above

Answer 140

A) 0 - 60 ppm

AUC 349, 8.2

Question 141

Cellular phone sites consist of four major components. Which description of these components listed below is incorrect?

A) The base station is a computer that processes the radio signals being received by the receptor antenna. It translates the radio signals into data and forwards the information to the person being called via the transmitter antennas.

B) The primary electrical power for a cellular communications station is generally between 50 and 200 volts. This will be part of the buildings main electrical service.

C) Coaxial cable is used to supply the RF signal from the base station to the radio antenna. Coaxial radio frequency cable is waterproof and carries only a small amount (3 to 4 watts) of electrical current.

D) Backup power will consist of batteries, diesel generator, or natural gas generator or a combination of battery and generator. There are multiple transmitting and receiving antennas on the upper portion of the building.

Answer 141

B) The primary electrical power for a cellular communications station is generally between 50 and 200 volts. This will be part of the buildings main electrical service. (INCORRECT)

• Primary electrical power is between 50 and 200 AMPS (not volts)
  This will be SEPARATE FROM the buildings service.

Question 142

Members of a study group were discussing firefighting operational tactics regarding cell phone sites. Which point made below is not entirely correct?

A) Special call an additional engine and truck for a fire reported in these buildings. If the cell site is involved insure a Tower Ladder response on the initial alarm.

B) Consider stretching a handline to the roof at upper floor fires. This line can be used to maintain egress routes and cool supporting “I” Beams.

C) Ladder companies should consider utilizing portable dry chemical extinguishers at incipient fires. Restrict the use of water and metal tools at these operations.

D) Establish a collapse zone beneath parapet walls where antennas and installation equipment are located. At night time operations, insure sufficient lighting at the roof level.

Answer 142

A) Special call an additional engine and truck for a fire reported in these buildings. If the cell site is involved insure a Tower Ladder response on the initial alarm. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 331 6)

• Building with a cell site = Insure TL response on initial alarm
• If site itself is involved = special call an additional engine and truck

Question 143

Lt. Darling told his members during drill on cell sites that members should not operate directly in front of cell site antennas; they avoid contact with antennas, refrain from prolonged activity in close proximity to the cell site antennas, and should stay at least 2’ away from a transmitting antenna. Would you agree or disagree with this statement?

A) Agree

B) Disagree

Answer 143

B) Disagree

(AUC 331, 6.15)

• DO NOT OPERATE DIRECTLY IN FRONT OF ANTENNAS. Direct
  exposure to radio waves for extended periods of time may cause
  health problems. Distance is safety.

Question 144

A group of lieutenants studying for the upcoming captains exam were discussing administrative procedures regarding cell sites. Which point below is not correct?

A) The administrative company must notify their battalion, division, and all first alarm units via telephone followed by a written memo. The administrative company must perform an on-site inspection and evaluate the cell site.

B) Transmitting antennas shall be identified by affixing to the antenna, the antenna mounting, or a conspicuous location near the antenna, continuous, durable, and weather proof reflective or luminescent markings and 3” lettering that reads “TRANSMITTER”

C) A durable sign shall be conspicuously posted on or near and equipment closet, roof base station or similar telecommunications antenna installation, identifying the owner of the installation, providing a 24 hour 7 day per week telephone number by which the owner can be contacted.

D) A CIDS card should be completed and contain the following information: the location of the cell site room, location of the shutoffs, the main power supply location, and the emergency number of the utility company.

Answer 144

D) A CIDS card should be completed and contain the following information: the location of the cell site room, location of the shutoffs, the main power supply location, and the emergency number of the utility company. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 331 4)

1. Location of cell site room
2. BACKUP power supply location
3. Emergency number of the CELL PHONE COMPANY

Question 145

The antennas from a cell site may not extend higher than _____ feet above the height of the roof or parapet on the roof or above any penthouse or bulkhead, if placed on such penthouse or bulkhead.

A) 10’

B) 4’

C) 6’

D) 8’

Answer 145

C) 6’

AUC 331, 3.2

Question 146

All of the following safety precautions listed below are correct except?

A) Do not cut or dislodge coaxial cable or antenna grounds unless absolutely necessary and approval is granted by the IC.

B) Operate from the exterior of a cell site room if at all possible. Use caution near batteries since terminal covers are easily dislodged.

C) Identify all utility and power supply shutoffs. Identify the locations of all backup power supplies.

D) The roof mounted generator support system adds a dead load to the parapets. Evaluate parapet walls for structural deficiencies.

Answer 146

A) Do not cut or dislodge coaxial cable or antenna grounds unless absolutely necessary and approval is granted by the IC. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 331, 5)

• DO NOT CUT COAXIAL CABLE OR ANTENNA GROUNDS PERIOD.

Question 147

Captain Hernandez and Lt. Carter are operating at a car accident on a residential street. While FDNY members are in the process of taking up, a member of the press approaches Capt. Hernandez and inquires about the accident. Capt. Hernandez should know that he can?

A) Not answer any questions and must refer the press to the Office of Public Information.

B) Answer questions since he is the incident commander without any limitations as to what information he gives out.

C) Answer questions since he is the incident commander but must only give non confidential information such as what happened, how many patients, and what hospital patients were transported to.

D) None of the above

Answer 147

C) Answer questions since he is the incident commander but must only give non confidential information such as what happened, how many patients, and what hospital patients were transported to.

(AUC 332, 3.1)

Question 148

Captain Hernandez and Lt. Carter are operating at a car accident on a residential street. While FDNY members are in the process of taking up, a member of the press approaches Capt. Hernandez and inquires about the accident. After speaking to the press, Capt. Hernandez should know that he must notify the ______________________ as soon as practicable.

A) The Battalion Chief on duty in his Battalion

B) The Deputy Chief on duty in his Division

C) The Command Chief via the chain of command

D) The Chief of Operations via the chain of command

Answer 148

A) The Battalion Chief on duty in his Battalion

AUC 332, 3.4.4

Question 149

All members are prohibited from making statements that are disruptive to the operations of the department, or that would disclose confidential information. Which of the following are considered confidential information?

1. Non final department policies (pilot programs)
2. Investigations
3. Legal proceedings
4. Security proceedings
5. Medical Information
6. Other information protected from disclosure by law

A) All B) 1, 3, 4, 6 C) None D) 2, 3, 4, 5 E) 3, 4, 5, 6

Answer 149

A) All

AUC 332 3.3.1

Question 150

A Ladder company officer is operating at a MD fire on the top floor of a 5 story non-fireproof multiple dwelling at 0300 hours. The Roof firefighter has just informed the officer that there is a large photovoltaic electrical system mounted on the roof of the building. He then states that there is a heavy fire condition on the buildings cockloft. A correct action for the officer at this point can be illustrated in which choice?

A) Cut the wires associated with the PV array. This will stop the flow,of energy into the building.

B) Inform the Roof FF that there is no danger from the PV array, as it is nighttime and the cells are not energized.

C) Order power shutdown at the main electrical panel, including opening the PV disconnect switches to insure power is removed.

D) Order the a roof to be cut in an area away from the PV array and other components.

Answer 150

D) Order the a roof to be cut in an area away from the PV array and other components.

(AUC 351, 6.1)

A - NEVER cut any wires associated with a PV array.

B - Batteries maintain electrical current DAY OR NIGHT.

C - Shutting down the main electrical power DOES NOT ensure
complete power removal. (Shut down inverter)

Question 151

You are an Engine company officer at a fire in a 3 story commercial building. The buildings photovoltaic system is heavily involved and the IC has ordered you to place a line into operation directly on the PV components. Your best course of action at this point can be found in which answer?

A) Inform the IC that the use of water is prohibited on PV components.

B) Order a fog nozzle placed into operation from a distance with a 30 degree spray pattern.

C) Use foam on the electrical components because the foam will not conduct electricity.

D) Utilize a straight stream at a 30 degree angle from a distance of no less that 10 feet.

Answer 151

B) Order a fog nozzle placed into operation from a distance with a 30 degree spray pattern.

(AUC 351, 6.4)

A - ONLY INCIDENT COMMANDER can order water put onto PV.

B - Correct

C - DO NOT use foam. Foam conducts electricity.

D - DO NOT use straight streams. Straight streams conduct electricity.

Question 152

While operating at a private dwelling fire involving a photovoltaic system, a student desiring to be a lieutenant made the following statements. Which one requires correcting?

A) The removal of modules from the PV array by firefighters is the only way to insure that electricity will be shut off during fire operations.

B) Incipient fires can be extinguished utilizing Class C dry chemical extinguishers.

C) Combiner boxes should not be opened by firefighters in an attempt to shut down the PV array.

D) On buildings with sloping roofs, PV arrays will generally be installed on the south and west facing sides.

Answer 152

A) The removal of modules from the PV array by firefighters is the only way to insure that electricity will be shut off during fire operations. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 351, 6.6)

• Removal of modules IS NOT AN OPTION.

Question 153

Due to an impending hurricane, the FDNY has assembled several Rapid Response Vehicle Task Forces. You, a lieutenant have been placed in command of RRV-173. Because you are a sharp officer you know that your last means of communication between yourself and the IC, should all other communication systems available to you fail is:

A) 800 mhz radio

B) Cell phones

C) DARS radio

D) None of the above

Answer 153

D) None of the above

(AUC 352, 4.1)

• DEPARTMENT RADIO is last resort of communications for a Rapid
  Response Vehicle.
• DARS / 800 mhz / Cell phones / Department radio

Question 154

You are a lieutenant inspecting a health care facility with your unit in Queens. The section of the building you are inspecting is known to house both active and inactive tuberculosis patients. In regard to these types of inspections, which one of the following is an incorrect action for you to take?

A) A visual inspection of a tuberculosis patients room will suffice.

B) Proper respiratory and face protection (N95 Respirator) should be used during walk through inspections.

C) The N95 offers the greatest degree of protection for firefighters at tuberculosis incidents.

D) Tuberculosis cannot be transmitted through the handling of pillows, bed sheets, or patients clothing.

Answer 154

C) The N95 offers the greatest degree of protection for firefighters at tuberculosis incidents. (INCORRECT)

(CFRD 3, Add 1, 3.5)

• SCBA IS HIGHEST DEGREE OF PROTECTION.

Question 155

An engine company member on housewatch is notified of a dead animal in front of quarters by a passerby on a au freezing morning. Upon investigation it appears the animal (a small dog) has been there for several hours and is obviously dead. The lieutenant has ordered the probationary firefighter to dispose of the carcass, assisted by you, a student studying for the next lieutenants exam. You suspect that this might be a possible rabies incident and operate accordingly in all but which choice?

A) Inform the probationary firefighter that the chance of rabies is slim, as freezing weather will destroy the rabies virus.

B) Remind the proby that a casual exposure to the animal does not constitute an exposure.

C) Ensure that the firefighter is wearing latex gloves prior to picking up the carcass. Use a shovel or similar equipment to pick up the dead animal.

D) Place the dog in a securely tied red bag and store it for disposal or pickup.

Answer 155

A) Inform the probationary firefighter that the chance of rabies is slim, as freezing weather will destroy the rabies virus. (INCORRECT)

(CFRD 3, Add 2)

• Freezing weather will EXTEND THE SURVIVAL PERIOD OF RABIES.

Question 156

Firefighters Able and Baker are assigned to Engine Company 499. While operating at a CFRD alarm for an attempted chemical suicide, firefighter Able is splashed by an unknown chemical on his ungloved hand. While removing the victim to the ambulance, the victim sneezes in Firefighter Baker’s open mouth. As the lieutenant on duty you should now insure what happens?

A) Fill out an MD-X3 for Able and Baker, and a CD-73 for Baker only.

B) Fill out a CD-73 for both Able and Baker. No MD-X3 required.

C) Fill out a CD-73 and an MD-X3 for Able and an MD-X3 and CD-72 for Baker.

D) Fill out a CD-73 for Able and an MD-X3 for Baker

Answer 156

D) Fill out a CD-73 for Able and an MD-X3 for Baker

(CFRD 3, Add 3, 1.1)

• CD-73 = Non-biological exposure
• MD-X3 = Biological exposure

Question 157

Several days after your unit operated at an extended CFRD emergency, members of your unit inform you that the apparatus and quarters are severely infested with bedbugs. When notified of a bed bug infestation, proper actions for an officer to take would include all of the following with which exception?

A) Place the apparatus out of service and notify the Battalion, Division and Dispatcher.

B) Notify the HELP line (718) 999-HELP, to generate a work order for the department exterminator.

C) Work duty uniforms and PPE that are believed to be infested shall be sent for decontamination as per department procedure.

D) Any bedding that is infested shall be properly disposed of.

Answer 157

D) Any bedding that is infested shall be properly disposed of (INCORRECT)

(CFRD 3, Add 5, 2.4)

• Furniture that is believed to be infested shall not be disposed of until
  properly identified as bed bugs by the OSHA Unit.
• Bedding that is infested shall be washed in the washing machine
  using hot water only.

Question 158

Engine 99 responds to a CFRD call at a subway station and the Officer decides to have the ECC and himself use Channel 14 as an ARCS channel. While operating at the incident they experience repeater failure. Regarding this problem, they should notify the?

A) Borough Communications Office via Department Radio

B) Public Transportation Safety Unit on return to quarters.

C) MTA personnel on scene

D) Administrative Battalion Chief on duty on return to quarters

Answer 158

A) Borough Communications Office via Department Radio

AUC 207, Add 16, pg 3

Question 159

An officer conducting drill regarding the pulling of covers off electrical manholes by FDNY members was correct when he stated that?

A) They should not be pulled at manhole fires,mor if a manhole fire is in
the area; but may be pulled at outdoor gas emergencies, and only
pulled if they are round or square covers.

B) They should not be pulled at manhole fires,mor if a manhole fire is in
the area; but may be pulled at outdoor gas emergencies, and only
pulled if they are round or rectangular covers.

C) They should not be pulled at manhole fires,mor if a manhole fire is in
the area; but may be pulled at outdoor gas emergencies, and only
pulled if they are round covers.

D) They may be pulled at manhole fires, or if a manhole fire is in the
area; and may be also pulled at outdoor gas emergencies. In all
cases, they should only be pulled if they are round covers.

Answer 159

C) They should not be pulled at manhole fires,mor if a manhole fire is in
the area; but may be pulled at outdoor gas emergencies, and only
pulled if they are round covers.

(AUC 180, pg 3 / TB - Gas pg 15)

Question 160

Your engine company responds first due to a report of a possible subway derailment on Atlantic Avenue. After arriving at the scene, you proceed into the station and find a subway car that is derailed with numerous victims injured. In this situation, what should be your first consideration?

A) The need for additional units

B) Determine whether power is to remain on or turned off

C) Provide an estimate number of victims to the Chief in charge

D) Determine the best access point for FDNY units.

Answer 160

B) Determine whether power is to remain on or turned off

AUC 207, 3.2

Question 161

Which statement made at a recent MUD about the use of “light trains” is incorrect?

A) Only the Chief in charge of a subway operation may decide to use a
“light train”

B) If necessary to disembark the “light train” a HT equipped member
shall be assigned to remain with the Train Operator to maintain
communications

C) A “light train” shall not travel past the next station without the
permission of the Chief in charge.

D) The apparatus of the unit who boarded the train should remain at its
original location until, and if, directed to another location by the
borough dispatcher.

Answer 161

D) The apparatus of the unit who boarded the train should remain at its
original location until, and if, directed to another location by the
borough dispatcher. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 207, Add 7, 2.7)

Question 162

Which one of the following choices is correct in regards to the inspection of subway sound powered telephones and dry standpipe systems?

A) They are inspected annually, and the standpipe system should be
charged during inspection.

B) They are inspected annually, and the standpipe system should not
be charged during the inspection.

C) They are inspected semi-annually, and the standpipe system should
be charged during inspection.

D) They are inspected semi-annually, and the standpipe system should
not be charged during inspection.

Answer 162

D) They are inspected semi-annually, and the standpipe system should
not be charged during inspection.

(AUC 207, Add 10, 5.1)

Question 163

The members of E-33 were preparing to use a subway standpipe system to extinguish a fire in a maintenance closet in a subway station. Which statement below is incorrect in regards to the standpipe system?

A) Standpipe outlets at the platform level will be located inside a locked
stainless steel cabinet, which can be opened with the standard
emergency exit subway key.

B) The cabinet will contain 4 lengths of 2 1/2” hose. Engine companies
should avoid the use of this hose. Ladder companies and Rescue
companies may use this hose for life saving purposes only.

C) Any firefighter who recognizes that the involved subway station is
served by a dry standpipe system shall relay this information to the
engine officer and ECC.

D) If the dry standpipe system is going to be utilized for firefighting, the
engine company shall carry their rolled up lengths of hose, standpipe
kit, a subway emergency exit key, and a 1620 key.

Answer 163

B) The cabinet will contain 4 lengths of 2 1/2” hose. Engine companies
should avoid the use of this hose. Ladder companies and Rescue
companies may use this hose for life saving purposes only.
(INCORRECT)

(AUC 207, Add 10, 2.2)

Question 164

FDNY units with subway stations located in their response areas must be familiar with the use of the NYC Transit Authority Emergency Evacuation Device (EED). Which one of the following statements would be incorrect regarding these devices?

A) Keys to remove EEDs from their mounting brackets are available at
every token booth.

B) When a rescue train is used, the EED can be positioned step side
down to form a bridge between two adjacent cars. FDNY personnel
must be positioned in each car to provide assistance and stability to
passengers.

C) The EED can be used as an evacuation stair to access the platform
level from the roadbed.

D) When positioned against the side or end door of a subway car the
EED will reach the roadbed at an approximate 60 degree angle which
will provide a horizontal stepping surface.

Answer 164

D) When positioned against the side or end door of a subway car the
EED will reach the roadbed at an approximate 60 degree angle which
will provide a horizontal stepping surface. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 207, Add 11, 3.4)

• 70 DEGREE ANGLE

Question 165

The location of the EED will vary throughout the subway system. Which EED location listed is incorrect?

A) In under river tunnels, the EED will be found at the first blue light in
the tunnel, at both ends of the tunnel.

B) In Staten Island, EEDs are located near Tower B at the Saint George Rail Terminal and near the crew quarters at the Tottenville Rail yard.

C) At underground and grade level stations, the EED is located at the
first blue light location south of the southbound platform (typically
within 50 feet of the platform end)

D) At elevated stations, the EED will be located in the area of the full
time token booth.

Answer 165

A) In under river tunnels, the EED will be found at the first blue light in
the tunnel, at both ends of the tunnel. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 207, Add 11, 3.1)

Question 166

Ladder 222 responds to a stuck occupied elevator located within a subway station. The officer attempts to call the LCC via the primary handie talkie repeater channel, which is found ineffective. Who should the officer notify of this malfunction?

A) The Borough Communications Office, via department radio

B) The Borough Communications Office, via telephone

C) The Administrative Division, via letterhead report through the chain
of command.

D) The Public Transportation Safety Unit, via telephone

Answer 166

A) The Borough Communications Office, via department radio.

AUC 207, Add 16, 6

Question 167

How many of the following points about operations with the Subway Repeater system are correct?

1. Both the primary and secondary repeater channels operate at 5
   watts and will support the emergency alert functions of the HT.
2. Repeater systems are on 24 hours a day, 7 days a week. It is not
   necessary to request activation.
3. Once the IC decides to use the repeater system at an operation, all
   members on the scene must turn to the designated repeater
   channel.
4. Units must still follow existing SOPs for Subway Operations such as
   establishing a HT relay.
5. At minor operations, such as rubbish on the platform or medical
   emergencies, the company officer shall determine which members
   will operate on the repeater channel.

A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5

Answer 167

C) 4 (Choices 1, 2, 4, & 5 are correct)

(AUC 207, Add 16, 4.2)

Choice 3 - All FDNY members, other than those designated to switch
to the repeater channel, will remain on HT Channel 1.

Question 168

A Queens ladder company is drilling on the JFK AirTrain System when the following statements are made. Which statement should be corrected by the company officer?

A) AirTrains have no engineers or supervisors onboard.

B) AirTrains have the ability to move in either direction.

C) Every AirTrain has 4 sets of passenger doors (2 on each side). There
are no front or rear doors.

D) If the train is stopped outside of a station and the Emergency Door
Release is pulled, all of the doors in the car will open.

Answer 168

D) If the train is stopped outside of a station and the Emergency Door
Release is pulled, all of the doors in the car will open. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 207, Add 12, 3)

• ONLY DOORS THAT OPEN ONTO A PLATFORM will open when the
  emergency door release is pulled.

Question 169

Members are drilling on AirTrain Systems at JFK airport. While discussing guideways and tunnel areas found throughout the system they made an incorrect statement. Which choice below is wrong?

A) Blue light power removal boxes are located every 800 feet along the
guideway.

B) An AirTrain whose direction of travel is away from the airport is
considered an “Outbound Train” and an AirTrain whose direction of
travel is towards the airport is considered an “Inbound Train”

C) The AirTrain system transverses a tunnel on the grounds of JFK that
goes underneath the taxiway of the airport. The tunnel has both a
standpipe outlet and an emergency exit.

D) Most guideways travel along grade level. A few sections are elevated
and will require the use of a tower ladders to access.

Answer 169

D) Most guideways travel along grade level. A few sections are elevated
and will require the use of a tower ladders to access. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 207, Add 12, 2.2)

• Most guideways ARE ELEVATED.
  A few sections travel along grade level.

Question 170

There is a possibility that thousands of people will have to be evacuated from a subway car during a fire or emergency. According to this bulletin, if at all possible, how should people be evacuated?

A) Through the train to a station

B) By transferring the passengers to another train

C) Through subway emergency exits

D) By walking the passengers out of the tunnel using either the roadbed
or bench wall.

Answer 170

A) Through the train to a station

AUC 207, 5.6

Question 171

When a fuel spill is close to a grating or a main entrance of a subway station, we must try to stop the flow into these entrances by diking. In order of preference, how should we dike to prevent the fuel from entering the subway system?

1. By using planking
2. By using sand or dirt
3. By using several charged lengths of hose to encircle
   the spill

A) 1, 2, 3 B) 2, 3, 1 C) 2, 1, 3 D) 3, 2, 1

Answer 171

C) 2, 1, 3

(AUC 207, 5.8)

1. By using sand or dirt
2. By using planking
3. By using several charged lengths of hose to encircle
   the spill

Question 172

Units have entered a subway tunnel where a person is pinned under a subway car. Due to the known life hazard involved, the ladder officer has decided to enter the track area prior to confirmation of power off by the dispatcher. One member has been sent to the nearest blue light to remove power via the power removal box. This member would be correct to take all of the following actions except which?

A) He operated the power removal by operating the pull down lever
located inside the box.

B) He then notified the Desk Superintendent that power is to be
removed via the telephone near the blue light.

C) To contact the Desk Superintendent, he dialed the 4 digit Subway
Control Center number listed on the inside of the door cover.

D) He depressed the button on the handset while speaking to the Desk
Superintendent, and released the button to hear the response.

Answer 172

D) He depressed the button on the handset while speaking to the Desk
Superintendent, and released the button to hear the response.
(INCORRECT)

(AUC 207, Add 9, 3.2)

• Releasing the button will TERMINATE THE CALL.

Question 173

Your engine company is operating at the scene of a fire involving an AmTrak Railroad car that is being supplied electricity via a catenary wire. The IC has confirmed that all power to the 3rd rail, 480 volt stand-by power and the catenary wires have been shut down. You ordered the following actions. In which one should the IC have corrected you?

A) Your members operated a hoseline with a fog nozzle, in the fog
pattern position, into the train platform.

B) You then repositioned to the adjacent platform and again used a fog
stream directed to the train’s undercarriage to cool the diesel fuel
tank.

C) At all times, you ordered your members to operate the hoselines at a
distance of 12 feet from catenary wires.

D) For final extinguishment, the fog stream was directed over the top of
the train to cool the pantograph.

Answer 173

D) For final extinguishment, the fog stream was directed over the top of
the train to cool the pantograph. (INCORRECT)

(AUC 207, Add 9, 3.2)

• Operate fog line INTO THE TRAIN OR UNDER THE TRAIN ONLY. (Not
  over the train)
• Maintain safe distance of AT LEAST 10 feet.

Question 174

Generally, how many members are provided when a Reserve Pumper is activated?

A) One officer and five firefighters

B) One officer and four firefighters

C) One officer and three firefighters

D) One officer and two firefighters

Answer 174

B) One officer and four firefighters

AUC 259, 3.1

Question 175

Which of the following is not considered a Reserve Apparatus?

A) 1,000 gallon pumper with a compliment of hose and equipment

B) TL with a compliment of portable ladders and equipment

C) Hose wagon with a full compliment of supply hose

D) Aerial ladder with a compliment of portables and equipment

Answer 175

C) Hose wagon with a full compliment of supply hose

AUC 259 2.2

Question 176

During the time a Reserve Apparatus is in service, the company officer should correct which action below?

A) Entries made in the Office Record Journal to record all activities and
movement of apparatus.

B) A third copy of the riding list shall be posted at the housewatch desk

C) Necessary reports are the responsibility of the BC in the Battalion
where the reserve apparatus is quartered.

D) No one of the actions above are correct

Answer 176

B) A third copy of the riding list shall be posted at the housewatch desk
(INCORRECT)

(AUC 259 6)

• A third copy of the riding list shall be posted at the housewatch desk
  of the unit whose identity reserve apparatus assumes or filed at the
  Emergency Command Post Headquarters.