SAFETY BULLETINS Flashcards

0
Q

According to Safety Bulletin 7, Computerized Injury Reporting System (CIRS), which statement below is correct?

A) Notification is required to the Medical Officer for a member who is exposed to a blood borne, airborne, or other infectious pathogen, only if that member is exhibiting symptoms.

B) Notification is required to the Medical Officer for a member with or without symptoms, who is exposed to a non-biological hazardous substance or possible hazardous substance.

C) If a member exhibits symptoms from a biological or non-biological exposure, both an Injury and Exposure Report must be completed.

D) All available injury/exposure information must be initiated and submitted no later than 10 days from the date of injury/exposure with or without the member’s signature and/or narrative.

A

C) If a member exhibits symptoms from a biological or non-biological exposure, both an Injury and Exposure Report must be completed.

(SB 7 CIRS)

A - Biological exposures = notification to M.O. WITH OR WITHOUT
SYMPTOMS.

B - Non-Biological exposures = notification to M.O. required ONLY for
symptoms.

C - Correct

D - Injury/exposure info initiated and submitted no later than SEVEN (7)
days from the date of injury/exposure with or without members
signature and/or narrative.

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1
Q

Which point below about the Computerized Injury Reporting system is incorrect?

A) Illnesses not related to an exposure that prevent a member from continuing on duty (flu, food poisoning) do not need to be recorded in CIRS and the Medical Officer need not be notified.

B) Injury/biological exposures require the Supervisor to notify the Medical Officer on duty via FDOC.

C) A non-biological exposure report for a member who does not exhibit symptoms can be initiated without Medical Officer notification.

D) Biological exposures must be entered into CIRS immediately to ensure appropriate exposure investigation and follow up.

A

A) Illnesses not related to an exposure that prevent a member from continuing on duty (flu, food poisoning) do not need to be recorded in CIRS and the Medical Officer need not be notified. (INCORRECT)

(SB 7)

  • Illnesses (flu, food poisoning) DO NOT need to be recorded in CIRS.
    However, the Medical Officer MUST BE NOTIFIED.
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2
Q

Which statement below is incorrect regarding the use of wood forms for supporting concrete in buildings under construction?

A) The method of forming the poured concrete floors consists of 5/8” or 3/4” plywood held in place by a 4” x 4” wood stud every 6 feet on center.

B) The structural stability of the floor below the most recently poured floor could be considered sound.

C) If units observe studs placed approximately 8 feet apart, restoring is indicated.

D) Reshoring will usually be found on at least 8 floors below the most recently poured floor.

A

A) The method of forming the poured concrete floors consists of 5/8” or 3/4” plywood held in place by a 4” x 4” wood stud every 6 feet on center. (INCORRECT)

(SB 66)

  • Every 4 FEET on center
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3
Q

Apparatus air brake systems are equipped with a low pressure indicator. This consists of a warning buzzer, warning light, or both and will activate when the air pressure falls to approximately __________?

A) 45 to 50 pounds

B) 55 to 60 pounds

C) 60 to 65 pounds

D) 100 pounds

A

B) 55 to 60 pounds

SB 13

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4
Q

According to FDNY safety bulletins, the siren is a low speed warning device linked to about a _____ foot range and speed of about _______ mph. A low speed response may actually decrease response time.

A) 125 / 30

B) 100 / 25

C) 125 / 25

D) 100 / 10

A

A) 125 / 30

Safety Bulletin 1 6.4

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5
Q

Of the statements below regarding safety bulletins, which one is not correct?

A) The high visibility safety vests are designed to be worn over bunker gear and are flame resistant.

B) The protective hood shall be worn whether dry, damp or saturated with moisture.

C) When responding to an alarm and a signal 10-20 is received units shall proceed to box location at a reduced speed. “No warning devices are to be used and all traffic regulations are to be observed.”

D) While parking apparatus on AFID, remember not to park alongside building materials located on sidewalk at construction or demolition sites.

A

D) While parking apparatus on AFID, remember not to park alongside building materials located on sidewalk at construction or demolition sites. (INCORRECT)

(SB 3, pg 2)

  • Do not park alongside building materials located BEYOND the
    sidewalk at construction or demolition sites.
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6
Q

FF Smith is a senior member of Ladder 54 and is going over some safety bulletins with the new proby. Out of the four points listed below, which one did FF Smith explain incorrectly?

A) The use of the “high-low” mode on the electric sirens of this department if prohibited.

B) When driving the apparatus over a speed hump, typically the advised speed will be 15 mph for a 4” reducer and 20 mph for a 3” reducer.

C) In the event that you fall into the water wearing your bunker gear, and an SCBA, do not attempt to swim.

D) If the probies’ protective hood is damaged and no spare good is available, the proby shall not operate in the IDLH.

A

D) If the probes protective hood is damaged and no spare good is available , the proby shall not operate in the IDLH. (INCORRECT)

(SB 83, Section 3)

  • Notify OOD and if no spare hood is available, the OOD shall instruct
    the member to have his helmet earflaps down, coat collar up and
    secured by the neck strap.
  • Choice C = If you fall in water, try to remain calm and slowly tread
    water.
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7
Q

Ladder 152 reports to the rock for a drill on hazards and tactics regarding fires in Toyota Rav 4 electric cars. Which of the following is incorrect regarding these electric vehicles?

A) Do not use water to extinguish fires in these types of vehicles.

B) Class D Extinguishing agents can be used to extinguish battery pack fires.

C) Extrication tools may be used in the passenger compartment but should not be used on the traction batteries.

D) Do not cut the orange colored high voltage wiring.

A

A) Do not use water to extinguish fires in these types of vehicles. (INCORRECT)

(SB 86, 4)

  • WATER MAY BE USED IF THE VEHICLE IS NOT CONNECTED TO A
    CHARGING DEVICE.
  • Choice D = Also DO NOT touch wiring if the conductor is exposed
    (orange cover damaged, exposing wires)
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8
Q

You are a lieutenant assigned to L-134 and your unit has just received high visibility safety vests, one for each riding position. How shall the safety vests be marked?

A) “L-134” in black permanent marker on the outside of the vest, centered on the back of the lower reflective strap.

B) “L-134” in black permanent marker on the inside of the vest, centered on the back of the lower reflective strap.

C) “7-134” in black permanent marker on the inside of the vest, centered on the back of the lower reflective strap.

D) “L-134” in red permanent marker on the outside of the vest, centered on the back of the lower reflective strap.

A

B) “L-134” in black permanent marker on the inside of the vest, centered on the back of the lower reflective strap.

(SB 88, 3.1)

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9
Q

While drilling with members of your unit on safe winter driving, you were correct in all statements except which?

A) Sharp, quick turns can throw you into a skid.

B) Brake gently on slippery surfaces.

C) Squeeze brakes to prevent skids.

D) If your vehicle goes into a skid, turn your wheels away from the skid and lift your foot from the accelerator, but don’t breaker or shift gears.

A

D) If your vehicle goes into a skid, turn your wheels away from the skid and lift your foot from the accelerator, but don’t breaker or shift gears. (INCORRECT)

(SB 27)

  • Turn your wheels INTO THE SKID, lift foot from accelerator, don’t
    brake or shift gears.
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10
Q

You are a lieutenant attending a MUD focused on the Toyota Rav 4 electric car. The captain leading the drill was correct in all of his statements except which one?

A) The vehicle is a 2 door model.

B) There is an electrical charge receptacle located on e right front fender.

C) “EV” decal is on both sides and the rear of vehicle.

D) Air intake vents are located on both rear quarter panels.

A

A) The vehicle is a 2 door model. (INCORRECT)

(SB 86, 2)

  • Toyota Rav 4 electric car is a FOUR (4) DOOR MODEL.
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11
Q

A member of your study group discusses department policy regarding apparatus accidents. He was correct in all statements but one. Which stament is incorrect?

A) An apparatus accident that results in moderate damage and no injuries is considered a major accident.

B) An apparatus accident that results in significant damage and no injuries is considered a major accident.

C) An apparatus accident that results in minor damage and minor injuries is considered a minor accident.

D) An apparatus accident that results in no damage and minor injuries is a minor accident.

A

A) An apparatus accident that results in moderate damage and no injuries is considered a major accident. (INCORRECT)

(SB 56, 4.4)

  • Moderate damage / No injuries = MINOR ACCIDENTSignificant damage / no injuries = Major accidentMinor damage / Minor injuries = Minor accidentNo damage / no injuries = Minor accident
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12
Q

Which point regarding the use of sirens and warning lights illustrated in the FDNY safety bulletins is accurate?

A) In general, the siren should be operated in the “yelp” mode, except when encountering heavy traffic or upon approach to an intersection, the siren should be switched from “yelp” to “wail”

B) Sirens and warning lights are only to be used when engaged in Emergency Operations. It is not required to use sirens and warning light while relocating to the quarters of another unit.

C) When operating at an incident, particularly when located in or near the oath of traffic, all warning lights shall be in the “On” position to warn oncoming traffic of the presence of lane obstructions.

D) All statements are incorrect.

A

C) When operating at an incident, particularly when located in or near the oath of traffic, all warning lights shall be in the “On” position to warn oncoming traffic of the presence of lane obstructions.

(Safety Bulletins)

A - In general, the siren should be operated in the “WAIL” mode,
except when encountering heavy traffic or upon approach to an
intersection, the siren should be switched from “WAIL” to “YELP”

B - It IS REQUIRED to use sirens and warning light while relocating to
the quarters of another unit.

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13
Q

After taking up from an operation, the ECC is attempting to backup the rig. According to FDNY safety bulletin procedures regarding operating the fire apparatus in reverse gear, which choice below is incorrect?

A) Operating the apparatus in reverse gear is a team effort and all members are responsible for backing up the apparatus safely.

B) When apparatus is approaching an intersection in reverse, it must come to a complete stop before backing into the intersection.

C) Windows on both Chauffeur and Officers side of the front cab should be lowered. The officer should take a position along the right side of the apparatus when backing up.

D) After the intersection was deemed clear, the Nozzle FF gives the command to back up the rig through the intersection using his HT.

A

D) After the intersection was deemed clear, the Nozzle FF gives the command to back up the rig through the intersection using his HT. (INCORRECT)

(Safety Bulletin 2)

  • ONLY OFFICER IN COMMAND can give the order to backup
    apparatus into intersection.
  • Using the HT to communicate is INEFFECTIVE & DANGEROUS when
    backing up the apparatus. It is safer to use hand signals.
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14
Q

Which point below is correct regarding parking procedures for apparatus during building inspection?

A) Fire apparatus should never be double parked.

B) Never permit apparatus to protrude into the flowof traffic.

C) Do not park in bus stops

D) All of the above are correct.

A

D) All of the above are correct

Safety Bulletins 3

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15
Q

An FDNY facility Emergency Action Plan (EAP) provides a written guide for systematic, safe an orderly evacuation. A copy of the EAP directive must be available for inspection by what agency personnel?

A) Department of Buildings

B) Federal Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

C) Office of Emergency Management (OEM)

D) NYS Public Employee Health and Safety (PESH)

A

D) NYS Public Employee Health and Safety (PESH)

SB 61 3.1

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16
Q

At a single Engine firehouse, the officer on duty shall review the Emergency Action Plan (EAP) with members at certain times. From the choices below, which one is incorrect?

A) Initially, when the EAP is developed

B) Whenever the EAP is changed

C) When new members are assigned

D) Semi annually in January and July

A

D) Semi annually in January and July. (INCORRECT)

(SB 61, 7.1)

  • EAP is reviewed QUARTERLY
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17
Q

The method of forming poured concrete floors consists of plywood held in place by wood studs. One shoring stud is placed how many feet on center (OC) extending from the floor to the underside of the plywood form above?

A) every 4 feet OC

B) every 6 feet OC

C) every 8 feet OC

D) every 10 feet OC

A

A) every 4 feet OC

SB 66, figure 1

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18
Q

According to Safety Bulletin 66, the use of wood forms for support of concrete buildings under construction, where are forms and shoring lumber normally found stored for utilization at the next floor to be poured?

A) One level above the most recently poured floor

B) Two levels below the most recently poured floor

C) One level below the most recently poured floor

D) Two levels above the most recently poured floor.

A

B) Two levels below the most recently poured floor

SB 66, pg 1

19
Q

Unless there is a responsible person on the job site to provide accurate time frame information, units responding to a fire in a concrete building under construction should assume that the most recently constructed floor was poured within how many hours?

A) within the prior 24 hours

B) within the prior 48 hours

C) within the prior 72 hours

D) within the prior 96 hours

A

A) within the prior 24 hours

SB 66, pg 1

20
Q

A knowledgable comoany officer should know that which one of the statements below regarding concrete curing, wood forms and re-shoring at construction sites is inaccurate?

A) Structural stability of the floor below the recently poured floor can be considered sound

B) Re-shoring consists of 4” x 4” wood studs placed every 8 feet

C) Re-shoring will usually be found at least 4 floors below the most recently poured floor.

D) Variations in curing time can occur due to temperature and humidity.

A

C) Re-shoring will usually be found at least 4 floors below the most recently poured floor. (INCORRECT)

(SB 66, figure 2)

  • Re-shoring = studs placed every 8 feet / found at least 8 floors below
    most recently poured floor.
21
Q

Critiques of fire and emergency operations are a most valuable tool for training. When are formal critiques usually held?

A) After large scale operations

B) At the scene of a fire one UNDER CONTROL

C) Upon return to quarters after an emergency

D) None of the above

A

A) After large scale operations

SB 70, page 1

22
Q

Who should lead the discussion during informal critiques held at the company level?

A) Senior member

B) Junior member

C) Company officer

D) Member designated by the company officer

A

C) Company officer

SB 70, pg 1

23
Q

From the choices below, which is not a suggested critique question for Engine companies?

A) Was control of the door maintained?

B) Were the apartments per floor counted?

C) Were mask and PPE worn, and did they work properly?

D) Were changing conditions communicated to companies on the floor above?

A

B) Were the apartments per floor counted? (INCORRECT)

SB 70, pg 1

24
Q

While responding to a report of a structural fire, Engine 333 arrives at an intersection that they must cross. Which point would the Officer be incorrect in considering?

A) Consider each traffic lane in an intersection as a separate and distinct intersection.

B) The apparatus can only enter a cross traffic lane after the right of way has been yielded by all traffic crossing the intersection.

C) After safely crossing an intersection, the apparatus made a wrong turn. The officer remembered that “U” turns are not permitted, so he instructed the ECC to continue in the wrong direction around the block.

D) While approaching the alarm location, Engine 333 encountered a school bus stopped on the opposite side of the street with children being loaded onto the bus. The officer instructed his ECC to stop.

A

C) After safely crossing an intersection, the apparatus made a wrong turn. The officer remembered that “U” turns are not permitted, so he instructed the ECC to continue in the wrong direction around the block. (INCORRECT)

(SB 6, 3.3)

  • “U” turns ARE ALLOWED (Only to be made when safety permits)
25
Q

Which of the following would not require notifying the on duty medical officer?

A) A member had a patient’s blood rub into his arm while assisting EMS in carrying the patient to the ambulance. The member does not have any symptoms.

B) A member was exposed to Poison Ivy while operating at a brush fire. The member does not have any symptoms.

C) A member suffered a first degree burn while lighting the stove in the kitchen.

D) A member twisted his ankle getting off the rig at a gas leak, with no swelling or discoloration resulting.

A

B) A member was exposed to Poison Ivy while operating at a brush fire. The member does not have any symptoms. (INCORRECT)

(SB 7, 2.1.3)

  • For a Non-Biological exposure, the Medical Officer is only notified if
    the member is exhibiting symptoms.
  • Medical officer will also be notified for any INJURIES sustained by
    members.
  1. Biological ExposuresA) Member exposed to blood borne, airborne or other infectious
    pathogen (bodily fluids).B) Medical examiner notification is required WITH OR WITHOUT
    symptoms.
  2. Non-Biological ExposuresA) Member exposed to non-biological hazardous substance, or
    possible hazardous substance.B) Medical Officer notification required for SYMPTOMS ONLY
26
Q

Members were reporting the Injury Reporting System at the kitchen table. Which statement made was correct?

A) Illnesses not related to an exposure that prevent a member from continuing on duty must be entered into CIRS, but do not require the Medical Officer to be notified.

B) If the injury/exposure occurred at a non response, the Supervisor shall enter the FDID number that is assigned to the unit’s home box.

C) An injury report is not required if symptoms of an injury, or illness are related to an exposure.

D) If the injured/exposed member is available for interview, the Officer shall enter his narrative and select “Yes, read as accurate” indicating the member has reviewed and confirmed the information in the report as accurate.

A

D) If the injured/exposed member is available for interview, the Officer shall enter his narrative and select “Yes, read as accurate” indicating the member has reviewed and confirmed the information in the report as accurate.

(SB 7, 3.4)

A - Illnesses not related to an exposure DO NOT have to be entered
into CIRS. However, THE MEDICAL OFFICER MUST BE
NOTIFIED.

B - If injury occurred at a non response, ENTER ALL 9’s.

C - An injury report IS REQUIRED if symptoms of an injury, or illness
are related to an exposure.

27
Q

Which choice is incorrect concerning the processing of Injury/Exposure reports?

A) All available injury/exposure information must be initiated and submitted no later than 7 days from the date of injury.

B) Injury/exposure reports may not be submitted without the members signature or narrative.

C) If an injury/exposure report is not initiated and submitted within 7 days, the a Supervisor must forward a CIRS-1 report, through the chain of command to the Chief of Safety.

D) Biological exposures must be entered into CIRS immediately to ensure appropriate exposure investigation and follow up.

A

B) Injury/exposure reports may not be submitted without the members signature or narrative. (INCORRECT)

(SB 7, 4.1)

  • Injury/exposure reports MAY BE SUBMITTED without the members
    signature or narrative.
28
Q

All officers must be familiar with Safety Bulletin 7. Which choice is not in accordance with this bulletin?

A) Supervisors may submit Group Reporting for identical non-biological exposures of members who do not exhibit symptoms if all members had the same exposure and are assigned to the same unit.

B) When a member sustains a burn, smoke, or heat exhaustion injury, the Supervisor must prepare a Burn/Smoke/Heat exhaustion injury report.

C) Company Commanders only shall access CIRS each tour to provide any required review/recommendations.

D) A unit supervisor must prepare a Multiple Member Injury Report if three or more members of the same unit suffer injuries at the same incident resulting in medical leave that tour.

A

C) Company Commanders only shall access CIRS each tour to provide any required review/recommendations. (INCORRECT)

(SB 7, 4.6)

  • ALL LEVELS OF COMMAND shall access CIRS each tour.
29
Q

The most frequent recurring type of ladder apparatus accidents is when the truck is completing a turn and the tiller strikes a parked car on the far side of the turn. Which two cars does the tiller usually strike?

A) The first car

B) The second car

C) The third car

D) The fourth car

A

B) The second car

C) The third car

(SB 45)

30
Q

The most frequent recurring type of ladder apparatus accidents is when the truck is completing a turn and the tiller strikes a parked car on the far side of the turn. The most contributory cause of this type of tiller accident is acceleration at a critical point in the turn. When may the LCC accelerate after making a turn?

A) When he is 3 ladder truck lengths into the street

B) When he is 4 ladder truck lengths into the street

C) As soon as the trailer section comes in line directly behind the trailer

D) None of the above

A

A) When he is 3 ladder truck lengths into the street

SB 45

31
Q

You are responding to a first due phone alarm for a structural fire when it becomes necessary to enter a block with double parked cars. You would know that certain procedures must be followed when this situation occurs. Which is the correct procedure from the list below?

A) One member of the unit, u dear the direction of the officer in command, should be used to assist and guide the chauffeur.

B) The officer in command must direct the movement of the apparatus.

C) It shall be the chauffeurs responsibility to ensure that the apparatus is stopped if any doubt exists as to the ability of the apparatus to fit through the available space.

D) None of these procedures need to be followed if you are responding, these procedures are only for non responses.

A

B) The officer in command must direct the movement of the apparatus

(SB 71, 3.2.1)

A - ALL MEMBERS should be used to assist chauffeur

C - It is OFFICERS RESPONSIBILITY to ensure that the apparatus is
stopped if any doubt exits as to the ability to fit through the
available space.

D - INCORRECT statement entirely

32
Q

You are finishing your roll call when Firefighter Smith who is detailed to a neighboring firehouse for the 9x6 tour, asks if he is authorized to use his own vehicle as transportation to the neighboring firehouse. 15 minutes later Firefighter Smith calls you and states that he was involved in an accident with his vehicle while proceeding to the neighboring firehouse. In this situation would you treat Firefighter Smith’s vehicle as a department apparatus?

A) Yes, his vehicle would be considered a department apparatus

B) No, his vehicle would not be considered a department apparatus

A

A) Yes, his vehicle would be considered a department apparatus.

(SB 56, 4.1)

33
Q

It is your first day as new lieutenant and you are sitting in your office when the Housewatch firefighter calls you to the watch to speak to a civilian. The civilian tells you that his parked car was struck and witnesses told him that it was a FDNY vehicle that struck it. You would be correct to notify the civilian to contact who?

A) The Safety Battalion

B) NYPD

C) 311

D) The NYC Comptrollers Office

A

D) The NYC Comptrollers Office

SB 56, 3.2

34
Q

“All motor vehicles assigned to the FDNY shall be considered apparatus. In addition, for accident reporting purposes, member’s private vehicles, when authorized for use on Department business, are also considered apparatus”. Do you agree or disagree with this statement?

A) Agree

B) Disagree

A

A) Agree

SB 56, 4.1

35
Q

Which one of the following instances would be considered an accident and not an incident?

A) A member suffers a serious injury after falling from the rig while re packing the hose bed.

B) Damage to a civilian vehicle from a TL outrigger at an all hands fire.

C) A member is thrown from a spare open cab tower ladder while responding to a gas leak.

D) After returning from picking up the meal, members notice graffiti drawn on the rear of the apparatus.

A

C) A member is thrown from a spare open cab tower ladder while responding to a gas leak.

(SB 56, 4.3)

  • Incident = damage to a department vehicle when the vehicle is
    properly parked or damage discovered during routine
    inspection of the vehicle/apparatus.
  • Minor, serious or fatal injuries to members while operating on a
    PARKED apparatus shall also be defined as an incident.
36
Q

Engine 500 was just involved in an accident while responding to a telephone alarm. The officer of Engine 500 must realize that his primary initial obligation is what?

A) Treat life threatening injuries

B) Request additional units if needed

C) Determine if the accident is major or minor

D) Prevent the accident from increasing in magnitude

A

D) Prevent the accident from increasing in magnitude

SB 56, 6.2.1

37
Q

The officer of a ladder company involved in a major accident with a tractor trailer, while awaiting the arrival of the BC, feels that vehicles involved must be moved to prevent further accidents. He would be correct to take all but which one of the following actions?

A) Mark the location of all tires on both vehicles with a “T” shaped marking, indicating the outside edge of the tire and center line of the axle of each wheel. If double wheeled, mark only the outside tires.

B) Mark the four corners of the tractor trailer

C) Use lumber crayon, chalk or any other means at hand to make the marks.

D) Renew the marks as necessary until the arrival of the assigned BC.

A

D) Renew the marks as necessary until the arrival of the assigned BC. (INCORRECT)

(SB 56, 6.5.2)

  • Renew marks as necessary until the arrival of the SAFETY
    BATTALION OR THE PHOTO UNIT, unless such renewal would
    present a hazard to the members.
38
Q

Engine 333 was just involved in a minor accident with a civilian vehicle on the BQE at 0300 hours. The civilian vehicle has a flat tire and is unable to be moved. While awaiting the BC and tow truck, the officer instructs his members to place flares warning oncoming traffic. The posted speed limit is 50 mph, but vehicles are passing the accident at speeds of up to 60 mph. Based on this information, the member placing the flares should place the furthest flare a minimum of how many feet from the rear of the accident scene?

A) 420 feet

B) 360 feet

C) 310 feet

D) 250 feet

A

A) 420 feet

(SB 56, TB Fires 8)

  • Highest expected speed (60) X
    First digit of highest expected speed (6) +
    60
  • 60 X 6 + 60 = 420 feet
39
Q

Ladder 501 is having trouble with the air brake system on their apparatus and they have been instructed to drive the rig to the shops for repairs. The officer has the LCC and the OV drive the apparatus to the shops. While enroute, they are involved in a minor accident. Engine 99 and Battalion 70, respond to the accident, where there are no injuries and a police report is completed. In this instance, who is responsible to prepare the Apparatus Accident Report (CD-19)?

A) The officer of Engine 99

B) The officer of Ladder 501

C) The BC in Battalion 70

D) The OV firefighter from Ladder 501

A

B) The officer of Ladder 501

(SB 56, 8.1)

  • CD-19 prepared by the officer in charge or the operator of the
    apparatus at the time of the accident. If the officer or operator was to
    be injured in the accident and unable to complete the CD-19, the.
    Another member on scene would gather the necessary information to
    complete the form.
40
Q

The CD-19 (Apparatus Accident Report) shall be forwarded through the chain of command by the officer or operator within how many house of the apparatus accident/incident?

A) 24

B) 48

C) 72

D) 96

A

D) 96

SB 56, 26.1

41
Q

The following statements were made at a recent Division Safety Conference. Which statement should be corrected by the Deputy Chief?

A) If two or more apparatus collide, the occurrence is considered to be two (or more) accidents, and each unit involved is required to prepare Apparatus Accident Reports.

B) A properly parked apparatus is not required to forward a CD-19 if struck by another vehicle.

C) Upon return to quarters, the preparer of the CD-19 will contact the Fire Department Operations Center (FDOC) with the particulars of the incident.

D) A copy of the PD report must be obtained from the responding precinct and included with the CD-19. The Police Report can be obtained at the responding precinct either in person or via fax.

A

B) A properly parked apparatus is not required to forward a CD-19 if struck by another vehicle (INCORRECT)

(SB 56, 12.1)

  • A properly parked apparatus IS ALWAYS REQUIRED to forward a
    CD-19 if struck by another vehicle.
42
Q

The New York State Report of Motor Vehicle Accident (MV-104) must be completed and sent to the NYS DMV within ______ days, and a copy must be sent to the Safety Command Accident Claims Unit within _______ days of an accident resulting in death, personal injury, damage over $1000 to the property of anyone person, or if a dollar amount cannot be estimated.

A) 7 / 4

B) 7 / 7

C) 10 / 4

D) 10 / 7

A

C) 10 / 4

(SB 56, 24.1)

  • 96 hours = 4 days
43
Q

During a recent roll call, Captain Kiner discussed various safety points with the members of his ladder company. In which point was the Captain incorrect?

A) No unit shall operate alone in a vacant building.

B) A TL should be positioned and made ready for immediate use at vacant building fires.

C) At all fires obviously involving electrical equipment, members shall use breathing apparatus until the member feels the area is completely free of toxic smoke.

D) Under heavy fire conditions, the stability of all fire buildings should be suspect, particularly buildings that formerly were supported on either side by walls of adjoining buildings.

A

C) At all fires obviously involving electrical equipment, members shall use breathing apparatus until the member feels the area is completely free of toxic smoke.

(SB 57)

  • Use breathing apparatus until THE OFFICER IN COMMAND feels the
    area is completely free of toxic smoke. This includes overhauling
    operations.
44
Q

A Captain was conducting a drill in the kitchen and was going over some safety issues within the FDNY. Which statement is incorrect?

A) Whenever a tower ladder basket comes to rest close to a parapet or roof, prior to retracting the boom, the basket must be raised.

B) Each firefighter and officer responding or riding on or in a Department apparatus vehicle should make use of all restraining devices provided to insure safe transport.

C) Military smoke grenades have been found at FDNY operations. While they are considered non toxic when used outdoors, exposure to heavy concentrations of smoke generated in closed spaces are extremely dangerous.

D) Only under extreme circumstances, such as a known life hazard, may a tower ladder operate with outriggers and jacks down on only one side.

A

D) Only under extreme circumstances, such as a known life hazard, may a tower ladder operate with outriggers and jacks down on only one side. (INCORRECT)

(SB 57)

  • TLs ARE NOT DESIGNED to operate with outriggers and jacks down
    on one side only.