TP Questions for More Review Flashcards
To be consistent with ethical requirements, David DeFoe, a psychology intern, must do which of the following when a supervisor has legal responsibility for his work?
A. He must tell his clients that he is a psychology intern.
B. He must tell his clients that his work is being supervised
C. He must provide clients with information about his education and experience
D. He must indicate his status on his business card
Standard 10.10 of the APA’s Ethics Code & Principle III.22 of the Canadian Code of Ethics apply to the situation described in the question.
A. He must tell his clients that he is a psychology intern - CORRECT: This answer is most consistent w/ethical guidelines which require interns (Trainees) to inform their clients of tier professional statuses. Note that Standard 10.10(c) of the Ethics Code also requires that Mr. DeFoe provide clients with the name of his supervisor.
B. He must tell his clients that his work is being supervised - Incorrect: Telling clients that he is being supervised would not be adequate since this would not clearly indicate that he is an intern.
(Ethics Question)
You have been seeing Leticia Lopez in therapy for several months. Leticia is 24 years old and lives with her widowed mother, who is paying for Leticia’s therapy. One day, Leticia’s mother calls and says she is very concerned
about Leticia and wants to know what she can do to help Leticia feel better about herself. Mrs. Lopez asks that you not tell Leticia that she has called. Your best course of action in this situation would be to:
A. give Mrs. Lopez the specific advice she has requested.
B. tell Mrs. Lopez to ask Leticia what she (Mrs. Lopez) can do to help her.
C. tell Mrs. Lopez that it would be best if you discussed this matter with Leticia
D. suggest that Mrs. Lopez accompany Leticia to her next therapy session.
Leticia is an adult and, even though her mother is paying for her therapy, this does not limit Leticia’s confidentiality.
C. tell Mrs. Lopez that it would be best if you discussed this matter with Leticia - CORRECT This course of action is most consistent with the ethical guidelines and is also likely to be in the best interests of Leticia from a clinical perspective.
a. Incorrect Discussing Leticia’s status with her mother without Leticia’s consent would represent a breach of confidentiality.
b. Incorrect This alternative does not explicitly violate ethical guidelines, but response c is a better answer.
d. Incorrect This would not be the most appropriate course of action from either an ethical or clinical perspective.
(Ethics Question)
Dr. Calvin Claymore, a licensed psychologist, regularly waives the co-payment for low-income clients whose therapy fees are covered by insurance. This practice is:
A. ethical only if the insurance company has agreed to this arrangement
B. ethical since it is in the best interests of low-income clients.
C. ethical as long as Dr. Claymore doesn’t bill the insurance company for an increased hourly fee in order to collect her full fee.
D. ethical as long as the insurance company does not explicitly prohibit this arrangement.
The practice described in this question represents insurance fraud, which is both unethical and illegal.
A. ethical only if the insurance company has agreed to this arrangement - CORRECT Most insurance companies agree to pay a specific percentage of a psychologist’s Fee but, when the co-payment is waived, this means the insurance company is paying the entire Fee. Consequently, regularly waiving the co-payment without the permission of the insurance company represents insurance fraud.
(Ethics Question)
Which of the following is responsible for the largest proportion of complaints filed with the APA’s Ethics Committee? A. sexual misconduct B. test misuse C. breach of confidentiality D. discrimination
Although the types of actions that underlie complaints filed with the APA’s Ethics Committee vary in number from year to year, one of the actions listed in the answers to this question has consistently been the most frequent cause of complaints.
a. Sexual Misconduct - CORRECT The 2005 Report of the Ethics Committee, For example, identifies sexual misconduct of an adult as being the behavior most commonly cited in cases opened by the Ethics Committee, which is consistent with previous
reports. Test misuse, breach of confidentiality, and discrimination (answers b, c, and d) are causes of complaints but not as often as is sexual misconduct.
(Ethics Question)
Within the context of sexual harassment, “quid pro quo” refers to:
A. a situation in which an employee’s response to sexual demands impacts his/her job.
B. the creation of a “hostile environment” as a result of sexually offensive conduct.
C. the judgment of a “reasonable woman” that an act is offensive.
C. overt (explicit) sexual conduct.
“Quid pro quo” is one of two legally recognized types of sexual harassment.
A. a situation in which an employee’s response to sexual demands impacts his/her job - CORRECT Quid pro quo sexual harassment occurs when a person’s submission to or rejection of sexual advances affects his/her employment status (Hostile environment sexual harassment is the other legally recognized type of
sexual harassment.)
(Ethics Question)
Administering a drug that reduces dopamine to below normal levels would have which effect on the symptoms of schizophrenia? A. exacerbate symptoms B. decrease or eliminate symptoms C. have no effect on symptoms D. affect negative symptoms only
According to the dopamine hypothesis, schizophrenia is due to excessive dopamine or oversensitivity to dopamine. Consequently, drugs that reduce dopamine levels will decrease the symptoms of this disorder.
B. decrease or eliminate symptoms - CORRECT The traditional antipsychotic drugs exert their beneficial effects primarily by reducing dopamine to below-normal levels.
d. Incorrect The traditional antipsychotics actually seem to have more effect on the positive symptoms than on the negative symptoms of schizophrenia.
(Abnormal Psychology Question - DSM -IV)
In terms of neurotransmitters, bulimia nervosa has been linked to:
A. lower-than-normal levels of serotonin and norepinephrine.
B. a lower-than normal level of serotonin and a higher-than-normal level of norepinephrine.
C. a lower-than-normal level of norepinephrine and a higher-than normal level of serotonin.
D. higher-than-normal levels of serotonin and norepinephrine.
Bulimia has been attributed to abnormalities in serotonin,
norepinephrine, and dopamine.
A. lower-than-normal levels of serotonin and norepinephrine - CORRECT Bulimia has been linked to low levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine; and several recent studies have confirmed that serotonin and
norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (e.g., duloxetine) are useful For eliminating the binging and purging behaviors associated with this disorder.
(Abnormal Psychology Question - DSM -IV)
The assessment of patients with Alzheimer’s dementia is an ongoing process due to the degenerative nature of the disease and the consequent need to alter the nature of the treatment plan. During the 4th or 5th year of the
disorder, an assessment is most likely to reveal:
A. deficits in new learning, mild to moderate impairment in remote memory, anomia, and sadness.
B. severe impairments in recent and remote memory, fluent aphasia, indifference or irritability, and restlessness.
C. severe impairments in memory and executive functioning, motor rigidity, confusion, and delusions.
D. severely impaired intellectual functioning, limb rigidity, apathy, and seizures.
Alzheimer’s dementia is a degenerative disease with symptoms becoming progressively worse over time.
a. Incorrect These symptoms are more common during the first 2 to 3 years of the disorder.
B. severe impairments in recent and remote memory, fluent aphasia, indifference or irritability, and restlessness - CORRECT These are characteristic symptoms during the 3rd through 10th years.
c. Incorrect These are late-stage symptoms (8 to 12 years).
d. Incorrect Severely impaired intellectual Functioning, limb rigidity, and apathy are also later symptoms; and seizures are not necessarily associated with this disorder.
(Abnormal Psychology Question - DSM -IV)
According to the catecholarnine hypothesis:
A. mania is due to a deficiency in norepinephrine.
B. depression is due to a deficiency in norepinephrine
C. mania is due to excessive acetylcholine.
D. depression is due to excessive acetylcholine.
Knowing that the catecholamines include epinephrine, norepinephrine, and dopamine would have helped you identify the correct response to this question.
a. Incorrect The catecholamine hypothesis (Schildkraut, 1965, 1978) predicts that mania is due to excessive norepinephrine.
B. depression is due to a deficiency in norepinephrine - CORRECT According to the catecholamine hypothesis, at least some types of depression are due to a lower-than-normal level of norepinephrine.
(Abnormal Psychology Question - DSM -IV)
If one of the offspring in a family develops schizophrenia, what is the likelihood that his/her biological sibling will also develop this disorder? A. 2 % B. 10 % C. 25% D. 45 %
Although the concordance rates for schizophrenia vary somewhat from study to study, only one of the correlations given in the answers comes close to the rates reported in the literature for biological siblings.
B. 10 % - CORRECT This is the typical correlation reported in the literature for biological siblings.
(Abnormal Psychology Question - DSM -IV)
Research investigating comorbidity in children suggests that, when depression occurs in conjunction with \_\_\_\_\_\_\_, the depression is often associated with a different course and a different family background than when it occurs alone. A. an anxiety disorder B. conduct disorder C. somatic complaints D. learning problems
This is a difficult question that requires you to be an expert on childhood depression. For these kinds of questions, if you don’t know the answer, don’t spend too much time trying to figure them out: Make an “educated guess” and move on to the next question.
a. Incorrect Anxiety commonly occurs in conjunction with depressive symptoms in children. The research suggests that when anxiety and depression occur together, the depression is similar in terms of course and family background to depression that occurs without anxiety.
B. conduct disorder - CORRECT Some experts suggest that depression occurring in conjunction with conduct disorder is actually a different type of depression since it is associated with a lower rate of depression in adulthood as well as with a lower rate of depression among relatives. See R. Harrington, Affective disorders, in M. Rutter, et al., (eds.), Child and Adolescent Psychiatry, Oxford, Blackwell Scientific Publications, 1994.
c. Incorrect There is currently no research suggesting that somatic complaints are indicative of a different form of depression.
d. Incorrect There is currently no evidence that suggests that learning problems are indicative of a different form of depression.
(Abnormal Psychology Question - DSM -IV)
The research suggests that the most effective treatment for nicotine dependence in terms of both short- and long-term effects combines:
A. a 12-step program with individual therapy.
B. a 12-step program with relapse prevention.
C. nicotine replacement therapy with aversion therapy.
D. nicotine replacement therapy with behavioral interventions.
Based on a review of the empirical research, the American Psychiatric Association (1996) concluded that a multimodal intervention is the most successful approach for treating nicotine dependence.
D. nicotine replacement therapy with behavioral interventions - CORRECT The APA Found that the most successful programs include nicotine replacement therapy, multicomponent behavior therapy, and support and assistance from a clinician.
(Abnormal Psychology Question - DSM -IV)
Dissociative amnesia most commonly involves: A. short-term memory loss. B. retrospective gaps in memory. C. widespread retrograde amnesia. D. a period of unconsciousness.
Dissociative amnesia is characterized by an inability to recall important personal information that is often related to a traumatic event.
a. Incorrect Short-term memory is usually not affected in dissociative amnesia.
B. retrospective gaps in memory - CORRECT Dissociative amnesia involves retrospective gaps in the recall of aspects of the individual’s past, often aspects related to a trauma or stressor - i.e., the individual cannot recall events related to or following exposure to a traumatic or stressful event.
c. Incorrect Memory loss is most often related to a traumatic event and does not usually entail widespread retrograde amnesia — i.e., it does not include memory
loss for events that occurred prior to the event.
d. Incorrect A period of unconsciousness is not characteristic of this disorder.
(Abnormal Psychology Question - DSM -IV)
Apraxia, a symptom of dementia, involves which of the following?
A. deficits in written and/or spoken language
B. inability to execute voluntary motor movements
C. incoordination, clumsiness, and a lack of balance
D. inability to recognize familiar objects or people
The diagnosis of dementia requires some degree of memory impairment and aphasia, apraxia, agnosia, and/or impaired executive functioning.
a. Incorrect Aphasia refers to deficits in written and/or spoken language.
B. inability to execute voluntary motor movements - CORRECT A person with apraxia has difficulty executing voluntary motor movements that is NOT due to problems in muscle strength or a lack of cooperation.
c. Incorrect Ataxia is characterized by incoordination, clumsiness, and a lack of balance.
d. Incorrect Agnosia is the inability to recognize or identify familiar objects, people, or sounds.
(Abnormal Psychology Question - DSM -IV)
Unilateral electroconvulsive shock therapy (ECT) to the right hemisphere would most likely produce:
A. predominantly anterograde amnesia involving nonverbal material.
B. predominantly anterograde amnesia involving verbal material.
C. predominantly retrograde amnesia involving nonverbal material.
D. predominantly retrograde amnesia involving verbal material.
Knowing that, in most people, the left hemisphere mediates verbal memories while the right hemisphere mediates nonverbal memories would have helped narrow the responses to a and c.
A. predominantly anterograde amnesia involving nonverbal material - CORRECT ECT can produce both anterograde and retrograde amnesia but anterograde amnesia predominates. Consequently, following unilateral ECT to the right hemisphere, a person will have the most trouble forming new nonverbal memories. See, e.g., E. Kolb and I. Q. Wishaw, Fundamentals of Human
Neuropsycnology, New York, W. H. Freeman and Co., 1995.
(Abnormal Psychology Question - DSM -IV)
Compared to children and adolescents in the general population, children and adolescents with a learning disorder have:
A. a lower rate of psychopathology.
B. a higher rate of psychopathology.
C. the same rate of psychopathology.
D. the same rate of psychopathology but more severe symptoms.
Although the specific diagnoses that commonly co—occur with the learning disorders are relatively limited in number, the rates of these diagnoses are higher than the rates in the general population.
B. a higher rate of psychopathology - CORRECT As an example, the prevalence rate for ADHD is 3 to 5% in the general population but between 20 and 25% for children with a learning disorder.
(Abnormal Psychology Question - DSM -IV)
Orgasmic reconditioning is considered to be an effective treatment for which of the following disorders? A. male erectile disorder B. male and female orgasmic disorder C. paraphilia D. gender identity disorder
Orgasmic reconditioning is based on the assumption that orgasm reinforces sexual fantasies, and it is used to replace the stimuli that produce an organism.
C. paraphilia - CORRECT Orgasmic reconditioning is one of the techniques used to treat paraphilias and involves having the individual replace an unacceptable sexual
fantasy with a more acceptable one while masturbating.
(Abnormal Psychology Question - DSM -IV)
In therapy, an American Indian family is likely to respond most positively to interventions that:
A. reflect a “value—free” perspective.
B. reflect a spiritual, holistic’ orientation to life.
C. make a clear distinction between mental and physical well-being.
D. take into account the hierarchical structure of the family.
It is always important to take a therapy client’s culture into account when deriving a diagnosis and developing a treatment plan.
a. Incorrect When working with American Indian clients, adopting a “value-free” perspective can lead to mistrust.
B. reflect a spiritual, holistic’ orientation to life - CORRECT American Indians are likely to have a spiritual, holistic orientation to life that emphasizes harmony with nature.
c. Incorrect As a general rule, American Indians do not make clear distinctions between mental and physical health.
d. Incorrect The structure of American Indian families varies; however, families are usually not hierarchical.
(Clinical Psychology Question)
Teddy Roosevelt was weak and ill as a child but grew up to be a robust adult and coined the term “rugged individualism.” He also became associated with
the slogan “speak softly but carry a big stick.” This outcome is predicted by ______theory of personality.
A. Adler’s
B. Rogers’s
C. Perls’s
D. Jung’s
This is a fairly simple question as long as you recall that Adler is associated with the concepts of “feelings of inferiority” and “striving for superiority.”
A. Adler’s - CORRECT According to Adler, real or imagined organ inferiority leads to feelings of inferiority. However, people can respond to these feelings in a
constructive way and pursue goals that help them achieve superiority.
(Clinical Psychology Question)
The belief that a child‘s misbehavior has one of four goals - i.e. attention, revenge, power, or to display inadequacy -is most consistent with: A. Beck’s cognitive-behavioral therapy. B. Adler’s individual psychology. C. Perls’s Gestalt therapy. D. Mahler’s object relations theory.
Adler believed that all behaviors are goal—directed and purposeful.
B. Adler’s individual psychology - CORRECT Dreikurs, an associate of Adler’s, described the misbehavior of
children as attempts to belong, which reflect faulty beliefs about what it takes to belong (e.g., “I belong only when I’m the center of attention”).
(Clinical Psychology Question)
Carl Jung believed that a client’s transference:
A. is a fantasy that distracts the client from reality.
B. represents “mixed feelings” toward the therapist.
C. is a form of “acting out.”
D. reflects the client’s personal and collective unconscious
The correct answer to this question should have been easy to identify if you’re at all familiar with Jung’s work, since only one of the answers includes language that is associated with his analytical psychology.
D. reflects the client’s personal and collective unconscious - CORRECT Jung viewed transference as the projection of both the personal and collective unconscious.
(Clinical Psychology Question)
A formative evaluation is conducted:
A. prior to developing an intervention to determine what the intervention should include.
B. during the delivery of the intervention to identify ways to improve it.
C. at the end of the intervention to evaluate its effectiveness.
D. at the end of the intervention to evaluate participants’ reactions to it.
In the evaluation literature, a distinction is made between formative and summative evaluation.
a. Incorrect This sounds more like a needs analysis.
B. during the delivery of the intervention to identify ways to improve it - CORRECT As its name suggests, a formative evaluation is conducted while an
intervention is being “formed” [developed or delivered] and is used to determine if the intervention needs to be modified in order to meet its goals.
c. Incorrect This describes a summative evaluation.
d. Incorrect This also sounds more like a summative evaluation.
(Clinical Psychology Question)
A practitioner of which of the following is most likely to agree that the therapist's role is to bring unconscious issues that exist within a family to a conscious level? A. systemic family therapy B. existential family therapy C. structural family therapy D. object relations family therapy
Practitioners of psychodynamic psychotherapy are interested in the impact of unconscious issues on current behavior; and only one of the therapies listed in the answers is a psychodynamic approach.
D. object relations family therapy - CORRECT Object relations family therapy is psychoclynamic and links
intrapsychic phenomena to current family relationships.
(Clinical Psychology Question)
From the perspective of Gestalt therapy, introjection is: A. the result of an unresolved conflict. B. an image disturbance. C. a boundary disturbance. D. a defense mechanism.
Gestaltians use the term introjection to describe an overly permeable boundary between the person and the environment.
C. a boundary disturbance - CORRECT For Gestaltians, neurotic behavior is often the result of a disturbance
in the boundary between the person and his/her external environment. Introjection is one type of boundary disturbance and occurs when a person accepts values, beliefs, etc. from the environment without actually understanding or fully assimilating them.
(Clinical Psychology Question)
A family therapist working from the perspective of social learning theory is likely to describe spouse abuse as:
A. a homeostatic mechanism that serves to restore the abuser’s control over the relationship.
B. the result of repetitious and dysfunctional transactional patterns.
C. an acquired response that has been maintained by its ability to reduce stress.
D. isolation of the marital dyad from outside social (corrective) influences.
Social learning theory emphasizes the impact of parents and others on behavior as well as the internal, vicarious, and/or external consequences of a behavior.
C. an acquired response that has been maintained by its ability to reduce stress - CORRECT This answer is the only one that addresses the impact of learning and consequences on behavior and, therefore, is the best response.
(Clinical Psychology Question)
From the perspective of Jay i-ia|ey’s strategic family therapy, “symptoms” are primarily \_\_\_\_\_\_\_phenomena. A. affective B. intrapsychic C. interpersonal D. cognitive
Haley’s strategic family therapy was influenced by the
communication/interaction school of family therapy and emphasizes the role of interaction in family functioning.
C. interpersonal - CORRECT For strategic family therapists, a symptom is an interpersonal phenomenon that represents an attempt to control a relationship.
(Clinical Psychology Question)
A wife approaches her husband in an affectionate way. He pulls away from her; but when she begins to leave the room, he says in a hurt manner, "What's wrong? Don't you want to spend time with me?“ When she protests, he ignores her. This is an example of: A. mystification. B. a negative feedback loop. ‘ C. dysfunctional communication. D. double-bind communication.
In this situation, the husband has given inconsistent (“double”) messages to his wife.
a. Incorrect Mystification is similar to a double—bind communication, but its purpose is to mask an underlying conflict.
b. Incorrect A negative feedback loop is a corrective mechanism that allows a family system to reduce deviation and maintain stability.
c. Incorrect Although this communication is dysfunctional, this answer is too general, and answer d is a better response.
D. double-bind communication - CORRECT When a person is given inconsistent messages and is unable to comment on them, this is referred to as a “double-bind.”
(Clinical Psychology Question)
The Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model proposed by Atkinson, Morten and Sue (1993) is based on the assumption that the stages of identity development reflect changes in:
A. attitudes toward members of minority and dominant cultures.
B. interactions with members of minority and dominant cultures.
C. level of acculturation.
D. stage of ego identity development.
Each stage of the Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model is characterized by a different set of attitudes toward members of one’s own minority group, members of other minority groups, and members of the dominant group.
A. attitudes toward members of minority and dominant cultures - CORRECT Each stage in this model reflects different attitudes toward members of different racial/cultural groups.
(Clinical Psychology Question)
Troiden’s (1988) Gay/Lesbian (Homosexual) Identity Development Model predicts that individuals in the sensitization stage:
A. realize that they are homosexual.
B. begin to “come out” to friends in the homosexual community.
C. feel different or alienated from their same—sex peers.
D. believe they are homosexual but try to “pass” as heterosexual.
Troiden’s (1988) Gay/Lesbian (Homosexual) Identity Development Model distinguishes between four age-related stages: sensitization, self-recognition, identity assumption, and commitment.
a. Incorrect This is characteristic of the self—recognition stage which occurs at the onset of puberty.
b. Incorrect This is characteristic of the identity assumption stage.
C. feel different or alienated from their same—sex peers - CORRECT The sensitization stage usually occurs in middle childhood. During this stage, the individual feels different from and experiences less opposite—sex
interests than his/her peers and begins to have homosexual feelings without understanding the implications of those feelings for self—identity.
c. Incorrect This is not characteristic of the sensitization stage.
(Clinical Psychology Question)
The Health Belief Model predicts that, to modify an individual’s health—related behaviors, an intervention should focus on:
A. the rewards and punishments associated with health—related behaviors.
B. the severity, duration, and stage of the illness.
C. the individual’s locus of control.
D. the individual’s knowledge, motivation, and self—efficacy beliefs.
As its name implies, the Health Belief Model focuses on the impact of an individual’s beliefs on his/her health—related behaviors.
a. Incorrect The Health Belief Model emphasizes the individual’s perceptions and beliefs rather than on external conditions [e.g., rewards and punishments] that
influence health—related behaviors.
b. Incorrect This is not a focus of interventions based on the Health Belief Model, which usually emphasize prevention of a disorder rather than the treatment of an
existing disorder.
c. Incorrect The Health Locus of Control Model emphasizes the role of locus of control beliefs.
D. the individual’s knowledge, motivation, and self—efficacy beliefs - CORRECT According to the Health Belief Model, a person’s willingness to take appropriate health—related actions is related to the person’s beliefs about (1)
his/her susceptibility to the illness; (2) the consequences of the illness; and (3) the benefits of and barriers to taking appropriate action. Interventions based on the Health Belief Model focus on the individual’s knowledge about the illness and methods for avoiding it; motivation to take action; and self—efficacy beliefs.
(Clinical Psychology Question)
Prochaska and DiClemente’s (1982) stages of change (transtheoretical) model predicts that a person in the _______stage plans to take action within the
next six months that will alter his/her problematic behavior.
A. action
B. contemplation
C. preparation
D. precontemplation
Prochaska and DiClemente’s stages of change model distinguishes between six stages of change: precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance, and termination.
a. Incorrect A person in the action stage is currently taking actions to alter his/her behavior.
B. contemplation - CORRECT A person in the contemplation stage intends to take action in the
next six months.
c. Incorrect A person in the preparation stage is planning to take action in the near future (usually defined as in the next month).
d. Incorrect A person in the precontemplation stage is not planning to change in the foreseeable future.
(Clinical Psychology Question)
From the perspective of general systems theory, if an open system is faced with an unexpected threat, it will: A. close down. B. attempt to maintain a steady state. C. defend against or adapt to it. D. break down.
Systems theory underlies family therapy, in which a family is viewed as an open system that interacts with the environment.
C. defend against or adapt to it - CORRECT Open systems respond to input by modifying or elaborating structural elements. Under some conditions, the system will react in a way that maintains homeostasis; in other conditions, the system changes or adapts to the new input.
(Clinical Psychology Question)
Atkinson, Morten, and Sue’s (1993) Racial;'Cultural Identity Development Model proposes that people in which of the following stages begin to question their rejection of all aspects of the dominant culture and absolute loyalty to their own culture? A. encounter B. dissonance C. integrative awareness D. introspection
The Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model distinguishes between five stages: conformity, dissonance, resistance and immersion, introspection, and integrative awareness.
a. Incorrect The encounter stage is the second stage in Cross’s (1991) Black Racial (Nigrescence) Identity Development Model.
b. Incorrect During the dissonance stage, the individual begins to question conformity to the dominant culture.
c. Incorrect In this stage, the person bases acceptance or rejection of aspects of the majority and minority cultures on an objective evaluation.
D. introspection - CORRECT During the introspection stage, the individual begins to question the unequivocal position that he/she adopted during the previous resistance-
immersion stage with regard to his/he own culture and the dominant culture.
(Clinical Psychology Question)
Grief, role disputes, role transitions, and interpersonal deficits are the primary targets of: A. transactional analysis. B. interpersonal therapy. C. reality therapy. D. solution—focused therapy.
The four problem areas identified in this question (grief, role disputes, role transitions, and interpersonal deficits) are all related to interpersonal issues.
B. interpersonal therapy - CORRECT Practitioners of interpersonal therapy (1’l’P} focus on one or more of
the problems areas identified in this question.
(Clinical Psychology Question)
The information that family members continuously exchange and that helps minimize deviation and maintain the family's stability is referred to as \_\_\_\_ feedback. A. external B. internal C. negative D. positive
In family systems theory, the information exchange between family members can act as either positive or negative feedback.
C. negative - CORRECT Negative feedback is corrective and helps the system return to maintain its steady state. Thus, a “negative feedback loop” helps minimize
deviation and thereby maintains the family’s stability.
d. Incorrect Positive feedback increases deviation from a steady state and, therefore, produces a change in the family’s functioning.
(Clinical Psychology Question)
For Carl Rogers, incongruence between self and experience:
A. motivates the change required for positive growth.
B. can lead to denial or distortion of the self or experience.
C. is a frequent cause of premature termination from therapy.
D. can lead to a “failure identity.”
According to Rogers, for an individual to achieve self—actualization, his/her sense of self must remain unified, organized, and whole.
B. can lead to denial or distortion of the self or experience - CORRECT Rogers believed that the self can become disorganized when there is incongruence between the self and experience. This occurs when the individual experiences conditions of worth (e.g., is given attention or affection only when he/she acts in certain ways). Incongruence can lead to anxiety, which the
individual may attempt to alleviate by denying or distorting the self and/or the experience.
(Clinical Psychology Question)
Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
A. Client-centered therapy: External events must be a primary focus of therapy because they are responsible for deterring people from normal healthy growth.
B. Reality therapy: Environment and person must both be considered because over—concentration on one can limit the effectiveness of therapy
C. Behavioral therapy: Environmental forces are the primary determinant of human development.
D. Psychodynamic therapy: Interactions between the person and the environment are played out largely in the person’s unconscious.
This question is a little tricky, and you may have had to use the process of elimination to identify the correct response.
A. Client-centered therapy: External events must be a primary focus of therapy because they are responsible for deterring people from normal healthy growth - CORRECT Although incongruence between self and experience (the
environment) is an important concept in client—centered therapy, little attention is paid to actual external events in therapy. Instead, the focus is on the individual’s perception of those events.
b. Incorrect Reality therapy emphasizes person-environment transactions, and views the difficulties that people experience as reflecting a tendency to deny the
reality of external events.
c. Incorrect This is an accurate description of the behavioral view.
d. Incorrect This accurately describes the psychodynamic approach.
(Clinical Psychology Question)
A "teleological" approach is most associated with: A. Skinner. B. Bowen. C. Adler. D. Freud.
A teleological approach views behavior and personality as being “pulled” by a subjective future rather than being “pushed” by an objective past (e.g., by heredity or environmental events).
a. Incorrect Skinner viewed behavior as the result of the past consequences of the behavior.
b. Incorrect Bowen is a family therapist who regards severe mental disorders (e.g., Schizophrenia) as the result of a multigenerational transmission process. Therefore, his approach would not be described as teleological.
C. Adler - CORRECT A distinguishing characteristic of Adler’s approach is its teleological explanation for behavior. Adler believed that behavior is determined by future goals.
d. Incorrect Freud viewed current behavior as the result of innate factors and past experiences.
(Clinical Psychology Question)
A family therapist using the structural approach of Salvador Minuchin would most likely:
A. clarify boundaries between family members in order to reduce enmeshment.
B. work initially with the most differentiated family member.
C. use a multiple-therapist team to prevent any one therapist from becoming “triangulated” into the family system.
D. issue specific “directives” designed to counteract dysfunctional processes.
As its name implies, structural family therapy focuses on altering the family's structure in order to change the behavior patterns of family members. A. clarify boundaries between family members in order to reduce enmeshment - CORRECT Even if you are unfamiliar with Minuchin, you may have been able to guess that structural therapy would be concerned with boundaries. Structural family therapists view family dysfunction as being related to boundaries that are too diffuse (enmeshed) or too rigid (disengaged). b. Incorrect This is more characteristic of Bowen's approach to family therapy. c. Incorrect Minuchin's approach does not involve the use of multiple-therapist teams. d. Incorrect The issuance of directives is more characteristic of strategic family therapy than of structural family therapy. (Clinical Psychology Question)
Which of the following individuals is incorrectly matched with his view of personality or behavior?
A. Skinner: Personality represents a complete (or incomplete) mastery of the environment over innate drives and tendencies.
B. Rogers: Human behavior and personality depend more on subjective reality than on external reality.
C. Freud: “The child is the father of the man.“
D. Adler: Humans are motivated largely by innate social urges.
Identifying the correct answer to this question requires a careful reading of the responses.
A. Skinner: Personality represents a complete (or incomplete) mastery of the environment over innate drives and tendencies - CORRECT This description of Skinner’s theory is not quite accurate: Although Skinner acknowledged the existence of innate drives, he did not place as much emphasis on their role in personality development as it implies. His focus was, instead, on the external (environmental) determinants of behavior.
b. Incorrect Rogers believed it was possible to understand someone only by seeing reality as that person sees it.
c. Incorrect Freud believed that personality is pretty well established by age 5 or 6 - i.e., that adult personality is established in childhood.
d. Incorrect Adler stressed the role of social tendencies in personality development.
(Clinical Psychology Question)
Practitioners of Gestalt psychotherapy consider a client’s desire to talk about his/her past as:
A. a useful strategy for helping the client understand the present.
B. a way for the client to avoid coming to terms with the present.
C. the “second layer” of therapy.
D. a way for achieving “closure” near the end of therapy.
Knowing that Gestaltians focus on the here-and-now in therapy would have helped you identify the correct response to this question.
B. a way for the client to avoid coming to terms with the present - CORRECT Gestalt therapists do not deny the significance of the past. However, in therapy, they encourage clients to stay in the present even when
discussing past events or feelings since focusing on the past is viewed as a way to avoid the present.
(Clinical Psychology Question)
For Gestalt therapists, maladaptive behavior:
A. is a “developmental anomaly.”
B. reflects the adoption of “mistaken beliefs.”
C. results from the adoption of an unhealthy life script
D. reflects a “growth disorder.“
Like other humanistic therapists, Gestalt therapists view the individual as having an innate tendency for positive growth.
a. Incorrect This does not accurately describe the Gestaltian view of maladaptive behavior.
b. Incorrect This sounds more like cognitive views of maladaptive behavior.
c. Incorrect This is consistent with the assumptions of transactional analysis.
D. reflects a “growth disorder.“ - CORRECT For Gestaltians, neurotic behavior reflects interference with natural growth and a resulting lack of integration.
(Clinical Psychology Question)
Research on Helms’s White Racial Identity Development Model suggests that a White therapist will usually be most successful when working with a client from an ethnic/racial minority group when the therapist is in which stage? A. reintegration B. immersion—emersion C. autonomy D. integrative awareness
Helms’s White Racial Identity Development Model distinguishes between six identity statuses (stages): contact, disintegration, reintegration, pseudo—independence, immersion—emersion, and autonomy.
C. autonomy - CORRECT Perhaps not surprisingly, a White therapist is likely to be most effective when working with a client from an ethnic/racial minority group when the therapist is in the final stage of White identity development - i.e., the autonomy stage. A person in this stage has internalized a positive (non racist) White identity
that includes appreciation of and respect for racial/cultural similarities and differences.
(Clinical Psychology Question)
From the perspective of feminist therapy, therapist self—disclosure is:
A. contraindicated because it puts the client in a passive role.
B. necessary during the early stages of therapy to encourage the client’s participation.
C. a means of fostering a special bond between the client and the therapist
D. useful for promoting an egalitarian relationship between the therapist and client.
A key characteristic of feminist therapy is its emphasis on an egalitarian relationship.
a. Incorrect Promoting a passive role in a client is discouraged in Feminist therapy, but therapist self-disclosure (if done appropriately) is not considered a contributor to passivity.
b. Incorrect This describes one use of self-disclosure, but this response doesn’t best describe the role of self-disclosure in feminist therapy.
c. Incorrect Feminist therapists generally discourage developing a “special bond” because doing so can foster the client’s dependence on the therapist.
D. useful for promoting an egalitarian relationship between the therapist and client - CORRECT Feminist therapists view sharing their own life experiences with clients as a way of promoting an egalitarian relationship.
(Clinical Psychology Question)
A Milan systemic family therapist will emphasize the use of which of the following in therapy? A. directives B. "holons" C. maneuvers, coalitions, and games ‘ D. circular questions
A primary goal of Milan systemic family therapy is to “help family members see their choices and to assist them in exercising their prerogative of choosing” {Gelcer, McCabe, & Smith—Resnick, 1990, p. 22).
a. Incorrect Systemic family therapists view therapy as facilitative and, therefore, avoid the use of directives.
b. Incorrect As used by Minuchin, the term “holon” refers to the concept that a phenomenon is simultaneously a whole and its parts.
c. Incorrect Maneuvers, coalitions, and games are avoided by systemic therapists because they are more directive than facilitative.
D. circular questions - CORRECT For systemic therapists, questions are not only means for obtaining information but also act as a therapeutic intervention. Circular questions help define and clarify confused ideas and behaviors and introduce new information to family members.
(Clinical Psychology Question)
The notion that there are three major life tasks - friendship, occupation, and love — is MOST consistent with the philosophy of: A. Per|s B. Berne C. Rogers D. Adler
The three tasks listed in the question (friendship, occupation, and love) all involve social interactions. Of the individuals listed, one is most associated with an emphasis on social factors (i.e., social interest).
D. Adler - CORRECT Adler believed that people are motivated primarily by an innate social interest and that the goal in life is to act in ways that fulfill social responsibilities.
(Clinical Psychology Question)
A feminist therapist is least likely to view which of the following as an important aspect or goal of therapy:
A. identifying the sociopolitical and interpersonal forces that underlie a woman’s symptoms.
B. reconstructing the therapeutic process so that the traditional pattern of dependence is not recreated in the therapeutic relationship.
C. using the therapeutic relationship as an opportunity to model appropriate behavior.
D. identifying and integrating the masculine and feminine aspects of the woman’s personality.
Feminist therapists believe that a primary goal of feminist therapy is helping the client understand and appropriately respond to forces in the environment that impact the client’s life.
a. Incorrect Feminist therapists emphasize the role of sociopolitical Factors in maladaptive behavior and, therefore, a goal of therapy is to help the client
understand that the “personal is political.”
b. Incorrect Feminist therapists regard the relationship between therapist and client as a relationship between equals and use it as a model of equality to help Female clients overcome barriers created by traditional roles and relationships.
c. Incorrect Feminist therapists view the therapeutic relationship as an opportunity to model egalitarianism and other adaptive behaviors.
D. identifying and integrating the masculine and feminine aspects of the woman’s personality - CORRECT Feminists therapist are more likely to avoid labeling aspects of the personality as “masculine” or “feminine.”
(Clinical Psychology Question)
Helms’s (1995) White Racial Identity Development Model distinguishes between six statuses. The first status is: A. internalization. B. integrative awareness. C. reintegration. D. contact.
He|ms’s six identity statuses are contact, disintegration, reintegration, pseudo-independence, immersion/emersion, and autonomy.
D. contact - CORRECT Contact is the first status in Helms’s model. It is characterized by a lack of awareness of racial identity and often by racist attitudes and beliefs.
(Clinical Psychology Question)
For a Gestalt therapist, a primary goal of treatment is to help the client:
A. integrate the present with his/her past and future.
B. integrate the various aspects of the self.
C. develop a “success identity.”
D. develop a “healthy style of life.”
For the exam, you want to know that, in Gestalt therapy, the primary goals are increased awareness and integration of all aspects of the self
a Incorrect In Gestalt therapy, the focus is on the present. In fact, its founder, Fritz Perls, argued that “nothing exists but the now.”
B. integrate the various aspects of the self - CORRECT A primary goal of gestalt therapy is to integrate all aspects of the self; i.e., one’s feelings, thoughts, and actions.
c Incorrect This is the goal of reality therapy.
d Incorrect This sounds more like Adlerian therapy.
(Clinical Psychology Question)
Family therapy is probably contraindicated in which of the following situations?
A. The presenting problem involves long-term marital conflict.
B. Family members attribute their problems to one of the members.
C. One of the family members has severe depression.
D. One of the family members has anorexia or bulimia.
Family therapy is generally contraindicated when one family member’s disturbance, while affecting the family, is basically unrelated to family processes or structure or is so disruptive that it would interfere with the success of therapy.
a. Incorrect Family therapy would be appropriate in this situation.
b. Incorrect Family therapy would be appropriate in this situation.
C. One of the family members has severe depression - CORRECT Depression has been linked to a variety of factors including heredity, biochemical abnormalities, learned helplessness, hostility or aggression turned
inward, and illogical schemata. It has not, however, been consistently linked with any particular family factor, and family therapy, therefore, would not be particularly useful as a treatment for this disorder.
d. Incorrect Family therapy would be appropriate in this situation since eating disorders (especially anorexia and bulimia) have been linked to family factors.
(Clinical Psychology Question)
For practitioners of humanistic psychotherapy, psychopathology is the result of: A. blocked potential. B. “dis-integration." C. unresolved conflicts. D. severe trauma.
Therapists classified as humanists share a belief in the inherent capacity for humans to grow toward the achievement of their potential (i.e., to achieve self-actualization).
A. blocked potential. - CORRECT Neurosis and psychosis are generally viewed as the result of interference with the natural potential for growth and self-actualization.
(Clinical Psychology Question)
For practitioners of Minuchin’s structural family therapy, a symptom is:
A. both the result and cause of dysfunctional communication patterns.
B. the result of a family projection process.
C. a reflection of an “impasse.”
D. a maladaptive reaction to stress.
A primary goal of structural family therapy is to restructure the family so that it is better able to adapt to maturational and situational stressors.
a. Incorrect This sounds more like Haley’s strategic family therapy.
b. Incorrect This sounds like Bowen’s extended family systems therapy.
c. Incorrect This isn’t consistent with structural family therapy.
D. a maladaptive reaction to stress - CORRECT For structural family therapists, developmental and environmental changes produce stress which a family can respond to in either a healthy or unhealthy way.
(Clinical Psychology Question)
From a psychoanalytic perspective, anxiety is due to:
A. the inability to “construe” an event.
B. a threat to one’s unified self-concept.
C. a feeling of being isolated and helpless in a hostile world
D. the inability to deal with external threats.
Freud’s personality theory emphasizes conflicts between the internal instincts and the demands of reality.
a. Incorrect This best describes Kelly’s definition of anxiety.
b. Incorrect This is Roger’s view of anxiety.
c. Incorrect Horney referred to this as “basic anxiety.”
D. the inability to deal with external threats - CORRECT Of the answers given, this is the only one that implies a conflict between internal and external events and, therefore, is the best description of Freud’s conceptualization of anxiety.
(Clinical Psychology Question)
The primary difference between feminist and nonsexist therapy is that, in contrast to nonsexist therapy, feminist therapy:
A. promotes an egalitarian therapist—client relationship.
B. emphasizes political values and social change.
C. rejects sex-role stereotypes.
D. recognizes the impact of sexism on mental health.
Feminist therapy and non-sexist therapy share a number of characteristics but differ in terms of their emphasis on sociopolitical contributors to mental health problems.
a. Incorrect This is characteristic of both types of therapy.
B. emphasizes political values and social change - CORRECT Feminist therapy is the more political of the two types of therapy and is based on the assumption that the “personal is political.”
c. Incorrect Both types of therapy reject traditional se)
In therapy, an object relations family therapist would be most interested in which of the following?
A. distinguishing between positive and negative connotations
B. integrating attitudes, feelings, and behaviors.
C. interpreting focused and contextual transferences.
D. expanding awareness and se|f-responsibility.
Object relations family therapy is a psychodynamic approach and relies on many of the techniques associated with psychodynamic psychotherapy
C. interpreting focused and contextual transferences - CORRECT D. E. Scharff and J. S. Scharff note that addressing transferences and countertransferences is a primary focus of object relations family therapy (Object Relations Family Therapy, Northvale, NJ, Jason Aronson, 1991). These authors also distinguish between two types of transference - focused and contextual - and state that the latter is particularly important in family therapy.
(Clinical Psychology Question)
Replacing a “failure identity” with a “success identity" is a goal of treatment for practitioners of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ therapy. A. Gestalt B. Reality C. So|ution—focused D. Ad|erian
Of the therapies listed, only one distinguishes between success and failure identities.
B. Reality - CORRECT Glasser, the founder of reality therapy, viewed identity as a basic psychological need and distinguished between success and failure identities. A person develops a success identity when the person fulfills his/her other needs in a responsible way.
(Clinical Psychology Question)
When calculating an “effect size,” you would:
A. divide the difference between the means of the experimental and control groups by the “grand mean.”
B. divide the mean of the experimental group by its standard deviation and the mean of the control group by its standard deviation and sum the results.
C. add the mean difference between the experimental and control groups for each study and divide the result by the total number of studies.
D. divide the difference between the means of the experimental and control groups by the standard deviation of the control group.
The term “effect size” is associated with meta—analysis. Although there are several ways to calculate an effect size, only one of the responses accurately describes one of these methods.
D. divide the difference between the means of the experimental and control groups by the standard deviation of the control group - CORRECT The most commonly used effect size is a type of standard score, which means that it reports the effect of an intervention in terms of standard
deviation units.
(Clinical Psychology Question)
The first stage in Cross’s (1991) Black Racial Identity Development Model is: A. conformity. B. incorporation. C. contact. D. pre-encounter.
Cross’s Black Racial Identity Development Model distinguishes between 5 stages: pre-encounter, encounter, immersion-emersion, internalization, and internalization-commitment.
D. pre-encounter - CORRECT Cross’s model is based on the premise that African American identity development is directly linked to racial oppression. During the initial
pre-encounter stage, race has low salience.
(Clinical Psychology Question)
According to Atkinson, Morten, and Sue’s (1993) Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model, an African-American therapy client in the conformity stage will most likely:
A. prefer a white therapist.
B. be unwilling to self-disclose to a white therapist.
C. say his/her problems are directly related to racial oppression.
D. prefer a therapist who has expertise in working with African Americans.
The Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model consists of five stages: conformity, dissonance, resistance and immersion, introspection, and integrative awareness.
A. prefer a white therapist - CORRECT During the initial conformity stage, African Americans have positive
attitudes toward Whites and negative attitudes toward their own group; and, in therapy, they are likely to prefer a White therapist.
b. Incorrect This is characteristic of African American therapy clients in the dissonance, resistance and immersion, or introspection stage.
c. Incorrect This is characteristic of clients in the dissonance or resistance and immersion stage.
cl. Incorrect This is true about African American clients in the introspection or integrative awareness stage.
(Clinical Psychology Question)
Client-centered therapists are most likely to interpret a client’s heart palpitations, hyperventilation, tension headaches, and nausea as:
A. the result of unresolved intrapsychic conflicts.
B. manifestations of denied threats to the self-concept.
C. a response to overwhelming environmental stress.
D. the consequence of being unable to fulfill one”s own needs.
For practitioners of client-centered therapy, personality and behavioral problems arise when an individual’s natural tendency toward growth and actualization is disrupted by incongruence between the self and
experience.
B. manifestations of denied threats to the self-concept - CORRECT Incongruence results when the evaluations made by others are inconsistent with one’s self-concept. One way in which this incongruence is dealt with is to deny the external experience by saying it doesn’t exist or by distorting it. Rogers believed that such denial doesn’t work because it leads to anxiety which, in turn, may produce visceral symptoms.
(Clinical Psychology Question)
A family therapist would use the technique known as “prescribing the symptom” in order to:
A. undermine the family’s resistance to change.
B. reduce tension between family members.
C. change the meaning of a situation by changing the way it is perceived
D. educate family members about the benefits of change.
Prescribing the symptom is a paradoxical technique that involves instructing family members to engage in the problematic behavior, often in an exaggerated form.
A. undermine the family’s resistance to change - CORRECT The purpose of prescribing the symptom is to undermine the Family’s resistance to changing a behavior by requesting that Family members engage in the behavior. Ideally, this will cause them to rebel and engage, instead, in a more desirable behavior.
b. Incorrect This is not an accurate description of the purpose of prescribing the symptom.
c. Incorrect This is a better description of the technique known as relabeling.
d. Incorrect This is not an accurate description of the purpose of prescribing the symptom.
(Clinical Psychology Question)
A therapist instructs a client who suffers from insomnia to polish his hardwood floors for at least two hours whenever he wakes up during the night. Apparently this therapist is familiar with the work of: A. Luigi Boscolo. B. Milton Erickson. C. Salvador Minuchin. D. Marquis de Sade.
The task described in the question is an example of an “ordeal.”
a. Incorrect Luigi Boscolo is affiliated with the Milan systemic school of family therapy, which is not associated with the use of ordeals.
B. Milton Erickson - CORRECT For the exam, you should have paradoxical techniques and ordeals associated with Milton Erickson and Jay Haley (who was strongly influenced by Erickson).
c. Incorrect The use of ordeals is more associated with Erickson and Haley than with Minuchin.
(Clinical Psychology Question)
Criterion refers to the degree to which a supervisor’s
evaluation of an employee’s job performance is biased by the supervisor’s knowledge of the employee’s score on the selection test used to hire the employee.
A. deficiency
B. contamination
C. relevance
D. partiality
In this situation, the supervisor’s knowledge of the employee’s selection test score is “contaminating” his/her rating of the employee on a criterion (job performance) measure.
a. Incorrect Criterion deficiency refers to the degree to which a criterion measure does not measure all aspects of the “ultimate” criterion. The information provided in the question does not indicate that the measure of job
performance is deficient in terms of being a thorough measure of performance. It only indicates that the measure is susceptible to criterion contamination.
B. contamination - CORRECT The situation described in this question illustrates criterion contamination.
c. Incorrect Criterion relevance refers to the extent to which a criterion measure evaluates the “ultimate” criterion.
d. Incorrect Criterion partiality is a “made up” term.
(I-O Psychology)
Use of the Taylor-Russell tables would indicate that the decision-making accuracy of a selection test that has a low to moderate validity coefficient is greatest when:
A. the selection ratio is .90 and the base rate is .20.
B. the selection ratio is .90 and the base rate is .50.
C. the selection ratio is .10 and the base rate is .20.
D. the selection ratio is .10 and the base rate is .50.
The Taylor-Russell Tables provide information on a test’s decision- making accuracy for various combinations of base rates, selection ratios, and validity coefficients.
D. the selection ratio is .10 and the base rate is .50 - CORRECT A test with a low or moderate validity coefficient can improve decision-making accuracy when the selection ratio is low (e.g., .10) and the base
rate is moderate (near .50).
(I-O Psychology)
The function of a formative evaluation is best described as obtaining the information needed to:
A. guide program development so as to produce the best version of the program as possible.
B. determine whether the program has produced outcomes commensurate with the program’s goals.
C. initially formulate the goals and objectives of a new program.
D. identify and define the causal links between observed relationships among a set of variables.
A formative evaluation is what it sounds like: It is conducted while a program is being “formed.”
A. guide program development so as to produce the best version of the program as possible - CORRECT The purpose of a formative evaluation is to obtain the information needed to modify a program as it is being developed in order to determine if modifications are needed to achieve the program’s goals.
b. Incorrect This better describes a summative evaluation.
c. Incorrect This is not the function of a formative evaluation.
d. Incorrect This does not describe the purpose of a formative evaluation.
(I-O Psychology)
Research on job satisfaction suggests that it:
A. is a relatively stable trait and is minimally affected by job changes.
B. is relatively stable within the same job but unstable when measured across different jobs.
C. is unstable and varies over time both within the same job and across different jobs.
D. may be stable or unstable within and across jobs depending on other characteristics of the worker.
The studies have found that job satisfaction is a stable characteristic
A. is a relatively stable trait and is minimally affected by job changes - CORRECT The research has found that job satisfaction is relatively stable over time and across jobs. One explanation for this is that job satisfaction is
strongly related to a tendency toward positive or negative affect, which is a stable characteristic: In other words, people with negative affect tend to be dissatisfied with work, while those with positive affect tend to be satisfied.
(I-O Psychology)
In a study designed to evaluate the effects of rewards on productivity, employees in the experimental department receive their regular salary plus small bonuses that are contingent on their productivity, while employees in
the control department receive their regular salary but no special incentives. The productivity levels of each department and the bonuses received by the
experimental department are posted on a bulletin board in the company’s cafeteria. As expected, employees in the experimental department display an increase in productivity. However, an unexpected result is that employees in the control department do not maintain their performance at usual levels but, instead, exhibit a decrease in productivity. This latter result confirms the
predictions of which of the following?
A. ERG theory
B. equity theory
C. the John Henry effect
D. social comparison theory
Of the theories listed, equity theory best explains the outcomes of the study described in this question.
a. Incorrect Alderfer’s ERG theory does not apply to the situation described in this question as well as equity theory does.
B. equity theory - CORRECT Equity theory is used to predict how workers will respond in situations they perceive as equitable or inequitable. According to this theory, employees who perceive their situation as inequitable will attempt to create equity by decreasing their inputs (e.g., effort and performance) or by increasing
their outcomes (which employees in this situation cannot do).
c. Incorrect The John Henry effect predicts that employees in the control department will try to outperform employees in the experimental department.
d. Incorrect Social comparison theory doesn’t apply to this situation. It predicts that we learn about our own abilities (or other characteristics} by comparing them to those of other people.
(I-O Psychology)
Research comparing day, swing, and night shifts has found that:
A. the night shift is associated with the highest accident rates and has the most detrimental impact on social relations.
B. the night shift is associated with the highest accident rates, but the swing shift has the most detrimental impact on social relations.
C. the swing shift is associated with the highest accident rates, but the night shift has the most detrimental impact on social relations.
D. the swing shift is associated with the highest accident rates and has the most detrimental impact on social relations.
The studies indicate that the swing and night shifts are both associated with negative outcomes.
B. the night shift is associated with the highest accident rates, but the swing shift has the most detrimental impact on social relations - CORRECT Studies comparing the impact of the various work shifts have not produced entirely consistent results. However, it does appear that the night shift is associated with the highest accident rates and lowest performance, apparently as the result of sleep deprivation. In contrast, the swing shift has the most negative impact on family and other social relationships.
(I-O Psychology)
In the context of expectancy (VIE) theory, instrumentality refers to an employee’s:
A. belief that successful performance will lead to certain rewards.
B. belief that high effort will lead to successful performance.
C. commitment to work-related goals.
D. willingness to accept responsibility.
Expectancy theory predicts that employee motivation is a function of three factors: expectancy, instrumentality, and valence.
a. CORRECT In the context of expectancy theory, instrumentality refers to an employee’s beliefs about the link between performance and outcomes.
b. Incorrect This describes an employee’s expectancy beliefs.
c. Incorrect This does not describe instrumentality.
d. Incorrect This does not describe instrumentality.
(I-O Psychology)
From the perspective of Herzberg’s two-factor theory, the relationship between pay and motivation is best described by which of the following?
A. Pay acts as a source of motivation only after safety needs have been met.
B. Pay acts as a source of motivation only when intrinsic motivation is low
C. Pay acts as a source of motivation only for jobs that cannot be “enriched.”
D. Pay does not act as a source of motivation.
Herzberg‘s two-factor theory proposes that all people have two basic needs — hygiene needs and motivator needs.
a. Incorrect This isn’t consistent with Herzberg’s theory.
b. Incorrect This isn’t consistent with Herzberg’s theory.
c. Incorrect Herzberg proposed that providing employees with “enriched” jobs (jobs that provide opportunities to satisfy motivator needs) is the best way to increase satisfaction and motivation. He believed that enrichment could be applied to all types of jobs, and some of its earliest applications were to unskilled and clerical jobs.
D. Pay does not act as a source of motivation - CORRECT Herzberg’s two-factor theory identifies pay as a hygiene factor. Like other hygiene factors, pay leads to dissatisfaction when it is perceived to be inadequate but produces a state of neutrality when it is adequate. To increase motivation (and satisfaction), motivator factors must be provided by the job.
(I-O Psychology)
According to Tuckman and Jensen (1977), group members begin to develop close relationships with one another, trust each other, and feel as though they are part of a cohesive, effective group during the stage. A. norming B. forming C. performing D. storming
Tuckman and Jensen (1977) distinguish between 5 stages of group development — forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning.
A. norming - CORRECT The norming stage is characterized by agreement, commitment, and unity. Members listen to and support each other during this stage and develop close relationships. The norming stage may become a “period of play” with the task becoming temporarily abandoned by workers.
b. Incorrect During the forming stage, group members become acquainted and attempt to establish “ground rules” for the group.
c. Incorrect During the performing stage, group members are focused on “getting the job done.”
d. Incorrect The storming stage is characterized by power struggles and conflict
(I-O Psychology)
A company president is concerned about the low motivation and satisfaction of her employees and, as a result, institutes a wage and bonus (financial) incentive program for all employees. Six months later, the president finds that her efforts have not increased the employees’ job motivation or satisfaction. This result is best predicted by which of the following theories? A. ERG theory B. expectancy theory C. equity theory D. two-factor theory
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the basic assumptions and predictions of the major theories of motivation.
a. Incorrect ERG theory predicts that people have three basic needs — existence, relatedness, and growth. From the perspective of ERG theory, opportunities for
increased compensation may help satisfy an individual’s needs and thereby lead to increased satisfaction and motivation.
b. Incorrect Expectancy theory predicts that valued outcomes lead to increased satisfaction and motivation. There is no information provided in the question
suggesting that the wage and incentive program is not valued by employees, so this is not the best response.
c. Incorrect Equity theory predicts that motivation is related to the comparisons we make between our input/outcome ratio and the input/outcome ratios of
workers performing similar jobs. There is no information given in this questions suggesting that this type of comparison is responsible for the employees’ lack of
response to the wage and incentive program.
D. two-factor theory - CORRECT According to two-factor theory, lower-level needs such as physiological and safety needs have little effect on job satisfaction or motivation
when they are fulfilled but produce dissatisfaction when they are unfulfilled. In contrast, higher-level needs have little effect on satisfaction and motivation when they are unfulfilled but increase satisfaction and motivation when they are fulfilled. Two-factor theory would, therefore, predict that financial incentives, which address lower-level needs, would not increase motivation and satisfaction
(I-O Psychology)
Research investigating goal-setting as a method for increasing employee motivation and performance has demonstrated that:
A. participation in goal-setting and the provision of monetary rewards increases the probability that goals will be accepted.
B. the provision of a monetary reward (but not participation in goal-setting) increases a worker’s willingness to exert a high degree of effort to achieve goals.
C. participation in goal-setting (but not monetary rewards) increases a worker’s willingness to exert a high degree of effort to achieve goals.
D. participation in goal-setting and the provision of monetary rewards are important for motivation only when goals are difficult.
Although goal acceptance is considered the critical factor in the effectiveness of goal-setting for improving motivation and performance, several techniques can help promote acceptance of and commitment to goals.
A. participation in goal-setting and the provision of monetary rewards increases the probability that goals will be accepted - CORRECT This answer is most consistent with the results of the research on goal-setting theory: The studies have confirmed that participation in goal-setting is not critical for goal acceptance but can help increase it and that providing monetary rewards also increases the likelihood that goals will be accepted.
(I-O Psychology)
In organizations, the level of affective commitment is likely to be least predictive of which of the following? A. job satisfaction B. productivity C. job motivation D. turnover
Two types of organizational commitment are distinguished - continuance commitment and affective commitment. Of these, affective commitment is most predictive of work-related outcomes.
B. productivity - CORRECT Of the outcomes listed in the answers, affective commitment is least predictive of productivity.
(I-O Psychology)
When a predictor has a validity coefficient of .40 and the base rate is 60%, the predictor will be maximally useful for decision-making when the selection ratio is: A. 1:2. B. 1:20 C. 2:10. D. 10:15.
The usefulness of a selection test for making hiring decisions is affected by three factors: its validity coefficient, the selection ratio, and the base
rate.
B. 1:20 - CORRECT A predictor’s decision-making accuracy (incremental validity) is maximized when the base rate is close to 50% and the selection ratio is as low
as possible. A selection ratio of 1:20 (5%) means that there are twenty applicants for every one job opening, and, of the selection ratios given, it is the lowest.
(I-O Psychology)
If a “process consultant” is hired by a school district to help it resolve on-going problems between school board members, the administrative staff, and the teachers, the consultant is most likely to:
A. conduct formal interviews to pinpoint problem areas and then conduct training to rectify identified problems.
B. help board members, staff, and teachers identify and modify the ways in which their behaviors are inconsistent with their goals.
C. act as a mediator or arbitrator between the board members, staff, and teachers.
D. conduct a survey to identify discrepancies between how board members, staff, and teachers view their roles and the school district’s goals.
Not surprisingly, process consultants focus on “processes.”
a. Incorrect Process consultation involves a less structured approach to identifying and resolving consultee problems than the approach described in this
answer and focuses on helping employees identify and resolve their own work-related problems.
B. help board members, staff, and teachers identify and modify the ways in which their behaviors are inconsistent with their goals - CORRECT Process consultants focus on processes (interactions) between people and how these processes interfere with the achievement of their goals.
c. Incorrect This is not the role that process consultants adopt.
d. Incorrect Although process consultants are concerned about consultees’ goals, the use of a survey is associated more with the technique known as “survey feedback.”
(I-O Psychology)
Which of the following would be most useful for establishing comparable worth? A. job evaluation B. job specification C. needs assessment D. person (employee) analysis
Comparable worth refers to the principle that men and women should receive comparable compensation for work that requires similar skills, knowledge, responsibilities, etc.
A. job evaluation - CORRECT A job evaluation is conducted in organizations to determine the relative worth of jobs in order to set wages and salaries. Several methods of job evaluation are useful for establishing comparable worth.
b. Incorrect A job specification is a detailed description of a job that indicates what skills and knowledge are required to perform the job satisfactorily. Although a job specification might be useful for comparing job requirements for the purpose of assessing comparable worth, answer a is a better response.
c. Incorrect A needs assessment is conducted to determine training needs.
d. Incorrect A person analysis is part of a needs assessment and involves determining which employees require training and what knowledge, skills, and
abilities they need to acquire to perform their jobs effectively.
(I-O Psychology)
To promote recycling in a community, you attempt to establish a collaboration between educators, community leaders, and interested community members. This approach is best described as: A. normative-reeducative. B. rational-empirical. C. power-coercive. D. reciprocal-deterministic.
This question is referring to Chin and Benne’s (1976) distinction between three strategies for planned change: normative-reeducative, rational-empirical, and power-coercive.
A. normative-reeducative - CORRECT A key characteristic of the normative-reeducative strategy is its focus on collaboration between individuals representing different disciplines and interests in order to use norms and peer pressure to foster change.
b. Incorrect The rational-empirical strategy utilizes information as the primary change agent.
c. Incorrect The power-coercive strategy utilizes the power and authority of leaders to facilitate change.
cl. Incorrect This is not one of the three change strategies identified by Chin and Benne.
(I-O Psychology)
The rational-economic model of decision-making is based on the assumption that:
A. decision-makers place more emphasis on the costs of certain decisions than on other consequences of their decisions.
B. decision-makers have complete information about all alternatives and their consequences before making decisions.
C. individuals are better than groups at making decisions, especially under stressful conditions.
D. decision-makers’ knowledge about possible alternatives is always incomplete.
As its name implies, the rational-economic model assumes that decisions are based on a rational process.
a. Incorrect This is not an assumption of the rational-economic model.
B. decision-makers have complete information about all alternatives and their consequences before making decisions - CORRECT From the perspective of the rational-economic model, “rational” means considering all alternatives and their consequences before making a
decision.
c. Incorrect This is not an assumption of this model.
d. Incorrect A criticism of the rational-economic model is that it does not take into account that a decision-maker’s knowledge about alternatives is often incomplete.
(I-O Psychology)
If you were hired by a large company to develop a new training program, your first step would probably be to conduct a: A. needs analysis. B. job evaluation. C. sumrnative evaluation. D. formative evaluation.
For the exam, you want to be able to distinguish between needs analysis, job analysis, and job evaluation.
a. CORRECT Training program development begins with a needs analysis (also known as a needs assessment), which usually consists of three components: an
organizational analysis, a job analysis, and a person analysis.
b. Incorrect A job evaluation is conducted to determine the appropriate compensation for a job.
c. Incorrect A summative evaluation is conducted to determine the etfects of a training program or intervention after it has been developed.
d. Incorrect A Formative evaluation is conducted while a training program or intervention is being developed to determine if modifications are required in order For the program or intervention to achieve its goals.
(I-O Psychology)
In organizations, person-organization (P-O) fit is achieved primarily through: A. career/vocational counseling. B. organizational development. C. training and evaluation. D. selection and socialization.
The person-organization fit refers to the match between the employee’s values, needs, preferences, etc. and the culture of the organization. A good P-O fit has been linked to several benefits including enhanced satisfaction, motivation, and organizational commitment and reduced
stress and turnover.
D. selection and socialization - CORRECT The experts identify selection and socialization as the primary
opportunities for ensuring a good person-organization fit (e.g., Bowen, et al., 1991; Chatman, 1991): Selection helps identify individuals whose characteristics match the characteristics of the organization, while socialization (e.g., behavioral modeling by and feedback from the supervisor, participation in work-related social events) helps employees acquire the skills, knowledge, and
attitudes that are compatible with the organization’s culture.
(I-O Psychology)
According to Super’s career development theory, job satisfaction is directly related to:
A. the degree of similarity between the individual’s ego identity and career identity.
B. the degree of satisfaction that the person has with his/her life in general.
C. the degree to which the person is able to implement his/her self-concept at work.
D. the degree to which the job fulfills the person’s most prepotent needs.
Knowing that the “self-concept” is a key concept in Super’s theory would have enabled you to identify the correct answer to this question.
a. Incorrect Ego identity is a focus of Tiedeman and O’Hara’s theory of career development.
C. the degree to which the person is able to implement his/her self-concept at work - CORRECT According to Super, the self-concept consists of the values, abilities, personality traits, needs, and interests that we believe we possess. Self-concept influences career choice; and the degree of match between the self-concept and the job affects the individual’s job satisfaction, stability, and
success.
(I-O Psychology)
Trainability tests are:
A. paper-and-pencil tests that assess the aptitudes required for a particular job.
B. paper-and-pencil tests that assess motivation and other job-related attitudes.
C. work samples that incorporate a structured period of learning and evaluation.
D. multimodal assessment techniques used to determine what training current workers require.
As their name implies, trainability tests are used to determine if individuals will benefit from training.
C. work samples that incorporate a structured period of learning and evaluation - CORRECT Trainability tests are similar to work samples except they are given to people who currently do not have sufficient skills or knowledge to perform the job. They are used to determine if a job applicant is likely to benefit from training.
(I-O Psychology)
Five participants in a research study work individually at computer terminals to generate solutions to novel problems. Each participant in the study simultaneously reviews the suggested solutions of other participants while entering his or her own solutions. The purpose of this study is to assess the effects of technology on: A. social inhibition. B. groupthink. C. quality circles. D. brainstorming.
The phrase “generate solutions to novel problems” should have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. Incorrect Social inhibition occurs when an individual’s performance on a task is negatively affected by the mere presence of other individuals.
b. Incorrect Groupthink is a suspension of critical thinking that may occur in highly cohesive groups.
c. Incorrect Quality circles are small voluntary groups of employees who work together and meet regularly to discuss and resolve work-related problems.
D. brainstorming - CORRECT Brainstorming was originally developed as a way to improve group performance on difficult or novel tasks. Although the research on brainstorming has generally found that people come up with more and better solutions when working alone than when working as a group, there is some evidence that
brainstorming by computer improves its outcomes.
(I-O Psychology)
Expectancy theory predicts that worker motivation depends on several factors including “valence,” which refers to:
A. the employee’s beliefs about the value of rewards provided for successful performance.
B. the employee’s beliefs about the inherent (intrinsic) value of the work itself.
C. the strength of the worker’s motivation and organizational commitment.
D. the strength of the effort (versus ability) component of the worker’s motivation.
According to expectancy theory, motivation is a function of three components: expectancy, instrumentality, and valence.
A. the employee’s beliefs about the value of rewards provided for successful performance - CORRECT Valence refers to the value a worker places on the outcomes that
will be provided for successful performance. When these outcomes have positive valence, this increases the worker’s motivation to perform.
(I-O Psychology)
Of the “Big Five” personality traits, is most predictive of job performance across different types of jobs and job settings. A. openness to experience B. conscientiousness C. agreeableness D. extraversion
Empirical research has identified five basic personality traits (the “Big Five”): neuroticism, extraversion, openness to experience, agreeableness, and conscientiousness.
B. conscientiousness - CORRECT Conscientiousness refers to the individual’s level of responsibility dependability, persistence, self-control, and achievement motivation. Perhaps not surprisingly, of the Big Five traits, conscientiousness has been found to the best predictor of job performance across different jobs, job settings, and
criterion measures.
(I-O Psychology)
Research indicates that the nature of communication networks can affect worker satisfaction, group performance, and leadership effectiveness. For
instance, when tasks are complex and unstructured:
A. a centralized communication network is associated with better group performance.
B. a centralized communication network is associated with better group performance only when the group leader is authoritarian.
C. a decentralized communication network is associated with better group performance.
D. a decentralized communication network is associated with better group performance only when the group leader is authoritarian.
Researchers interested in work-related communication distinguish between two types of communication networks — centralized and decentralized.
C. a decentralized communication network is associated with better group performance - CORRECT The research indicates that decentralized networks, in which no one
individual has greater access to information, are best for complex, unstructured tasks that have a number of different solutions. Centralized networks, on the other hand, are better for simple, structured tasks.
(I-O Psychology)
According to Fiedler’s contingency model of leadership, high LPC leaders:
A. are always more effective than low LPC leaders.
B. are more effective than low LPC leaders in moderately favorable situations.
C. elicit less trust from supervisees than do low LPC leaders.
D. elicit less intrinsic motivation from supervisees than do low LPC leaders
Fiedler’s LPC (least preferred coworker) scale measures the extent to which a leader describes ineffective subordinates in positive terms. A high LPC leader is one who has nice things to say even about inefficient
workers.
a. Incorrect Fiedler’s theory is a “contingency” theory and predicts that the most effective leadership style depends on the nature of the situation.
B. are more effective than low LPC leaders in moderately favorable situations - CORRECT According to Fiedler, low LPC leaders are most effective in low and high favorable situations, while high LPC leaders are most effective in
moderately favorable situations.
c. Incorrect This is not predicted by Fiedler’s theory.
d. Incorrect Fielder did not directly address the issue of job motivation but, because his theory is a contingency theory, it implies that the ability of high and low LPC leaders to foster the motivation of employees would depend on the nature of the situation.
(I-O Psychology)
An implication of Bandura’s social cognitive theory is that, to maximize Worker motivation, a job should be designed so that:
A. rewards are matched to the employee’s prepotent needs.
B. the job maximizes team (versus individual) responsibility.
C. job roles and responsibilities match the employee’s self-concept.
D. the job maximizes opportunities for self-regulation.
The most recent version of Bandura’s (1997) social learning theory - social cognitive theory - emphasizes the impact of self-regulation on behavior.
a. Incorrect This sounds like Maslow’s need hierarchy theory.
b. Incorrect Bandura’s theory Focuses more on individual behavior than on team behavior.
c. Incorrect This sounds more like Super’s theory of career development.
D. the job maximizes opportunities for self-regulation - CORRECT Bandura’s social cognitive theory distinguishes between Four processes that contribute to self-regulation: goal-setting, self-observation, self-evaluation, and self-reaction. According to this theory, self-regulation (the
exercise of influence over one’s own behavior) is a primary determinant of motivation.
(I-O Psychology)
When performing a(n) task, group members select a solution offered by one of the group members as the group's solution. A. compensatory B. disjunctive C. conjunctive D. additive
A distinction is made between four types of group tasks - compensatory, disjunctive, conjunctive, and additive.
a. Incorrect In a compensatory task, the group’s performance is the average of the effort or performance of the individual members.
B. disjunctive - CORRECT For disjunctive tasks, the group selects a solution (ideally the optimal solution) from those proposed by individual group members.
c. Incorrect On conjunctive tasks, group members act in unison, which means that the group product is limited by the performance of the weakest member.
d. Incorrect When working on an additive task, the group product is the sum of the contributions of each member.
(I-O Psychology)
A leacler has a clear vision for the future and communicates that a vision to followers by acting as a role model, empowering followers, and inspiring followers to replace self-interest with the interests of the group. A. charismatic B. transactional C. transformational D. bureaucratic
Researchers interested in leadership styles distinguish between charismatic, transactional, and transformational leaders.
a. Incorrect Charismatic leaders share several characteristics with transformational leaders but exert influence primarily through their own personal qualities (e.g., self-confidence and charisma). As defined by some
experts, charismatic leaders have a “dark side” — e.g., they may expect unquestioning loyalty, devotion, and obedience from followers.
b. Incorrect Transactional leaders foster worker motivation and productivity primarily by simplifying and structuring tasks and providing rewards for successful performance.
C. transformational - CORRECT Transformational leaders motivate employees by recognizing the need for change, creating a vision that guides change, and transmitting that
vision to employees. In contrast to charismatic leaders, they empower followers and activate their higher-order needs.
d. Incorrect Bureaucratic leaders follow orders and directives and adhere strictly to established procedures and policies.
(I-O Psychology)
To alleviate the "leniency bias," you would use of which of the following? A. double-blind technique B. weighted BIB C. forced distribution D. Likert scale
The leniency bias is a type of rater bias that involves giving ratees high ratings on each dimension of performance regardless of their actual performance.
a. Incorrect The double-blind technique is used in research and involves keeping participants and the experimenter uninformed of which group (e.g.,
experimental versus control) participants are in.
b. Incorrect A weighted BIB is used to collect biographical information about a job applicant and would not be useful for alleviating a leniency bias.
C. forced distribution - CORRECT Rater biases can be alleviated by using relative rating scales such as the forced distribution scale.
d. Incorrect Likert scales are very susceptible to the leniency bias and other rater biases.
(I-O Psychology)
According to House’s (1971) path-goal theory, the optimal leadership style depends primarily on:
A. certain characteristics of the worker and the work situation.
B. the person-organization fit.
C. the degree to which the leader is task- versus person-oriented.
D. the “favorableness” of the situation for the leader.
House’s path-goal theory distinguishes between four leadership styles: directive, supportive, participative, and achievement-oriented.
A. certain characteristics of the worker and the work situation - CORRECT According to path-goal theory, the optimal leadership style depends on certain characteristics of the worker (e.g., self-confidence and locus of control) and the work situation (e.g., degree of task challenge and ambiguity).
b Incorrect Path-goal theory identifies worker and situational characteristics as determinants of the optimal leadership style but does not Focus on the person-
organization fit.
c. Incorrect Path-goal theory does not identify the leader’s orientation as a determinant of the optimal leadership style.
d. Incorrect This sounds more like Fiedler’s contingency model of leadership.
(I-O Psychology)
According to Hersey and Blanchard’s situational leadership model, “employee maturity” is a function of the employee’s:
A. stage of career development.
B. personality.
C. skills and willingness to assume responsibility.
D. beliefs about the meaning and value of work.
Hersey and Blanchard propose that a leader is most effective when his/her behavior matches the employee’s level of maturity.
C. skills and willingness to assume responsibility - CORRECT Hersey and Blanchard distinguish between two aspects of employee maturity: Job maturity refers to the employee’s knowledge and skills, while psychological maturity refers to the employee’s self-confidence and willingness to assume responsibility.
(I-O Psychology)
Job satisfaction is an accurate predictor of: A. both job performance and health. B. job performance but not health. C. health but not job performance. D. neither job performance nor health.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with factors that do and do not correlate with job satisfaction.
C. health but not job performance - CORRECT The research has found that job satisfaction is a good predictor of longevity and mental and physical health. However, the studies have consistently found low correlations between job satisfaction and performance.
(I-O Psychology)
As defined by Brousseau and Driver (1994), “career concept” refers to a person’s:
A. work-related personality characteristics.
B. work-related roles and responsibilities.
C. career identity.
D. career decisions and motives.
Career concept is a key concept in K. R. Brousseau and M. J. Driver’s model of career development (Enhancing informed choice: A career-concepts approach to career advisement, Selections, Spring, 24-31, 1994)
D. career decisions and motives - CORRECT As defined by Brousseau and Driver, career concept refers to an
individual’s career decisions and motives, which vary in terms of three dimensions — frequency of job change; direction of change; and type of change in job content. Status on these dimensions produces four career concepts: steady state, linear, spiral, and transitory.
(I-O Psychology)
According to Hersey and Blanchard's situational leadership model, a leader should use a "participative" style for subordinates who have: A. low ability and low motivation. B. low ability and high motivation. C. high ability and low motivation. D. high ability and high motivation.
Hersey and Blanchard’s situational leadership model proposes that a leader is most effective when his/her leadership style matches subordinates’ ability and motivation (willingness to accept responsibility).
a. Incorrect A telling style is most effective for employees low in both ability and motivation.
b. Incorrect A selling style is most effective for employees who are low in ability and high in motivation.
C. high ability and low motivation - CORRECT According to Hersey and Blanchard, a participative leadership style
is most effective when subordinates have high levels of ability and low levels of motivation.
d. Incorrect A delegating style is most effective for employees who are high in both ability and motivation.
(I-O Psychology)
Lewin’s force field theory describes planned change in organizations as involving which of the following stages?
A. unfreezing, changing, and refreezing
B. forming, performing, and re-forming
C. identifying, planning, and acting
D. setting the stage, problem-solving, and reaching an agreernent
According to Lewin (1951), organizations continuously respond to forces that either promote or resist change.
A. unfreezing, changing, and refreezing - CORRECT Unfreezing, changing, and refreezing are the three stages of planned change identified by Lewin.
d. Incorrect These are the three stages of mediation.
(I-O Psychology)
Female applicants consistently obtain lower scores on a selection test than do male applicants. However, when they are hired, females perform as well on the job as do males. This situation illustrates which of the following? A. differential validity B. differential selection C. adverse impact D. unfairness
This is a difficult question, but you may have been able to identify the correct answer through the process of elimination.
a. Incorrect Differential validity occurs when a predictor has different validity coefficients for members of different groups. No information is given about the validity coefficients for males and females, so you cannot conclude that the selection test has differential validity.
b. Incorrect Differential selection is a threat to the internal validity of a research study and is not relevant to this situation.
c. Incorrect The situation described in the question could lead to adverse impact if females are not hired because of their low scores on the predictor. However, the question does not state that the hiring rate for females is lower than the rate for males, so this is not the best response.
d. CORRECT The situation described in the question illustrates the EEOC’s definition of unfairness: “When members of one race, sex, or ethnic group
characteristically obtain lower scores on a selection procedure than members of another group, and the differences in scores are not reflected in differences in a
measure of job performance, use of the selection procedure may unfairly deny opportunities to members of the group that obtains the lower scores” (Uniform
Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures, Section 14.B.8.a).
(I-O Psychology)
A|derfer's (1972) ERG theory is best viewed as a modification of and alternative to: A. Mas|ow’s need hierarchy theory. B. Herzberg's two-factor theory. C. Vroom’s expectancy theory. D. Bandura's social cognitive theory.
ERG theory proposes that we have three basic needs: existence, relatedness, and growth.
A. Mas|ow’s need hierarchy theory - CORRECT Alderfer modified Mas|ow’s need hierarchy theory so that it better
corresponds to research showing that humans have three (rather than five) distinct needs and that more than one need can act as a motivator at any point in time.
(I-O Psychology)
According to Krumboltz (1996), a person’s career path is determined primarily by:
A. basic needs and drives.
B. ego identity development.
C. perceptions of the match between his/her abilities and the requirements of the job.
D. learning that occurs as the result of interactions with other people.
Krumboltz proposes that career decisions are based on what the individual has learned.
a. Incorrect Roe (1972) Focuses on the impact of basic needs on career development.
b. Incorrect Ego identity development is a focus of Tiedeman and O’Hara’s (1963) theory of career development.
c. Incorrect This does not accurately describe Krumboltz’s theory of career decision making.
D. learning that occurs as the result of interactions with other people - CORRECT Krumboltz’s social learning theory of career decision-making proposes that career decisions are based primarily on what we have learned,
especially from our interactions with others.
(I-O Psychology)
An important implication of Fiedler’s contingency theory of leadership is that:
A. the most effective leaders allow workers to participate in goal-setting.
B. managers must alter their behaviors to fit the demands of the situation.
C. an effective manager may become ineffective if the situation changes in certain ways.
D. to be effective, managers must be aware that different factors act as “satisfiers” for different employees.
Fiedler’s contingency theory of leadership proposes that a worker’s performance depends on the interaction between the leader’s leadership style (high LPC versus low LPC) and the favorableness of the situation, which refers to the extent to which the leader has influence, the tasks are structured, and the leader is in a position to reward employees for good performance.
a. Incorrect This is not a prediction of Fiedler’s contingency theory.
b. Incorrect Fiedler believed that a leader’s style is stable and cannot, therefore, be changed even when the situation changes.
C. an effective manager may become ineffective if the situation changes in certain ways - CORRECT Fiedler believed that different leadership styles are more effective in different situations. Specifically, he believed that low LPC leaders are most effective in very favorable and unfavorable situations, while high LPC leaders are
most effective in moderately favorable situations. Therefore, if the situation changes in terms of favorableness, an effective leader can actually become
ineffective (and vice versa).
d. Incorrect This is not a prediction of Fiedler’s contingency model of leadership. Fiedler was interested in the interaction between leadership style and the
favorableness of the situation.
(I-O Psychology)
Assessment centers are most commonly used to:
A. hire and promote clerical workers.
B. hire and promote managers.
C. train semi-skilled and skilled workers.
D. train salespeople.
Assessment centers were originally used during World War II as a means of selecting OSS agents. They are now used primarily for evaluating and predicting the performance of managerial-level employees.
B. hire and promote managers - CORRECT Assessment centers are used to evaluate managerial-level
employees for the purpose of selection, promotion, or training and involve having participants engage in a variety of exercises, many of which simulate the actual tasks a manager performs on-the-job.
(I-O Psychology)
A personnel director decides to raise a selection test’s cutoff scores when using the test to assist in hiring decisions. Most likely the personnel director has made this decision in order to:
A. increase the number of true positives.
B. decrease the number of false positives.
C. increase the number of false negatives.
D. decrease the number of true negatives.
Raising the predictor cutoff score decreases the number of true and false positives and increases the number of true and false negatives.
a. Incorrect Raising the predictor cutoff score would decrease the number of true positives.
B. decrease the number of false positives - CORRECT Most likely, a personnel director would raise the predictor cutoff in order to decrease the number of false positives since these individuals “cost the company money” (i.e., they would be hired on the basis of their test scores but
would be unsuccessful on the job).
c. Incorrect Although raising the predictor cutoff score does increase the number of false negatives, this would not be considered desirable in most situations - i.e., a personnel director would not want to increase the number of people who are rejected (not hired) on the basis of their selection test scores but who would
have been successful on the job if they had been hired.
d. Incorrect Raising the predictor cutoff increases the number of true negatives.
(I-O Psychology)
An organizational psychologist finds that his newly developed selection test has different validity coefficients for male and female applicants and that the difference is statistically significant. This suggests that the test has: A. incremental validity. B. discriminant validity. C. differential validity. D. convergent validity.
The selection test described in this question has different levels of validity for males and females.
a. Incorrect A test’s incremental validity refers to the benefits that use of the test provides with regard to decision-ma king accuracy.
b. Incorrect A test has discriminant (divergent) validity when it has low correlations with tests that measure different traits, characteristics, or abilities. Discriminant validity provides evidence of a test’s construct validity.
C. differential validity - CORRECT A test has differential validity when its validity coefficient for one group is different from its validity coefficient for another group.
d. Incorrect A test has convergent validity when it correlates highly with tests that measure the same trait. Convergent validity provides evidence of construct
validity.
(I-O Psychology)
According to the Yerkes-Dodson law:
A. higher levels of arousal are associated with higher levels of learning and performance.
B. moderate levels of arousal are associated with the highest levels of learning and performance.
C. higher levels of satisfaction are associated with higher levels of job performance.
D. moderate levels of satisfaction are associated with the highest levels of job performance.
The Yerkes-Dodson law pertains to the relationship between arousal and learning or performance.
B. moderate levels of arousal are associated with the highest levels of learning and performance - CORRECT The Yerkes-Dodson law predicts an inverted U-shaped relationship between arousal and learning or performance, with moderate levels of arousal being associated with the highest levels of learning or performance.
(I-O Psychology)
The primary purpose of a(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is to obtain detailed information about job requirements in order to facilitate decisions related to compensation. A. needs assessment B. organizational analysis C. job analysis D. job evaluation
Of the procedures listed in the answers, only one is conducted specifically to facilitate decisions related to compensation.
a. Incorrect A needs assessment is conducted to identify training needs.
b. Incorrect An organizational analysis is often part of a needs assessment and is conducted to identify the organization’s goals.
c. Incorrect A job analysis is conducted to identify the essential characteristics of a job. Job analysis serves several functions in an organization and may be the
first step in a job evaluation.
D. job evaluation - CORRECT A job evaluation is conducted specifically for the purpose of determining the relative worth of jobs in order to set wages and salaries.
(I-O Psychology)
A manager who adheres to the principles of “scientific management” would most likely agree with which of the following?
A. Employees view work “as natural as play” and actively seek autonomy and responsibility.
B. An employee”s relationships with his/her coworkers are important determinants of job satisfaction.
C. Because employees value money more than other incentives, pay is the most effective motivator.
D. An employee”s unfulfilled needs take precedence over other needs, and rewards should be determined accordingly.
Scientific management was developed by Frederick Taylor (1911) who applied the scientific method to the study of job productivity
a. Incorrect This describes McGregor’s Theory Y managers.
b. Incorrect This is an assumption of the human relations movement, which was an alternative to scientific management.
C. Because employees value money more than other incentives, pay is the most effective motivator - CORRECT Taylor believed that employees are motivated primarily by economic self-interest and, therefore, that money is the most effective motivator.
d. Incorrect This sounds like Maslow’s need hierarchy theory.
(I-O Psychology)
Research comparing heterogeneous and homogeneous work groups has found that, in general, heterogeneous groups:
A. are more creative and better at decision-making.
B. are more creative but less productive overall.
C. make better decisions but are less productive overall.
D. are more creative but worse at decision-making.
Most studies have found that groups are more effective when members are heterogeneous with regard to gender, personality, experience, skills, etc.
A. are more creative and better at decision-making - CORRECT Much of the research on group heterogeneity has focused on its effects on creativity and decision-making and has found a positive effect of heterogeneity on both measures of performance.
(I-O Psychology)
The bounded rationality (administrative) model predicts that decision-makers “satisfice” rather than “optimize” due to:
A. their tendency to make conservative decisions.
B. peer pressure.
C. limited time and resources.
D. insufficient response-contingent reinforcement.
Herbert Simon (1979) identified two models of individual decision-making: the rational-economic model and the bounded rational (administrative) model.
C. limited time and resources - CORRECT According to Simon, limited time and resources require decision-
makers to be less than totally rational. Specifically, rather than considering all alternatives before making a decision, they consider alternatives only until they
encounter one that meets minimum requirements of acceptability.
(I-O Psychology)
Which of the following will have the greatest impact on employees’ perceptions of distributive justice at work?
A. Employees receive the pay and benefits they believe they deserve
B. Employees participate in making decisions that affect their jobs.
C. Employees believe hiring and promotion decisions are fair.
D. Employees feel they are treated with respect and consideration by managers.
Researchers interested in organizational justice distinguish between three types — distributive, procedural, and interactional.
A. Employees receive the pay and benefits they believe they deserve - CORRECT Distributive justice refers to the fairness of the outcomes of organizational policies and procedures.
b. Incorrect This sounds more like procedural justice, which refers to the fairness of the ways in which procedures and policies are implemented.
c. Incorrect This also sounds like procedural justice.
d. Incorrect Interactional justice refers to how employees perceive the quality and content of their interactions with managers and other employees.
(I-O Psychology)
A transformational leader uses “framing” in order to:
A. make the organization’s goals more meaningful to employees.
B. clarify the consequences of undesirable performance.
C. reduce personal biases in decision-making.
D. adapt his/her leadership style to the characteristics of subordinates
Even if you’re unfamiliar with “framing,” you may have been able to identify the correct answer with your knowledge of transformational leadership.
A. make the organization’s goals more meaningful to employees - CORRECT Transformational leaders recognize the need for change and are able to communicate that need to employees. Framing is one technique these leaders use to inspire employees and involves describing the organization’s goals in a way that makes them more meaningful to employees.
c. Incorrect The term “framing” is also used to refer to a type of decision-making bias. In that context, framing occurs when the description of a problem in a positive or negative way influences the type of decision that is made. However, this question is asking about the use of framing by transformational leaders.
(I-O Psychology)
Frame-of-reference training is used to:
A. increase the use of effective rehearsal strategies in older adults.
B. improve the diagnostic accuracy of clinical psychologists.
C. improve a rater’s accuracy when evaluating a ratee’s performance
D. train and evaluate managerial-level employees.
Frame-of-reference (FOR) training is a type of rater training.
C. improve a rater’s accuracy when evaluating a ratee’s performance - CORRECT The goal of FOR training is to improve raters’ accuracy when completing performance appraisals by helping them identify and focus on the
most important job performance dimensions and distinguish behaviors that are indicative of good, average, and poor performance within each dimension.
(I-O Psychology)
“Critical incidents” are best described as:
A. instructional strategies that are critical for mastery.
B. behaviors that increase the risk for accidents and/or errors.
C. behaviors that clearly define successful and unsuccessful job performance.
D. compensatory factors that are used to establish wages and salaries
Critical incidents are descriptions of specific behaviors that are associated with good and poor job performance. The use of critical incidents in performance appraisals helps decrease rater biases.
C. behaviors that clearly define successful and unsuccessful job performance - CORRECT As noted above, critical incidents are descriptions of specific job
behaviors that define successful and unsuccessful job performance. When used in performance appraisal instruments, critical incidents are the “anchors” in a
graphic rating scale or the statements included in a checklist.
d. Incorrect The compensatory factors identified during the course of a job evaluation may include critical incidents but are not limited to them.
(I-O Psychology)
The “paired comparison” technique is used to:
A. evaluate an employee’s job performance.
B. make hiring and placement decisions.
C. identify an employee’s training needs.
D. determine the appropriate compensation for a job
The paired comparison technique is a method of performance appraisal
A. evaluate an employee’s job performance - CORRECT When using the paired comparison technique, an employee is compared to every other employee on each dimension of job performance.
(I-O Psychology)
The research indicates that, when Total Quality Management (TQM) fails to live up to its potential, this is most often because:
A. the team leader lacks adequate leadership skills.
B. there was too much reliance on team (versus individual) effort.
C. employees were not sufficiently involved in decision-making.
D. pay and other benefits were not adequately linked to team performance.
The primary goal of TQM is to continuously improve the quality of the organization’s products and services. This is accomplished by evaluating customer satisfaction, maximizing employee involvement and empowerment, and making continuous improvements in organizational
processes.
a. Incorrect Although leader ability is always important, it has not been identified as a particular problem in TQM, which emphasizes the involvement of employees in decision-making processes.
b. Incorrect Team work is considered a key feature of TQM; and the research has shown that, under the right circumstances, team work is associated with positive outcomes for the company.
C. employees were not sufficiently involved in decision-making - CORRECT Although TQM emphasizes team involvement in decision-making, too often decisions are made unilaterally by the supervisor.
d. Incorrect This hasn’t been identified as a problem by the research on TQM.
(I-O Psychology)
The is the least developed area of the brain at birth A. brain stem B. cerebral cortex C. limbic system D. cerebellum
Not surprisingly, it is the higher centers of the brain that are least developed at birth.
B. cerebral cortex - CORRECT The cerebral cortex, which is responsible for higher-level cognitive skills, complex motor behaviors, language, and spatial skills, is almost
completely undeveloped at birth.
(Lifespan Development)
Recent surveys suggest that, for women, which of the following characteristics are associated with a high risk for divorce?
A. marrying at an older age and coming from a single-parent home
B. marrying at a younger age and having a child within 7 months of marriage
C. having a lower level of education and marrying at an older age
D. having a higher level of education and cohabitating with the partner prior to marriage
Surveys have identified a number of demographic characteristics that are associated with risk for divorce. See, e.g., National Center for Health Statistics, Cohabitation, marriage, divorce, and remarriage in the
United States, Hyattsville, MD, Department of Health and Human Services, 2002.
a. Incorrect Although women who come from a single-parent home are at higher risk For divorce, marrying at an older age is associated with a lower risk.
B. marrying at a younger age and having a child within 7 months of marriage - CORRECT Marrying at a younger age and having a child before marriage or within 7 months of marriage is associated with a higher risk For divorce.
c. Incorrect Although having a lower level of education is associated with a higher risk for divorce, marrying at an older age is not.
d. Incorrect Although cohabitating with the partner prior to marriage is associated with a higher risk For divorce, a higher level of education is not.
(Lifespan Development)
According to Piaget, children begin to intentionally lie (make false statements) at about years of age. A. 2 B. 5 C. 7 D. 10
Piaget believed that young children lie spontaneously (unintentionally) and that children do not begin to intentionally lie until age 7 or 8.
C. 7 years old - CORRECT This answer is consistent with Piaget’s conclusions. Note, however, that subsequent research suggests that children as young as age 3 or 4
intentionally lie.
(Lifespan Development)
Which of the following individuals coined the term “identity crisis”? A. Freud B. Mahler C. Marcia D. Erikson
The term “identity crisis” is now used by a number of psychologists (especially those interested in adolescent development), but it was coined by Erikson.
D. Erikson - CORRECT Erikson coined the term “identity crisis” and described it as the most important psychosocial crisis Faced by human beings. He also identified adolescence as the time when the search For an identity is most intense.
(Lifespan Development)
In terms of the parenting styles identified by Baurnrind and her colleagues (1991), independent self-confident adolescents are most likely to have parents who are: A. authoritative. B. authoritarian. C. permissive. D. traditional.
Baumrind and her colleagues distinguish between authoritarian, authoritative, permissive, and rejecting-neglecting parents.
A. authoritative - CORRECT OF the four parenting styles, the authoritative style is most likely to produce independent self-confident children and adolescents. Authoritative parents combine rational control with warmth, receptivity, and the encouragement of independence.
b. Incorrect Authoritarian parents impose absolute standards of control, stress obedience, and are willing to use Force to obtain compliance. Their children tend
to be dependent, passive, and submissive and display a limited sense of responsibility.
c. Incorrect Permissive parents provide their children with Few controls or demands and display moderate levels of warmth. Their children exhibit little self-reliance, exploratory behavior, or self-control.
d. Incorrect “Traditional” is not a parenting style identified by Baumrind.
(Lifespan Development)
A 16-month-old child who calls her pet cat “kitty” sees a dog for the first time and calls it “kitty.” In terms of Piaget's theory of cognitive development, the child is displaying: A. assimilation. B. accommodation. C. categorization. D. centration.
Piaget distinguished between two complementary processes that underlie cognitive development: assimilation and accommodation.
A. assimilation - CORRECT Assimilation involves incorporating new knowledge into existing cognitive structures or schemes. The child in the question doesn’t know what a dog is and is incorporating it into her existing “kitty” scheme.
b. Incorrect Accommodation involves modifying an existing scheme or creating a new one.
c. Incorrect Piaget did not use the term “categorization” to describe the incorporation of new knowledge into an existing cognitive scheme.
d. Incorrect Centration is a limitation of the preoperational stage and refers to the tendency to Focus on the most salient aspect of an object.
(Lifespan Development)
Which of the following aspects of memory is likely to show the greatest age- related decline? A. sensory memory B. memory span C. recent long-term memory D. remote long-term memory
Research has confirmed a predictable pattern in age-related declines in memory and other cognitive abilities.
C. recent long-term memory - CORRECT Recent long-term (secondary) memory is most affected by
increasing age, followed by working memory. The other aspects of memory listed in the answers are relatively unaffected by age.
(Lifespan Development)
Presbyopia refers to loss of: A. far vision. B. near vision. C. color vision. D. depth perception.
Presbyopia occurs when the lens of the eye loses its ability to focus. Many people begin to experience presbyopia in their mid-40’s.
B. near vision - CORRECT People with presbyopia have difficulty focusing on objects that are close.
(Lifespan Development)
Adults aged 65 and older usually report the largest number of memories for events that occurred in the 10 year period prior to being evaluated. For these individuals, the next largest number of memories is for events that occurred when they were between the ages of: A. 15 and 25. B. 25 and 35. C. 35 and 45. D. 45 and 55.
The research has shown that older adults typically recall recent and remote events better than intermediate events.
a. CORRECT The term “reminiscence bump” is used to refer to the greater memory For events that occurred during adolescence and early adulthood.
(Lifespan Development)
Babies of mothers who frequently used cocaine while pregnant:
A. are lethargic and nonresponsive and have significant cognitive impairments and motor delays.
B. are irritable and restless, have an exaggerated startle response and high-pitched cry, and are difficult to soothe.
C. have hearing and other sensory impairments, slowed reactions to external stimuli, and poor muscle tone.
D. cry infrequently and have lower-than-normal respiratory and heart rates and moderate to severe mental retardation.
Cocaine use by pregnant women increases the risk for spontaneous abortion and stillbirth; and, for babies who survive, is associated with several physical and behavioral abnormalities.
B. are irritable and restless, have an exaggerated startle response and high-pitched cry, and are difficult to soothe - CORRECT Infants of mothers who used cocaine during pregnancy often have a low birth weight, a piercing cry, and an exaggerated startle response; are irritable and hypersensitive; and do not respond in normal ways to the sound and sight of caregivers.
(Lifespan Development)
Sarah and Eve are served liver for dinner. Sarah screams, “Now there’s more!” when hers is cut up into bite-size pieces. Eve says, “No, there’s not! It’s just the same.” In terms of Piaget’s stages of cognitive development:
A. Sarah is in the preoperational stage.
B. Eve is in the sensorimotor stage.
C. Sarah is in the concrete operational stage.
D. Eve is in the preoperational stage. l
Piaget distinguished between four stages of cognitive development: sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational.
A. Sarah is in the preoperational stage - CORRECT Sarah appears to be in the preoperational stage since she is unable to conserve and, thus, believes there is more liver on her plate when it is cut into small pieces. In contrast, Eve can conserve and is, therefore, in the concrete (or perhaps Formal) operational stage.
(Lifespan Development)
Research on gender differences in conversation style indicates that, when compared to men, women: A. talk for longer periods of time. B. ask more questions. C. interrupt more often. D. make more eye contact.
Research has identified several consistent gender differences in conversation style.
B. ask more questions - CORRECT Women are more likely to ask questions during a conversation, and men tend to talk for longer periods of time, interrupt more frequently, and make more eye contact.
(Lifespan Development)
According to Erikson, the successful outcome of the final stage of psychosocial development is: A. accomplishment. B. personal control. C. wisdom. D. identity.
Ego integrity versus despair is the final stage in Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development.
a. Incorrect A sense of accomplishment is the successful outcome of the generativity vs. stagnation stage which occurs in mid-adulthood.
b. Incorrect A sense of personal control is the successful outcome of the autonomy vs. shame and doubt stage which occurs from about ages 1 to 3.
C. wisdom - CORRECT Wisdom and integrity are the outcomes of successful resolution of the psychosocial crises of the final ego integrity vs. despair stage.
d. Incorrect A coherent sense of identity is the successful outcome of the identity vs. role confusion stage which occurs in adolescence.
(Lifespan Development)
The original research on the self-fulfilling prophecy effect (Rosenthal and Jacobson, 1968) examined how:
A. adolescents’ expectations about their academic performance affected their actual performance.
B. teachers’ expectations about the academic performance of children affected the children’s actual performance.
C. physicians’ diagnoses affected the health-related behaviors of patients with chronic illnesses.
D. the social context affects the way that people interpret the behaviors of others.
The self-fulfilling prophecy (Rosenthal) effect predicts that other people’s expectations about our performance affects our actual performance.
a. Incorrect This does not describe the self-fulfilling prophecy effect.
B. teachers’ expectations about the academic performance of children affected the children’s actual performance - CORRECT Rosenthal and Jacobson (1968) found that grade school teachers’ expectations about students had a self-fulfilling prophecy effect - i.e., when
teachers were told that the test scores of some students indicated they would be “academic spurters” (even though the students had been randomly selected), those students did well, apparently because they were treated differently by the teachers.
c. Incorrect This does not describe the self-fulfilling prophecy effect.
d. Incorrect This sounds like Rosenhan’s pseudopatient study.
(Lifespan Development)
Infantile amnesia refers to the inability of:
A. children to develop declarative memories until 10 to 12 months of age.
B. children to develop memories for autobiographical events until 3 or 4 years of age.
C. adolescents and adults to recall events they experienced prior to 3 or 4 years of age.
D. adults to accurately recall when their children achieved major developmental milestones.
Infantile amnesia refers to the inability to recall events that occurred prior to about age 3 or 4.
b. Incorrect Children under the age of 3 form autobiographical memories. However, many of these memories are “lost” in subsequent yea rs.
C. adolescents and adults to recall events they experienced prior to 3 or 4 years of age - CORRECT Although early research suggested that infantile amnesia is absolute, subsequent studies indicate that older children, adolescents, and adults are often able to recall some events that took place prior to age 3 or 4.
(Lifespan Development)
Adults who are classified as ________ on the Adult Attachment Interview describe their childhood relationships with parents using positive terms, but
their specific childhood memories contradict or do not support these positive descriptions.
A. autonomous
B. preoccupied
C. dismissing
D. distant
The Adult Attachment Interview (AAI) assesses the examinee’s childhood relationships with his/her mother and father and categorizes the examinee’s attachment style as autonomous, preoccupied, or dismissing.
a. Incorrect Examinees classified as autonomous provide coherent descriptions of their childhood relationships.
b. Incorrect Examinees classified as preoccupied become very angry or confused when describing their childhood relationships with parents and may be preoccupied with a parent.
C. dismissing - CORRECT Examinees classified as dismissing provide inconsistent and incoherent descriptions of their childhood relationships with parents
d. Incorrect Distant is not one of the AAI categories.
(Lifespan Development)
Klinefelter syndrome is due to A. a dominant gene. B. a recessive gene. C. a chromosomal deletion. D. extra chromosome.
Klinefelter syndrome is due to a chromosomal abnormality that affects males only.
D. extra chromosome - CORRECT Men with Klinefelter syndrome have an extra X chromosome. Symptoms of this disorder include low testosterone levels and infertility, breast development, and reduced body and facial hair.
(Lifespan Development)
According to Whorf’s linguistic relativity hypothesis:
A. culture determines language.
B. language is dependent on thought.
C. language determines the nature of thought.
D. language, thought, and culture are reciprocally determined
An ongoing debate in the literature focuses on the relationship between language and thought.
a. Incorrect This is essentially the opposite of Whorf’s hypothesis.
b. Incorrect This is also the opposite of Whorf’s view and is more consistent with the view of Piaget.
C. language determines the nature of thought - CORRECT According to Whorf’s hypothesis (also known as the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis), the structure and lexicon of language influences how the individual perceives, interprets, and reacts to the world.
d. Incorrect This does not accurately describe Whorf’s hypothesis.
(Lifespan Development)
Two-year-old Mayen uses the word “juice” to refer to all of the beverages that she drinks. This is an example of: A. overextension. B. overgeneralization. C. expansion. D. extension.
Children make a number of predictable errors during the process of language acquisition.
A. overextension - CORRECT Overextension occurs when a child uses a word to describe a wider range of objects or events than is appropriate.
b. Incorrect Overgeneralization occurs when the child extends grammatical rules to words that are an exception to the rule (e.g., adds “ed” to “go” to Form the past tense).
c. Incorrect Expansion refers to an adult’s response to a child’s utterance that elaborates on what the child has said.
d. Incorrect It is overextension (not extension} that describes Mayen’s inappropriate use of the word “juice.”
(Lifespan Development)
Ron attends a rally organized to oppose gun control. When asked why he is against gun control, Ron states, "Well, the law says people have the right to own a gun, and everybody in my hometown has a gun." Kohlberg would say that Ron is at which level of moral development? A. preconventional B. conventional C. postconventional D. autonomous
Kohlberg distinguishes between three levels of moral development: preconventional, conventional, and postconventional.
a. Incorrect Preconventional moral judgments are typical of children aged 4 through 10 and reflect a desire to avoid punishment and satisfy one’s own needs
b. CORRECT The conventional level of moral development is characterized by support for and adherence to existing social rules and laws.
c. Incorrect Moral judgments at the postconventional level are based on social contracts, democratically accepted laws, and the individual’s conscience.
d. Incorrect Autonomous is one of Piaget’s stages of moral development.
(Lifespan Development)
As defined by Vygotsky, “scaffolding” refers to:
A. biological maturation.
B. the use of effective memory strategies.
C. attachment to caregivers.
D. assistance from more skilled individuals.
Scaffolding is a key concept in Vygotsky’s theory of cognitive development.
a. Incorrect Although Vygotsky recognized the role of biological maturation in cognitive development, scaffolding refers to social factors.
b. Incorrect Assistance within the zone of proximal development might include modeling effective memory strategies, but this is not the best answer of those given.
c. Incorrect Attachment is not a focus of Vygotsky’s theory.
D. assistance from more skilled individuals - CORRECT Vygotsky proposed that scaffolding helps the child progress within the zone of proximal development. It refers to the temporary support and assistance that adults and more knowledgeable and skilled peers provide to a
learner and includes modeling appropriate responses, simplifying a task so that it is more achievable, and providing instructions and cues.
(Lifespan Development)
The rooting reflex occurs when:
A. the newborn’s cheek is touched.
B. the newborn’s foot is tickled.
C. the newborn hears his/her caregiver’s voice.
D. the newborn hears an unexpected loud noise
Reflexes are unlearnecl responses to particular stimuli in the environment.
A. the newborn’s cheek is touched - CORRECT The rooting reflex occurs when the baby turns his/her head in the direction of a touch or stroke on his/her cheek.
b. Incorrect This describes the Babinski reflex.
c. Incorrect This does not describe the rooting reflex.
d. Incorrect This describes the Moro (startle) reflex.
(Lifespan Development)
Children begin to deliberately and regularly use rehearsal, elaboration, and organization as memory strategies by \_\_\_\_\_ years of age. A. 2 to 3 B. 5 to 7 C. 9 to 10 D. 13 to 15
The consistent and deliberate use of memory strategies does not occur until age 9 or 10.
b. Incorrect Preschoolers sometimes use memory strategies but do so in non-deliberate and often ineffective ways. In addition, children of this age can be
taught to use memory strategies for a specific task but do not apply them to new tasks.
C. 9 to 10 - CORRECT The research has shown that the deliberate and consistent use of the memory strategies listed in the question begins at about 9 to 10 years of
age.
d. Incorrect The use of these strategies continues to be “fine-tuned” during adolescence.
(Lifespan Development)
Which of the following is LEAST likely to be one of a child's first words? A. fall B. bye-bye C. cold D. cookie
A child’s first words are most likely to be social or functional expressions such as hi, bye-bye, or thanks; names for objects that are permanent, familiar, and usually movable such as dada or blanket; and action words such as push or fall.
a. Incorrect “Fall” is an action word and is likely to be a first word.
b. Incorrect “Bye-bye” is a social expression and is likely to be one of a child’s first words.
C. cold - CORRECT Words representing sensations or feelings such as “cold” are likely to appear later in the child’s linguistic development.
d. Incorrect “Cookie” is the name for a permanent, familiar, and movable object and is the type of word that is likely to be one of a child’s first words.
(Lifespan Development)
According to Erikson, at age two, the primary psychosocial task is to develop ________, and failure to successfully accomplish this task leads to __________.
A. an ego identity; identity diffusion
B. a capacity for industry; a sense of inferiority
C. a sense of basic trust; suspicion and mistrust
D. sense of autonomy; doubt and shame
Erikson identified eight stages of psychosocial development that are each characterized by a different psychosocial conflict.
a. Incorrect This is characteristic of the identity vs. identity confusion stage which occurs in adolescence.
b. Incorrect This is characteristic of the industry vs. inferiority stage which occurs from ages 6 to 11 years.
c. Incorrect This is characteristic of the basic trust vs. mistrust stage which occurs from birth to 1 year of age.
D. sense of autonomy; doubt and shame - CORRECT Erikson’s autonomy vs. shame and doubt stage occurs from 1 to 3 years of age. Successful resolution of the conflicts of this stage results in a sense of self-control (autonomy), while failure leads to shame and doubt.
(Lifespan Development)
According to Daniel Levinson's (1986) Seasons of a Man's Life model, the mid-life transition is characterized by: A. following the dream B. formulation of the dream C. re-evaluation of the dream D. realization of the dream
Levinson’s model identifies several stages and transitional periods. The mid-life transition occurs between the ages of 40 and 45.
a. Incorrect Following the dream (goal or vision for the future) is characteristic of the “entry life structure for early adulthood” stage, which occurs from ages 22 to 28.
b. Incorrect Formulation of the dream is characteristic of the “early adult transition,” which occurs from age 17 to 22.
C. re-evaluation of the dream - CORRECT The “mid-life transition” is characterized by a realization that the
dream is not satisfying and/or will not be accomplished.
d. Incorrect Realization of the dream is characteristic of the “culmination of early adult life structure” stage, which occurs from ages 33 to 45.
(Lifespan Development)
Thomas and Chess’s (1977) “goodness-of-fit” model predicts that maladjustment in children is due to:
A. a mismatch between the child s basic temperament and his/her parents childrearing practices.
B. a mismatch between the child’s attachment behaviors and his/her parents’ response to those behaviors.
C. inconsistencies in the parenting styles of the child’s caregivers.
D. inconsistencies in the child’s sense of self and the feedback the child receives from caregivers about his/her behavior.
Knowing that Thomas and Chess studied temperament would have enabled you to identify the correct response to this question.
A. a mismatch between the childs basic temperament and his/her parents childrearing practices - CORRECT Based on their research, Thomas and Chess concluded that it is not the chi|d’s early temperament that predicts Future adjustment but the match between the child’s temperament and his/her caregivers’ childrearing practices.
(Lifespan Development)
The most common symptoms of congenital cytomegalovirus (CMV) are:
A. immunologic abnormalities and delayed physical and cognitive development.
B. hyperactivity, irritability, and irregular sleep and feeding habits.
C. learning disabilities, facial deformities, and hyperactivity.
D. mental retardation and hearing and visual impairments.
Congenital cytomegalovirus (CMV) occurs when CMV, a type of herpes virus, is passed from an infected pregnant woman to her fetus through the placenta.
a. Incorrect These are signs of HIV infection in childhood.
b. Incorrect These symptoms are associated with prenatal malnutrition but not with congenital CMV.
c. Incorrect These are symptoms of fetal alcohol syndrome.
D. mental retardation and hearing and visual impairments - CORRECT These are the most common symptoms of congenital CMV.
(Lifespan Development)
An individual’s phenotype:
A. is attributable solely to his or her genetic inheritance.
B. refers to characteristics that are determined by environmental factors
C. is determined by a combination of genetic and environmental factors.
D. refers to the unobservable factors that contribute to behavior, personality, etc.
Researchers interested in the relative contributions of genetics and environment to human characteristics distinguish between genotype and phenotype.
a. Incorrect Genotype refers to the individual’s genetic endowment.
C. is determined by a combination of genetic and environmental factors - CORRECT Phenotype refers to observable characteristics that are attributable to the individual’s genotype (genetic make-up) and environment.
(Lifespan Development)
According to Kohlberg, a person in the sixth (final) stage of moral development is guided in his or her moral judgments primarily by: A. laws and legally binding contracts. B. principles of conscience. C. cultural standards and values. D. religious doctrine.
Kohlberg’s original theory of moral development included six stages. The sixth stage is the “morality of individual principles of conscience” stage.
B. principles of conscience - CORRECT In the sixth stage of development, moral judgments are based on self-chosen principles that are considered universal in application.
(Lifespan Development)
By 18 months of age, the average child is:
A. speaking in single words and walking while holding onto furniture.
B. speaking in two-word phrases and walking independently.
C. speaking in multi-word phrases and walking up and down the stairs without help.
D. speaking in short sentences and walking up and down the stairs with help.
For the exam, you’ll want to be familiar with the major developmental milestones of early childhood.
a. Incorrect This is more characteristic of children at 12 months.
B. speaking in two-word phrases and walking independently - CORRECT Two-word phrases and the ability to walk independently are exhibited by most children by the age of 18 months.
c. Incorrect This is more characteristic of 2-year-olds.
d. Incorrect Speaking in short sentences is more characteristic of 3-year-olds.
(Lifespan Development)
A child would be most likely to do which of the following first?
A. pull him/herself to standing by holding onto the furniture.
B. show separation anxiety
C. pretend that a wood cylinder is a cup
D. say her first word
To answer this question, you must be familiar with the developmental milestones that occur during the first 6 to 12 months of life.
a. Incorrect Children typically pull themselves to a standing position by holding onto the Furniture by 9 to 10 months of age.
B. show separation anxiety - CORRECT Separation anxiety usually first appears between the ages of 6 to 8
months of age.
c. Incorrect Symbolic play usually begins around 11 to 12 months of age.
d. Incorrect Children usually say their first recognizable words at about 12 months of age.
(Lifespan Development)
Habituation-dishabituation research has demonstrated that, at about \_\_\_ months of age, infants begin to exhibit recognition memory for a visual stimulus for up to 24 hours following presentation of the stimulus. A. 3 B. 6 C. 9 D. 11
Researchers use several techniques to study memory in infants including habituation-dishabituation.
A. 3 - CORRECT By three months of age, infants habituate to visual stimuli — i.e., show less response to the second presentation of a stimulus for periods up to 24 hours. This is interpreted as indicating that the infant recognizes the stimulus.
(Lifespan Development)
Auditory localization:
A. develops gradually in the first six months of life.
B. is present to some degree at birth but then seems to disappear between the ages of 2 and 4 months and then reappears.
C. is present to some degree at birth but then seems to disappear between the ages of 9 and 12 months and then reappears.
D. is not evident in the first few months of life but develops gradually and is not fully developed until 24 months of age.
Auditory localization refers to ability to orient toward the direction of a sound.
B. is present to some degree at birth but then seems to disappear between the ages of 2 and 4 months and then reappears - CORRECT Although auditory localization is apparent soon after birth, it seems to disappear between 2 and 4 months of age, and then reappears and improves
during the rest of the first year of life.
(Lifespan Development)
According to Noam Chomsky's nativist theory, language is largely the result of: A. innate factors. B. operant conditioning. C. parental modeling. D. cognitive development.
As a nativist, Noam Chomsky views language as an innate skill.
A. innate factors - CORRECT Chomsky proposed an innate language acquisition device that consists of language rules and that allows children to acquire language just by being exposed to it.
(Lifespan Development)
Children ages 7 to 9 years of age are most likely to say that:
A. people on TV can see into their homes.
B. people who die on TV are really dead.
C. people in TV shows are actors.
D. people on TV aren’t alive.
Researchers interested in the impact of television on children have attempted to determine the degree to which children of different ages distinguish between fact and fantasy.
a. Incorrect This is characteristic children aged 3 and 4.
b. Incorrect This is also characteristic of younger children.
C. people in TV shows are actors - CORRECT Children begin to understand that characters on television are
actors who are playing roles by 7 to 9 years of age.
d. Incorrect Children ages 7 to 9 understand that people on TV aren’t the characters they are playing, but they don’t believe that the people on TV “aren’t alive.”
(Lifespan Development)
Code-switching is associated with: A. learning disabilities. B. gender identity disorder. C. encoding in long-term memory. D. bilingualism.
Code-switching refers to the alternation between languages during a conversation.
D. bilingualism - CORRECT Code switching is used by bilinguals for several purposes — e.g., to establish rapport with a listener or to better communicate one’s attitude toward the listener.
(Lifespan Development)
The outer limit of Vygotsky’s zone of proximal development is defined as:
A. what a child can do with the assistance of an adult or more capable peer.
B. what the child can do with maximal effort and motivation.
C. the limitations determined by the child’s current biological maturation.
D. the limitations determined by the child’s current level of psychosocial development.
The “zone of proximal development” is a key concept in Vygotsky’s theory of cognitive development.
A. what a child can do with the assistance of an adult or more capable peer - CORRECT In Vygotsky’s theory of cognitive development, the zone of proximal development refers to the gap between what the child can currently do alone and what he/she can do with the assistance of a more skilled person.
(Lifespan Development)
Carol Gilligan (1982) criticized Kohlberg’s theory of moral development on the ground that it is:
A. less applicable to females than to males.
B. less applicable to members of minority groups than to Whites.
C. more applicable to highly educated individuals than to those with less education.
D. more applicable to religious than to nonreligious individuals.
Gilligan points out that Kohlberg’s original research participants were males and argues that, as a result, his theory of moral development is more applicable to males than to females.
A. less applicable to females than to males - CORRECT Based on her research, Gilligan concludes that the moral
judgments of Females are often influenced by concerns related to caring, compassion, and responsibility to others.
(Lifespan Development)
Child abuse and neglect are most associated with which of the following attachment patterns? A. disorganized/disoriented B. distant/disengaged C. insecure/avoidant D. insecure/ambivalent
Children who have been maltreated often exhibit disorganized, contradictory behaviors in the presence of their caregivers — e.g., they might reach out for the caregiver while backing away.
A. disorganized/disoriented - CORRECT Mary Main, a student of Ainsworth, Found that about 80% of maltreated children exhibit a disorganized/disoriented attachment pattern.
(Lifespan Development)
According to Piaget, when making moral judgments, children in the autonomous stage:
A. focus on the consequences of the behavior only.
B. consider relevant laws and rules.
C. focus on their own emotional reactions to the behavior.
D. consider the intentions of the actor.
Piaget distinguished between two stages of moral development: heteronomous and autonomous.
a. Incorrect This is characteristic of the heteronomous stage.
b. Incorrect This is more characteristic of the heteronomous than the autonomous stage.
c. Incorrect This is not characteristic of the autonomous stage.
D. consider the intentions of the actor - CORRECT The autonomous stage begins by age 10 or 11. Children in this
stage base their judgments of behavior primarily on the intentions of the actor.
(Lifespan Development)
Research has shown that teachers criticize boys more than girls and that:
A. girls receive more praise and positive feedback than boys do.
B. boys receive more praise for ability but girls receive more praise for effort.
C. boys receive more praise for effort but girls receive more praise for ability.
D. boys and girls both receive more praise for effort than for ability.
While boys receive more criticism from teachers overall, patterns of criticism (and praise) differ for boys and girls.
a. Incorrect Many teachers seem to take the “good behavior” of girls for granted; and, consequently, it is not generally true that girls receive more praise than boys do.
B. boys receive more praise for ability but girls receive more praise for effort - CORRECT Patterns of criticism and praise by teachers are usually gender- related: Boys are praised more by teachers for their ability, while girls are more likely to receive praise for their effort.
(Lifespan Development)
Babbling ordinarily begins at about 4 to 5 months of age and initially includes:
A. phonemes from all languages.
B. phonemes from the child’s native language only.
C. morphemes from all languages.
D. morphemes that the child has heard most frequently.
Babbling involves the repetition of vowel and consonant sounds — e.g., bi-bi-bi and da-da-da.
A. phonemes from all languages - CORRECT Babbling initially consists of phonemes from all languages; but, by
about 9 months, it narrows to include the sounds of the child’s native language only.
(Lifespan Development)
When asked if he has thought about college, Hakaru H., age 16, says, “My parents want me to be a lawyer, so I'm planning to go to law school." According to Marcia, Hakaru is exhibiting which of the following? A. identity moratorium B. identity diffusion C. identity achievement D. identity foreclosure
Marcia distinguishes between 4 identity statuses that reflect the degree to which the individual has experienced an identity crisis and is committed to an identity.
a. Incorrect Identity moratorium occurs when the individual is experiencing an identity crisis and is actively exploring alternative identities.
b. Incorrect Identity diffusion occurs when the individual has not yet experienced an identity crisis and is not committed to a particular identity.
c. Incorrect Identity achievement occurs when the individual has resolved the identity crisis and is committed to an identity.
D. identity foreclosure - CORRECT Identity foreclosure occurs when the individual has not experienced an identity crisis but has chosen an identity (e.g., career) that has been imposed by others.
(Lifespan Development)
A child with an insecure/anxious-avoidant pattern of attachment:
A. is very distressed when separated from his/her mother and continues to be highly anxious when she returns.
B. is more anxious when his/her mother is present than absent and resists contact with her when she returns following separation.
C. is very distressed when separated from his/her mother but pulls away from her when she returns.
D. shows little distress when separated from his/her mother and turns away from her when she returns.
Attachment patterns are categorized in terms of 4 types: secure, insecure/anxious-avoidant, insecure/anxious-ambivalent, and disorganized-disoriented.
D. shows little distress when separated from his/her mother and turns away from her when she returns - CORRECT In Ainsworth’s “strange situation,” insecure/anxious-avoidant
children are uninterested in exploration, show little distress when separated from their mothers, and avoid her when she returns.
(Lifespan Development)
Kohlberg's cognitive-developmental theory identifies which of the following as the initial stage of gender-role acquisition? A. gender affirmation B. gender identity C. gender constancy D. gender stability
Kohlberg’s cognitive-developmental model identifies three stages of gender-role acquisition — gender identity, gender stability, and gender constancy.
B. gender identity - CORRECT According to Kohlberg (1969), gender identity is the first stage in the acquisition of gender-role behaviors and occurs at about age 2 to 3. It is followed by gender stability (age 4) and then gender constancy (ages 6 to 7).
(Lifespan Development)
A baby with \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ attachment is mildly upset when separated from his/her mother and then actively seeks contact with her when she returns. A.insecure/ambivalent B. insecure/avoidant C. secure D. stable
Research on early attachment has identified four basic attachment patterns — secure, insecure/ambivalent, insecure/avoidant, and disorganized/disoriented.
a. Incorrect A baby with insecure/ambivalent attachment is very distressed when separated from his/her mother but is angry and resistant to contact when she returns.
b. Incorrect A baby with insecure/avoidant attachment shows little distress when separated from his/her mother and ignores or avoids her when she returns.
C. secure - CORRECT The behavior described in this question is characteristic of babies with secure attachment.
d. Incorrect Stable is not one of the four types of attachment patterns identified by researchers.
(Lifespan Development)
By about 8 to 12 months of age, babies actively seek an object that has been hidden from view. According to Piaget, this ability is clue to the development of: A. working memory. B. metamemory. C. object attachment. D. the object concept.
This question describes the ability to recognize that objects continue to exist even when they are no longer in view.
D. the object concept - CORRECT Piaget referred to this ability as the object concept (or object permanence). It begins to develop when the child is between 8 and 12 months of age.
(Lifespan Development)
To study social referencing, a developmental psychologist would most likely use: A. an habituation task. B. pattern recognition. C. a mobile. D. the visual cliff.
Social referencing refers to relying on the emotional response of another person (e.g., caregiver) to decide how to respond in an ambiguous situation.
D. the visual cliff - CORRECT Of the techniques listed in the answers, the visual cliff is the only one that has been used to study social referencing. Research using this technique has found that a baby’s willingness to cross the visual cliff depends on his/her mother’s facial expression.
(Lifespan Development)
Of the senses, is least well-developed at birth A. vision B. audition C. taste D. smell
The infant’s senses develop rapidly in the first few months of life.
A. vision - CORRECT OF the senses, vision is least well-developed at birth. In terms of visual acuity, newborns see at 20 Feet what an adult with normal vision sees at
200 feet.
(Lifespan Development)
Garin G., age 3.5 years, sometimes repeats words and phrases or leaves out words and sounds when he’s talking about something that he’s very excited about. At this age, this type of speech dysfluency is usually:
A. suggestive of an emotional problem.
B. indicative of a speech disability.
C. the result of inadequate language training.
D. a normal developmental phenomenon.
The speech dysfluency exhibited by Garin is normal for children between the ages 18 months and 5 years.
D. a normal developmental phenomenon - CORRECT Speech dysfluency is usually considered indicative of a problem only if it continues beyond the age of 5.
(Lifespan Development)
As described by Piaget, the concrete operational stage extends from ages: A. birth to 2 years. B. 2 to 7 years. C. 7 to 11 years. D. 11 to 15 years.
Piaget distinguished between 4 stages of cognitive development: sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational. Note that the exact age at which each stage begins varies, depending on the individual’s experiences. However, of the age ranges
listed, only one is most associated with the concrete operational stage.
a. Incorrect The sensorimotor stage extends from birth to 2 years of age.
b. Incorrect The preoperational stage extends from 2 to 7 years of age.
C. 7 to 11 years - CORRECT Piaget’s concrete operational stage extends from 7 to 11 years of age.
d. Incorrect The Formal operational stage extends from 11 years on.
(Lifespan Development)
Maternal malnutrition has the most severe consequences for the developing brain of the fetus when it occurs:
A. from conception to first month of prenatal development.
B. from the first month to third month of prenatal development.
C. from the third month to sixth month of prenatal development.
D. from the sixth month to ninth month of prenatal development.
Prenatal malnutrition has its most severe impact, especially on the fetus’s brain, during the later stages of prenatal development.
D. from the sixth month to ninth month of prenatal development - CORRECT The brain grows most rapidly during the Final trimester, and prenatal malnutrition during this period is associated with a low brain weight and abnormalities in the organization of the brain’s neurons.
(Lifespan Development)
During the second stage of Kohlberg’s preconventional level of moral development, children obey rules because:
A. they feel they have a personal duty to uphold rules and laws.
B. “everyone else is doing it.”
C. doing so helps them avoid punishment.
D. doing so helps them satisfy their personal needs.
The preconventional level of moral development consists of two stages: punishment and obedience and instrumental hedonism.
a. Incorrect This is characteristic of the second stage of the conventional level.
b. Incorrect This doesn’t describe the second stage of the preconventional level.
c. Incorrect This is characteristic of the initial punishment and obedience stage of the preconventional level.
D. doing so helps them satisfy their personal needs - CORRECT During the instrumental hedonism stage, children consider the correct action to be the one that best satisfies their own personal needs. To illustrate this stage, Kohlberg described a 10-year old boy who, when asked what it means to be a good son, replied, “Be good to your Father and he will be good to you.”
(Lifespan Development)
Research investigating father-child attachment suggests that it depends most on: A. nurturance and caregiving. B. authority. C. play activities. D. maternal absence.
Fathers and their children often develop a strong bond, but the behaviors that contribute to father-child attachment differ from those that are most important for mother-child attachment.
C. play activities - CORRECT The research indicates that the father-child bond is related more to the father’s role as “playmate” than to nurturance and caregiving, which underlie the mother-child bond.
(Lifespan Development)
According to Michael Rutter (1979), an increased risk for psychopathology in children and adolescents is associated with which of the following factors?
A. low socioeconomic status, large family size, and maternal psychopathology
B. large family size, paternal psychopathology, and difficult temperament
C. maternal psychopathology, low socioeconomic status, and racial/ethnic minority status
D. low socioeconomic status, single-parent family, and racial/ethnic minority status
Rutter’s indicators for psychopathology are low SES, marital discord, large family size and overcrowding, paternal criminality, maternal psychiatric disorder, and being placed in foster care [M. Rutter, Protective factors in children’s responses to stress and disadvantage, in
M. W. Garmezy and M. Rutter (eds.), Stress, Coping, and Development in Children (Vol. 3), McGraw-Hill, NY, 1979].
A. low socioeconomic status, large family size, and maternal psychopathology - CORRECT These are three of the six risk factors identified by Rutter.
b. Incorrect Paternal psychopathology and difficult temperament are not risk factors identified by Rutter.
c. Incorrect Racial/ethnic minority status was not identified by Rutter as a risk factor.
d. Incorrect Single-parent family and racial/ethnic minority status are not risk factors identified by Rutter.
(Lifespan Development)
Information processing theories of cognitive development focus on: A. developmental stages. B. mental rules and strategies. C. social interactions. D. critical periods.
Information processing theories conceptualize the human mind as a computer.
a. Incorrect In contrast to Piagetians, information processing theorists are not interested in stages of cognitive development.
B. mental rules and strategies - CORRECT Information processing theorists focus on mental operations and
view cognitive development as due to changes in mental capacity and increasing sophistication in the use of relevant rules and strategies.
c. Incorrect Social interactions are central to Vygotsky’s sociocultural theory but are not a focus for information processing theorists.
d. Incorrect Information processing theorists view development as continuous and do not propose that it occurs only during critical periods.
(Lifespan Development)
Which aspect of long-term memory is usually the first to be adversely affected by increasing age? A. sensory B. semantic C. procedural D. episodic
Long-term memory is divided into procedural and declarative memory, and declarative memory is further divided into semantic and episodic (autobiographical) memory.
a. Incorrect Sensory memory is not a type of long-term memory.
b. Incorrect Semantic memory is less atfected by normal aging than is episodic memory.
c. Incorrect Procedural memory is relatively unaffected by normal aging.
D. episodic - CORRECT Episodic memory is memory For personally experienced events and is the first aspect of long-term memory that shows age-related declines.
(Lifespan Development)
For most children, stranger anxiety begins at about \_\_\_\_\_ months of age A. 2 to 3 B. 4 to 6 C. 8 to 10 D. 12 to 14
Stranger anxiety involves anxious, fearful responses in the presence of a stranger, especially when a caregiver is not present.
C. 8 to 10 - CORRECT Although the experts differ somewhat with regard to the exact age of onset of stranger anxiety, most agree that it begins during the second half of the first year.
(Lifespan Development)
In terms of age, Erikson's stage of psychosocial development corresponds to Freud's phallic stage. A. industry vs. inferiority B. autonomy vs. shame and doubt C. basic trust vs. mistrust D. initiative vs. guilt.
Erikson’s psychosocial theory proposes that personality development occurs throughout the lifespan and involves eight stages.
a. Incorrect The industry vs. inferiority stage is characteristic of children aged 6 to 11 years and corresponds to Freud’s latency stage.
b. Incorrect The autonomy vs. shame and doubt stage occurs between the ages of 1 and 3 years and corresponds to Freud’s anal stage.
c. Incorrect The basic trust vs. mistrust stage occurs from birth to 1 year of age and corresponds to Freud’s oral stage.
D. initiative vs. guilt - CORRECT The initiative vs. guilt stage is characteristic of children aged 3 to 6 years and corresponds to Freud’s phallic stage.
(Lifespan Development)
A key accomplishment of Piaget's preoperational stage is the emergence of: A. conservation. B. the object concept. C. formal operations. D. the symbolic function.
According to Piaget, the preoperational stage is characterized by the development of the symbolic function, which permits language use, symbolic play, and deferred imitation.
a. Incorrect Conservation refers to the knowledge that physical properties of objects remain invariant with transformations that do not involve addition or subtraction. Such knowledge is acquired between the ages of 7 and 11 years during the concrete operational period.
b. Incorrect The object concept develops during the sensorimotor stage, which is characteristic of children from birth to two years.
c. Incorrect Formal operations are characteristic of the Final (formal operational) stage of cognitive development.
D. the symbolic function - CORRECT The ability For symbolic representation, which is necessary for language use, symbolic play, and deferred imitation, develops during the preoperational stage, which is characteristic of children aged 2 through 7.
(Lifespan Development)
According to Bronfenbrenner’s (1979) ecological model, the \_\_\_\_\_ consists of interactions between elements of the microsystem (e.g., between the family and the school). A. mesosystem B. exosystem C. macrosystem D. endosystem
Bronfenbrenner’s ecological model distinguishes between 4 layers (levels) that influence a child’s development: microsystem, mesosystem, exosystem, and macrosystem.
A. mesosystem - CORRECT The mesosystem is the second layer and consists of interactions between components of the microsystem — e.g., the parents’ involvement in the child’s school experiences and interactions between the child’s church and community.
b. Incorrect The exosystem consists of elements in the social setting that indirectly affect the child’s development (e.g., the parents’jobs).
c. Incorrect The macrosystem is the outermost layer and includes the values, laws, customs, etc. of the child’s culture.
d. Incorrect The endosystem is not one of the levels identified by Bronfenbrenner.
(Lifespan Development)
Two-word sentences are characteristic of the speech of children at \_\_\_\_\_ months of age. A. 8 to 12 B. 12 to 18 C. 18 to 24 D. 24 to 30
Two-word sentences are referred to as telegraphic speech.
C. 18 to 24 - CORRECT Telegraphic speech is characteristic of children between the ages of 18 and 24 months, and consists of the most important words (e.g., “my doll” and “give cake”).
(Lifespan Development)
Research evaluating the psychological and behavioral effects of child sexual abuse have found that all of the following except \_\_\_\_\_ are associated with more severe outcomes. A. male gender B. earlier age of onset of abuse C. abuse by a family member D. abuse by a much older perpetrator
Like much research in psychology, studies on the outcomes of child sexual abuse have not produced consistent results.
A. male gender - CORRECT Most studies have not found a consistent difference in outcomes for male and Female victims of sexual abuse. However, the studies that have found a gender difference and have found the outcomes to be worse for Females than for males.
b. Incorrect An earlier age of onset of the abuse has been linked to worse outcomes.
c. Incorrect Abuse by a parent, parent-figure, or other Family member is associated with worse outcomes than is abuse by a stranger.
d. Incorrect Abuse by a much older perpetrator is associated with worse outcomes. See, e.g., National Research Council, Understanding Child Abuse and
Neglect, Washington, DC, National Academy Press, 1993.
(Lifespan Development)
An increased risk for juvenile delinquency is most associated with which of the following parenting styles? A. authoritarian B. authoritative C. permissive/nondirective D. rejecting/neglecting
Several parental behaviors have been linked to an increased risk for juvenile delinquency.
D. rejecting/neglecting - CORRECT A consistent finding about antisocial behavior in adolescents is that it is predicted by low parental warmth, high parental conflict, and inconsistent discipline. Of the parenting styles listed in the answers, these parental behaviors are most characteristic of the rejecting/neglecting style.
(Lifespan Development)
Recent research suggests that play in childhood:
A. is best described as an imitation of adult behavior
B. contributes to many aspects of development.
C. is essentially a form of entertainment.
D. helps children develop rule-governed behaviors.
Although play, by definition, does not have a purpose, the research has found that it serves important functions for both humans and animals.
a. Incorrect This describes sociodramatic play and does not apply to all types of play.
B. contributes to many aspects of development - CORRECT Current theories about play during childhood regard it as important for a child’s physical, intellectual, social, and emotional development.
d. Incorrect This is true about some types of play only and, therefore, is not the best answer of those given.
(Lifespan Development)
In her longitudinal study of high-risk infants, Werner (1993) found that positive outcomes for these infants were most associated with: A. small family size. B. good physical health. C. precocious physical development. D. an easy temperament.
Werner (1993) identified several factors that contribute to resilience in high-risk infants.
D. an easy temperament - CORRECT Werner concludes that resilience is most associated with (1) fewer stressors following birth, (2) stable support from a parent or other caregiver, and (3) an easy temperament.
(Lifespan Development)
Raymond is a high-energy four-year old who is always asking questions and likes to help with everything. A problem, however, is that when Raymond starts helping one family member, he is often distracted by other activities and may run off to help another member of the family with whatever he or she is doing. Raymond also likes to pretend that he’s one of his favorite characters on TV and can often be seen trying to “arrest” his younger
brother or save his friends from an imaginary “bad guy.” In terms of Erikson’s stages of psychosocial development, Raymond appears to be in which stage of development?
A. autonomy vs. shame and doubt
B. initiative vs. guilt
C. trust vs. mistrust
D. industry vs. inferiority
Erikson identified 8 stages of psychosocial development that encompass the lifespan. According to Erikson, each stage is characterized by a psychosocial crisis that must be appropriately resolved in order for healthy growth and maturation to occur.
a. Incorrect Autonomy vs. shame is the second stage of psychosexual development and occurs between the ages of 1 and 3 years.
B. initiative vs. guilt - CORRECT The stage of initiative vs. guilt begins around age three. It is characterized by increasing locomotion, imagination, curiosity, and exploration. Raymond’s age and behavior suggest that he is in this stage.
c. Incorrect The stage of trust vs. mistrust is the first stage of psychosocial development.
d. Incorrect Industry vs. inferiority is the fourth stage of development and usually begins at around age six.
(Lifespan Development)
You conduct a study to compare gifted and average children. Most likely the results of your study will indicate that gifted children are superior in terms of which of the following? A. divergent thinking B. response speed C. metacognition D. parallel processing
Recent research on giftedness has focused on the role of metacognition.
a. Incorrect Divergent thinking is associated with creativity and can be found in both average and gifted individuals.
b. Incorrect In fact, superior response accuracy is more characteristic of gifted children than is response speed.
C. metacognition - CORRECT The research has consistently shown that gifted children are more aware of their cognitive processes and better at choosing and applying cognitive strategies and evaluating the effectiveness of their choice.
d. Incorrect The term parallel processing has several meanings. In the context of physiological psychology, it refers to the flow of information from the source to the recipient via more than one route. Parallel processing has not been linked to giftedness.
(Lifespan Development)
Down Syndrome is caused by: A. a dominant gene. B. two recessive genes. C. a chromosomal abnormality. D. an X-linked gene.
Down Syndrome is a chromosomal condition that is associated with mental retardation, specific facial features, and certain physical abnormalities (e.g., hypotonia, heart defects, and hearing impairment)
C. a chromosomal abnormality - CORRECT Down syndrome is most often due to a failure of the 21st pair of
chromosomes to split during meiosis, resulting in an extra chromosome 21.
(Lifespan Development)
According to Gerald Patterson and his colleagues (1992), which of the following is a key contributor to aggressive behavior in children?
A. the child’s intelligence
B. the child’s “basic personality”
C. the strength of the parent-child attachment
D. the parents’ childrearing behaviors
The social learning approach of Patterson and his colleagues focuses on the family factors that contribute to aggressiveness in children.
D. the parents’ childrearing behaviors - CORRECT Patterson et al.’s “coercive family interaction model” attributes aggression in children primarily to interactions between parents and their children, especially interactions involving the parents’ childrearing behaviors.
(Lifespan Development)
The studies have generally shown that children have the most difficulty adjusting to the remarriage of their parents when they are in \_\_\_\_\_ the time of remarriage. A. preschool B. elementary school C. early adolescence D. late adolescence
Hetherington (1993) and others have found that children’s adjustment to parental remarriage is affected by several factors including the child’s age.
C. early adolescence - CORRECT Hetherington concludes that individuals in early adolescence have the most difficulty adapting to the remarriage of a parent because the introduction of a stepparent at this time may exacerbate the normal adjustment problems associated with this age.
(Lifespan Development)
Kohlberg argued that there is a monotonic relationship between moral judgment and moral action and proposed that, as one moves from a lower to a higher stage of moral development:
A. the range of possible moral actions becomes narrower and the individual assumes greater responsibility for relating his/her judgments to actions.
B. the range of possible moral actions becomes broader and the individual assumes greater responsibility for relating his/her judgments to actions.
C. the range of possible moral actions remains the same but the individual assumes greater responsibility for relating his/her judgments to actions.
D. the range of possible moral actions becomes narrower but the individual’s sense of responsibility for relating his/her judgments to actions remains about the same..
Although Kohlberg believed that there is a positive relationship between moral judgment and moral action, he proposed that this relationship is much stronger at higher levels of moral development.
A. the range of possible moral actions becomes narrower and the individual assumes greater responsibility for relating his/her judgments to actions - CORRECT The stronger relationship between judgment and action at higher stages is attributable to two factors: first, the range of actions suggested by the individual’s judgment narrows; and, second, the individual experiences an increasing sense of responsibility to act.
(Lifespan Development)
Longitudinal studies of children who attended Head Start programs have found that:
A. early IQ gains and improvements in academic achievement persist into adolescence and early adulthood.
B. early IQ gains decline but improvements in academic achievement persist into adolescence.
C. early improvements in academic achievement decline by adolescence but initial IQ gains persist into adulthood.
D. attendees are indistinguishable from nonattendees on measures of IQ and academic achievement by adolescence.
Longitudinal research has found that the short- and long-term effects of Head Start and similar compensatory education programs differ.
B. early IQ gains decline but improvements in academic achievement persist into adolescence - CORRECT While early research on Head Start found that it has positive
effects on IQ, subsequent longitudinal studies found that IQ gains usually decline over time but that beneficial effects on academic achievement and success persist into adolescence and early adulthood. See, e.g., S. W. Barnett, Long-term cognitive and academic effects of early childhood education on children in poverty, Preventive Medicine, 27(2), 204-207, 1998.
(Lifespan Development)
A \_\_\_\_\_ is a restricted interval of time during which a particular kind of learning or experience must occur in order for development to proceed normally. A. sensitive period B. critical period C. refractory period D. incubation period
Researchers interested in early development distinguish between critical and sensitive periods.
a. Incorrect A sensitive period is an interval of time when certain behaviors are more easily learned or acquired or when the organism is especially receptive to certain types of experience. Sensitive periods are more flexible than critical periods.
B. critical period - CORRECT A critical period is a limited period of time in which certain learning or experiences must occur in order for normal development to take place. There is evidence that, in humans, there is a critical period for language acquisition.
c. Incorrect The term refractory period is used to describe the interval of time after orgasm during which another orgasm is not possible.
d. Incorrect Incubation period has several meanings. One definition is the time interval between exposure to a disease and the development of symptoms of that disease.
(Lifespan Development)
Studies comparing children who are actively rejected or neglected by their peers have found that:
A. children who are actively rejected have worse outcomes.
B. children who are neglected have worse outcomes.
C. children who are actively rejected or neglected have similar outcomes.
D. children who are actively rejected or neglected have different short-term outcomes but similar long-term outcomes.
The research has shown that being actively rejected by peers is associated with worse outcomes than is being neglected by peers.
A. children who are actively rejected have worse outcomes - CORRECT Children who are actively rejected by peers exhibit a number of negative social behaviors, while those who are neglected are relatively well-adjusted. In addition, neglected children are more likely to experience an improvement in their peer status when they change social groups (e.g., change schools).
(Lifespan Development)
As defined by Piaget, a \_\_\_\_\_ circular reaction occurs when a baby explores the characteristics of familiar objects by deliberately using them in new ways. A. reflexive B. primary C. secondary D. tertiary
According to Piaget, much of the cognitive development that occurs during the sensorimotor stage is the result of circular reactions, in which the child repeats or reproduces a pleasurable or interesting experience.
a. Incorrect Piaget considered reflexes to be the “building blocks” of cognitive development from birth to 1 month.
b. Incorrect Primary circular reactions predominate from ages 1 to 4 months. They involve simple motor habits that center around the baby’s own body (e.g., thumb sucking].
c. Incorrect Secondary circular reactions predominate from ages 4 to 8 months and are actions involving other people or objects.
D. tertiary - CORRECT Tertiary circular reactions predominate from ages 12 to 18 months and involve varying an original or usual action on an object to see what happens
(Lifespan Development)
The relationship of preadolescent siblings is best described as: A. distant/aloof. B. conflictual/hostile. C. competitive and cooperative. D. close and conflictual.
Even if you’re unfamiliar with the research, it makes sense that preadolescent relationships (or any relationship for that matter!) would involve a mixture of positive and negative aspects.
D. close and conflictual - CORRECT The research indicates that sibling relationships often involve
contradictions, but the combination of closeness and conflict seems to be particularly characteristic of siblings during preadolescence.
(Lifespan Development)
Sandra Bem’s (1984) theory of gender role identity development emphasizes which of the following? A. psychosexual crises B. rewards ancl punishments C. early object relations D. gender schemas
The exam occasionally includes a question that requires you to be recognize the name and work of a specific theorist or researcher; and this is an example of this type of question.
a. Incorrect Psychosexual crises are a focus of Freud’s theory of gender-role identity development.
b. Incorrect Rewards and punishments are not central to Bem’s theory.
c. Incorrect The role of early object relations in the development of a gender identity is of concern to feminist object relations theorists.
D. gender schemas - CORRECT Bem’s gender schema theory combines social learning theory and cognitive-developmental theory and focuses on the role of gender schemas, which are cognitive structures of masculinity and femininity that influence how the child interprets the world.
(Lifespan Development)
Research confirming which of the following provides support for the encoding specificity principle?
A. Elaborative rehearsal is more effective than maintenance rehearsal.
B. Retroactive interference has a greater impact on recent (versus remote) memories.
C. Recognition memory is ordinarily better than recall memory.
D. Most memory loss is consistent with the typical forgetting curve.
The encoding specificity principle (Tulving & Thomson, 1973) predicts that recall is improved when the same information is available at encoding and retrieval.
a. Incorrect Although this is true (elaborative rehearsal is more effective), it does not support the encoding specificity principle.
b. Incorrect Research indicating that retroactive interference has a greater impact on recent memories supports the consolidation theory of memory.
C. Recognition memory is ordinarily better than recall memory - CORRECT The research has consistently found that recognition memory is better than recall memory, and this has been attributed to the fact that recognition items provide more cues than do recall items (i.e., there is greater overlap between the information in the test items and the information contained in the memory trace).
d. Incorrect Research showing that most memory loss is consistent with the typical forgetting curve supports the consolidation theory of memory.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
According to Albert Ellis, maladaptive behavior is caused primarily by which of the following?
A. learned helplessness
B. boundary disturbances
C. a lack of response-contingent reinforcement
D. irrational thoughts and beliefs
Knowing that Ellis’s approach is classified as a type of cognitive-behavioral therapy would have helped you identify the correct response to this question.
D. irrational thoughts and beliefs - CORRECT The basic premise of Ellis’s rational-emotive behavioral therapy
(REBT) is that maladaptive behaviors and emotions are the result of irrational thoughts and beliefs. Thus, the primary goal of REBT is to replace the client’s
irrational thoughts and beliefs with more rational, adaptive ones.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
Studies comparing the recall ability of participants who were or were not allowed to sleep following memorization of a list of words have provided support for which of the following theories of forgetting? A. trace decay theory B. interference theory C. motivated forgetting theory D. retrieval failure theory
The research referred to in this question found that participants who slept remembered more than those who stayed awake.
a. Incorrect Trace decay theory predicts that forgetting is due to the passage of time. If this theory were correct, participants who did or did not sleep would have exhibited similar levels of recall.
B. interference theory - CORRECT The results of this research suggest that forgetting is not due simply to the passage of time but, instead, to the events that follow learning. In other words, memory loss is due to the interference of other events.
c. Incorrect Freud proposed that motivated forgetting is due to the repression of unconscious desires.
d. Incorrect Retrieval failure theory predicts that a loss of memory is not due to a failure to store information in long-term memory but, instead, to an inability to retrieve that information.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
Sensate focus was developed by Masters and Johnson (1970) as a technique for reducing performance anxiety related to sexual intercourse. If viewed as a behavioral technique, sensate focus is best described as a form of: A. classical extinction. B. operant extinction. C. counterconditioning. D. covert sensitization.
Sensate focus involves pairing pleasurable sensations with performance anxiety in order to reduce the latter.
C. counterconditioning - CORRECT Counterconditioning is based on the principles of classical conditioning and involves pairing two incompatible responses in order to
eliminate one of the responses.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
Which of the following types of biofeedback has been found to be most effective for the treatment of Raynaud’s disease? A. EEG B. GSR C. thermal D. respiration
Knowing that Raynaud’s disease involves a constriction of blood vessels in the extremities would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. Incorrect EEG (electroencephalogram) biofeedback provides information about brain activity and has not been found useful for treating Raynaud’s disease.
b. Incorrect GSR (galvanic skin response) biofeedback has been found useful for treating stress, anxiety, ADHD, and stuttering.
C. thermal - CORRECT Thermal (temperature) biofeedback has been found to be an effective treatment for a number of circulatory disorders, including Raynaud’s disease.
d. Incorrect Respiration biofeedback provides information on breathing rate and is used to treat anxiety, asthma, and hyperventilation.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
Edward Tolrnan is best known for his research on learning A. discovery B. observational C. latent D. insight
Tolman believed that learning could occur without being manifested in performance — i.e., that learning could be latent.
a. Incorrect Bruner was a major contributor to knowledge about discovery (inquiry) learning.
b. Incorrect Bandura conducted research on observational learning.
C. latent - CORRECT Tolman’s research with rats in mazes indicated that the rats had learned the maze (i.e., had formed “cognitive maps”) without exhibiting that
learning until they were reinforced for doing so. He referred to this as latent learning.
d. Incorrect Kohler conducted research on insight learning.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
Rehm’s (1977) self-control model of depression focuses on which the following?
A. beliefs about the self, the world, and the future
B. integration of thoughts, feelings, and actions
C. levels of knowledge, skills, and attitudes
Rehrn’s model of depression distinguishes between six processes that involve three areas of self-control.
D. processes related to self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self- reinforcement - CORRECT According to Rehm, deficits in these three aspects of self-control increase a person’s vulnerability to depression. See, L. P. Rehm, A self-control model of depression, Behavior Therapy, 1977, 8, 787-804.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
When using protocol analysis, an individual is asked to:
A. “brainstorm” with other problem-solvers.
B. “think aloucl” while solving a complex problem.
C. identify alternative strategies for solving the problem.
D. construct a cognitive map of a problem.
Protocol analysis was developed by cognitive psychologists as a method for obtaining information about a person’s thoughts while solving problems.
B. “think aloucl” while solving a complex problem - CORRECT Protocol analysis involves having the individual “think aloud” while solving a problem while an observer records what the individual says. The observer then analyzes the individual’s verbalizations in order to identify the cognitive processes involved in solving the problem.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
A behavior that has been reinforced on which of the following schedules is most resistant to extinction? A. fixed ratio B. variable ratio C. fixed interval D. variable interval
The intermittent schedules of reinforcement listed in the answers are associated with different rates of acquisition and extinction.
a. Incorrect The acquisition of a response is rapid when using a fixed ratio schedule of reinforcement. However, because the relationship between responding and reinforcement is predictable, extinction is faster for this schedule than for the variable ratio schedule.
B. variable ratio - CORRECT A variable ratio schedule produces behaviors that are most resistant to extinction because, when using this schedule, the relationship
between responding and reinforcement is unpredictable.
c. Incorrect The rate of extinction is faster with this schedule than with the variable ratio schedule.
d. Incorrect The rate of extinction is faster with this schedule than with the variable ratio schedule.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
Whenever Bahir B., age 5, has tantrums in his kindergarten class, his teacher removes him from all opportunities for reinforcement by having him sit in a small empty room adjacent to the classroom for ten minutes. The teacher is using which of the following techniques to reduce Bahir's tantrums? A. positive punishment B. negative reinforcement C. time-out D. overcorrection
Interventions based on operant conditioning increase behaviors through reinforcement or decrease behaviors through punishment or extinction.
a. Incorrect Positive punishment involves applying a stimulus following a behavior in order to decrease the occurrence of that behavior. In the situation described in this question, opportunities for reinforcement are being removed following the behavior.
b. Incorrect Negative reinforcement involves removing a stimulus following a behavior in order to increase the occurrence of that behavior. The goal in this case is to decrease a behavior.
C. time-out - CORRECT Time-out involves removing an individual from all possible sources of positive reinforcement for a brief period of time following the occurrence of a behavior in order to decrease that behavior. Time-out is usually classified as a type of negative punishment.
d. Incorrect Overcorrection involves having the individual engage in alternative behaviors after performing the undesirable behavior (i.e., returning the environment to its previous condition andfor practicing correct behaviors).
(Learning Theories & CBT)
Which of the following interventions does not use classical extinction to eliminate an undesirable anxiety response? A. covert sensitization B. graduated exposure C. flooding D. implosive therapy
When using classical extinction to eliminate an anxiety response, the individual is exposed to the anxiety-arousing stimulus (which is assumed to be a conditioned stimulus) in the absence of the unconditioned stimulus.
A. covert sensitization - CORRECT Covert sensitization uses counterconditioning to eliminate undesirable self-reinforcing behaviors (e.g., drug use, paraphilias).
b. Incorrect Graduated exposure involves exposing the individual to anxiety-arousing stimuli in a gradual way — i.e., by beginning with stimuli that produce the least amount of anxiety and then gradually progressing to stimuli that evoke higher levels of anxiety.
c. Incorrect Flooding, which is also known as in vivo exposure with response prevention, involves exposing the individual to fear-arousing stimuli while preventing him/her from making his/her usual avoidance response.
d. Incorrect Implosive therapy involves exposing the individual to fear-arousing stimuli in imagination.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
The use of shaping to establish a complex behavior depends on which of the following? A. desensitization B. positive reinforcement C. alternate response training D. higher-order conditioning
Shaping is based on operant conditioning and involves reinforcing successive approximations to the target (desired) behavior.
a. Incorrect The term desensitization has several meanings depending on the context, but it is not relevant to the process of shaping.
b. CORRECT When using shaping to establish a new behavior, responses that come closer and closer to the desired behavior are successively reinforced.
c. Incorrect Alternate response training involves training the individual to engage in a response that interferes with or is incompatible with the target (undesirable) response.
d. Incorrect Higher-order conditioning is a type of classical (not operant) conditioning and is not a component of shaping.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
Research on EMDR (eye movement desensitization and reprocessing) suggests that its effectiveness for alleviating the symptoms of PTSD is attributable to which of the following? A. imaginal exposure B. higher-orcler conditioning C. relaxation training D. fixed visual attention
EMDR was originally developed as a treatment for PTSD and combines rapid lateral eye movements (which purportedly trigger adaptive neurophysiological information-processing mechanisms) with exposure
and other techniques.
a. CORRECT Studies that used a dismantling strategy or compared EMDR to exposure-based treatments have generally confirmed that the essential component of EMDR is exposure to the feared stimulus in imagination rather than to lateral eye movements. See, e.g., S. Taylor et al., Comparative efficacy, speed, and adverse effects of three PTSD treatments: Exposure therapy, EM DR, and relaxation, Journal of Clinical and Consulting Psychology,
2003, 72, 330-338.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
When using punishment to modify behavior, habituation is most likely to be a problem when:
A. the intensity of the punishment is gradually increased over time.
B. the individual is given brief “vacations” from punishment.
C. different methods of punishment are alternately applied to the target behavior.
D. the use of punishment is restricted to one or two (versus numerous) behaviors.
In the context of punishment, habituation refers to a reduction in the effectiveness of punishment.
A. the intensity of the punishment is gradually increased over time. - CORRECT Gradually increasing the intensity of punishment over time (i.e., beginning with a weak Form of punishment and then gradually increasing its intensity) increases the likelihood that habituation will occur. In contrast, the methods listed in answers b, c, and d are useful For reducing habituation. See, e.g., D. C. Lerman and C. M. Vorndran, On the status of knowledge for using punishment: Implications for treating behavior disorders, Journal of Applied Behavioral Anaiysis, 2002, 35, 431-464.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
Bandura’s social learning theory posits that:
A. people can acquire behaviors without actually performing them
B. reinforcement is unnecessary for learning to occur.
C. learning reflects a series of internal S-R connections.
D. people can passively acquire behavior through observation.
Bandura’s social learning theory is distinguished from behavioral theories by its recognition of the role of cognitive (covert) factors in learning.
A. people can acquire behaviors without actually performing them - CORRECT Bandura distinguished between learning and performance and proposed that people can learn (acquire) behaviors without actually performing them by observing others perform those behaviors.
b. Incorrect Although Bandura downplays the importance of external reinforcement, he does not entirely abandon the idea that reinforcement enhances the acquisition and performance of behaviors.
c. Incorrect This doesn’t accurately describe Bandura’s theory.
d. Incorrect Bandura describes learning as an active, not passive, process.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
A functional analysis is conducted in order to identify \_\_\_\_\_ variables A. controlling B. moderator C. dependent D. organisrnic
The term “functional analysis” is associated with behavioral assessment and involves identifying the antecedents and consequences of the target behavior.
a. CORRECT Functional analysis is used to identify the Factors (antecedents and consequences) that are controlling the target behavior so that those Factors can
be altered.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
A behavioral psychologist warns that "a single exception can reinstate the target response and may even maintain it for an extended period of time." Apparently, the psychologist is referring to the use of which of the following operant techniques to eliminate an undesirable response? A. extinction B. shaping C. negative reinforcement D. chaining
The wording of this question implies that the correct answer must be a technique that is used to eliminate a response.
A. extinction - CORRECT Intermittent reinforcement produces behaviors that are very resistant to extinction. Therefore, when using extinction to eliminate a behavior, all reinforcement for that behavior must be consistently withheld. If the behavior is reinforced even once, the behavior may be reinstated and the extinction process will have to begin again.
b. Incorrect Shaping is used to establish a behavior and involves reinforcing successive approximations to the desired behavior.
c. Incorrect Negative reinforcement is also used to increase a behavior and involves removing an undesirable consequence when the behavior is performed.
d. Incorrect Chaining is used to establish complex behaviors.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
Operant extinction would NOT be the treatment-of-choice when:
A. an alternative behavior cannot be identified.
B. the behavior has been reinforced on a continuous schedule.
C. a temporary increase in the behavior cannot be tolerated.
D. the baseline levels of the behavior cannot be established.
Extinction is accomplished by withholding all reinforcement from a previously reinforced behavior.
a. Incorrect It would be helpful to be simultaneously reinforcing an alternative behavior, but the absence of an alternative behavior would not rule out the use of extinction.
b. Incorrect Behaviors that have been reinforced on a continuous schedule are easier to extinguish than those that have been reinforced on an intermittent schedule.
C. a temporary increase in the behavior cannot be tolerated - CORRECT Extinction often produces an initial “extinction burst” (temporary increase in the target behavior). Consequently, it would be contraindicated when a temporary increase in the behavior cannot be tolerated.
d. Incorrect It would be useful to have a baseline reading to determine the effects of the extinction procedure, but the absence of a baseline measure would not rule out the use of extinction.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
When using reinforcement to establish a new behavior, the most effective approach is to begin with a continuous schedule of reinforcement and then, when the behavior has reached the desired level, to switch to an intermittent
schedule. The process of switching from a continuous to an intermittent schedule is referred to as:
A. fading.
B. desensitizing.
C. thinning.
D. blocking.
This question is asking for the term that is used to describe reducing the proportion of reinforcement.
a. Incorrect Fading refers to the gradual removal of a prompt.
b. Incorrect Desensitizing is not the term used to describe reducing the proportion of reinforcement.
c. CORRECT This question provides an example of the technique known as thinning (or schedule thinning).
d. Incorrect Blocking is a classical conditioning term and occurs when two different conditioned (neutral) stimuli are paired with the unconditioned stimulus.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
The assumption underlying the use of implosive therapy for treating a phobia is that:
A. extinction of a conditioned response occurs when positive reinforcement for that response is repeatedly withheld.
B. extinction of a conditioned response occurs when the CS is repeatedly presented without the US.
C. consistent application of an aversive stimulus following a response results in elimination of that response.
D. pairing a maladaptive response with an alternative adaptive response eliminates the maladaptive response
Implosive therapy uses classical extinction to eliminate an undesirable anxiety response.
B. extinction of a conditioned response occurs when the CS is repeatedly presented without the US - CORRECT Implosive therapy involves having the client repeatedly imagine a feared stimulus (CS) in the absence of the stimulus (US) that initially evoked the fear in order to eliminate the conditioned Fear response.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
Which of the following is an example of anterograde amnesia?
A. As the result of a head injury he received in a car accident, a man cannot remember where he was going before the accident occurred.
B. A woman cannot remember how she got to the hospital or other events that occurred during the 24 hours after she was sexually assaulted.
C. A high school junior who learned Spanish her freshman year is having trouble learning French because she keeps substituting Spanish words for French ones.
D. A college student can remember information related to an important event but cannot remember how he acquired that information.
Anterograde amnesia involves a loss of memory for events that occur after the event that caused the memory loss.
a. Incorrect A loss of memory for events that occurred prior to the trauma that caused the memory impairment is referred to as retrograde amnesia.
B. A woman cannot remember how she got to the hospital or other events that occurred during the 24 hours after she was sexually assaulted - CORRECT This answer provides an example of anterograde amnesia — i.e., the woman has no memory for events that occurred after the assault.
c. Incorrect This is an example of proactive interference.
d. Incorrect This is an example of source amnesia.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
The technique known as stress inoculation consists of three overlapping phases. These are:
A. preparation, action, and reflection.
B. engagement/motivation, behavior change, and generalization.
C. initiation of treatment, primary treatment/rehabilitation, and aftercare
D. conceptualization/education, skill acquisition and rehearsal, and application.
Stress inoculation (Meichenbaum & Jaremko, 1982) was designed to help people deal with stressful events by increasing their coping skills.
D. conceptualization/education, skill acquisition and rehearsal, and application - CORRECT Stress inoculation is a cognitive-behavioral technique that consists of the three phases listed in this response.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
Which of the following is responsible for your ability to remember to call your friend next week in order to wish her a “happy birthday”? A. prospective memory B. meta-memory C. secondary memory D. working memory
If you’re not familiar with the type of memory being asked about in this question, you may have been able to identify the correct answer through the process of elimination.
a. CORRECT Prospective memory refers to the ability to “remember to remember” — i.e., to remember to do something in the future.
b. Incorrect Meta-memory refers to awareness and understanding of one’s own memory processes. It includes the ability to know what memory strategies to
use for specific tasks.
c. Incorrect Secondary memory is used by some authors as a synonym for long-term memory in general, while others define it less broadly as a synonym for recent long-term memory.
d. Incorrect Working memory is the aspect of short-term memory that is used to perform certain mental tasks (e.g., to solve a simple arithmetic problem “in your head”).
(Learning Theories & CBT)
The various intermittent schedules of reinforcement are associated with different response patterns. Which of the following schedules and patterns is incorrectly matched?
A. variable ratio: stable rates of responding with high resistance to extinction
B. variable interval: smooth, stable rates of responding with moderate to low resistance to extinction
C. fixed ratio: post-reinforcement response pauses with moderately high resistance to extinction
D. fixed interval: smooth but slow rates of responding with moderate resistance to extinction
The specific intermittent schedule of reinforcement used influences how quickly an operant behavior is acquired and how well it is maintained. Note that this question is asking for the schedule that is incorrectly matched with its description.
a. Incorrect When using a variable ratio schedule, reinforcement is provided after a variable number of responses. This schedule produces stable rates of
responding and responses that are highly resistant to extinction.
b. Incorrect Use of a variable interval schedule involves providing reinforcement after random or variable time intervals. It produces stable rates of responding and low to moderate resistance to extinction.
c. Incorrect Use of a fixed ratio schedule entails consistently providing reinforcement after a fixed number of correct responses. It produces a “scalloped” response pattern characterized by brief pauses in responding
following reinforcement and a moderately high resistance to extinction.
D. fixed interval: smooth but slow rates of responding with moderate resistance to extinction - CORRECT When using a fixed interval schedule, reinforcement is provided after a fixed interval of time as long as the response occurred at least once during that interval. It produces a “scalloped” (not smooth] response pattern characterized by brief pauses in responding following reinforcement and low resistance to extinction.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
Betsy B., age 9, is given a quarter by her parents each time she practices her violin and another quarter each time she completes her homework. If Betsy’s parents stop paying her for completing her homework, they are most
likely to find that Betsy:
A. spends less time doing homework and less time practicing the violin.
B. spends less time doing homework but more time practicing the violin.
C. spends less time doing homework but about the same amount of time practicing the violin.
D. spends about the same amount of time doing homework but more time practicing the violin.
Betsy has received reinforcement for two different behaviors, but the reinforcement for one behavior will be terminated.
B. spends less time doing homework but more time practicing the violin - CORRECT This question is asking about “positive behavioral contrast,” which occurs when reinforcement for one behavior is withdrawn while reinforcement for another behavior is continued. In this situation, the behavior that is no longer reinforced will decrease, while the behavior that continues to be reinforced will increase.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
According to the levels of processing model of memory, words and other information may be encoded at different levels, with \_\_\_\_\_ processing being the deepest level. A. orthographic B. phonemic C. semantic D. perceptual
Craik and Lockhart’s (1972) levels of processing model proposes that the level (depth) of processing of information affects how well that information is retained.
C. semantic - CORRECT Craik and Lockhart distinguished between shallow and deep processing. According to their theory, shallow processing (processing words on
the basis of their phonemic or orthographic characteristics) is less effective than deep processing (processing words at the semantic or meaning-based level).
d. Incorrect Perceptual processing includes orthographic and phonemic processing, which are shallow levels.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
Within the Pavlovian paradigm, experimental neurosis is the result of: A. unavoidable aversive stimuli. B. difficult discriminations. C. accidental conditioning. D. higher-order conditioning.
Experimental neurosis was exhibited by dogs in Pavlov’s research when they were presented with stimuli very similar to the original CS.
B. difficult discriminations - CORRECT When required to make difficult discriminations between the CS and stimuli very similar to it, the normally docile animals in Pavlov’s studies became very agitated. Pavlov referred to this as experimental neurosis.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
Research using the dismantling strategy has found that the effectiveness of systematic desensitization as a treatment for anxiety is attributable to which of the following? A. escape conditioning B. extinction C. satiation D. higher-order conditioning
Systematic desensitization was developed as an application of reciprocal inhibition (counterconditioning). However, research using the dismantling strategy suggests that reciprocal inhibition is not the essential component.
B. extinction - CORRECT The results of research using the dismantling strategy has led researchers to conclude that repeated exposure to feared stimuli leads to extinction of the undesirable anxiety response and is responsible For the benefits of systematic desensitization.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
The law of effect was proposed by: A. Tolman. B. Thorndike. C. Watson. D. Bandura.
According to the law of effect, a response that is followed by a “satisfying state of affairs” is more likely to be repeated.
a. Incorrect Tolman is associated with Latent learning/cognitive maps.
B. Thorndike - CORRECT Thorndike’s research established a connection between the consequences of a behavior and the likelihood that the behavior will be
repeated, and he referred to this connection as the law of effect.
c. Incorrect Watson used Pavlovian (classical) conditioning to explain the development of fear responses.
d. Incorrect Bandura is most associated with social (observational) learning theory.
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Prior to taking an important test, Delwood D. feels very anxious and, on the basis of this anxiety, concludes that he's not prepared for the test and will fail it. Delwood is exhibiting which of the following? A. polarized thinking B. demanding expectations C. catastrophizing D. emotional reasoning
Delwood is exhibiting a cognitive distortion that involves making a judgment on the basis of his emotions.
a. Incorrect Polarized (dichotomous) thinking involves seeing things as either “black or white.”
b. Incorrect Demanding expectations are beliefs that there are rules or laws that must always be obeyed.
c. Incorrect Catastrophizing involves believing that an event will have catastrophic consequences when, in fact, it’s more likely to be only irritating or inconvenient. Although Delwood is, in a sense, catastrophizing, answer d is a better response because his conclusions about the test are derived from his emotional state.
D. emotional reasoning - CORRECT Emotional reasoning is what it sounds like — i.e., concluding that what you feel must be the truth.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
Research on the serial position effect provides support for the distinction between:
A. iconic and echoic memory.
B. distributed and parallel processing.
C. short- and long-term memory.
D. proactive and retroactive interference.
The serial position effect refers to the tendency to recall items in the beginning and end of a list better than items in the middle of the list, especially when recall occurs immediately after rehearsing the list.
C. short-and long-term memory - CORRECT One explanation for the serial position effect is that items in the beginning of the list have been stored in long-term memory, while those in the end of the list are still present in short-term memory.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
The highest levels of learning and performance are usually associated with: A. low levels of arousal. B. moderate levels of arousal. C. high levels of arousal. D. variability in levels of arousal.
Even if you’re not familiar with the Yerkes-Dodson law (which proposes that learning and performance are curvilinearly related to arousal), you may have been able to identify the correct answer on the basis of common sense - i.e., most people perform best when their level of
arousal is somewhere between “none” and “a lot.”
a. Incorrect A low level of arousal can lead to boredom which can negatively affect learning and performance.
B. moderate levels of arousal - CORRECT Moderate levels of arousal are associated with the highest levels of
learning and performance. This is particularly true when moderate levels of arousal are combined with moderate task difficulty.
c. Incorrect A high level of arousal can lead to stress and fatigue, which can negatively affect learning and performance.
d. Incorrect Varying levels of arousal would not be optimal for learning and performance.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
In Pavlov’s research, experimental animals began to salivate in response to a tone after the tone had been presented repeatedly with meat powder. In this
situation, the tone was a(n) _____ stimulus.
A. conditioned
B. second-order
C. unconditioned
D. discriminative
In classical conditioning, a conditioned stimulus (CS) elicits a conditioned response (CR) as a result of its pairing with an unconditioned stimulus (US) that naturally elicits the unconditioned response (UR).
A. conditioned - CORRECT In Pavlov’s studies, the tone was a conditioned stimulus (CS) - i.e., it elicited salivation only as the result of being paired with an unconditioned
stimulus (meat powder) that naturally elicited salivation.
b. Incorrect In second-order conditioning (also known as higher-order conditioning), a previously conditioned stimulus is paired with a neutral stimulus so that presentation of the neutral stimulus alone elicits a conditioned response. The study described in this question is not an example of second-order conditioning.
c. Incorrect The unconditioned stimulus (US) elicits a response without conditioning. In Pavlov’s studies, the unconditioned stimulus was the meat powder.
d. Incorrect A discriminative stimulus is a cue that signals that a reinforcer will be provided when the individual performs a specific behavior.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
Masaaki M. has not yet learned to distinguish between a cow and a horse. When he sees a cow, he sometimes says “horse” and he sometimes calls a horse a “cow.” To help him learn the difference between these two animals
Masaaki’s parents make the sounds “moo” or “neigh,” as appropriate, whenever the boy encounters a cow or horse. Masaaki’s parents are using which of the following techniques?
A. shaping
B. prompting
C. chaining
D. thinning
Masaaki’s parents are providing the child with prompts.
a. Incorrect Shaping is used to help an individual acquire a complex behavior and involves reinforcing successive approximations to the target behavior.
B. prompting - CORRECT Prompting involves providing an individual with appropriate cues to help elicit the desired behavior.
c. Incorrect When using chaining to establish a complex behavior consisting of a sequence of responses, each response acts as reinforcement for the previous response and as a discriminative stimulus for the next response.
d. Incorrect Thinning is the process of gradually reducing the frequency of reinforcement (e.g., of switching from a continuous to an intermittent schedule of reinforcement).
(Learning Theories & CBT)
From the perspective of Beck’s cognitive-behavioral therapy, the modification of maladaptive cognitions requires which of the following?
A. a balance of intrinsic and extrinsic reinforcement
B. the experience of affective arousal
C. an adequate level of self-efficacy
D. a sense of personal responsibility
This is a difficult question unless you are very familiar with Beck’s approach.
B. the experience of affective arousal - CORRECT According to Beck, the modification of dysfunctional cognitions “can only occur if the patient is engaged in the problematic situation and experiences affective arousal” (A. T. Beck and M. Weishaar, Cognitive therapy, in A.
Freeman, et al., eds., Comprehensive Handbook of Cognitfve Therapy, New York, Plenum Press, 1989, p. 29).
(Learning Theories & CBT)
Samuel S., age 43, says, "Even though I've just been given a bonus at work, I feel like I'm about to be fired.” As defined by Aaron Beck, Samuel is exhibiting which of the following cognitive distortions? A. mustabatory thinking B. polarized thinking C. personalization D. arbitrary inference
The phenomena listed in the answers to this question are all cognitive distortions that have been identified as contributors to maladaptive behavior.
a. Incorrect “Mustabatory thinking” is a term used by Ellis and refers to the belief that certain conditions must be met - e.g., “I must be liked by everyone; if not, I’m a terrible person.”
b. Incorrect Polarized (dichotomous) thinking involves seeing things as either “black or white.”
c. Incorrect Pesonalization involves mistakenly viewing oneself as the source of an event that actually had another cause.
D. arbitrary inference - CORRECT As defined by Beck, arbitrary inference involves drawing a conclusion that is made in the absence of supporting evidence or in the presence of contradictory evidence.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
From a behavioral perspective, phobic reactions to benign objects or events are acquired when those objects or events become associated with a stimulus that naturally produces a fear response. In other words, phobic reactions are due to: A. negative reinforcement. B. negative punishment. C. stimulus generalization. D. classical conditioning.
There are several explanations for the phobic reactions. The explanation provided in this question is consistent with the Pavlovian view.
D. classical conditioning - CORRECT According to the Pavlovian (classical conditioning) explanation for phobias, a Fear response to a previously neutral object or event is a classically conditioned response in which Fear is attached to the neutral stimulus (the CS) through its pairing with a stimulus that naturally elicits Fear (the US).
(Learning Theories & CBT)
Images and sounds are maintained in sensory memory for:
A. an indefinite period of time.
B. minutes to days, depending on the depth of encoding.
C. about 60 to 90 seconds.
D. less than 5 seconds.
Sensory memory provides very brief storage of incoming sensory input.
D. less than 5 seconds - CORRECT Sensory memory includes a separate store for each sense, and the
duration of sensory memory varies somewhat, depending on the sense. For iconic (visual) memories, the duration is about .5 to 1.0 seconds; for echoic (auditory) memories, the duration is up to 4 or 5 seconds.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
In a research study, Variable B is paired with Variable A so that, eventually, the response automatically produced by Variable A is also produced by Variable B. Then, Variable C is paired with Variable B so that it produces the same response. Based on this information, you can conclude that this study was designed to investigate which of the following? A. pseudoconditioning B. spontaneous recovery C. two-factor learning D. higher-order conditioning
The term “paired with” suggests that this study is investigating some form of classical conditioning - i.e., in classical conditioning, presentation of a conditioned stimulus is paired with presentation of an unconditioned stimulus so that the conditioned stimulus produces a
response that is similar to the one produced by the unconditioned stimulus.
a. Incorrect In classical conditioning, pseudoconditioning occurs when (1) the neutral stimulus is accidentally paired with the US and, as a result, produces a response similar to the UR or (2) repeated presentation of the US increases the likelihood that the individual will respond to a novel stimulus (not just the US or CS) with a response similar to the UR, especially in the same context in which
the US was presented
b. Incorrect Spontaneous recovery refers to the return of a classically conditioned response or an operant response following extinction.
c. Incorrect Two-factor learning (e.g., avoidance conditioning) combines classical and operant condition, which is not occurring in the study described in this
question.
D. higher-order conditioning - CORRECT In higher-order conditioning, the initial conditioned stimulus (CS) is
treated as an unconditioned stimulus (US) and paired with a neutral stimulus so that the neutral stimulus also produces a conditioned response. This question describes the procedure used in higher-order conditioning.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
When using aversive counterconditioning as a treatment for cocaine abuse, cocaine would be the: A. conditioned stimulus. B. unconditioned stimulus. C. positive reinforcer. D. negative reinforcer.
Aversive counterconditioning involves pairing a stimulus (US) that produces an aversive response (UR) with the undesirable stimulus (CS) so that the undesirable stimulus alone elicits an aversive response (CR).
A. conditioned stimulus - CORRECT In the example given in this question, cocaine would be the CS while the US would be electric shock or other aversive stimulus.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
Rehrn’s self-control therapy begins with self-monitoring, which involves maintaining a daily record of: A. positive activities. B. autornatic thoughts. C. distressful thoughts. D. antecedent events.
One of the assumptions underlying Rehm’s approach is that depressed individuals pay more attention to negative events than to positive ones
A. positive activities - CORRECT To alter a depressed patient’s focus, therapy begins with a task that helps the patient shift his/her attention to positive events.
b. Incorrect Keeping a daily record of automatic thoughts is associated with Beck’s cognitive-behavioral therapy.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
Which of the following is an example of semantic memory?
A. remembering that you have a doctor’s appointment next Monday.
B. remembering what you did on your last birthday.
C. remembering the definition of “semantic memory.”
D. remembering how to ride a bicycle after not doing so for several years
Semantic memory refers to memory for facts, concepts, and other types of information that are independent of time and context.
a. Incorrect This is an example of prospective memory, which is usually classified as a separate aspect of long-term memory or as part of episodic memory.
b. Incorrect This is an example of episodic memory.
C. remembering the definition of “semantic memory.” - CORRECT Definitions are stored in semantic memory.
d. Incorrect This is an example of procedural memory.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
"If a child's whining and crying secures his parents’ attention, the child is likely to whine and cry again." Which of the following individuals is most likely to agree with this statement? A. Bandura B. Ebbinghaus C. Watson D. Thorndike
The statement in this question asserts that a behavior followed by a positive (satisfying) consequence will increase. This is a premise of operant conditioning and is referred to as positive reinforcement.
a. Incorrect Although Bandura recognizes the role of reinforcement in the acquisition and performance of behavior, his social learning theory proposes that people can acquire behaviors simply by observing others perform those behaviors. In addition, Bandura places more emphasis on the role of internal (versus external) reinforcement.
b. Incorrect Ebbingha us is associated with research on memory and forgetting.
c. Incorrect Watson is associated with classical conditioning, not operant conditioning.
D. Thorndike - CORRECT The first name that probably came to mind when you read this question was Skinner, but, unfortunately, his name is not one of the answers.
However, Thorndike was a predecessor of Skinner and proposed the law of effect, which predicts that behaviors that are followed by satisfying consequences will tend to occur again.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
From the perspective of learning theory, phobic anxiety is:
A. elicited by unconditioned (aversive) stimuli or stimuli that have been associated with them.
B. elicited by secondary punishing, frustrating, or otherwise aversive stimuli.
C. the result of a low level of response-contingent reinforcement.
D. the result of “accidental” pairings between dysfunctional levels of internal arousal and reinforcing stimuli.
Knowing that learning theorists consider anxiety to be the result of classical conditioning would have helped you identify the correct response to this question.
A. elicited by unconditioned (aversive) stimuli or stimuli that have been associated with them - CORRECT The classical conditioning explanation for anxiety is that it is
produced by exposure to an unconditioned stimulus that naturally elicits anxiety or, perhaps more often, by exposure to a conditioned stimulus that has been
paired with an unconditioned stimulus that naturally elicits anxiety.
b. Incorrect The term “secondary” is ambiguous in this response. Also, as noted above, anxiety can be due to aversive (unconditioned) stimuli or to conditioned
stimuli that have been associated with aversive stimuli.
c. Incorrect A low level of response-contingent reinforcement has been linked to depression, not to phobic anxiety.
d. Incorrect This answer does not accurately describe the learning theory view of phobic anxiety.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
When using the Premack Principle to modify a behavior, the reinforcer is:
A. applied intermittently.
B. a generalized conditioned reinforcer.
C. a behavior that occurs frequently.
D. a stimulus that naturally elicits the desired behavior.
The Premack Principle is a type of positive reinforcement.
C. a behavior that occurs frequently - CORRECT When using the Premack Principle, a high-frequency behavior is
used as the reinforcer for a low-frequency behavior. The Premack Principle is also known as “Grandma’s Rule” - e.g., “you can go out and play once you’ve cleaned your room.”
(Learning Theories & CBT)
Elmo E., age 5, has learned that, if he has a tantrum whenever his parents want him to eat food he doesn't like at mealtime, his parents will let him eat something else instead in order to get Elmo to stop crying. In this situation, the parents’ behavior (letting Elmo eat something other than the disliked food) is being maintained by which of the following? A. escape conditioning B. avoidance conditioning C. stimulus discrimination D. stimulus generalization
In this situation, the parents’ behavior (letting Elmo eat something other than the disliked food) results in termination of Elmo’s tantrum.
A. escape conditioning - CORRECT Escape conditioning occurs when a person’s behavior is maintained
because it allows the person to escape an undesirable stimulus. Escape conditioning is a type of negative reinforcement.
b. Incorrect In avoidance conditioning, a cue signals that the undesirable stimulus is about to begin. In this situation, the individual can avoid the stimulus
completely by performing the appropriate behavior as soon as he/she perceives the cue.
c. Incorrect In stimulus discrimination, a cue signals whether a US (classical conditioning) or a reinforcer (operant conditioning) will be delivered or provided
d. Incorrect In stimulus generalization, the individual responds with a CR to stimuli that are similar to the original CS.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
In a study on learning and memory, participants in the experimental group learned two lists of nonsense syllables (first List A, then List B) and were then asked to recall List A. Participants in the control group also learned List A but, instead of learning List B, were asked to count backward from 10 numerous times before being asked to recall List A. Results of the study indicated that participants in the control group recalled more words from List A than did participants in the experimental group. These results are best explained by which of the following? A. proactive interference B. retroactive interference C. trace decay D. serial position effect
The purpose of the study described in this question was apparently to investigate how subsequent experience affects prior learning.
a. Incorrect Proactive interference occurs when prior learning interferes with subsequent (new) learning.
B. retroactive interference - CORRECT Retroactive interference occurs when subsequent learning interferes with prior learning and is most likely to occur when the subsequent and prior learning are similar in terms of content. In the study described in this question, participants in the experimental group learned a second list of nonsense syllables after learning the first list and were then asked to recall the first list. In contrast, participants in the control group engaged in an unrelated task after learning the original list to ensure that they did not continue to
rehearse the list prior to testing. Because control group participants recalled more words from List A than did participants in the experimental group, the results confirmed that retroactive interference contributes to forgetting.
c. Incorrect Trace decay theory predicts that forgetting is due to the passage of time and, therefore, that participants in the two groups would have had similar
levels of recall.
d. Incorrect The serial position effect does not explain the results of this study. It refers to the tendency to recall the first and last items in a list better than items in the middle of the list.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
Increasing knowledge and understanding of our own thinking can, according to some authorities, improve our ability to reason effectively. In other words improving our \_\_\_\_\_ can have beneficial effects on our ability to think clearly, solve problems, and make decisions. A. semantic memory B. syntactic knowledge C. meta-cognition D. introspection
This question is asking about the term that is used to describe “thinking about thinking.”
a. Incorrect Semantic memory is memory for Facts, concepts, and other knowledge.
b. Incorrect Syntactic knowledge is knowledge about how sounds combine to Form language.
C. meta-cognition - CORRECT Meta-cognition refers to our knowledge or awareness of our own cognitive processes.
d. Incorrect Although meta-cognition involves introspection (self-examination and self-reflection), introspection is a broader term than meta-cognition and,
therefore, not the best answer to this question since it is asking specifically about self-understanding related to thinking.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
According to Wolfgang Kohler, learning:
A. is largely the result of trial-and-error.
B. is the result of repeated exposure to the same or similar conditions.
C. involves using effective encoding and retrieval cues.
D. involves discovering relationships between elements of the problem
Kohler is associated with insight learning, which is a sudden understanding of relationships among a set of elements relevant to a problem that leads to recognition of the solution to the problem.
a. Incorrect Kohler did not assume that learning is the result of trial-and-error.
b. Incorrect This isn’t compatible with Kohler’s theory.
c. Incorrect This doesn’t describe insight learning.
D. involves discovering relationships between elements of the problem - CORRECT Insight learning occurs when there are relationships in the problem to be discovered and the discovery of those relationships is within the organism’s cognitive capacity.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
Socratic dialogue and collaborative empiricism are most associated with which of the following therapeutic approaches?
A. Kelly’s personal construct therapy
B. Glasser’s reality therapy
C. Ellis’s rational-emotive behavioral therapy
D. Becks cognitive-behavioral therapy
Only one of the approaches listed in the answers conceptualizes therapy as involving collaborative empiricism and uses Socratic dialogue as a method for encouraging collaboration between the therapist and client.
D. Becks cognitive-behavioral therapy - CORRECT Beck’s cognitive-behavioral therapy is referred to as collaborative
empiricism because it is founded on a collaborative therapist-client relationship that involves testing hypotheses about the client’s beliefs and assumptions.
Socratic dialogue is an important aspect of cognitive-behavioral therapy and is used to help the client question and challenge his/her underlying beliefs, obtain
disconfirming evidence for those beliefs, and identify alternative beliefs.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
When conducting a study to investigate the phenomenon known as “blocking,” you will:
A. present the CS prior to the US; then, once the CR is established, present the US prior to the CS.
B. present the CS prior to the US; then, once the CR is established, present the CS prior to a second US.
C. present the CS prior to the US; then, once the CR is established, present the original CS simultaneously with a second CS prior to the US.
D. present the CS prior to the US then, once the CR is established, l present a second CS prior to the original CS.
Blocking occurs when two different conditioned stimuli are paired with the unconditioned stimulus.
C. present the CS prior to the US; then, once the CR is established, present the original CS simultaneously with a second CS prior to the US - CORRECT This is the procedure that is used to investigate blocking. Apparently, when this procedure is used, the second CS never becomes associated with the US and does not elicit a CR. One explanation for blocking is that it occurs because the second CS does not provide information beyond what is already provided by the original CS.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
Charging telephone customers for using directory assistance to obtain phone numbers in order to decrease their use of directory assistance is an application of which of the following? A. Premack Principle B. overcorrection C. negative reinforcement D. negative punishment
In this situation, money is being taken away following a behavior (use of directory assistance) in order to decrease that behavior.
a. Incorrect The Premack Principle is a type of positive reinforcement and is used to increase a behavior.
b. Incorrect Overcorrection involves having the individual engage in alternative behaviors (e.g., “fixing” the consequences of the undesirable behavior and for practicing appropriate behaviors) whenever he/she performs the undesirable behavior.
c. Incorrect Negative reinforcement is used to increase a behavior and involves removing an undesirable stimulus when the target behavior is performed.
D. negative punishment - CORRECT Negative punishment occurs when the removal of a stimulus
following a behavior decreases the behavior.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
Stress inoculation is best viewed as a combination of which of the following techniques?
A. cognitive restructuring and graded rehearsal
B. role-playing and flooding
C. classical extinction and psychoanalysis
D. counterconditioning and flooding
Stress inoculation is a cognitive-behavioral strategy that involves teaching clients the cognitive and behavioral skills they need to cope with future stressful situations.
a. CORRECT During the course of stress inoculation, the client learns to distinguish between ineffective and effective thoughts, actions, etc. and is taught alternative cognitive and behavioral skills that lead to effective coping in stressful situations. Once these skills have been learned, the client begins to apply them to real-life situations, usually beginning with the least stress-producing situations and then gradually working up to the most stress-producing situations.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
In his studies on memory and forgetting, Ebbinghaus:
A. used hungry cats as research subjects.
B. used himself as the research subject.
C. had volunteers memorize word pairs.
D. had volunteers “think aloud” while solving complex problems
Ebbinghaus was among the first to conduct empirical studies on human memory.
B. used himself as the research subject - CORRECT Ebbinghaus was the participant in his own research, which involved memorizing lists of nonsense syllables and subsequently recalling the words to evaluate retention. His research led to the identification of learning and forgetting curves.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
The process of gradually removing a prompt until it is no longer provided is referred to as: A. extinction. B. shaping. C. fading. D. thinning.
The process of gradually eliminating prompts is referred to as “fading.” a. Incorrect Extinction refers to the removal of an unconditioned stimulus (classical conditioning) or a reinforcer (operant conditioning).
b. Incorrect Shaping involves reinforcing successive approximations to the desired behavior.
C. fading - CORRECT The gradual reduction or withdrawal of prompts is called fading.
d. Incorrect Thinning is the process of gradually reducing the frequency of reinforcement (e.g., of switching from a continuous to an intermittent schedule of reinforcement).
(Learning Theories & CBT)
Secondary reinforcers:
A. are applied after a primary reinforcer.
B. are applied on an intermittent schedule.
C. have inherent (innate) reinforcing value.
D. acquire their reinforcing value through conditioning
Behaviorists distinguish between primary and secondary reinforcers.
a. Incorrect This answer does not accurately describe the use of secondary reinforcers.
b. Incorrect Secondary reinforcers may be applied on a continuous or intermittent schedule.
c. Incorrect This answer describes primary reinforcers.
D. acquire their reinforcing value through conditioning - CORRECT This answer describes secondary reinforcers, which are also known as conditioned reinforcers because they acquire their reinforcing value through their association with primary reinforcers (i.e., as the result of being “paired with” primary reinforcers). Money is a secondary reinforcer that has value only because it enables us to purchase primary reinforcers, which have inherent reinforcing properties.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
Research has confirmed that behavioral techniques that reduce or eliminate a behavior are more effective when they are combined with techniques that increase alternative behaviors. This probably explains why \_\_\_\_\_ is often an effective intervention. A. differential reinforcement B. response cost C. covert sensitization D. negative practice
Of the interventions listed in the responses, only one involves eliminating an undesirable behavior while establishing more desirable behaviors.
A. differential reinforcement - CORRECT Differential reinforcement not only uses extinction to eliminate an
undesirable behavior but also reinforces the individual for engaging in alternative behaviors.
b. Incorrect Response cost is a type of negative punishment and is used to eliminate a behavior.
c. Incorrect Covert sensitization is a classical conditioning technique used to eliminate an undesirable behavior.
d. Incorrect When using negative practice, the individual is asked to repeatedly perform the undesirable behavior. Ideally, this will give the individual greater control over the behavior or, alternatively, lead to habituation or satiation.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
When using covert sensitization to treat a sexual fetish, the fetish object acts as a(n): A. primary reinforcer. B. secondary reinforcer. C. unconditioned stimulus. D. conditioned stimulus.
The goal of covert sensitization is to eliminate a response by replacing it with an incompatible response.
a. Incorrect A primary reinforcer is rewarding because of its inherent value. Food is a primary reinforcer for a hungry organism.
b. Incorrect A secondary reinforcer acquires its reinforcing value through its pairing with a primary reinforcer. Money is an example of a secondary
reinforcer: It is valuable only because it can be exchanged for primary reinforcers.
c. Incorrect When using covert sensitization to reduce an undesirable behavior, the aversive stimulus is the unconditioned stimulus.
D. conditioned stimulus - CORRECT When using covert sensitization, the target stimulus (in this case the fetish object) is paired in imagination with an aversive stimulus. Eventually the target stimulus elicits the same unpleasant response as the aversive stimulus and, as a consequence, will be avoided. In this situation, the CS is the target stimulus, while the US is the aversive stimulus.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
You are using in vivo aversive counterconditioning to reduce a client’s consumption of alcohol. To maximize the effectiveness of the treatment, the aversive stimulus (electric shock) should be applied:
A. when the drink is first presented to the client.
B. right before the client takes a drink.
C. just as the client begins drinking.
D. immediately after the client has finished a drink.
Aversive counterconditioning is a type of classical conditioning, and classical conditioning is most effective when a “delay” procedure is used.
b. Incorrect This describes backward conditioning, which is usually ineffective.
C. just as the client begins drinking - CORRECT Delay conditioning involves applying the CS before the start of the US so that presentation of the two stimuli overlaps and both are terminated together. Of the various types of forward conditioning, delay conditioning is usually most effective.
d. Incorrect This sounds like trace conditioning, which is ordinarily less effective than delay conditioning.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
A number of relapse prevention models have been proposed for alcoholism, cigarette smoking, and other addictive disorders. According Marlatt and Gordon’s (1985) model, the most effective way to increase the likelihood of recovery after relapse is to:
A. increase access to social support.
B. emphasize the negative consequences of relapse.
C. shift attention from internal to external antecedents.
D. address motivational issues related to abstinence.
Marlatt and Gordon’s (1985) model emphasizes the impact of cognitive and situational factors on relapse.
C. shift attention from internal to external antecedents - CORRECT Marlatt and Gordon’s (1985) “abstinence violation effect “ (AVE) model considers recovery after relapse to be related to attributions about the cause of the relapse — i.e., successful recovery is more likely when the person attributes relapse to external, unstable, and specific (high-risk) Factors than when he/she attributes it to internal, stable, and global factors.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
John Watson found that, after Little Albert had been classically conditioned to respond with fear to a white rat, the child also responded with fear to other white furry objects. Little Albert’s reaction to other white furry objects was the result of: A. higher-order conditioning. B. negative transfer. C. pseudoconditioning. D. stimulus generalization.
Little Albert’s response to a particular stimulus (the white rat) generalized to similar stimuli (other white furry objects).
a. Incorrect Higher-order conditioning is a classical conditioning technique in which a neutral stimulus elicits a conditioned response as a result of its pairing with a conditioned stimulus. In this situation, other white Furry objects were not “paired” with the white rat.
b. Incorrect Negative transfer occurs when previous learning interferes with present learning.
c. Incorrect Pseudoconditioning occurs when a neutral stimulus elicits a response due to the accidental pairing of the stimulus with another stimulus that evokes that response or when repeated exposure to a US increases the likelihood that the individual will respond to a neutral stimulus with a response similar to the UR.
D. stimulus generalization - CORRECT Stimulus generalization occurs when an individual responds with a conditioned response to stimuli that are similar to the original conditioned stimulus.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
Research investigating the usefulness of modeling for treating specific phobias has found that which of the following methods is generally most effective? A. covert modeling B. symbolic modeling C. participant modeling D. vicarious modeling
Bandura and others have compared the effectiveness of different types of modeling for reducing phobias and other anxiety responses. a. Incorrect When using covert modeling, the individual is asked to imagine someone else engaging in the target behavior. b. Incorrect Symbolic modeling involves observing models indirectly — e.g., in films, videotapes, or books. C. participant modeling - CORRECT When using participant modeling, the model first engages in the target behavior (or an aspect of it) and then prompts the individual to engage in the same behavior. The research has found that participant modeling is the most effective form of modeling for treating phobias. d. Incorrect Vicarious (overt) modeling involves observing others successfully perform the target behavior. Vicarious modeling plus guided participation (i.e., participant modeling) is more effective for treating phobias than is vicarious modeling alone. (Learning Theories & CBT)
When using a continuous schedule of reinforcement to increase the occurrence of a desirable behavior, you would be most concerned about which of the following? A. satiation B. sensitization C. experimental neurosis D. spontaneous recovery
A continuous schedule of reinforcement involves reinforcing the individual each time he/she emits the target response.
A. satiation - CORRECT Satiation occurs when a reinforcer loses its reinforcing value because the organism has become satisfied (satiated). It is a potential problem when using positive reinforcement, especially when the reinforcer is a primary reinforcer and is delivered on a continuous schedule.
b. Incorrect In the context of learning theory, the term sensitization has at least two meanings: It refers to either the initial increase in responsiveness to a stimulus when it is presented repeatedly or to the increase in responsiveness to a stimulus that occurs after exposure to a very intense or irritating stimulus.
c. Incorrect Experimental neurosis occurs in classical conditioning when the organism is required to discriminate between very similar stimuli.
d. Incorrect Spontaneous recovery refers to the return of a conditioned response following the apparent extinction of that response.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
When using higher-order conditioning to establish a conditioned response: A. a US serves as a CS. B. a US serves as a UR. C. a UR serves as a CR. D. a CS serves as a US.
Higher-order conditioning is a type of classical conditioning.
D. a CS serves as a US - CORRECT In higher-order conditioning, a conditioned stimulus (CS) is paired
with a neutral stimulus so that the neutral stimulus also elicits the conditioned response. In this situation, the CS is acting as a US (unconditioned stimulus) when it is paired with the neutral stimulus.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
Although he was unable to carry out his plans, John Watson outlined several methods for removing Little Albert’s classically-conditioned fear reaction to white rats. One plan involved repeatedly confronting Albert with a white rat without the loud noise in order to produce extinction of his fear response. This technique now underlies the behavioral treatment known as: A. covert sensitization. B. flooding. C. response cost. D. stress inoculation.
The intervention described in this question involves exposing Little Albert to the feared object.
a. Incorrect When using covert sensitization, the target stimulus is paired in imagination with an aversive stimulus. Eventually, the target stimulus elicits the
same unpleasant response as the aversive stimulus and, as a consequence, will be avoided.
B. flooding - CORRECT Flooding (which is also known as in vivo exposure with response prevention) involves the extinction of a conditioned response through prolonged
exposure to the conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus.
c. Incorrect Response cost involves removing a specific reinforcer following a behavior in order to decrease the behavior.
d. Incorrect Stress inoculation training is used to help people deal with stressful events by increasing their coping skills.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
You witness a four-car collision on your way to work and find yourself recalling the incident frequently during the next several weeks. Which aspect of your long-term memory is responsible for your memory of the accident? A. implicit memory B. semantic memory C. episodic memory D. Sensory memory
In this situation, you are recalling a personally experienced event.
a. Incorrect Implicit memory is memory that occurs automatically (without conscious effort).
b. Incorrect Semantic memory is memory for the meaning of words and concepts.
C. episodic memory - CORRECT Episodic memory is memory for episodes (events) that have been
personally experienced.
d. Incorrect Sensory memory refers to brief impressions formed by input from the senses.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
To maximize the effectiveness of overcorrection, its restitution and positive practice phases are often combined with: A. differential reinforcement. B. activity scheduling. C. physical guidance. D. stimulus control.
To ensure that the person actually performs the behaviors required during the restitution and positive practice phases of overcorrection, “extra help” is sometimes needed.
C. physical guidance - CORRECT It may be necessary to physically guide the person through the behaviors required during restitution and for positive practice when the person is resistant to perform them on his/her own. Because physical guidance may be necessary, overcorrection is contraindicated for children who have experienced abuse or who are more physically powerful than the person administering the treatment.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
Whenever four-year-old William W. whines, his parents try to ignore him Occasionally, however, William’s mother or father picks him up when he whines, and, as a result, William’s whining has increased. The increase in
William’s whining is due to which of the following?
A. differential reinforcement
B. response generalization
C. intermittent reinforcement
D. response discrimination
William’s whining is being reinforced whenever his parents pick him up after he begins to whine.
a. Incorrect Differential reinforcement involves reinforcing behaviors other than the target one in order to decrease that behavior.
b. Incorrect Response generalization occurs when a CS produces responses similar to the CR.
C. intermittent reinforcement - CORRECT William’s parents are reinforcing the boy’s whining on an
intermittent schedule, which is producing an increase in his behavior.
d. Incorrect Response discrimination is the opposite of response generalization and occurs when the individual responds to the CS with a specific response (the original CR).
(Learning Theories & CBT)
EMG frontalis biofeedback is considered by a number of authorities to be the treatment-of-choice for tension (muscle contraction) headaches. However, some research suggests that which of the following interventions is as
effective, if not even more effective, than EMG feedback for this type of headache?
A. thermal feedback
B. relaxation training
C. alternate response training
D. covert sensitization
Several techniques have been found to be as effective as or more effective than EMG biofeedback for alleviating tension headaches.
a. Incorrect Thermal (temperature) feedback has been found to be an effective treatment for migraine headaches but not for tension headaches.
B. relaxation training - CORRECT A number of studies have found relaxation training to be as effective as (or even more effective than) EMG biofeedback for tension headaches.
c. Incorrect Alternate response training is a self-control technique that is used primarily to alleviate anxiety.
d. Incorrect When using covert sensitization, the target stimulus is paired in imagination with an aversive stimulus so that the target stimulus elicits the same unpleasant response as the aversive stimulus and, as a consequence, will be avoided.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
A person who argues that "all psychopathology has a similar set of underlying dysfunctional beliefs" is rnost likely sympathetic with the views of: A. Beck. B. Ellis. C. Glasser. D. Meichenbaum.
The term “dysfunctional beliefs” should have pointed to Ellis as the correct response.
a. Incorrect An important distinction between Beck and Ellis is that the former views each mental disorder as being characterized by a unique set of faulty cognitions, while the latter assumes that all disorders derive from the same set of basic irrational beliefs.
B. Ellis - CORRECT Ellis’s assumption that all disorders can be attributed to the same set of irrational beliefs is considered by some to be a shortcoming of his approach.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
In Albert Ellis’s A-B-C model, B refers to:
A. beliefs about an event.
B. behaviors that occur in response to an event
C. biological predispositions.
D. baseline rates of responding.
Ellis’s rational-emotive behavior therapy is based on the assumption that behavioral and emotional reactions to events are clue to beliefs about those events rather than to the events themselves.
A. beliefs about an event - CORRECT Ellis depicts the relationship between antecedent events, beliefs
about those events, and reactions to those events in terms of an A-B-C model, where A represents the antecedent event, B represents beliefs about the event,
and C represents the behavioral or emotional consequence of the beliefs.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
You are hired by an organization to develop an incentive program for salespeople. The personnel manager suggests that employees be given a bonus every time their monthly sales exceed their previous month's sales by at least 10%. However, you decide to give each salesperson a bonus after every sixth sale which means that most salespeople will receive a bonus every six to eight weeks. Your incentive program represents which schedule of reinforcement? A. variable interval B. variable ratio C. fixed interval D. fixed ratio
An important thing to notice when reading this question is that it is asking about the schedule you are recommending.
D. fixed ratio - CORRECT In this situation, the delivery of reinforcement depends on the number of responses, with reinforcement being given for every sixth response.
This represents a fixed ratio schedule. (Don’t be misled by the statement “every six to eight weeks.” It is the number of responses, not the time interval that determines when salespeople will receive a bonus.)
(Learning Theories & CBT)
Which of the following best describes elaborative rehearsal?
A. making new information meaningful
B. consciously repeating new information
C. practicing a new skill past the point of mastery
D. “thinking aloud” while studying
Researchers interested in memory distinguish between two types of rehearsal — elaborative and maintenance.
A. making new information meaningful - CORRECT The term elaborative rehearsal is used to describe the process of making new information meaningful in order to enhance its retention and
retrieval. Relating new information to previously acquired information is one type of elaborative rehearsal.
b. Incorrect This sounds more like maintenance rehearsal which involves the rote repetition of information.
c. Incorrect This describes “overlearning.”
d. Incorrect This does not describe elaborative rehearsal.
(Learning Theories & CBT)
