Retired Exam 2

Question 1

1. A high LPC leader
   a. Treats his least favorite worker well
   b. Treats his least favorite worker poorly
   c. Treats his favorite worker like his least favorite worker
   d. Has an ambivalent style toward his workers.

Answer 1

a. Treats his least favorite worker well – Fiedler’s Contingency Theory proposed that in terms of a leader’s style and the favorableness of a situation, the latter was determined by the degree to which the leader could control and influence their subordinate. Fiedler described a leader’s style by his or her scores on his Least Preferred Coworker Scale. A high LPC leader describes their least preferred coworker in positive terms and these leaders are primarily relationship oriented. Note that the question talks about how a leader “treats” their worker rather than how they “describe” the worker.. While these are not exactly the same concepts, the EPPP will take these type of liberties so this is an example of choosing an answer that is in the “ballpark”.

Question 2

2. From Wolpe’s classical conditioning perspective, neurotic depression:
   a. is a conditioned response that can be alleviated through extinction trials in which the neutral (conditioned) stimulus is repeatedly presented without the depression-inducing (unconditioned) stimulus.
   b. is a response to anxiety and can, therefore, be alleviated by using systematic desensitization to eliminate the anxiety.
   c. is due to attributional biases that, through conditioning, have become associated with certain types of events and can be eliminated through reattribution training.
   d. results when there is an absence of response contingent reinforcement and is best treated by counterconditioning in which depression is paired with a variety of pleasure-producing (unconditioned) stimuli.

Answer 2

b. is a response to anxiety and can, therefore, be alleviated by using systematic desensitization to eliminate the anxiety – Even if you are unfamiliar with Wolpe’s explanation of depression, you may have been able to pick the right answer to this question as long as you have him associated with systematic desensitization. Wolpe distinguished between several types of depression. He linked neurotic depression to anxiety and considered systematic desensitization to be an effective treatment.

Question 3

3. You receive a letter from the current therapist of a former client. The therapist wants you to forward a copy of the client’s records, and she encloses a signed release from the client. The client still owes you for ten therapy sessions, and you notify the client that you will not release the records until a satisfactory payment arrangement has been made. According to the Ethics Code, this
   a. is clearly unethical.
   b. may be acceptable if the client’s records are not “imminently needed.”
   c. may be acceptable if you had informed the client of your policy when he began treatment.
   d. may be acceptable if you previously attempted to collect the fees and the client was uncooperative.

Answer 3

b. may be acceptable if the client’s records are not “imminently needed.” – This issue is covered by Standard 6.03 of the Ethics Code, which states that “Psychologists may not withhold records under their control that are requested and needed for a client’s/patient’s emergency treatment solely because payment has not been received.”

Question 4

4. To reduce their liability risk, managed care organizations are most likely to do which of the following?
   a. insure their providers are credentialed
   b. reduce the amount of time between date of claim submission and approval of claim
   c. utilization review
   d. pay their providers a reasonable reimbursement rate

Answer 4

a. insure their providers are credentialed – Managed care organizations typically require all their providers to be credentialed. This helps to insure that their providers are competent and, consequently, reduces their risk of liability. Utilization Review (C) is a cost containment procedure involving an evaluation of patients’ use of services to identify any unnecessary or inappropriate use of health care resources.

Question 5

5. A professional working in the field of psychophysics would be most interested in:
   a. the all-or-none principle.
   b. just noticeable differences.
   c. functional brain imaging.
   d. long-term potentiation.

Answer 5

b. just noticeable differences. – Psychophysics is the study of the relationship between the magnitude of a physical stimulus and the internal sensation associated with that magnitude. One method for studying this relationship is to determine just noticeable differences, or the amount of change in physical stimulus magnitude that is needed to notice the change.

Question 6

6. According to Ellen Berscheid’s Emotion-in-Relationships Model partners in long-term relationships are most likely to:
   a. underestimate their emotional investment in the relationship when things are running smoothly
   b. overestimate their emotional investment in the relationship when things are running smoothly
   c. experience the most intense positive emotions after several years into the relationship
   d. focus on attributions which are external to their partners and themselves to understand their relationship

Answer 6

a. underestimate their emotional investment in the relationship when things are running smoothly – Ellen Berscheid’s Emotion-in-Relationships Model proposes that positive and negative emotions are most likely to occur in a relationship when the partner’s behavior interrupts the individual’s typical on-going behaviors. Thus, when things are running smoothly, there are fewer interruptions and less intense emotions. Although the partners are highly interdependent during this period, they are also more likely to underestimate their emotional investment. Choice C reflects the opposite of Berscheid’s model because there are more surprises or interruptions to the status quo in the early stage of a relationship – which results in the most positive (and negative) emotions. Choice D is incorrect because Berscheid suggests that partners (and researchers) tend to underestimate the importance of external situational factors in a relationship (E. Berscheid, Interpersonal relationships. In L. W. Porter & M. R. Rosenzweig (Eds.), Annual review of psychology, 1994, (pp. 79-129). Palo Alto, CA: Annual Reviews).

Question 7

7. You are commuting to work early in the morning at 15 mph over the speed limit. You glance in your rearview mirror and notice blue flashing lights. You slow down and pull over. According to French and Raven’s ideas about social power, which type of power are you attributing to the policemen?
   a. legitimate
   b. reward
   c. informational
   d. referent

Answer 7

a. legitimate – According to French and Raven (1959), in the case of legitimate authority, the target believes the influencing agent has legitimate authority. With reward power (response B), the influencing agent has control over valued rewards and resources. And, what you are about to receive from the policeman will not be a reward. With informational power (response C), the influencing agent possesses specific information needed by the target person, and with referent power (response D), the target identifies with or likes the influencing agent.

Question 8

8. Recently the relationship between Frank and one of his adult sons has become increasingly tense, conflicted and distant. Frank considers himself a loving and supportive father. He dismisses the problem as a temporary “phase” to avoid the situation. Frank’s attempt to explain away the problem, according to Whitbourne’s self-concept model, is an attempt to maintain his own self-concept through:
   a. identity assimilation
   b. identity accommodation
   c. identity styles
   d. rationalization

Answer 8

a. identity assimilation – Identity process theory proposes that adjustment to aging can be conceptualized as involving the three processes of identity assimilation (maintaining self-consistency), identity accommodation (making changes in the self), and identity balance (maintaining a sense of self but changing when necessary). Despite the changes in the relationship with his son, Frank continues to think of himself as having a loving relationship in order to maintain his consistent sense of self. Research indicates only identity balance is positively related to internal state awareness, suggesting that the ability to incorporate age-related changes within an identity and at the same time maintain a consistent and positive view of the self is most conducive to successful aging. (See: Sneed, J.R. & Whitbourne, S.K. (2003). Identity Processing and Self-Consciousness in Middle and Later Adulthood. The Journals of Gerontology Series B: Psychological Sciences and Social Sciences, 58, 313-319.)

Question 9

9. A factorial design, unlike a two group design:
   a. allows more independent variables to be studied
   b. requires a larger sample
   c. shows the effect of an independent variable on the dependent variable
   d. cannot detect a curvilinear relationship between variables

Answer 9

a. allows more independent variables to be studied – In a two group design, one group is exposed to a treatment and another, control group, is not exposed or gets a different treatment. The results of both groups are tested in order to compare the effects of treatment. A factorial design is a design with more than one independent variable. In this design, the independent variables are simultaneously investigated to determine the independent and interactive influence they have on the dependent variable. The effect of each independent variable on the dependent variable (c.) is called a main effect and in a factorial design there are as many main effects as there are independent variables. An interaction effect between two or more independent variables occurs when the effect that one independent variable has on the dependent variable depends on the level of the other independent variable. At least three levels must be used to predict a curvilinear relationship (d.).

Question 10

10. A psychologist is hired as a consultant by an agency which works with homosexual men whose behavior places them at very high risk for the HIV virus. The psychologist is asked to work with groups of the agency’s clients, with the goal of decreasing high-risk activity in this population. Assuming the psychologist is familiar with the research in this area, she is most likely to take which of the following approaches?
    a. attempting to engender a group norm of disapproval for high-risk activity
    b. providing knowledge to the group about AIDS
    c. threatening the group with punishment if they don’t change their behavior
    d. taking a laissez-faire approach and letting the group learn on its own how dangerous its behavior is

Answer 10

b. providing knowledge to the group about AIDS – Studies show that, among individuals who are at high-risk for the AIDS virus, knowledge about AIDS is a better predictor of less risk-taking behavior than perceived peer norms. Thus, choice B is the best answer. By contrast, among low-risk groups, perceived peer norms are a better predictor. So if this question was about the best strategy for low-risk groups, choice A would have been a better answer.

Question 11

11. Individuals who recall memories under hypnosis, compared to non-hypnotized individuals,
    a. have more confidence in their memories and are more likely to recall events accurately.
    b. have more confidence in their memories but are less likely to recall events accurately.
    c. have less confidence in their memories and are less likely to recall events accurately.
    d. have less confidence in their memories but are more likely to recall events accurately.

Answer 11

b. have more confidence in their memories but are less likely to recall events accurately. – Research shows that memories retrieved under hypnosis tend to be less accurate than other memories. Nonetheless, individuals who recall information while under hypnosis have greater confidence in their memories as compared to controls. In some research studies, hypnotized subjects were reluctant to admit that their memories were inaccurate even when confronted with clear evidence demonstrating this to be the case.

Question 12

12. A client suspects that she may have been sexually abused as a child, although she has no conscious recollection of the abuse. She asks her psychologist to use hypnosis to help her retrieve any repressed memories she may have of any abuse. The psychologist should:
    a. agree to use hypnosis only if he or she has obtained adequate training and experience in it’s use.
    b. agree to use hypnosis but take detailed notes in the event of future legal action and avoid asking the client any leading questions.
    c. advise against the use hypnosis, but recommend the use of guided imagery, which may be more admissible in court.
    d. advise the patient that hypnosis may produce false recollections of abuse and is therefore inappropriate.

Answer 12

d. advise the patient that hypnosis may produce false recollections of abuse and is therefore inappropriate. – In a report titled “Final Conclusions of the American Psychological Association Working Group on Investigation of Memories of Childhood Abuse” [Psychology, Public Policy, and Law, 2000, 4 (4), 933-940] the authors acknowledge that “it is possible for memories of abuse that have been forgotten for a long time to be remembered.” However, they recommend that “clients who seek hypnosis as a means of retrieving or confirming their recollections should be advised that it is not an appropriate procedure for this goal because of the serious risk that pseudomemories may be created in trance states and of the related risk due to increased confidence in those memories. Clients should also be informed that the use of hypnosis could jeopardize any future legal actions they might want to take.”

Question 13

13. Recent studies investigating ethnicity and psychotropic medication dosage have found:
    a. Therapeutic and side effect differences are not related to race/ethnicity
    b. Caucasians and Asians experience the same severity of side effects from the same dose, although Caucasians require lower doses to obtain the same therapeutic effects.
    c. Caucasians experience more severe side effects from the same dose than Asians and require lower doses to obtain the same therapeutic effects
    d. Asians experience more severe side effects from the same dose and require lower doses to obtain the same therapeutic effects

Answer 13

d. Asians experience more severe side effects from the same dose and require lower doses to obtain the same therapeutic effects – Research indicates individuals respond differently to psychotropic medications based on their ethnic background or biological and environmental differences in ethnicity. In particular, evidence suggests Asian patients, as a group, metabolize medications like psychotropics more slowly than Caucasian patients and therefore are more sensitive to the therapeutic and side effects. Based on these findings, researchers recommend the starting dosage level for Asian patients be lower than the standard dosage for Caucasian patients. (See: Lin, K. M. & Cheung, F. (1999) Mental health issues for Asian Americans, Psychiatric Services, 50(6), 774-780. and Lin, K.M.. & Smith, M.W. (2000). Psychopharmacotherapy in the Context of Culture and Ethnicity in Ethnicity and Psychopharmacology. Edited by Pedro Ruiz ( Review of Psychiatry Series, 19(4). Oldham, J.O. and Riba, M.B., (Eds.), Washington, DC, American Psychiatric Press, 1-27)

Question 14

14. According to the research findings of Patterson and his colleagues, parents of aggressive children typically use discipline which is:
    a. consistent, but accompanied by humiliating verbal messages
    b. consistent, but often followed by affection which sends mixed messages to the child
    c. inconsistent, and often not associated with the child’s behavior
    d. inconsistent, but which particularly ignores the child’s aggressive behaviors

Answer 14

c. inconsistent, and often not associated with the child’s behavior – Patterson found that parents of aggressive children often use harsh physical punishment which is applied inconsistently and often not connected to the child’s behavior. Contrary to choice D, these parents tend to reinforce aggressive behavior in their children with attention or approval.

Question 15

15. Despite his many accomplishments and positive feedback from his supervisor, a client believes his work performance is below average because he feels like a failure. This is an example of:
    a. minimization
    b. selective abstraction
    c. emotional reasoning
    d. personalization

Answer 15

c. emotional reasoning – Emotional reasoning is one of several cognitive distortions described by Beck. It refers to a person believing that because he or she feels a negative emotion, there must be a corresponding negative external situation. Minimization (A) is seeing something as less significant than it really is. Selective abstraction (B) occurs when one focuses on a detail, taken out of context, at the expense of other information. Personalization (D) is the attribution of external events to oneself without evidence of a causal connection.

Question 16

16. Organizations that advocate individual responsibility, consensual-decision making, slow promotion, and holistic knowledge of the organization are using which of the following management philosophies:
    a. Theory J
    b. Theory A
    c. Theory Z
    d. TQM

Answer 16

c. Theory Z – Ouchi’s Theory Z is an organizational management philosophy that incorporates aspects from traditional American (Theory A) and Japanese (Theory J) management philosophies. The theory represents a middle ground, for example, emphasizing long-term employment versus short-term or lifelong and a moderately specialized career path instead of specialized or nonspecialized.

Question 17

17. When a pregnant woman drinks moderate amounts of alcohol during pregnancy, the child may exhibit “fetal alcohol effects.” In comparison to the full-scale fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS), fetal alcohol effects
    a. are less severe than those associated with FAS and, for the most part, are reversible.
    b. are less severe than those associated with FAS and are largely reversible following birth as long as the child is provided with adequate nutrition and an enriched environment.
    c. are less severe than those associated with FAS but are also largely irreversible.
    d. involve minor physical defects and behavioral problems without the cognitive impairments and more severe physical problems associated with FAS.

Answer 17

c. are less severe than those associated with FAS but are also largely irreversible. – Different authors define fetal alcohol effects differently. All seem to agree that fetal alcohol effects are less severe than the symptoms of fetal alcohol syndrome, but are also largely irreversible. Some describe fetal alcohol effects as involving cognitive and behavioral symptoms but not the physical defects (e.g., facial abnormalities and growth retardation) that the full-scale syndrome involves.

Question 18

18. In a positively skewed distribution, one would most likely find, ranked from lowest to highest in value, the:
    a. median, mean, mode.
    b. median, mode, mean.
    c. mean, mode, median.
    d. mode, median, mean.

Answer 18

d. mode, median, mean. – You have to picture the positively skewed curve in order to get this correct. Positive skewness means there are some outliers (extreme scores) way over on the positive side. That’s where the tail is, way off to the right, or positive, end. Since the mean takes into account the magnitude of the scores, these outliers can be pictured as “pulling” the mean to the positive side, or the right. So, in any ordering of measures of central tendency, the mean would be the highest value. Thus, you can eliminate the two distractors that don’t list the mean as the highest value. To distinguish between the remaining answers, let’s go back to consider what the median is. The median is the middlemost point irrespective of value. If you’ve pictured the curve correctly you can see that more than half the cases fall on the right side because some are way over on the positive side. If you put a line where the highest point is on the curve, which is the mode, you’d see that more than half the cases fall to the right of that line. Hence the median, the 50% point, is to the right of the high point, the mode. This should have gotten you to the correct answer.

Question 19

19. A woman is offered a substantial raise and promotion in her job; however, the new position would also require her to periodically speak at conferences. She would very much like to accept the new position but is too afraid to speak in public due to her history of panic attacks in the past while public speaking. She would most likely be diagnosed with:
    a. Specific Phobia
    b. Social Phobia
    c. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
    d. Panic Disorder with Agoraphobia

Answer 19

b. Social Phobia – According to DSM-IV-TR, Social Phobia is characterized by “a marked and persistent fear of one or more social or performance situations in which the person is exposed to unfamiliar people or to possible scrutiny by others…Exposure to the feared social situation almost invariably provokes anxiety, which may take the form of a situationally bound or situationally predisposed Panic Attack.” Specific Phobia (A) refers to anxiety about a specific object or situation but it is not diagnosed when better accounted for by another mental disorder, such as Social Phobia. Generalized Anxiety Disorder (C) is for excessive anxiety and worry about several different events or activities. And Panic Disorder with Agoraphobia (D) is not confined to social situations or fear of scrutiny by others.

Question 20

20. When working in a forensic capacity, psychologists must often be careful to
    a. acknowledge the limits of their data or conclusions.
    b. take the time to study the facts of the case so they can arrive at their own conclusion regarding the guilt or innocence of the defendant.
    c. be present every day of the trial in case the judge requires the psychologist’s opinion at some point.
    d. present their conclusions very forcefully and with confidence, so that the public’s confidence in the field of psychology is reinforced.

Answer 20

a. acknowledge the limits of their data or conclusions. – It’s often important for forensic psychologists to acknowledge the limits of their conclusions. This is because forensic psychologists are often asked for opinions on matters (e.g., probability of future violence) that cannot be made with absolute certainty.

Question 21

21. Medical treatment regimens for chronic illness most often results in:
    a. greater compliance for children as compared to adolescents
    b. greater compliance for adolescents as compared to children
    c. equal compliance for children and adolescents
    d. greater compliance for girls and adolescent females as compared to boys and adolescent males

Answer 21

a. greater compliance for children as compared to adolescents – Compliance with medical treatment regimens, such as those designed to manage diabetes, tends to be lower for adolescents as compared to children or adults. There are many reasons for this, including adolescents’ greater desire to be similar to their peers and independent from the restrictions of their parents.

Question 22

22. Research on infants who were raised by multiple changing caregivers until at least two years old were found to:
    a. never be able to develop attachments
    b. attach to adopted parents only if they were adopted by 36 months of age
    c. attach more strongly if restored to a biological parent than if adopted by a non-biological parent
    d. attach to adopted parents even if not adopted until 6 years of age

Answer 22

d. attach to adopted parents even if not adopted until 6 years of age

Question 23

23. An 18-year-old high school student is referred to you for personality assessment due to behavioral problems. Which of the following assessment instruments would be most appropriate to use?
    a. MMPI-A
    b. MMPI-2
    c. WAIS-III
    d. Halstead-Reitan

Answer 23

a. MMPI-A – Knowing that the MMPI-A is recommended for use with ages 14 to 18, while the MMPI-2 is recommended for individuals 18 years and older, may have left you a bit stumped about which to use for an 18-year-old. The MMPI-A manual acknowledges this period of overlap and recommends choosing the instrument on a “case by case basis,” but it also suggests using the MMPI-A for high school students. Furthermore, in a recent study comparing the MMPI-A and MMPI-2 administered to 18-year-olds, the researchers concluded that the MMPI-2 tended to overpathologize and the MMPI-A tended to underpathologize. Due, in part, to the concern with overpathologizing individuals, the researchers recommended using the MMPI-A with 18-year-olds. But to optimally gain sensitivity to psychopathology, they also recommended using T-score cutoffs of 60 instead of 65 on the MMPI-A [T. M. Osberg and D. L. Poland, Comparative accuracy of the MMPI-2 and the MMPI-A in the diagnosis of psychopathology in 18-year-olds, Psychological Assessment, 2002, 14(2), 164-169].

Question 24

24. The notion that reinforcement is not necessary for learning and that learning does not always manifest in performance is referred to as:
    a. latent learning
    b. place learning
    c. observational learning
    d. insight learning

Answer 24

a. latent learning – According to Tolman’s Cognitive Learning Theory, learning is the result of conditioning and cognitive understanding. The acquisition of cognitive structures or cognitive maps underlies the concept of latent learning or learning that occurs without reinforcement and does not immediately manifest in behavior. Place learning (b.) refers to Tolman’s description of learning places or paths instead of a series of movements in response to specific stimuli. Observational learning (c.) refers to learning through watching a model behave and then imitating the modeled behavior. Insight learning (d.) is an “a-ha!” experience or a sudden novel solution, which Kohler saw as the result of a sudden internal cognitive restructuring of the environment.

Question 25

25. A researcher inquires about the subjects’ performance expectations and beliefs about the purpose of the study at the conclusion of the experiment. The researcher finds the subjects’ actual performance is consistent with their beliefs and expectations when analyzing the data. The results of the study may be confounded by: a. the Hawthorne effect b. demand characteristics c. carryover effects d. changing criteria

Answer 25

b. demand characteristics -- Demand characteristics are unintentional cues in the experimental environment or manipulation that affect or account for the results of the study. In this situation, the subjects’ may have acted in ways consistent with their expectations rather than simply in response to the experimental manipulation. The Hawthorne effect (a.) occurs when research subjects act differently because of the novelty of the situation and the special attention they receive as research participants. Carryover effects (c.) occur in repeated measures designs when the effects of one treatment have an impact on the effects of subsequent treatments.

Question 26

26. Factitious Disorder treatment typically involves symptom management rather than curing the disorder. Which of the following is currently considered to be the most effective treatment? a. confrontational therapy in an inpatient setting b. individual and group therapy in an inpatient treatment c. supportive psychotherapy in an outpatient setting d. group or family therapy in an outpatient setting

Answer 26

c. supportive psychotherapy in an outpatient setting -- Studies indicate no specific treatment has been identified as consistently effective for Factitious Disorder; however, many agree that establishing a good therapeutic relationship and providing supportive therapy and consistency of care is the best way to manage its symptoms. (See: J. C. Huffman and T. A. Stern, The diagnosis and treatment of Munchausen’s syndrome, General Hospital Psychiatry, 2003, 25(5), 358-363.) Family and group therapy (d.) have not been identified as the most effective treatments, although family therapy may be useful for helping family members cope with the patient’s symptoms. Inpatient treatment (a.) is often contraindicated because of the underlying need of individuals with Factitious Disorder “to adopt the sick role.” Confrontational techniques (b.) may elicits denial and result in the individual terminating the therapeutic relationship so they must be used with caution.

Question 27

27. The results of the Robber's Cave experiment (Sherif et al., 1961) indicated that: a. emotional reactions are based upon cognitive interpretations of arousal b. superordinate goals reduce hostility between groups c. we prefer to be right rather than happy d. we tend to seek, interpret, and create information that verifies our existing beliefs

Answer 27

b. superordinate goals reduce hostility between groups -- In Sherif's Robber's Cave Study, children in a summer camp were divided into two groups on an arbitrary basis and made to engage in competition with each other. This engendered intergroup hostility and dislike, which was found to be greatly reduced when a task requiring the two groups to cooperate (on superordinate goals) was introduced. Choice A represents Schachter's two-factor theory of emotion. Choice C is a conclusion of Self Verification Theory. And Choice D exemplifies the confirmatory bias.

Question 28

28. Individuals with Tourette’s Disorder frequently suffer from a learning disorder in school. The most likely cause is: a. expressive language disorder b. attentional and hyperactivity problems c. social problems d. environmental stressors

Answer 28

b. attentional and hyperactivity problems -- Although learning problems are associated with the disorder, children with Tourette’s Syndrome (TS) as a group have the same range of IQ as the population at large. The etiology of learning disabilities (LD), as well as the most accurate conceptualization of them as either comorbid disorders or as prevalent, variable components of the broader TS phenotype, has yet to be determined. In a recent study of more than 3100 children with Tourette’s, ADHD was the most prevalent comorbid disorder occurring in 58% of subjects. Of those with TS plus learning disabilities, 80% also had a diagnosis of ADHD. The increased rates of ADHD in those diagnosed with TS + LD and the finding that only 11 % of the TS children without ADHD had a diagnosis of LD demonstrates the potential impact of ADHD on LD as a causal factor or as a confounder for the diagnosis of LD. (L. Burd, L., Freeman, R.D., Klug, M.G. and Kerbeshian, J. (2005). Tourette syndrome and learning disabilities, BioMed Central Pediatrics, 5)

Question 29

29. In Super's theory of career development, the rainbow is used to illustrate: a. the skills, abilities, and knowledge that a person brings to a job. b. the different roles a person assumes during the course of his or her life. c. the stages of career maturity. d. the social and other environmental determinants of career choice.

Answer 29

b. the different roles a person assumes during the course of his or her life. -- In his recent writings, Super depicts various aspects of his theory of career development with illustrations. His "life career rainbow" depicts nine major life roles (e.g., student, parent, spouse) that have an impact on a person's career choice.

Question 30

30. The majority of child sex abusers when asked about their abusive behaviors: a. deny the abuse but eventually admit their actions and express remorse after psychotherapy b. admit their behavior but minimize the harmful effects on or blame the child c. admit their actions, express shame and embarrassment, and say they will never do it again d. claim they were unable to control their impulses

Answer 30

b. admit their behavior but minimize the harmful effects on or blame the child --. A number of similar characteristics has been identified by research on child sex abusers and studies indicate that the majority of child sex abusers and other sex offenders minimize, rationalize, or justify their abusive behaviors. One such study presented at the 15th Annual Symposium of the American College of Forensic Psychology in 1999, found 57% of subjects admitted engaging in sexual behaviors with a child but minimized the behavior in some way. (See: R. Underwager and H. Wakefield. Sex offender treatment requiring admission of guilt, presented at the 15th Annual Symposium of the American College of Forensic Psychology, April 29, 1999, Santa Fe, New Mexico.)

Question 31

31. Which of the following correlation coefficients is used to assess convergent validity: a. heterotrait-monomethod b. monotrait-heteromethod c. heterotrait-heteromethod d. monotrait-monomethod

Answer 31

b. monotrait-heteromethod -- The response choices make up a multitrait-multimethod matrix, a complicated method for assessing convergent and discriminant validity. Convergent validity requires that different ways of measuring the same trait yield the same result. Monotrait-heteromethod coefficients are correlations between two measures that assess the same trait using different methods; therefore if a test has convergent validity, this correlation should be high. Heterotrait-monomethod and heterotrait-heteromethod both confirm discriminatory validity, and monotrait-monomethod coefficients are reliability coefficients.

Question 32

32. The earliest symptoms of Huntington's Disease are usually: a. memory impairments b. mild motor disturbances (e.g., mild tremor, incoordination). c. affective changes (e.g., irritability or depression). d. confusion and disorientation.

Answer 32

c. affective changes (e.g., irritability or depression). -- Because the early signs of Huntington's Disease often involve changes in affect, in the early stages, it may be erroneously diagnosed as a depression or other mental disorder.

Question 33

33. According to House's path-goal theory, the optimal leader style: a. is a democratic one that allows workers to participate in setting goals and identifying ways for achieving them. b. is the one that emphasizes a task-oriented (versus person-oriented) approach that focuses on ways to achieve goals. c. varies depending on the situation but always involves helping workers achieve their goals. d. varies depending on the leader's experience and personality but always focuses on ensuring that goals are consistent with workers' skills and knowledge.

Answer 33

c. varies depending on the situation but always involves helping workers achieve their goals. -- As its name implies, path-goal theory predicts that leaders will be most successful when they show followers the path for achieving goals. Path-goal theory is also a contingency theory, which means that it proposes that the best leadership style depends on certain characteristics of the situation.

Question 34

34. Which form of Multiple Sclerosis is characterized by a slow steady onset, steadily worsening motor dysfunctions and increased disability, as well as a lack of distinct inflammatory attacks? a. relapsing-remitting phase b. primary progressive c. secondary progressive d. benign

Answer 34

b. primary progressive -- Multiple Sclerosis (MS) is a chronic, progressive, neurological disease characterized by myelin loss in the brain and spinal cord, causing neurological symptoms. The most common characteristics of MS include fatigue, weakness, spasticity, balance problems, bladder and bowel problems, numbness, burning sensation, vision loss, tremor and memory problems. Not all symptoms affect all MS patients and symptoms and signs may be persistent or may cease from time to time. Because the signs and symptoms that define the clinical picture of MS are the result of nerve lesions causing disturbances in electrical conduction in one or more areas of the central nervous system, the nature of the symptoms that occur is determined by the location of the lesion. It often begins in young to mid-adulthood, is more common in females, and is more prevalent in cooler climates. Estimates indicate approximately a quarter of all affected individuals have mild disease, half have moderate disease, and a quarter have severe disease, with rapid progression. Benign Multiple Sclerosis (d.) tends to present with non-visible sensory symptoms at onset and has a complete recovery without disability. After 10-15 years with only one or two attacks and complete recovery without any disability, this form of MS does not worsen over time. For these individuals there is no permanent disability or disease progression. However, some in this category will experience disease progression; the course of disease changing and evolving within 10-15 years into the progressive stages of MS. Relapsing remitting (a.) MS (RRMS) is the most common beginning phase of MS. In this stage, there are sporadic exacerbations or relapses in which symptoms become more severe and/or new ones appear. Symptoms can appear for days to months, after which they usually resolve or remit spontaneously. MS may be clinically inactive between intermittent attacks and varying periods of time. The disease process is ongoing and damage continues, with or without clinical attacks, with 50% of individuals’ disease progressing to the Secondary progressive stage (SPMS) within 10 - 15 years, and an additional 40% within 25 years of onset. During the secondary progressive stage, preexisting neurologic deficits and symptoms gradually worsen while inflammatory relapses become less and less frequent until eventually there are no more relapses or remissions. Primary progressive (PPMS) is the clinical course of MS characterized from the beginning by progressive disability, with no plateaus or remissions or an occasional plateau and very short-lived, minor improvements. Another type of MS is Progressive-Relapsing (PRMS), which also indicates disease progression or increased disability from onset, but has clear, acute relapses, with or without full recovery after each. It is a rare form and associated with a high mortality rate. (See: Ebers, G.C. (2004). Natural history of primary/progressive Multiple Sclerosis. Multiple Sclerosis, 10 Sup1:S8-13; S13-15. and Weinshenker, B.G. (1995) Natural History of Multiple Sclerosis Clinical Neurology, 13(1), 119-46.)

Question 35

35. The Sickness Impact Profile is used to: a. assess the impact of disease on physical and emotional functioning b. assess emotional reactions to chronic illness c. diagnose physical illnesses d. diagnose personality disorders

Answer 35

a. assess the impact of disease on physical and emotional functioning -- The Sickness Impact Profile (SIP) is one of the most comprehensive quality of life measures available. It is used to assess the impact of disease on both physical and emotional functioning. Its focus is on behavioral measures of daily living such as sleep, eating, social interactions, and emotional behaviors. Contrary to "B," however, it is not used to assess emotional or other subjective reactions to illness.

Question 36

36. A loss of memory for autobiographical information is referred to as: a. functional amnesia b. anterograde amnesia c. retrograde amnesia d. malingering

Answer 36

a. functional amnesia -- Functional amnesia is a condition, caused by a psychological trauma, in which individuals are unable to remember significant events in their lives, i.e., autobiographical information. Anterograde amnesia (B) is an impaired ability to form new permanent memories. Retrograde amnesia (C) is an inability to recall previous memories (i.e., for events that occurred prior to a head trauma), and is not necessarily for, or limited to, autobiographical information. Someone who is malingering (D) could feign memory loss for autobiographical memories; however, most cases of autobiographical memory loss are not due to malingering.

Question 37

37. Anger management training for children has been criticized for: a. limited positive effects due to focusing on the individual b. limited positive effects due to focusing on the behavior c. being developmentally inappropriate due to children’s tendency to blame anger on others d. being developmentally inappropriate due to children’s inability to control feelings and behaviors

Answer 37

a. limited positive effects due to focusing on the individual -- One criticism of anger management training for children has been that most programs, which utilize a cognitive-behavioral approach, place the emphasis on the individual’s perceptions, feelings and behaviors while ignoring the interpersonal or systemic factors. Research indicates that training program effectiveness is increased by expanding beyond the individual to include family, peer and community relationships. (See: Morley, E. & Rossman, S.B. (1997). Helping At-Risk Youth: Lessons From Community-Based Initiatives, Washington D.C., The Urban Institute.)

Question 38

38. When using a rating scale, several psychologists agree on the same diagnosis for one patient. This is a sign that the scale is a. reliable. b. valid. c. reliable and valid. d. neither reliable nor valid.

Answer 38

a. reliable. - The rating scale described by the question has good inter-rater reliability, or consistency across raters. However, it may or may not have good validity; that is, it may or may not measure what it purports to measure. The question illustrates that high reliability is a necessary but not a sufficient condition for high validity.

Question 39

39. High-context cultures are characterized by a. reliance on elaborated (versus restricted) communication codes. b. heavy reliance on nonverbal (versus verbal) messages. c. restraint of feelings. d. emphasis on short-term goals.

Answer 39

b. heavy reliance on nonverbal (versus verbal) messages. - The terms "high context" and "low context" have been used to describe cultural differences in communication. A high-context style is characterized by reliance on nonverbal and culturally-shared cues and is characteristic of a number of cultural/racial minority groups including African-, Hispanic-, and Asian-Americans.

Question 40

40. The concept of long-term potentiation is most closely related to a. sleep. b. memory and learning. c. hunger and thirst. d. sensory perception

Answer 40

b. memory and learning. -- The term long-term potentiation refers to a facilitation or increase in synaptic efficiency that is long lasting (i.e., hours to days). Long-term potentiation was first discovered in the hippocampus and seems to have the most concrete applications to the processes of learning and memory. It has been theorized that learning, through stimulation of certain hippocampal neurons, results in long-term potentiation and thereby facilitates those neurons' receptivity to further stimulation.

Question 41

41. According to research on parenting styles, which of the following describes the parents who are most likely to raise very aggressive children? a. attentive parents who are very controlling of their children's behavior b. parents who use frequent and intermittent violence and are very controlling of their children's behavior c. loving parents with a laissez-faire attitude toward their children's behavior d. parents who use frequent and intermittent violence and have a laissez-faire attitude toward their children's behavior

Answer 41

d. parents who use frequent and intermittent violence and have a laissez-faire attitude toward their children's behavior -- Researchers in the 1950s identified two dimensions of parenting styles: permissiveness and affection. Permissiveness is a continuum that ranges from autonomy on one extreme to control at the other; affection is a continuum that ranges from hostility to love. Parents who combine hostility with autonomy (e.g., those who combine violent discipline with a laissez-faire attitude toward their children) are likely to produce disobedient and aggressive children.

Question 42

42. In consultee-centered case consultation, the consultant's role is most similar to which of the following? a. collaborator b. coach c. confidant d. supervisor

Answer 42

d. supervisor -- In his discussion of consultee-centered case consultation, Gerald Caplan notes that, especially when the target of the consultation is the consultee's lack of skill, this form of consultation most resembles "technical supervision." See G. Caplan, Principles of Preventive Psychiatry, New York, Basic Books, Inc., 1964.

Question 43

43. “Business necessity” and “job relatedness” are related to: a. personnel training b. adverse impact c. comparable worth d. truth in testing

Answer 43

b. adverse impact -- According to the Americans with Disabilities Act and the Federal Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures, business necessity and job relatedness are conditions that may permit the use of a selection or other employment procedure that results in an adverse impact. If an employer can demonstrate that it is job related and a business necessity, despite having adverse impact, the employer may be able to continue using the procedure.

Question 44

44. According to the APA’s Guidelines for Psychological Practice with Older Adults, which of the following statements regarding psychotherapy effectiveness is most accurate? a. older adults do not respond as well as younger adults b. older adults respond better than younger adults c. older adults respond similarly to younger adults, although older adults tend to respond quicker d. older adults respond similarly to younger adults, although older adults tend to respond slower

Answer 44

d. older adults respond similarly to younger adults, although older adults tend to respond slower -- The American Psychological Association, in its Guidelines for Psychological Practice with Older Adults [American Psychologist, 2004, 59(4), 236-260] concluded that older adults may respond more slowly to various forms of psychotherapy but there are few significant differences in effectiveness relative to younger adults. Additionally, tailoring an intervention to the specific needs of an older client may increase its effectiveness. (See: M. Gatz, et al., Empirically validated psychological treatments for older adults, Journal of Mental Health and Aging, 1999, 4(1), 9-46.)

Question 45

45. Components of health anxiety include disease conviction, disease fears, disease preoccupation, bodily checking and reassurance seeking, and disease-related avoidance and escape behaviors. Strong disease conviction is most associated with: a. Specific (“disease”) Phobia b. Delusional Disorder, Somatic Type c. Hypochondriasis d. Panic Disorder

Answer 45

c. Hypochondriasis -- Individuals with hypochondriasis have the presence of strong disease convictions, insisting that they have an undetected serious illness or disease. Often convictions result from misinterpreting normal bodily sensations and minor symptoms as serious disease warning signs. Specific “disease” phobia (a.) is a DSM-IV-TR Anxiety Disorder associated with a fear of acquiring or being exposed to a disease. It is also commonly a feature of hypochondriasis. An absence of disease conviction is a differential characteristic of the two disorders. The disease conviction for individuals with Delusional Disorder, Somatic Type (b.) reaches extremely strong, unreasonable and delusional proportions. Although during panic attacks people with panic disorder commonly worry about dying, disease conviction is not a characteristic that is strongly associated with Panic Disorder.

Question 46

46. All of the following are true regarding Feminist Object Relations Theory except: a. it emphasizes the importance of the maternal relationship with the child. b. it proposes that gender differences are the result of girls being taught to remain attached to their mothers while boys are taught to separate from their mothers. c. it proposes that girls develop a healthier self-object when raised primarily by their father due to earlier separation from their mother. d. it proposes that mothering "reproduces itself" since mothers perpetuate the oppressiveness of the division of labor.

Answer 46

c. it proposes that girls develop a healthier self-object when raised primarily by their father due to earlier separation from their mother. -- Nancy Chodorow was one of the first to apply a feminist perspective to an Object Relations model. In The Reproduction of Mothering (Berkeley, University of California Press, 1978) she focused on the relationship between mother and child and how gender differences result from the mother being the primary caretaker. The division of labor which occurs in families (although less so in recent years), is characterized by women being more involved in affective, interpersonal relationships than men. This is inevitably passed on to both boys and girls who ‘reproduce' this sexual and familial division of labor.

Question 47

47. The primary symptoms of normal pressure hydrocephalus are: a. headache followed by vomiting, downward deviation of the eyes and urinary incontinence b. a rapid increase in the size of the head, headache followed by vomiting, gait disturbance c. a rapid increase in the size of the head, downward deviation of the eyes, dementia d. gait disturbance, urinary incontinence, dementia/mental disturbance

Answer 47

d. gait disturbance, urinary incontinence, dementia/mental disturbance -- Hydrocephalus is a condition primarily characterized by excessive accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) within the ventricles inside the brain. As the CSF builds up, it causes the ventricles to enlarge or dilate causing the pressure inside the head to increase and potentially harmful pressure on the tissues of the brain. Hydrocephalus may be congenital or acquired. The specific causes of hydrocephalus are unknown. Congenital hydrocephalus is thought to be caused by a complex interaction of environmental factors and a possible genetic disposition or developmental problem. The most common developmental problems that may lead to hydrocephalus include: spina bifida, failure of the tissue surrounding the spinal cord to close properly; aqueductal stenosis, a narrowing of a channel in the brain that connects two ventricles; and encephalocele, herniation of the brain. Acquired hydrocephalus can affect individuals of all ages and may result from a disease or condition such as encephalitis, intraventricular hemorrhage, meningitis, head trauma, stroke, infection, complications of surgery, tumors and cysts. Age, disease progression and how well a person can tolerate increased cerebrospinal fluid pressure all affect the symptoms of hydrocephalus. Common symptoms in infancy include an unusually large head, a rapid increase in the size of the head and a bulging "soft spot" on the top of the head. In older children and adults, symptoms may include headache followed by vomiting, nausea, papilledema or swelling of the optic disk, downward deviation of the eyes, problems with balance, poor coordination, gait disturbance, urinary incontinence, slowing or loss of development (in children), lethargy, drowsiness, irritability, or other changes in personality or cognition, including memory loss. A condition that mainly affects people over 60 years of age is normal pressure hydrocephalus. It is caused by defective absorption of CSF, in which the excess CSF enlarges the ventricles but does not increase pressure on the brain. It may result from injury, illness or infection although many people develop normal pressure hydrocephalus without an obvious cause. It typically starts with difficulty walking. Urinary incontinence often develops, along with a type of dementia marked by slowness of thinking and information processing. Hydrocephalus is diagnosed through clinical neurological evaluation and by using cranial imaging techniques such as ultrasonography, computer tomography (CT), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), or pressure-monitoring techniques. The most effective treatment is surgical insertion of a shunt although endoscopic third ventriculostomy (ETV) is growing in popularity as an alternative treatment method for hydrocephalus.

Question 48

48. The presence of which of the following suggests the diagnosis is Acute Stress Disorder rather than Posttraumatic Stress Disorder? a. response to the traumatic stressor involved intense fear, helplessness, or horror b. a sense of reliving or reexperiencing the traumatic stressor c. dissociative symptoms occur during or immediately following a traumatic stressor d. increased symptoms of anxiety, poor concentration and irritability

Answer 48

c. dissociative symptoms occur during or immediately following a traumatic stressor -- Acute Stress Disorder, is by definition, only appropriate when the duration of symptoms last at least two days and occur within one month of the extreme stressor or traumatic event. Posttraumatic Stress Disorder requires symptoms to persist for more than a month so this diagnosis cannot be made within the initial month following the traumatic stressor.

Question 49

49. A high achiever would most likely attribute failures to a. internal, unstable, and controllable factors. b. internal, stable, and uncontrollable factors. c. external, stable, and controllable factors. d. external, unstable, and uncontrollable factors.

Answer 49

a. internal, unstable, and controllable factors. -- Research by Weiner and others has suggested that people who have high expectations for future performance (such as high achievers) tend to attribute their failure to a lack of effort. Effort is an internal, unstable, and controllable factor. Most research suggests that of these dimensions, stability is the most important in expectations for future achievement. The idea is that, if you attribute failure to an unstable cause, you must expect that you will not fail in most situations.

Question 50

50. The most commonly associated features of Tourette's Disorder are a. depression and shame b. academic and social difficulties c. orthopedic and skin problems d. obsessions and compulsions

Answer 50

d. obsessions and compulsions -- DSM-IV lists obsessions and compulsions as the most commonly associated features of Tourette's Disorder. While the other features that are included in responses A, B, and C are also associated with the disorder, they are not as common.

Question 51

51. You see an elderly male in therapy. In the first session, he breaks down sobbing and admits that he has recently "helped" his wife, who was suffering from incurable cancer, to die. First you need to a. comfort him as best you can and make a call to the police. b. get the number of a trusted family member and alert them. c. assess your client's potential for suicide. d. suggest that your client call the police while still in your office.

Answer 51

c. assess your client's potential for suicide. -- First of all, this question is not about a Tarasoff situation. You are speaking to the husband after the fact of the wife's death so you do not have a mandated breach of confidentiality, and instead now need to decide what is in the best interest of your client. What you have is a bereaved client who is at a high risk for suicide. With his best interests and welfare in mind, you need to assess his potential for suicide and then decide if you want to get the number of a trusted family member and alert them (choice B). You would not be able to breach confidentiality as suggested in answer A and D for the purpose of "turning in" your client.

Question 52

52. Two women golfers are competing in a golf tournament. Woman A is told by the coach to do her best. Woman B is told by her coach to try to shoot one under par on Holes 1, 4, and 7 and 11, and make par on all the rest. Which golfer is likely to do the best according to Locke? a. Golfer A b. Golfer B c. They’ll do the same d. Golfer C, who will not be distracted from the game by verbal directions from a coach

Answer 52

b. Golfer B -- According to Locke's 1970 goal-setting theory, goals serve two purposes–they are a basis for motivation and they direct behavior. Goal attainment is maximized when goals are specific and moderately difficult and when frequent feedback about progress toward goal achievement is provided. Locke is associated with Industrial Organizational Psychology, even though this question seems like it could be from the Social Psychology domain. Questions on the EPPP are often "disguised" in this way.

Question 53

53. In designing a research study, you take a number of steps that have the effect of reducing beta. This means that you have reduced the probability of: a. retaining a true null hypothesis. b. retaining a false null hypothesis. c. rejecting a true null hypothesis. d. rejecting a false null hypothesis.

Answer 53

b. retaining a false null hypothesis. -- Beta is the probability of making a Type II error, or of retaining a false null hypothesis. In plain language, it is the probability of failing to detect a true effect.

Question 54

54. Depressive episodes that occur in a seasonal pattern most likely include: a. loss of weight b. increased sleep c. increased energy d. increased craving for protein-rich foods

Answer 54

b. increased sleep -- Mood Disorder With Seasonal Pattern (better known as Seasonal Affective Disorder) is diagnosed when the person displays onset and remission of Major Depressive Episodes at characteristic times of the year. In most cases, onset is in fall or winter and remission is in spring. The depressive symptoms in Seasonal Affective Disorder most often include: decreased energy, increased sleep, overeating, weight gain, and a craving for carbohydrates.

Question 55

55. In assessing perceptual abilities in a 3 or 4-month old infant you could use all of the following indicators except: a. head turning b. sucking c. reaching d. heart rate

Answer 55

a. head turning -- Head turning does not become an appropriate measure of perception in infants until 5 ½ months of age. Sucking (B) is often used as a measure of perceptual abilities for infants aged 1 to 4 months. Reaching (C) is used at 12 weeks or older, and heart rate (D) can be a useful measure at any age.

Question 56

56. A parent brings his 7-year old child in for evaluation, with the complaint that the child can't sit still, is constantly on the go, and never pays attention. You suspect that the diagnosis might be Attention Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder. Of the following, which would be the best way to confirm this diagnosis? a. determine if the child displays the same exact behaviors in other settings b. investigate the child's behavior in different settings with the awareness that the disorder may manifest itself differently in different situations c. investigate the parent's interaction with the child d. administer Ritalin to the child for a limited period of time to determine if the symptoms respond to the medication

Answer 56

b. investigate the child's behavior in different settings with the awareness that the disorder may manifest itself differently in different situations -- A diagnosis of ADHD requires the presence of characteristic symptoms in at least two settings. Therefore, it is necessary to investigate the child's behavior in other settings, such as school. However, the clinician needs to be aware that the disorder's nature and severity can differ across different situations. For instance, according to the DSM-IV, symptoms typically worsen in situations that require sustained attention or mental effort, and they may be minimal or absent when the child is frequently rewarded, is under very strict control, or is in a novel setting.

Question 57

57. According to the concept of "homeostasis," if a married woman's depressive symptoms improve, we can expect that which of the following will be most likely to occur? a. increased support from her husband b. depressive symptoms in her husband c. rejection by all family members d. overall improvement in the family's symptoms

Answer 57

b. depressive symptoms in her husband --"Homeostasis" refers to the tendency for any system to react toward restoring the status quo in the event of any change. Homeostasis is automatically disturbed as individuals in a family grow into new developmental stages or "get better" after having had depressive or other symptoms. Therefore, when someone recovers, to restore a homeostatic balance, family members may either sabotage the recovered member's improvement or become symptomatic themselves. Thus, if the woman's depressive symptoms improve, the concept of homeostasis would predict that depressive symptoms might develop in her husband.

Question 58

58. A woman seeks help from a psychologist in dealing with her 12-year-old daughter who has been misbehaving lately. The mother says that the daughter has not been listening to her and last week cursed at her mother. The mother reacted by slapping her daughter which left a bruise. The mother feels very remorseful about it and says that she has never done anything like that before. The psychologist should: a. insist that the woman attend anger management classes b. report the incident to a child protective services agency before the end of the session c. monitor the situation and report any further abuse incidents to a child protective services agency d. seek consultation

Answer 58

b. report the incident to a child protective services agency before the end of the session -- State laws require mandated reporters to report any reasonable suspicion of child abuse. Abuse generally includes, but is not limited to, physical injury that is inflicted upon a child by other than accidental means. The reporting laws do not provide exceptions for those who are remorseful or first-time offenders. Although the reporting laws do not require the reporter to inform the abuser of the report, or to involve him or her in making the report, it is often clinically useful to do so. Referral to anger management classes (A) might be appropriate, but the psychologist should not insist upon it and the psychologist must still meet the reporting requirements.

Question 59

59. Once exposed to the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), the process of converting from antibody negative to antibody positive is referred to as: a. retroviral-conversion b. seroconversion c. seronegative d. seropositive

Answer 59

b. seroconversion -- Seroconversion describes the development of antibodies to a particular antigen, or the conversion from seronegative (HIV negative) to seropositive (HIV positive) as the result of the presence of antibodies. An individual who is infected may develop symptoms of acute HIV infection while still having a negative HIV antibody test because seroconversion often does not occur until several weeks after infection.

Question 60

60. Narcolepsy is associated with a. rigid muscle tone. b. loss of muscle tone. c. decreased REM sleep. d. insomnia.

Answer 60

b. loss of muscle tone. -- Narcolepsy is characterized by irresistible sleep attacks occurring on a daily basis for at least three months. It also may involve cataplexy, which is a sudden loss of muscle tone, usually in association with intense emotion.

Question 61

61. A "needs assessment" is used to: a. identify the worth of a job so that an equitable wage can be determined. b. determine if and what kind of training is needed in an organization. c. describe the requirements of a job. d. identify which type of job would be most satisfying for an individual.

Answer 61

b. determine if and what kind of training is needed in an organization. -- A "needs assessment" or "needs analysis" is the first step in developing a training program. Not surprisingly, this involves identifying the needs of the organization. This is very different than a job evaluation (A), which is used to determine the relative worth of a job, or a job analysis (C) which is used to describe the requirements of a job.

Question 62

62. Of the following, which would be the most important factor to keep in mind when deciding whether to prescribe tricyclic anti-depressants to a patient? a. the patient's suicide risk. b. the patient's history of treatment success or failure with tricyclics. c. whether or not the patient's symptoms are atypical. d. whether or not the patient's symptoms are primarily vegetative.

Answer 62

a. the patient's suicide risk. -- All of these factors would be important to consider in deciding whether to prescribe tricyclics to a patient. However, safety considerations generally supercede all others; thus, choice "A" is the best answer. The risk of suicide in depressed patients must always be considered by physicians when writing prescriptions -- particularly for potentially dangerous drugs such as tricyclics.

Question 63

63. In implosive therapy: a. the client is gradually exposed, through the imagination, to a feared stimulus, one step at a time. b. a client is immediately exposed, through the imagination, to a feared stimulus at its maximum intensity. c. the client is gradually exposed, in-vivo, to a feared stimulus, one step at a time. d. a client is immediately exposed, in-vivo, to a feared stimulus at its maximum intensity.

Answer 63

b. a client is immediately exposed, through the imagination, to a feared stimulus at its maximum intensity. -- Implosive therapy involves imaginal exposure to a feared stimulus. The person is immediately exposed to the stimulus at its maximum intensity. The purpose of implosive therapy is to extinguish a person's fear; in addition, the technique incorporates psychodynamic themes thought to underlie the fear into the imagery.

Question 64

64. Research has identified the following factors as barriers that reduce the likelihood that a woman will seek or remain in substance abuse treatment. Of the following, which has been most often cited as a primary barrier to substance-abuse treatment for women: a. a belief that treatment is ineffective b. denial of a substance abuse problem c. child and childcare concerns d. sexual harassment from male counselors

Answer 64

c. child and childcare concerns -- Only one of the responses is consistently cited by studies as a primary or most frequently mentioned barrier and that is factors related to children. Research has confirmed that women with substance abuse problems are more likely than men to be caring for dependent children. Many women are concerned about custody issues; others are concerned about childcare while they receive treatment. According to a recent United Nations report on substance abuse treatment, “lack of childcare is probably the most consistent factor restricting women’s treatment access identified in the literature” [United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime, Substance Abuse Treatment and Care for Women: Case Studies and Lessons Learned, New York, United Nations, 2004, p. 18]. While sexual harassment (d.) of women has been identified as a problem at some treatment centers and some women may be deterred by concerns over treatment effectiveness (a.), neither has been identified as a primary barrier to treatment. Women are more likely to express shame and guilt about their substance abuse than to deny that they have an abuse problem (b.).

Question 65

65. The neurotransmitter associated with Alzheimer's Dementia is a. serotonin. b. dopamine. c. acetylcholine. d. epinephrine.

Answer 65

c. acetylcholine. -- Acetylcholine and L-glutamate are two neurotransmitters that have been linked to Alzheimer's Disease.

Question 66

66. Which of the following is NOT considered a disability according to the Americans with Disabilities Act? a. Gender Identity Disorder b. Paraplegia c. Schizophrenia d. Generalized Anxiety Disorder

Answer 66

a. Gender Identity Disorder -- The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990 prohibits employers from discriminating against a qualified individual based on his or her disability. The ADA defines a disability as "a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more of the major life activities" of an individual. However, it specifically excludes certain conditions including: transvestism, transsexualism, pedophilia, exhibitionism, voyeurism, gender identity disorders not resulting from physical impairments, or other sexual behavior disorders, compulsive gambling, kleptomania, pyromania, and psychoactive substance use disorders resulting from current illegal use of drugs. All of the other choices would, therefore, be considered a disability.

Question 67

67. A patient with Parkinson's Disease is experiencing tremors. What transmitter is probably involved? a. Acetylcholine b. Glutamate c. Zyprexa d. Dopamine

Answer 67

d. Dopamine -- A lack of norepinephrine at brain synapses is associated with depression, while excessive dopamine and norepinephrine are both associated with schizophrenia. Dopamine also plays a role in movement, and degeneration of neurons that secrete dopamine causes the muscular rigidity found in Parkinson's disease.

Question 68

68. It has been found that abused children often cling to their abusive parents. This can be explained in behavioral terms as the effect of a. extinction. b. delayed conditioning. c. intermittent reinforcement. d. spontaneous recovery.

Answer 68

c. intermittent reinforcement. -- Most abusing parents are abusive only some of the time. Other times they are quite loving and protective. In behavioral terms, this means that the child is on an intermittent reinforcement schedule, and, more specifically, a variable ratio schedule. In other words, any given behavior, including clinging, will be reinforced after a variable and unpredictable number of responses. Intermittent reinforcement schedules, and especially variable ratio schedules, tend to produce behaviors that are difficult to extinguish. This could explain why the clinging behavior continues.

Question 69

69. Alzheimer's Dementia often results in problems in the executive functions such as: a. aphasia and agnosia b. apraxia and disorientation c. planning and organizing d. recalling and recognizing

Answer 69

c. planning and organizing -- According to the DSM-IV-TR, a diagnosis of Dementia of the Alzheimer's type, or any other type, requires evidence of impairment in memory, and at least one other cognitive impairment such as aphasia (language disturbance), apraxia (impaired ability to carry out motor activities), agnosia (failure to recognize objects), or disturbance in executive functioning. All the choices in this question are symptoms of dementia, however, problems with executive functions refers specifically to planning, organizing, and abstract thinking.

Question 70

70. You have a client who does not want their records released under any circumstances. The attorney has subpoened you. Your best course of action is to: a. Respond in-person, but don't take the records b. Take the records, but don't turn them over c. Ignore the entire matter d. Destroy the records

Answer 70

b. Take the records, but don't turn them over -- You should respond to the subpoena by asserting the psychotherapist-client privilege on the client's behalf. If you cannot be released from the subpoena, you should appear at the legal proceeding with the documents requested, however, you should not actually release any information in the records, unless the judge orders you to do so. Keep in mind that a subpoena duces tecum requires a person to appear at a designated time and place with a copy of the records. It does not necessarily require the person to release those records.

Question 71

71. A person stops and asks a parking attendant for directions after getting lost while driving to an appointment. The attendant states, "Make a left at the first red light. Go four blocks until you reach a stop sign and turn right onto Main Street. About three blocks down Main, look for a large red sign at the entrance to the parking lot." What type of memory is needed to hold such information? a. procedural memory b. working memory c. short term memory d. long term memory

Answer 71

b. working memory -- The type of memory needed to hold the directions in one's mind while working on it is called working memory. In the 1980s, Baddeley and Hitch coined the term "working memory" for the ability to hold several facts or thoughts in memory temporarily while solving a problem or performing a task. Baddeley defined the process of rapid verbal repetition of the to-be-remembered information to facilitate maintaining it in working memory, as an "articulatory loop." He found there is a neural system or central executive in the frontal portion of the brain responsible for processing information in the "working memory." Short-term memory (c.) holds information in mind for only a few seconds as it is processed. Long-term memory (d.) is where such processed information is permanently stored. Working memory is an intermediary and active memory system in the information processing area of the brain. (See: Baddeley, A.D., & Hitch, G.J. (1974). Working memory. In Bower, G.A. (Ed.) Recent advances in learning and morivation (Vol. 8). pp. 47-90. New York: Academic Press. See: Baddeley, A.D. (1986). Working Memory. Oxford: Oxford University Press.)

Question 72

72. A patient displays apraxia, tactile agnosia, difficulties with movement, and confusion between the left and the right side of the body. Which lobe of the person's cerebral cortex is most likely damaged? a. parietal b. frontal c. occipital d. temporal

Answer 72

a. parietal -- Questions like this can be difficult to answer, since damage to any of the lobes can cause a wide variety of impairment, depending on the location and extent of the damage. Moreover, some types of impairment (including the type described by this question) can be caused by damage in the association areas of the cortex, or the areas where the different cortical lobes merge. Nonetheless, the parietal lobe is the best answer to this question. More than any other lobe, damage to the parietal lobe has been associated with left-right confusion. In addition, tactile agnosia (the inability to identify objects by touch using the contralateral hand) is associated primarily with the parietal lobe, which contains the primary somatosensory cortex. Difficulties in body movement and apraxia (inability to carry out motor activities despite intact comprehension and motor function) can be caused by damage to the frontal lobe as well as damage to the parietal lobe.

Question 73

73. You have a client who has been abusing cocaine. He has recently read an article about neurotransmitters and does not want to take any type of medication because he does not want to "mess with his brain." You provide him with the information to reduce his anxiety. You explain that cocaine affects the brain in following manner. a. It increases epinephrine. b. It increases glutamate. c. It decreases serotonin. d. It increases dopamine.

Answer 73

d. It increases dopamine. -- Cocaine is believed to block the reuptake of dopamine. As dopamine collects in the neurons of the limbic system, it continues to stimulate receiving cells.

Question 74

74. Which of the following smoking cessation treatments is least effective for long-term abstinence? a. hypnosis b. acupuncture c. aversive techniques d. nicotine replacement

Answer 74

d. nicotine replacement -- Nicotine replacement interventions (e.g., nicotine gum, nicotine patch) have not been found to be very effective over the long-term unless they are combined with other treatment interventions. In a meta-analysis based on over 600 smoking cessation studies, the mean quit rate (based on short-term and long-term rates) for hypnosis = .36; acupuncture = .30; aversive techniques = .27; nicotine gum = .16; and control group = .06. [C. Viswesvaran and F. L. Schmidt, A meta-analytic comparison of the effectiveness of smoking cessation methods, Journal of Applied Psychology, 1992, 77(4), 554-561]. Another meta-analysis that addressed the combination of nicotine gum with other treatment interventions but compared short-term to long-term outcomes also concluded that nicotine gum by itself is not very effective in the long-term, but is effective when combined with other treatment interventions [A. Cepeda-Benito, Meta-analytical review of the efficacy of nicotine chewing gum in smoking treatment programs, Journal of Consulting and Clinical Psychology, 1993, 61(5), 822-830].

Question 75

75. Research on goal-setting theory suggests that it is: a. applicable to the performance of males but not females. b. applicable only to females in managerial-level jobs. c. applicable to females when goals are set participatively but not when they are assigned. d. applicable to both males and females whether goals are set participatively or are assigned.

Answer 75

d. applicable to both males and females whether goals are set participatively or are assigned. -- Very few studies have attempted to determine if there are differences between males and females in goal-setting behavior. The existing studies suggest that, overall, the predictions of goal-setting theory are equally applicable to both genders, although there may be some minor differences. For example, at least one study found that females prefer mastery goals over social comparison goals.

Question 76

76. People diagnosed with PTSD are often successfully treated with psychotherapy and don't need to be referred for medication treatment unless: a. They also have a high level of cognitive functioning b. They experience feelings of numbness c. They tolerate exploratory psychotherapy well d. Their target symptoms of avoidance and derealization interfere with daily life

Answer 76

d. Their target symptoms of avoidance and derealization interfere with daily life -- PTSD is not usually treated with phamacotherapy unless the target symptoms of intrusive experiences, flashbacks, transient psychosis, marked derealization, and avoidance and numbing markedly interfere with daily life. With these symptoms, short-term medication is indicated. When the target symptoms of major depression, panic disorder or persistent psychotic symptoms become too intense, long term medication is indicated (Barry Pierce, R cassidy seminars, Santa Rosa CA).

Question 77

77. A psychologist in a rural area is referred a 17-year-old male who has been abusing OxyContin. Although the psychologist is trained and experienced in the treatment of substance abuse, she has not received training in, nor experience with, OxyContin abuse. The psychologist should: a. refer the patient to a psychologist outside the area who is experienced in the treatment of OxyContin abuse b. agree to treat the patient after attending a workshop on the treatment of OxyContin abuse c. refer the patient for inpatient detoxification d. provide the patient with treatment and read relevant literature

Answer 77

d. provide the patient with treatment and read relevant literature -- Psychologists have an ethical responsibility to practice within the boundaries of their competence. However, according to APA's Ethics Standard 2.01(d), "When psychologists are asked to provide services to individuals for whom appropriate mental health services are not available and for which psychologists have not obtained the competence necessary, psychologists with closely related prior training or experience may provide such services in order to ensure that services are not denied if they make a reasonable effort to obtain the competence required by using relevant research, training, consultation, or study." It should not, therefore, be necessary to refer the patient to a provider out of the area. It also would not be in the patient's best interest to postpone treatment until the psychologist can attend a workshop on the subject (B). And, although OxyContin abuse is serious and potentially fatal, it generally would not require inpatient detoxification (C) unless the abuse progressed to dependence.

Question 78

78. An African-American family presents for family therapy. From a systems perspective, it would be most advisable to: a. focus on multi-generational issues. b. see each family member individually. c. use behavioral techniques. d. educate family members about community resources.

Answer 78

a. focus on multi-generational issues. -- You probably could answer this one correctly by focusing on the word "systems" since, of the choices, focusing on more than one generation most implies that you would be looking at the entire family system. In addition, African-American culture, as compared to Anglo culture, tends to be characterized by a greater emphasis placed on relationships with extended family members.

Question 79

79. Biofeedback is often part of treatments aimed at lowering tension and arousal and increasing relaxation. For this purpose, biofeedback is being used to control the: a. sympathetic nervous system. b. parasympathetic nervous system. c. somatic nervous system. d. endocrine system.

Answer 79

b. parasympathetic nervous system. -- Biofeedback and other stress/anxiety reducing techniques are designed to induce a positive parasympathetic state since it is the parasympathetic nervous system that is responsible for rest, relaxation, and recuperation. On the other hand, if you wanted to increase blood flow to change body temperature, biofeedback would affect the sympathetic nervous system.

Question 80

80. Protocol analysis typically involves a. specifying the unstated rules of communication between two individuals. b. analyzing a behavior in terms of its antecedents and consequences. c. recording specific behaviors that allow one to understand the subject's problem-solving methodology. d. standardizing psychotherapy procedures.

Answer 80

c. recording specific behaviors that allow one to understand the subject's problem-solving methodology. -- Protocol analysis is sort of an umbrella term used to refer to qualitative research studies that involve collecting verbatim reports. These reports could consist of an examinee's verbal statements, a descriptive account of a subject's behavior, or both. The term is commonly applied to research where the subject is asked to "think aloud" as he or she is performing a task. The researcher then records what the subject does and says, and analyzes the data to determine what cognitive processes are used to solve the problem. The analysis, by the way, is not quantitative or statistical; rather, it is qualitative, or based on the researcher's own interpretations.

Question 81

81. The head of a psychological clinic hires a consultant to help therapists deal with some particularly difficult cases at the agency. This is an example of a. consultee-centered administrative consultation. b. client-centered administrative consultation. c. consultee-centered case consultation. d. client-centered case consultation.

Answer 81

d. client-centered case consultation. -- Client-centered case consultation involves working with the consultee (here, the therapists) to develop a plan to work more effectively with a particular client or clients (here, the clinic's patients). By contrast, in consultee-centered case consultation, the focus is on problems in the consultee (e.g., psychological problems, lack of skill) rather than on problems in the clients. And in both client-centered and consultee-centered administrative consultation, the focus is on program-wide administrative problems, rather than on problems in individual clients or therapists.

Question 82

82. Alcohol Abuse and Dependence has a male to female ratio of about: a. 10 to 1 b. 1 to 10 c. 5 to 1 d. 2 to 1.

Answer 82

c. 5 to 1 -- Alcohol Abuse and Dependence are more common in males than females with a male to female ratio as high as 5 to 1 according to DSM-IV. However, the ratio varies substantially, depending on the age group. Females tend to start drinking heavily later in life than do males and may develop Alcohol-Related Disorders later.

Question 83

83. Of the "big 5" personality dimensions one would most expect a sociopathic personality to have the dimension of: a. Extraversion b. Openness c. Conscientiousness d. Sensing

Answer 83

a. Extraversion -- Extraversion. This is one of those where the right answer is a "rule out". The Big Five personality dimensions are extraversion, agreeableness, openness, emotional stability and conscientiousness. An antisocial personality is described as deceitful, impulsive, irritable, consistently irresponsible and with a lack or remorse. You might not always expect an antisocial person to be extroverted, but of the choices, it is what you would most expect.

Question 84

84. Excluding the olfactory nerves, sensory afferent nerves run through which part of the brain? a. caudate nucleus b. cerebellum c. thalamus d. cingulate gyrus

Answer 84

c. thalamus -- The thalamus acts as a "relay station" for all the senses except smell. That is, it receives impulses from the senses and then transmits the information to other parts of the brain. Olfactory information is projected to various parts of the limbic system.

Question 85

85. Rationalist, cognitive therapy is most likely to involve a. relaxation training, systematic desensitization, and guided imagery. b. cognitive restructuring, reducing automatic thoughts, and thought stopping. c. a focus on unconscious and developmental processes. d. stress inoculation training, self-instruction, and stimulus control.

Answer 85

b. cognitive restructuring, reducing automatic thoughts, and thought stopping.- In the literature, a distinction has been made between rationalist and constructivist cognitive therapies. Rationalist therapies are based on the assumptions that irrationality is the primary source of neurotic pathology, that explicit beliefs and logical reasoning can serve as a guide to emotion and behavior, and that the core process in effective therapy is the substitution of rational for irrational thought. The techniques described in choice B are all designed to increase rational thought processes and/or decrease irrational thinking; thus, they are most in line with the assumptions of rationalist cognitive therapy. As compared to rationalist therapy, constructivist cognitive therapy is based on more complex and abstract assumptions, in which unconscious, developmental, and interactional processes are emphasized. You might have been thrown off by the word "rationalist" in the question. If so, it would have been best to answer the question as if it were about cognitive therapy in general. The best answer would still be B.

Question 86

86. Psychodrama seeks to examine and resolve difficult situations through guided dramatization and the release of creative forces inherent in the individual. The issue or problem to be explored in the psychodrama is chosen by the: a. protagonist b. antagonist c. director d. audience

Answer 86

a. protagonist -- Most associated with Jacob L. Moreno, psychodrama employs experiential methods, role theory, sociometry and group dynamics to facilitate insight, personal growth, and integration on cognitive, behavioral and affective levels. Psychodrama provides participants a safe, supportive environment in which to practice new and more effective roles and behaviors. There are three distinct components of group interaction in a classically structured psychodrama session: the warm-up, the action and the sharing phases. In the warm-up phase, the group theme is identified and a protagonist (a.), individual(s) who represents the theme in the drama, is selected. In the action phase the problem is dramatized and the protagonist explores new methods of resolving it. Then in the sharing phase, group members or the audience (d.) may express or share their associations, experience or connection with the protagonist's work. The other components of psychodrama include: auxiliary egos (b.), or group members who assume the roles of significant others in the drama; the director (c.), a trained psychodramatist who guides participants through each phase of the session; and the stage, the physical space in which the drama is conducted.

Question 87

87. Ethnic minority clients with a strong affiliation with their own culture tend to a. not benefit from therapy. b. drop out of therapy prematurely. c. prefer ethnically similar therapists and counselors. d. respond to therapy in the same way as non-minority clients, regardless of the therapist.

Answer 87

c. prefer ethnically similar therapists and counselors. -- Research supports the notion that ethnic minority clients with a strong affiliation with their own culture tend to prefer ethnically similar counselors, and some research show that outcome for such clients is better when the counselor is ethnically similar.

Question 88

88. Extinction treatment paradigms are often limited by: a. improperly applied reinforcers. b. accidental reinforcement. c. client expectations. d. practical constraints such as time.

Answer 88

b. accidental reinforcement. -- In extinction interventions, you don't want anything to accidentally reinforce the behavior. Let's say you advised parents to ignore their child's whining attention-seeking behavior, and the behavior reduced in intensity. Then, Grandma comes for a visit and when the child whines she gives him a cookie. This would be reinforcing, and so we'd be back to square zero and would have to do the extinction all over again. So, accidentally applied reinforcement often interrupts the extinction procedure.

Question 89

89. An adult woman comes to an outpatient clinic. She is foreign-born and has almost no skills in English. She appears depressed. If one were to attempt a standardized assessment of her level of cognitive functioning, the best test would be a. Stanford-Binet. b. Ravens Progressive Matrices. c. Perdue Peg Board Test. d. Otis-Lennon Test.

Answer 89

b. Ravens Progressive Matrices. -- Of these, only the Ravens is an intelligence test completely non-dependent on language. It's a non-verbal assessment of abstract reasoning and a fairly good predictor of general cognitive functioning.

Question 90

90. Records of psychological services should minimally include all of the following except: a. fees b. process notes c. types of services provided d. plans for treatment interventions

Answer 90

b. process notes -- According to APA's Record Keeping Guidelines (1993, 48 (9), 984-986) records should minimally include: identifying data, dates and types of service, fees, any release of information obtained, any assessment, plan for intervention, consultation, summary reports, and/or testing reports. Process notes, which contain intimate details of psychotherapy sessions, including the psychotherapist's personal notes, are generally considered inappropriate for the medical record and are not recommended for minimal inclusion in the Guidelines.

Question 91

91. The item difficulty ("p") index yields information about the difficulty of test items in terms of a(n) _________ scale of measurement. a. nominal b. ordinal c. interval d. ratio

Answer 91

b. ordinal -- An item difficulty index indicates the percentage of individuals who answer a particular item correctly. For example, if an item has a difficulty index of .80, it means that 80% of test-takers answered the item correctly. Although it appears that the item difficulty index is a ratio scale of measurement, according to Anastasi (1982) it is actually an ordinal scale because it does not necessarily indicate equivalent differences in difficulty.

Question 92

92. . The experience of REM-rebound occurs most often when a. barbiturates are used chronically b. a person begins using sedatives. c. the use of sedatives is discontinued. d. alcohol is substituted for barbiturates.

Answer 92

c. the use of sedatives is discontinued -- Most drugs suppress REM sleep. When REM sleep is suppressed, a sudden rebound effect occurs soon after the removal of the suppressing agent.

Question 93

93. An example of a paradoxical directive would be: a. Telling an argumentative couple they must take turns telling the other what they appreciated about each other b. Telling an argumentative couple that they must argue four hours a day c. Arranging flowers in a vase d. Recommending to an arguing couple that they take a second honeymoon

Answer 93

b. Telling an argumentative couple that they must argue four hours a day -- A paradoxical directive is an instruction to engage in the symptomatic behavior. The idea is to utilize the energy of resistance and use to help the couple make changes in their communication patterns.

Question 94

94. Which of the following best describes the ethical requirements of a licensed clinical psychologist who tests positive for HIV? a. inform clients of his/her medical condition “as early as is feasible” b. obtain supervision to ensure that the medical condition does not interfere with the performance of work-related duties c. refrain from initiating any professional activities that might be adversely affected by the medical condition d. there is no obligation to take precautions or special actions in this situation

Answer 94

c. refrain from initiating any professional activities that might be adversely affected by the medical condition -- Being diagnosed with HIV, when considering the ethical obligations of a psychologist, would be considered a health-related personal issue. Personal problems, including emotional, social, health-related and other personal issues, are addressed in Standard 2.06: Psychologists “refrain from initiating an activity when they know or should know there is a substantial likelihood that their personal problems will prevent them from performing their work-related activities in a competent manner.” If a psychologist thinks the condition may impair his/her ability to provide effective services or perform work-related duties then the psychologist would “take appropriate measures.” However, there is no evidence that this is the case, so (b.) is not the best answer. Informing clients of the condition (a.) is not necessary and may not be in the best interests of some of the clients to do so.

Question 95

95. In children with chronic illness, all of the following have been found to be correlated with the child's level of adjustment, except a. the child’s age. b. parental support. c. parental marital distress. d. brain involvement in the child’s illness.

Answer 95

a. the child’s age - This is one of those "research results" questions in which you can find support for any answer, depending on whose research you read. However, of the choices listed, there is less overall support for the notion that age is significantly correlated with level of adjustment in chronically ill children. It has been found that, in some cases, chronically ill adolescents (in particular adolescent boys with diabetes) are more likely to display behavioral problems than younger children. However, age is not correlated with overall adjustment problems -- chronic illness, especially severe chronic illness, is likely to cause some kind of adjustment problem, whether it be behavioral acting-out or psychological distress. Choices B, C, and D have all been shown to be correlated with adjustment in chronically ill children -- adjustment is better the higher the level of parental support, the lower the level of parental marital distress, and the lower the level of brain involvement in the child's illness.

Question 96

96. According to the current research, the effects on children of observing aggressive models, such as through television violence, are a. short-term but not long-term. b. long-term but not short-term. c. both short-term and long-term. d. neither short-term nor long-term.

Answer 96

c. both short-term and long-term -- Research on the effects of television violence on children's behavior demonstrates that viewing aggressive models is associated with increased aggressive behavior. Moreover, these effects can be long-lasting; they have been observed in longitudinal studies lasting up to 22 years.

Question 97

97. Depression is often accompanied by memory deficits and other cognitive problems. Memory deficits most often involve: a. recall memory. b. recognition memory. c. implicit memory. d. recall and recognition memory but not implicit memory.

Answer 97

a. recall memory -- Memory impairment is one of the characteristics that is useful for distinguishing depression (pseudodementia) from dementia. In depression, recall memory is affected but recognition memory is not; in dementia, recall and recognition memory are both impaired.

Question 98

98. The behavioral technique known as flooding is based on the theoretical principle of a. reciprocal inhibition. b. covert desensitization. c. classical extinction. d. negative reinforcement.

Answer 98

c. classical extinction -- In flooding, the patient is exposed to a feared stimulus. The technique is based on the principle of classical extinction, which involves repeatedly presenting a conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus. The idea is that the fear developed through classical conditioning, or a pairing of a conditioned stimulus (the feared stimulus) and an unconditioned stimulus (a stimulus that naturally causes fear). For instance, a fear of dogs might have been developed through a pairing of a dog (the conditioned stimulus) and a frightening event associated with a dog, such as a dog bite (the unconditioned stimulus). Classical extinction involves "unpairing" the conditioned and the unconditioned stimulus -- for instance, repeatedly exposing the person to dogs that don't bite.

Question 99

99. Cognitive behavior therapy, compared to operant behavior treatments, has been found to be: a. less effective across most diagnostic categories. b. superior with more intelligent clients. c. approximately equally effective with all types of disorders. d. more effective with addictive disorders.

Answer 99

c. approximately equally effective with all types of disorders -- The question is about the research showing that all types of treatments are about equal with all types of disorders. Outside of Agoraphobia, Specific Phobias (including school phobia), and sometimes some physiological problems, such as enuresis, psychological treatments tend to be about equal in their efficacy.

Question 100

100. A managed care company asks a psychologist to conduct a study on the relative effectiveness of a 10-week therapy program for depression vs. a 20-week therapy program. The company plans to publish the results of the research if no significant difference is found but will not publish the results if the longer therapy program is more effective. The psychologist should: a. agree to conduct the study because it is within the company's rights to publish or not publish their research findings b. agree to conduct the study if the psychologist is able to approve any article submitted for publication c. agree to conduct the study only if all research participants are appropriately debriefed at the conclusion of the study d. refuse to conduct the study

Answer 100

d. refuse to conduct the study -- Ethical Standard 5.01 states, "Psychologists do not knowingly make public statements that are false, deceptive, or fraudulent, concerning their research, practice, or other work activities or those of persons or organizations with which they are affiliated." Although in this case the psychologist is asked not to publish data, this would still be deceptive. It also is inconsistent with General Principle A of the Ethics Code which states that, "psychologists seek to safeguard the welfare and rights of those with whom they interact professionally and other affected persons.... Because psychologists' scientific and professional judgments and actions may affect the lives of others, they are alert to and guard against personal, financial, social, organizational, or political factors that might lead to misuse of their influence."

Question 101

101. Which of the following is a non-stimulant medication that alleviates inattention and hyperactivity/impulsivity symptoms in AD/HD? a. methylphenidate b. atomoxetine c. pemoline d. dextroamphetamine

Answer 101

b. atomoxetine -- In November 2002, the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved a new medication called atomoxetine (Strattera) specifically for AD/HD. This medication is neither a stimulant nor an antidepressant. It alleviates inattention and hyperactivity/impulsivity symptoms of AD/HD by affecting specific aspects of the norepinephrine system. This medication is a reuptake inhibitor that acts on the neurotransmitter norepinephrine (which affects blood pressure and blood flow) in the same way that antidepressants act on the neurotransmitter seratonin, allowing the natural chemical to remain longer in the brain before being drawn back up. Because it is a non-stimulant, it may be less objectionable to some families. Nevertheless, it has similar side effects as other medications used for AD/HD. It is a prescription medication, but it is not a controlled substance like a stimulant. This allows medical professionals to give samples and to place refills on the prescriptions. It does not start working as quickly as the stimulants do. Reports suggest that the full effects are often not seen until the person has been taking atomoxetine regularly for 3 or 4 weeks. Methylphenidate (a.), i.e., Ritalin, Concerta, Metadate, pemoline (c.), i.e., Cylert (less commonly prescribed because it can cause liver damage), and dextroamphetamine (d.), i.e., Dexedrine, Dextrostat, along with amphetamines, i.e., Adderall are four main types of stimulants used for the treatment of AD/HD.

Question 102

102. Which of the following is true regarding sensory memory? a. It has a very limited capacity. b. It can hold information for up to 30 seconds. c. It is also referred to as primary memory. d. It is a representation of external stimuli.

Answer 102

d. It is a representation of external stimuli -- A sensory memory is a representation of an external stimulus after the stimulus has ended. Sensory memories are believed to be unprocessed copies of the original stimuli which briefly reside in the sensory organs. Sensory memory is thought to have an unlimited capacity but a very short duration (no more than 2 or 3 seconds). "Primary memory" (C) and "secondary memory" are terms originally used by William James and these later became known as "short-term memory" and "long-term memory."

Question 103

103. Which of the following best reflects the research findings on stepparenting? a. During late childhood and early adolescence males respond more positively to their stepfathers than do females. b. During late childhood and early adolescence females respond more positively to their stepfathers than do males. c. Stepfathers have more frequent contact with their stepchildren than do stepmothers. d. Stepparents most often utilize an authoritative parenting style.

Answer 103

a. During late childhood and early adolescence males respond more positively to their stepfathers than do females -- Most research has found that girls have more difficulty adjusting to their mother's remarriage than do boys. This is particularly the case during childhood and early adolescence. Older adolescent males, on the other hand, often continue to have problems with the adjustment. The reverse of choice C is true; that is, stepmothers typically have more frequent contact with their stepchildren than do stepfathers, although these interactions are often abrasive. And in contrast to choice D, stepparents have been found to rely heavily on authoritarian (rather than authoritative) parenting.

Question 104

104. A person whose corpus callosum has been severed will be able to do all of the following except a. name an object he cannot see but has felt with his left hand. b. say "spoon" when a picture of a spoon is flashed to his right visual field at the same time that a picture of a plate is flashed to his left visual field. c. use his left hand to find and match an object that appears in his left visual field. d. repeat a sentence that has been whispered into his right ear.

Answer 104

a. name an object he cannot see but has felt with his left hand -- Remember, the left side of the brain controls the functions of the right side of the body and, in most people, language. Keeping this in mind would have helped you pick the right answer to this question.

Question 105

105. According to the peripheralist theory of emotions, "we feel afraid because we tremble." This approach is reflected in which of the following theories? a. Cannon-Bard b. Lazarus-Schachter c. James-Lange d. Kuder-Richardson

Answer 105

c. James-Lange -- The James-Lange theory, one of the earliest theories of emotion, proposes that we feel after our body reacts (i.e., that we are sad because we cry).

Question 106

106. Jerome and Jamal have significant problems with their peers. However, while Jerome is rejected by his classmates, Jamal is neglected. If Jerome and Jamal change schools, which of the following is most likely to happen? a. Jerome may be better accepted by his new classmates but Jamal will continue to be neglected. b. Jamal may be better accepted by his new classmates but Jerome will continue to be rejected. c. Jerome and Jamal will both be better accepted by their new classmates. d. Jerome and Jamal will both continue to have the same peer problems they had in their old school.

Answer 106

b. Jamal may be better accepted by his new classmates but Jerome will continue to be rejected -- Studies looking at the outcomes for rejected and neglected children have found that rejection is more stable than neglect. For example, when rejected and neglected change schools, neglected children may experience improvements in their peer status, while rejected children continue to be rejected by the new peer group.

Question 107

107. Research by Laurence Steinberg, Sanford Dornbusch and their colleagues on the relationship between parenting style and academic achievement has revealed that a. the positive impact of authoritative parenting applies to children but not adolescents. b. the positive impact of authoritative parenting applies to adolescents regardless of gender, socioeconomic status, or race. c. the positive impact of authoritative parenting may apply less to African-American adolescents than to European, Asian, and Hispanic adolescents. d. the positive impact of authoritative parenting applies to adolescents and seems to be due primarily to parents' encouragement of academic excellence.

Answer 107

c. the positive impact of authoritative parenting may apply less to African-American adolescents than to European, Asian, and Hispanic adolescents. - Authoritative parenting has been linked to many positive outcomes for both children and adolescents including better academic performance. However, the effects of authoritative parenting seem to be moderated by race. Steinberg and his colleagues found that, even though African-American parents often adopt an authoritative style, the academic performance of their adolescents is influenced more by peers and, therefore, has less of an effect. These investigators also found that, overall, parents' involvement in their youngster's schooling is more important than their encouragement of academic excellence. See, for example, L. Steinberg et al., Impact of parenting practices on adolescent achievement: Authoritative parenting, school involvement, and encouragement to succeed, Child Development, 1992, 63, 1266-1281.

Question 108

108. A selection test that has a validity coefficient of .50 will have the greatest incremental validity when: a. the selection ratio is .95 and the base rate is .20 b. the selection ratio is .95 and the base rate is .50 c. the selection ratio is .05 and the base rate is .20 d. the selection ratio is .05 and the base rate is .50

Answer 108

d. the selection ratio is .05 and the base rate is .50 -- Information on a test’s incremental validity for differing combinations of base rates, selection ratios, and validity coefficients is provided by the Taylor-Russell tables. Decision-making accuracy can improve on a test with a low or moderate validity coefficient when the selection ratio is low (e.g., .05) and the base rate is moderate (near .50).

Question 109

109. In brief psychodynamically-oriented therapy: a. positive transferences are encouraged and are viewed as essential to treatment progress. b. positive and negative transferences are encouraged early in treatment to ensure that a transference neurosis develops. c. positive and negative transferences are both discouraged because of the here-and-now focus of the treatment. d. negative transferences are encouraged because they are more likely than positive transferences to produce useful information for interpretation.

Answer 109

a. positive transferences are encouraged and are viewed as essential to treatment progress. -- Brief and long-term psychodynamic psychotherapy share a number of characteristics. A primary difference is that, in brief psychotherapy, a full-scale transference neurosis is discouraged. However, positive transference is seen as an important contributor to therapy progress.

Question 110

110. Which of the following best describes universality of the transactional-transformational leadership theory? a. universality has been observed in a wide range of organizations within Western culture. b. universality has been observed in a wide range of organizations and cultures c. universality has been observed in business and government organizations within Western culture. d. universality has been observed in business and government organizations in a wide range of cultures.

Answer 110

b. universality has been observed in a wide range of organizations and cultures -- Research indicates the transactional-transformational leadership paradigm transcends organizational and national boundaries. The same relationships and conception of phenomena can be observed in a wide range of cultures and organizations. Studies of organizations such as business, education, the military, the government, and the private sector have provided evidence supporting universality across a variety of organizations. The applicability of the paradigm has also received evidence of wide support internationally in most continents. Unusual attributes of the organizations or cultures have been indicated as the source of exceptions to the universality of the leadership paradigm. (See: Bass, Bernard M. (1997). Does the transactional-transformational leadership paradigm transcend organizational and national boundaries? American Psychologist, 52(2),130-139.)

Question 111

111. Primary memory is the same as a. implicit memory. b. short-term memory. c. procedural memory. d. episodic memory.

Answer 111

b. short-term memory -- Primary memory is another term for short-term memory. On the other hand, the terms secondary and long-term memory are also often used interchangeably. Implicit memory (answer A) is an unconscious, nonintentional form of memory. Procedural memory (answer C) is memory of how to do certain activities, for example, driving a car, while episodic memory (answer D) is the memory of a particular episode, such as your last birthday.

Question 112

112. The best way to increase the intra-rater reliability of a test that is subjectively scored would be to a. train raters to pay very close attention to the scoring of the test. b. have a second set of raters rescore the test. c. use mutually exclusive and exhaustive rating categories. d. ensure that the rating instrument is correlated with multiple criterion measures.

Answer 112

a. train raters to pay very close attention to the scoring of the test. -- Note that this question is asking about intra-rater reliability, not inter-rater reliability. The prefix "intra" means the same thing it means in other contexts (e.g., intra-psychic): inside or internal. Thus, the question is asking you how to increase the internal consistency of a rating instrument. Of the choices listed, the only one which makes sense is to train the raters to pay more attention to what they are doing. If they pay closer attention, they are less likely to score the test inconsistently. Incidentally, mutually exclusive and exhaustive rating categories (choice C) are useful for increasing the inter-rater reliability of a test.

Question 113

113. Which of the following is true regarding Klinefelter's Syndrome? a. It occurs only in males b. It occurs only in females c. It typically results in severe to profound mental retardation d. Its symptoms are preventable with dietary restrictions

Answer 113

a. It occurs only in males -- Klinefelter's Syndrome only affects males and is caused by an extra X chromosome (XXY). Males with this disorder have typical masculine interests in childhood and develop a normal male identity, but they show an incomplete development of secondary sex characteristics and are often sterile. Klinefelter's does not typically cause severe mental retardation, although most experience some degree of impairment in language and some do have mild mental retardation [R. Bock, Understanding Klinefelter Syndrome: A guide for XXY males and their families (NIH Pub. No. 93-3202), August 1993, Retrieved from http://www.genetic.org/ks/scvs/KS_NIH.htm]. Finally, while some "XXY males" do not develop the syndrome, Klinefelter's is not believed to be preventable through diet. The symptoms of phenylketonuria (PKU), on the other hand, are preventable through a diet low in phenylalanine.

Question 114

114. According to Donald Super, job choice, job satisfaction, and life satisfaction are predicated on: a. the self-concept. b. personality traits. c. early childhood experience. d. biological factors.

Answer 114

a. the self-concept. -- Donald Super developed a comprehensive theory of vocational development. According to the theory, individuals choose occupations that are consistent with their self-concept, which develops in a predictable sequence of stages. Job satisfaction and life satisfaction are both a function of the degree to which one's activities are consistent with the self-concept.

Question 115

115. The effectiveness of Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR) in the treatment of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder is due to: a. exposure to anxiety-provoking stimuli b. changes in the functioning of the brain due to lateral eye movement stimulation c. unconditional positive regard d. placebo effect

Answer 115

a. exposure to anxiety-provoking stimuli -- Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR) is a controversial therapeutic technique which combines techniques from cognitive-behavioral and other treatment approaches with lateral eye movements. Clients receiving EMDR are asked to recall anxiety-provoking memories and are then instructed to track the therapists' fingers which are moved from side to side. This process is repeated until the clients' anxiety is extinguished. Although Francine Shapiro, the developer of the technique, originally proposed that the bilateral eye movements accelerate the reprocessing of traumatic memories, a meta-analysis of 34 studies indicated that the eye movement component did not contribute to the effectiveness of EMDR. Rather, it appears that the element of exposure is responsible for its effects. The meta-analysis did find EMDR to be more effective than no-treatment or non-exposure treatments; however, it was no more effective than other exposure techniques. (P. R. Davidson, & K. C. Parker, Eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR): A meta-analysis. Journal of Consulting and Clinical Psychology, 2001, 69(2), 305-316).

Question 116

116. Which of the following would be used to determine how well an examinee did on a test in terms of a specific standard of performance? a. norm-referenced interpretation b. criterion-referenced interpretation c. domain-referenced interpretation d. objectives-referenced interpretation

Answer 116

b. criterion-referenced interpretation -- There are several ways an examinee’s test score can be interpreted. In this question, a criterion-referenced interpretation, an examinee’s test performance is interpreted in terms of an external criterion, or standard of performance. In a norm-referenced interpretation (a.), an examinee’s test performance is compared to the performance of members of the norm group (other people who have taken the test). Domain-referenced interpretation is used to determine how much of a specific knowledge domain the examinee has mastered (c.). Objectives-referenced interpretation (d.) involves interpreting an examinee’s performance in terms of achievement of instructional objectives.

Question 117

117. Differential prediction is one of the causes of test unfairness and occurs when: a. members of one group obtain lower scores on a selection test than members of another group, but the difference in scores is not reflected in their scores on measures of job performance b. a rater’s knowledge of ratees’ performance on the predictor biases his/her ratings of ratees’ performance on the criterion c. a predictor’s validity coefficient differs for different groups d. a test has differential validity

Answer 117

a. members of one group obtain lower scores on a selection test than members of another group, but the difference in scores is not reflected in their scores on measures of job performance -- As described in the Federal Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection, differential prediction is a potential cause of test unfairness. Differential prediction occurs when the use of scores on a selection test systematically over- or under-predict the job performance of members of one group as compared to members of another group. Criterion contamination occurs when a rater’s knowledge of ratees’ performance on the predictor biases his/her ratings of ratees’ performance on the criterion (b.). Differential validity, also a possible cause of adverse impact, occurs when a predictor’s validity coefficient differs for different groups (c.). When a test has differential validity (d.), there is a slope bias. Slope bias refers to differences in the slope of the regression line.

Question 118

118. According to Marlatt and Gordon, which of the following most increases the chance of relapse in a substance abuser? a. life changes b. negative affects c. physiological cravings d. decreased treatment durations due to the limits set by managed care companies

Answer 118

b. negative affects -- Marlatt and Gordon are best known for their Relapse Prevention Therapy which views substance dependence as a collection of maladaptive over-learned habits. According to their research, nearly 75% of all relapses are due to negative affects, interpersonal conflict, and social pressure.

Question 119

119. From the perspective of rational emotive therapy (RET), emotional disturbances are maintained primarily by a. self-indoctrination. b. environmental consequences. c. social pressure. d. denial.

Answer 119

a. self-indoctrination -- Ellis, the founder of RET, viewed behavioral disorders as stemming from both biological predisposition and early life experiences but argued that their maintenance was due primarily to self-indoctrination. Specifically, during early childhood, children tend to internalize the critical attitude of their parents and then perpetuate that attitude as they grow older.

Question 120

120. When an impulsive group decision that reflects an incomplete consideration of alternatives and consequences is the result of high stress, high group cohesiveness, and a directive leader, this is an example of: a. groupthink. b. group polarization. c. the risky shirt. d. the Rosenthal effect.

Answer 120

a. groupthink -- Although group polarization and the risky shift also refer to poor decision-making, their antecedents have not been as well-defined as those associated with groupthink (i.e., only groupthink has been linked theoretically and empirically to an incomplete consideration of alternatives and consequences, high group cohesiveness, etc.).

Question 121

121. With respect to productivity, cohesive groups are associated with: a. low levels of productivity for the group b. high levels of productivity for the group c. higher levels of productivity for the group only when management is supportive d. higher levels of productivity for the group only when management is hostile or indifferent

Answer 121

c. higher levels of productivity for the group only when management is supportive -- High group cohesiveness has positive and negative consequences. In terms of productivity, the relationship between group cohesiveness and group productivity is affected by several moderator variables. One of which is management supportiveness. High management support is associated with high levels of productivity for cohesive groups, while management hostility is associated with low productivity for cohesive groups. (See: A. Tziner and Y. Vardi, Effects of command style and group cohesiveness on the performance effectiveness of self-selected tank crews, Journal of Applied Psychology, 1982, 67, 769-775.)

Question 122

122. A percentage score, as opposed to a percentile rank, is based on: a. Total number of items b. An examinee's score in comparison to other examinee's scores c. That there are one hundred test items d. The number of items answered correctly

Answer 122

d. The number of items answered correctly -- A percentage score indicates the number of items answered correctly. A percentile rank compares one examinee's score with all other examinee's scores.

Question 123

123. For the WISC-III, which of the following would have the lowest reliability? a. Verbal IQ score b. Performance IQ score c. subtest scores d. Verbal-Performance difference score

Answer 123

d. Verbal-Performance difference score -- If you take a difference between two scores, you are, obviously, using two measures. Since each is less than 100% reliable, you are going to compound the total error variance (i.e., the total unreliability). The error contained in both tests would exist in the difference score. Thus, using two measures which are less than perfectly reliable, you will end up with a score which is less reliable than either of the two you started with.

Question 124

124. Performance can be viewed as a function of: a. motivation and interest. b. satisfaction and motivation. c. ability and satisfaction. d. ability and motivation.

Answer 124

d. ability and motivation. -- The "classic" performance equation is P = f{A X M}, which means that performance is a function of ability and motivation. Research has suggested that ability is more important in this equation than motivation, and that other factors (e.g., environmental factors) also play a role in performance. However, contrary to the other choices, neither interest nor satisfaction has been found to be highly correlated with performance.

Question 125

125. The WAIS-III measures working memory with which of the following subtests? a. matrix reasoning b. block design c. arithmetic d. digit symbol-coding

Answer 125

c. arithmetic -- The arithmetic subtest along with the digit span subtest and letter-number sequencing subtest are used as measures of the Working Memory Factor. Matrix reasoning (answer A) and block design (answer B) are part of the Perceptual Organization Factor. Digit-symbol coding (answer D) is included in the Perceptual Speed Factor.

Question 126

126. A lab subject heard a woman in the next lab fall and cry for help. In this "lady in distress" experiment, a person was least likely to help when tested with: a. no others present. b. a stranger. c. a passive confederate. d. a friend.

Answer 126

c. a passive confederate. -- The subject is most likely to rush to aid someone in distress when all alone in the lab; less likely when there is a stranger or a friend in the room; and least likely when there is a passive confederate in the same room who has been instructed to ignore the whole thing. There is no "diffusion of responsibility" or "pluralistic ignorance" when the subject is alone.

Question 127

127. Research has found that Mexican-American children begin to accurately apply ethnic labels to themselves and others between: a. 3 and 4 years b. 5 and 9 years c. 7 and 12 years d. 10 and 15 years

Answer 127

b. 5 and 9 years -- Children's ethnic perspective-taking ability (EPTA) has been evaluated and described in several stages. In the first stage, which develops between 3 and 4 years, children can begin to describe ethnicity in terms of physical traits (e.g. skin color, clothes, physical features); however, it is not until the next stage, which occurs between 5 and 9 years, can they accurately apply ethnic labels to themselves and others. In the following stage, from 7-12 years, children express a social perspective of ethnicity, including prejudice. And between 10 and 15 years they begin to immerse themselves into their ethnic group. [S.M. Quintana, V.C. Ybarra, P. Gonzalez-Doupe, & Y. DeBaessa, Cross-Cultural Evaluation of Ethnic Perspective-Taking Ability: An Exploratory Investigation With U.S. Latino and Guatemalan Ladino Children. Cultural Diversity and Ethnic Minority Psychology, 2000, 6 (4), 334-351].

Question 128

128. The APA’s position on notification of partners of clients/patients with HIV/AIDS is consistent with its emphasis on: a. duty to protect b. confidentiality c. informed consent d. protection from civil or criminal liability

Answer 128

b. confidentiality -- The American Psychological Association’s position on partner notification is consistent with the emphasis on maintaining client confidentiality. Specifically, it recommends “a legal duty to protect third parties from HIV infection should not be imposed.” In its statement, Legal Liability Related to confidentiality and the Prevention of HIV Transmission, the APA (1991) also addresses the possibility of such legislation passing and recommends disclosure should be permitted only when (1) there is a known identifiable third party at significant risk for infection; (2) the third party is unaware of the risk; (3) the client has been urged to tell the partner and has refused to do so; and (4) the psychologist is protected legally from civil or criminal liability for disclosing.

Question 129

129. The cause of anxiety is often a. misunderstood fear. b. flat affect. c. anger turned inward. d. depression.

Answer 129

a. misunderstood fear -- Anxiety is sometimes defined as a fear that is not understood by the individual.

Question 130

130. A child has been assigned a new legal guardian. His biological parents had a psychological evaluation completed and had received the results. The new legal guardian is requesting a copy of the report. What is the most correct thing to do? a. Get a signed release from the biological parents b. Provide the legal guardian with a copy of the report c. Send the report to the court mediator d. Keep the evaluation on file until the child is emancipated; then forward to him

Answer 130

b. Provide the legal guardian with a copy of the report -- As legal guardian he or she has the right to a copy of the report. The key term is "legal". A court has determined legal access in this case so you as the psychologist only need to be guided by the law.

Question 131

131. An infant is least likely to experience emotional distress due to being separated from his or her parents if the infant is between the ages of: a. 0-8 months. b. 8-12 months. c. 12-16 months. d. 16-24 months.

Answer 131

a. 0-8 months -- Separation anxiety typically has its onset at 8 months of age, rises dramatically until the age of 18 months, and then gradually falls off until it becomes negligible between the ages of 24-36 months. Babies between the ages of 0-8 months do not typically protest when separated from their primary caretakers, even though a number of attachment behaviors develop during this time.

Question 132

132. In the multitrait-multimethod matrix, a low heterotrait-monomethod coefficient would indicate: a. low convergent validity. b. low divergent validity. c. high convergent validity. d. high divergent validity.

Answer 132

d. high divergent validity -- Use of a multitrait-multimethod matrix is one method of assessing a test's construct validity. The matrix contains correlations among different tests that measure both the same and different traits using similar and different methodologies. The heterotrait-monomethod coefficient, one of the correlation coefficients that would appear on this matrix, reflects the correlation between two tests that measure different traits using similar methods. An example might be the correlation between a test of depression based on self-report data and a test of anxiety also based on self-report data. If a test has good divergent validity, this correlation would be low. Divergent validity is the degree to which a test has a low correlation with other tests that do not measure the same construct. Using the above example, a test of depression would have good divergent validity if it had a low correlation with other tests that purportedly measure different traits, such as anxiety. This would be evidence that the depression test is not measuring traits that are unrelated to depression.

Question 133

133. Which of the following techniques would be most useful for combining test scores when poor performance on one test can be offset by excellent performance on another: a. multiple baseline b. multiple hurdle c. multiple regression d. multiple cutoff

Answer 133

c. multiple regression -- Multiple regression is the preferred technique for combining test scores in this situation as it is a compensatory technique since a low score on one test can be offset (compensated for) by high scores on other tests. Multiple baseline (a.) is a research design, not a method for combining test scores. Multiple hurdle (b.) and multiple cutoff (d.) are noncompensatory techniques.

Question 134

134. A class designed to teach senior citizens how to avoid financial scams, led by former con artists, would be considered: a. primary prevention b. secondary prevention c. tertiary prevention d. rehabilitative consultation

Answer 134

a. primary prevention -- The key issue in these prevention questions is not the age of the target population, but rather, whether or not they already have the identified problem, and if so, whether it's in an early stage (secondary prevention) or full-blown (tertiary prevention). Since the question did not indicate that these senior citizens have already been victims of financial scams, this class would be considered primary prevention. Primary prevention is aimed at preventing problems before they occur in the first place by targeting high risk groups.

Question 135

135. The ratio of Major Depressive Disorder in females to males is approximately a. 1:1. b. 2.5:1. c. 5:1. d. 1:2.

Answer 135

b. 2.5:1 -- Estimates of the female to male Major Depression rate range from 2:1 to 3:1. Thus, 2.5:1 is the best answer to this question.

Question 136

136. You are completing a court-ordered evaluation in order to determine the person's competency to stand trial and during the administration of the MMPI-2 your client jumps out of his seat and shouts "OK, OK, I killed her!" Now you are a. obligated to include this information in your report; it is a court-ordered report. b. obligated to include this information; privilege is waived because the mental status is part of the defense. c. obligated to include this information; privilege is waived because you know have a Tarasoff situation. d. not obligated to include the confessional information.

Answer 136

d. not obligated to include the confessional information -- Since the question does not indicate that the client has waived consent, the law protects the defendant at this juncture. He is protected by laws that prohibit the use of evaluation data to determine the defendant's guilt. The best course of action is to not include any incriminating evidence in the competency report, but instead only information relevant to the defendant's competence (G.B. Melton, Psychological Evaluations for the Court, New York, Guilford, 1987).

Question 137

137. A researcher advertises for subjects for an experiment on social facilitation. In the ad, she mentions that the subjects will be paid to participate. According to accepted standards of research with human subjects, this is a. ethical, because it isn't prohibited. b. unethical, because it is prohibited in the ethics. c. unethical, because advertising for subjects in the popular press is prohibited. d. ethical, because paying subjects is encouraged.

Answer 137

a. ethical, because it isn't prohibited -- Paying subjects to participate in research is not unethical, as long as no coercion is involved.

Question 138

138. Michael has a high-pressure legal career that involves frequent altercations with opposing counsel and ongoing stress. He commonly reacts to the stress of anger by clenching his teeth and generally tensing up. His therapist suggests biofeedback and would most likely recommend which type of biofeedback? a. EDR b. EEG c. EMG d. HRV

Answer 138

c. EMG -- Biofeedback is the process of identifying physiological variables, or responses, for the purpose of helping an individual develop greater sensory awareness and is achieved by using electronic instrumentation to monitor responses then providing the information to the individual to improve their physiological control of responding. Electromyogram (EMG) biofeedback, measures impulses in the muscles and indicates the degree of relaxation or contraction/tension. It is commonly used for conditions such as stress, tension headaches, chronic pain, muscle stiffness, incontinence, urinary urgency and frequency, and when muscles are healing. Electrodermal response (EDR) biofeedback (a.), also referred to as galvinic skin response training (GSR), measures skin surface changes, giving feedback on the relation between emotional state and the activity of the sympathetic system via sweat gland activity, and is utilized for stress and hyperhidrosis (excessive sweating). Electroencephalogram (EEG) or neurofeedback (b.) provides information on brainwave activity and patterns. It is often used in the treatment of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, depression, and epilepsy to improve attention, reduce impulsivity and promote recovery from head injuries and strokes. Heart rate variability (HRV), sometimes referred to as electrocardiogram (ECG), biofeedback (d.) monitors heart rate and cardiac reactivity from sensors placed on a person’s fingers or wrist. It is useful for managing stress, high blood pressure, anxiety, and heartbeat irregularities. Other recognized types of biofeedback include: thermal or skin temperature (ST) biofeedback, which involves skin temperature and blood flow control; Respiratory Feedback (RFB), which involves control of breathing type and frequency; and Respiratory Sinus Arrhythmia (RSA); which involves the synchronous control of heart rate and respiration, in which there is a small rise in heart rate during inhalation and a corresponding decrease during exhalation. Depending on the reason for biofeedback, more than one type is often used. For example in this question, Michael might also use EDR to control his general stress response in addition to EMD to control the muscle tensing and teeth clenching responses. Behavioral skills training such as relaxation training, guided imagery and stress-coping techniques are also frequently used in addition to the actual biofeedback.

Question 139

139. Several demographic characteristics are associated with the risk of divorce. According to the National Survey of Family Growth (2002), divorce rates are highest for women who: a. have a higher level of education and marry at a younger age b. have a lower level of education and marry at a younger age c. have a higher level of education and marry at an older age d. have a lower level of education and marry at an older age

Answer 139

b. have a lower level of education and marry at a younger age -- The likelihood of a marriage ending in divorce varies based on age at marriage, income, education, length of marriage, race and other factors distinguished in the National Survey of Family Growth. The survey data indicates that rates of divorce are highest for women who marry at a younger age, have a lower level of education, had a child when she got married, have a lower income or live in a community with low family income, or have no religious affiliation. (See: Bramlett, M.D. & Mosher, W.D. (2002) Cohabitation, Marriage, Divorce, and Remarriage in the United States. National Center for Health Statistics. Vital Health Statistics, 23(22).)

Question 140

140. Your client is terminating your psychological services by mutual agreement after two years. She's going to be married the following May and would like you to be one of her wedding attendants. You should a. explain to her that the two of you should have no further contact. b. accept; but under condition that you participate in the wedding only and no other type of friendship can be pursued. c. explain that you cannot have a friendship with her until two years have passed. d. decline the invitation; explaining that this would be a multiple relationship.

Answer 140

d. decline the invitation; explaining that this would be a multiple relationship -- The best solution in regard to the ethical standards is to avoid multiple relationships. It is possible that your client could need therapeutic services again and if you become her friend, you will no longer be able to offer her that option.

Question 141

141. Baumrind in 1964 indicated that whose study was unethical? a. Bandura’s b. Zimbardo’s c. Milgram’s d. Harlow’s

Answer 141

c. Milgram’s -- Baumrind wrote the article, "Some thoughts on the ethics of research: After reading Milgram's behavioral study of obedience." American Psychologist 19 421-423. Milgram's study would be considered unethical today as would Zimbardo's. It is also doubtful that parents would be keen on having their children watch and imitate aggressive models, and the animal rights people would object to Harry Harlow's techniques.

Question 142

142. When developing a treatment plan for a client with a Specific Phobia, it is important to keep in mind that a. exposure in vivo and exposure in imagination are about equally effective as long as exposure sessions are sufficiently long in duration. b. the effectiveness of exposure is increased, especially with regard to long-term effects, when it is used in conjunction with cognitive techniques. c. for some Specific Phobias (e.g., dental and animal phobias), two to four sessions are often useful for significantly reducing phobic reactions in many people. d. systematic desensitization has recently been found to be more effective than prolonged exposure treatments, especially in terms of reducing the risk for relapse.

Answer 142

c. for some Specific Phobias (e.g., dental and animal phobias), two to four sessions are often useful for significantly reducing phobic reactions in many people -- Exposure is currently considered the best intervention for most (if not all) Anxiety Disorders. However, the best way of exposing clients to stimuli that elicit anxiety depends on the particular disorder. For Specific Phobia, brief in vivo exposure is effective for many clients, and adding a cognitive component usually does not improve the effects of the intervention substantially.

Question 143

143. According to Atkinson, Sue, and Sue, the ideal outcome of racial/cultural identity development is a. full acceptance of one's own culture. b. giving individual identity priority over cultural identity. c. recognizing that all cultures have acceptable and unacceptable aspects. d. recognizing the impact of racial/cultural oppression on one's mental health.

Answer 143

c. recognizing that all cultures have acceptable and unacceptable aspects -- The final stage in Atkinson et al.'s racial/cultural identity development model is referred to as the "integrative awareness stage." Individuals in this stage recognize that all cultures have both positive and negative aspects and decide which aspects they want to accept or reject.

Question 144

144. Cross's (1991) Black Racial (Nigresence) Identity Development Model includes the stage called Pre-Encounter. At this stage an African-American prefers a therapist a. of their own race. b. of the Caucasian race. c. of a minority group; but not African-American. d. that is African, but not American.

Answer 144

b. of the Caucasian race -- Cross's Identity Development Model includes four stages. The first stage is Pre-encounter in which whites are seen as the ideal, while African Americans are denigrated. The second stage or Encounter stage leads to an interest in developing an African-American identity and a preference for a therapist of one's own race. The third stage (Immersion/Emersion) involves a struggle between old and emerging ideas about race. There is an initial idealization of African-Americans and a denigrating of whites. Toward the end of this stage the person becomes less emotionally immersed and moves toward internalization of a new identity. In the fourth and final stage (Internalization/Commitment), the individual adopts an African-American world view.

Question 145

145. Which of the following is NOT true regarding a variable ratio schedule of reinforcement? a. It generates a high and constant rate of responding. b. It produces behaviors that are the most resistant to extinction. c. The relationship between the behavior and reinforcement is unpredictable. d. It produces the "scallop effect," with a decreased rate of response following reinforcement.

Answer 145

d. It produces the "scallop effect," with a decreased rate of response following reinforcement -- In the variable ratio schedule, reinforcement occurs after a variable number of responses. The variable ratio has been found to result in a high and constant rate of response (A) and, compared to the other schedules of reinforcement, the responses are the most resistant to extinction (B). Since it is a variable schedule, the relationship between the behavior and reinforcement is unpredictable (C), which contributes to the above characteristics. However, the scallop effect (D), in which the response rate drops after each reinforcement and increases just before reinforcement is due, is characteristic of fixed schedules, especially the fixed interval schedule.

Question 146

146. The questions on the Mini-Mental Status Exam concentrate on: a. abnormal mental experiences b. cognitive aspects of mental functions c. the form of thinking d. mood or affective aspects of mental functions

Answer 146

b. cognitive aspects of mental functions -- The Mini-Mental Status Exam (MMSE) is a simplified, scored form of the cognitive mental status examination. It is "mini" because it concentrates only on the cognitive aspects of mental functions, and unlike the Mental Status Exam, excludes questions concerning abnormal mental experiences (a.), the form of thinking (c.) and mood (d.). It is thorough within the cognitive realm assessing orientation, memory, attention and calculation, registration and language. The MMSE includes eleven questions, requires only 5-10 minutes to administer and is practical to use serially and routinely. It is especially useful for elderly patients, particularly those with delirium or dementia syndromes, or those who can cooperate well only for short periods.

Question 147

147. Slot machines provide reinforcement on a(n) ________ schedule. a. variable interval b. variable ratio c. fixed interval d. fixed ratio

Answer 147

b. variable ratio -- When playing the slot machines, reinforcement depends on the number of times you play, with that number varying from reinforcement to reinforcement. Sometimes you "win" after 8 plays, sometimes after 12, and so on. This is a variable ratio schedule.

Question 148

148. The onset of sexual maturation in boys under 9 years old or girls under 7 years old is related to activation of the: a. adrenal cortex b. thyroid gland c. hypothalamic-pituitary axis d. mesocorticolimbic-dopaminergic axis

Answer 148

c. hypothalamic-pituitary axis -- Both normal and premature sexual maturation is due to activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis (also known simply as the hypothalamic-pituitary axis). However, this system is activated prematurely in precocious puberty. Precocious puberty is defined as any sign of secondary sexual characteristics in boys younger than 9 years old, or in girls younger than 7 years old. Precocious puberty is estimated to occur in 1 in 5,000 to 1 in 10,000 children. The adrenal cortex (A) is mostly associated with the stress hormone cortisol, which converts energy stores into glucose for fuel. The thyroid gland (B) is related to regulation of overall metabolic rate. And the mesocorticolimbic-dopaminergic axis is considered the brain's reward pathway, which is critical in the reinforcing effects of drug abuse.

Question 149

149. You are investigating whether there is a relationship between the number of years one has been smoking cigarettes and the number of psychotherapy sessions required to quit smoking. The best statistical method to analyze the results is: a. chi-square b. Pearson r c. t-test for independent samples d. multiple regression analysis

Answer 149

b. Pearson r -- In this case, you are attempting to assess the relationship between two variables that are measured on a continuous (interval or ratio) scale. The Pearson r allows you to do this. The Pearson r is the bivariate (i.e., for two variables) correlation coefficient used when variables are measured on an interval or ratio scale.

Question 150

150. Which of the following statements is not contained in APA's Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct? a. “the purely private conduct of psychologists ... is not within the purview of the Ethics Code. b. “This Ethics Code ... has as its goals the welfare and protection of the individuals and groups with whom psychologists work ..." c. “The fact that a given conduct is not specifically addressed by an Ethical Standard does not mean that it is necessarily either ethical or unethical.” d. “A violation of the Ethics Code usually means ... that a psychologist will be legally liable in a court action or face other legal consequences.”

Answer 150

d. “A violation of the Ethics Code usually means ... that a psychologist will be legally liable in a court action or face other legal consequences.” -- To answer this question, you didn't need to have had the Ethics Code memorized. All you needed was a good understanding of what the Code is all about. Choice D is not part of the Ethics Code, since ethical and legal standards, even though they sometimes overlap, are distinct, with the Ethics Code often holding psychologists to more stringent standards. In fact, the Code states that "whether or not a psychologist has violated the Ethics Code does not by itself determine whether he or she is legally liable in a court action."

Question 151

151. Goal setting as a motivational technique is most effective when: a. performance goals are difficult and specific feedback is provided regarding progress toward the goal b. performance goals are difficult and general feedback is provided regarding progress toward the goal c. performance goals are easy and specific feedback is provided regarding progress toward the goal d. performance goals are easy and general feedback is provided regarding progress toward the goal

Answer 151

a. performance goals are difficult and specific feedback is provided regarding progress toward the goal -- The technique of goal setting involves allowing workers to set their own performance goals, or setting performance goals for them that they accept. Research on goal-setting theory indicates that the technique is most effective when goals are at least moderately difficult and specific feedback regarding progress toward the goal is provided.

Question 152

152. According to the DSM-IV-TR, which of the following is related to exposure to sexual abuse, sexual harassment or sexual trauma? a. Gender Identity Disorder b. Dyspareunia c. Female Orgasmic Disorder d. Vaginismus

Answer 152

d. Vaginismus -- While Vaginismus (which involves involuntary contractions of the muscles in the outer third of the vagina when vaginal penetration is attempted) doesn’t have a clear etiology, evidence suggests that sexual trauma may precede the disorder’s onset. In addition to this association, the DSM-IV-TR states it is more common in younger women and in women with negative attitudes toward sex.

Question 153

153. The risk of sampling error is greatest when a: a. sample size is small b. test has low reliability c. test has low validity d. confounding variable exists

Answer 153

a. sample size is small -- Sampling error is the extent to which a sample value deviates from the corresponding population value which it is supposed to represent. Thus, the smaller the sample size, the greater the risk of sampling error. You should have been able to eliminate reliability ("B") and validity ("C"), since those are characteristics of a test – which is not applied until after the sampling procedure. Sampling error, as it's name implies, takes place during the sampling or selection of subjects. A confounding variable ("D"), is a variable that is not of interest in a study but which exerts a systematic effect on the DV. Thus it would threaten the internal validity of a test but it is not related to sampling error.

Question 154

154. After reading a best-selling book on parenting, a mother decides to stop using all forms of punishment on her child. By following her self-imposed rule, when her child misbehaves the mother could only continue to: a. send the child to time-out, which previously resulted in an improvement in the child's behavior b. spank the child, which previously led to additional misbehavior c. yell "STOP!," which caused the child to discontinue misbehaving for a short period of time d. gently explain to the child why his behaviors are inappropriate, which previously resulted in an improvement in the child's behavior

Answer 154

b. spank the child, which previously led to additional misbehavior -- This question requires you to have a clear understanding of the definitions of reinforcement and punishment. "Reinforcement" always increases the frequency or likelihood of the targeted response. "Punishment" always decreases the frequency or likelihood of the targeted response. "Positive" means that a stimulus is applied, and "negative" means that a stimulus is removed. Choice A is an example of negative punishment because time-out involves the removal of normal activities and because it previously decreased the misbehavior. Choice C involved the application of a stimulus (yelling "Stop!"); thus it is positive, and it resulted in a decreased frequency of the misbehavior, and therefore, it is also a form of punishment. Choice D involves the application of attention; thus it is positive and because it reduces the frequency of the misbehavior, it would also be a form of punishment. Ironically, only Choice B would be permitted by the mother's self-imposed rule because the spanking has resulted in further misbehavior; thus, it would be considered a reinforcement procedure. It would also be positive, because it involves the application of a stimulus.

Question 155

155. A colleague of yours is interested in studying the effects of aging on IQ scores. He consults with you for some ideas regarding how to proceed with this research. Which of the following types of research designs would you recommend? a. longitudinal b. cross-sectional c. cross-sequential d. multiple baseline

Answer 155

c. cross-sequential -- The colleague is interested in conducting developmental research, in which the effects of development (e.g., aging) on a dependent variable (in this case, IQ scores) are investigated. Longitudinal, cross-sectional, and cross-sequential are all types of developmental research designs. Of these, cross-sequential research is the strongest from a scientific point of view. Cross-sequential research is a combination of cross-sectional and longitudinal research. In cross-sequential research, as in cross-sectional research, subjects are divided into age groups (e.g., young, middle-aged, and old). And, as in longitudinal research, subjects are assessed repeatedly on the dependent variable over time. Because cross-sequential research combines the methodology of the two strategies, it is not associated with the limitations of one or the other.

Question 156

156. According to current research, an effective treatment for panic attacks is a. antimanic drugs. b. anticonvulsant drugs. c. antipsychotic drugs. d. antidepressant drugs.

Answer 156

d. antidepressant drugs. -- Antidepressants have been shown to be effective in treating panic attacks.

Question 157

157. An external locus of control and internal locus of responsibility are characteristic of: a. a self-confident person b. a hostile person c. a depressed person d. most minorities

Answer 157

c. a depressed person -- The locus of control/locus of responsibility model adds another element to the learned helplessness model in regards to depression. As you know, the learned helplessness model views depressed people as making internal, stable, and global attributions to negative events. However, the "internal" factor in the helplessness model refers only to locus of responsibility. As seen in the cognitive distortion called "personalization," a depressed person uses an internal locus of responsibility to blame him or herself for negative events. Paradoxically, depressed people also feel a lack of control over events, that is, they have an external locus of control – seeing external factors such as fate, luck, or other people as the cause of what happens to them. A self-confident person (A) is most likely to have an internal locus of control and responsibility. A hostile person (B) is more likely to blame others, that is, would have an external locus of responsibility. And, contrary to D, only marginalized minorities are likely to have an external locus of control and an internal locus of responsibility.

Question 158

158. The "slippery slope" argument suggests therapist-patient sexual relationships result from: a. nonsexual boundary crossings and violations b. confusion about the definition of dual relationships and how to address them c. personal characteristics or life circumstances of the therapist d. previous sexual relation with therapist, supervisor or educator

Answer 158

a. nonsexual boundary crossings and violations -- The “slippery slope” analogy refers to the relationship between sexual and non-sexual boundary-crossing and claims that crossing one boundary makes it easier to cross the next boundary. Research has implicated three factors as influences on the occurrence and continuation of exploitative sexual and nonsexual relationships with clients, supervisees, and students: the connection between sexual and nonsexual professional boundary crossings or violations; the confusion about the definition of dual relationships and how to address them; and personal or contextual characteristics that put psychologists at risk for engaging in such behavior. Research has not found a significant connection between reported sexual boundary violations as a former client, supervisee, or student and as a practicing professional (d.). (See: Lamb, D., Catanzaro, S., & Moorman, A. (2003). Psychologists reflect on their sexual relationships with clients, supervisees, and students: Occurrence, impact, rationales, and collegial intervention. Professional Psychology: Research and Practice, 34, 102-107; Williams, M. (1997). Boundary violations: Do some contended standards of care fail to encompass commonplace procedures of humanistic, behavioral, and eclectic psychotherapies? Psychotherapy, 34, 238-249; and Pope, K. (1990). Therapist–patient sexual involvement: A review of the research. Clinical Psychology Review, 10, 477–490.)

Question 159

159. Which of the following is achieved during the operations stages? a. magical thinking b. decentration c. symbolic thought d. object permanence

Answer 159

b. decentration -- The "operations stages" refer to Piaget's concrete operations and formal operations stages. The stages prior to the operations stages are the sensorimotor and "preoperations," which, as its name implies, occurs before the development of operations abilities. The development of decentration and reversibility form the basis for conservation, which is the characteristic achievement of concrete operations (7 to 12 years). Object permanence (D) is achieved during the sensorimotor stage (birth to 2 years). Symbolic thought (C) develops during the preoperations stage (2 to 7 years) resulting in the development of language and pretend play. Magical thinking (A) is also characteristic of preoperational thought.

Question 160

160. The phenomenon of cross-modal perception, for example, hearing colors or tasting shapes is referred to as: a. achromatopsia b. sensory hallucinations c. nystagmus d. synesthesia

Answer 160

d. synesthesia -- Synesthesia is a perceptual condition in which stimulation of one sensory modality is reliably perceived in one or more other senses. For example, individuals with synesthesia may hear odors or see sounds. The cause of synesthesia is unknown, but is more prevalent among women and non-right-handed people. Achromatopsia (A) is a rare form of color blindness that is accompanied by hypersensitivity to light and poor visual acuity. Hallucinations (B) are sensory perceptions that occur without external stimulation of the sensory organ. Nystagmus (C) refers to involuntary jerky eye movement.

Question 161

161. During an evening interview, a client displays incoherence, disorientation, distractibility, fragmented delusions, and impaired recent memory. When the client is seen the next morning, his symptoms have remitted. The MOST likely diagnosis for this patient is: a. amnestic disorder b. delirium c. brief psychotic disorder d. substance intoxication

Answer 161

b. delirium -- Even though there is no evidence of an underlying medical condition or substance use, delirium is the best response based on the information about the symptoms and their duration. Delirium involves a disturbance in consciousness with a change in cognition or the development of perceptual abnormalities. An individual exhibits a reduced awareness of his environment, shifts in attention, and distractibility, and changes in cognition can include memory loss, disorientation to time and place, and impaired language. Associated perceptual abnormalities can include illusions, hallucinations, or other misperceptions. As in this case, the symptoms of delirium usually fluctuate in the course of a day, and depending on the cause of the disorder, may remit within a few hours or persist for weeks. Response “D” may have been difficult to rule out as the symptoms could represent a substance-induced delirium; however the symptoms appear to be in excess of symptoms usually associated with “substance intoxication” or an intoxication syndrome. In contrast to brief psychotic disorder (response “C”), this client’s psychotic symptoms fluctuate, are fragmented, and occur in the context of reduced awareness of the environment, shifts in attention, and distractibility which are associated with delirium. An amnestic disorder (response “A”) is not diagnosed if memory difficulties occur in the course of delirium, or as with this client, the memory impairment is accompanied by reduced consciousness or other cognitive deficits.

Question 162

162. With parental consent, a psychologist has been providing therapy to a 12-year-old boy for a couple of months. Unexpectedly, both parents suddenly withdraw their consent. The psychologist believes that continuing therapy is in the best interests of the boy. The psychologist’s best course of action would be to: a. seek judicial intervention b. obtain a signed consent from the girl and continue treatment c. stop the treatment because both parents have withdrawn their consent but provide them with referrals to other therapists d. continue to see the girl without the parents’ consent

Answer 162

a. seek judicial intervention -- The psychologist’s ethical obligation is to serve the best interests of the child, but legally, he/she cannot proceed with treatment if the parents do not give consent to do so. While some states have laws that allow psychologists to provide services without parental consent, no information is given in this question regarding the relevant law or whether the child’s problem(s) would be covered by this type of law. The Ethics Code Standard 1.02 states that “If psychologists? ethical responsibilities conflict with law, psychologists make known their commitment to the Ethics Code and take steps to resolve the conflict in a responsible manner.” Therefore, the psychologist would not just terminate without attempting to advocate for the patient (c.); nor continue to treat the child without the parents consent (d.), as violating the law is not consistent with resolving the conflict in a responsible manner. (See: M. DeKrai and S. D. Sales in Liability in child therapy and research, Journal of Consulting and Clinical Psychology, 59(6), 1991, 853-860.)

Question 163

163. A unilateral, severe, and throbbing headache that involves nausea and sensitivity to light is most likely a a. migraine headache. b. tension headache. c. cluster headache. d. cranial neuralgia.

Answer 163

a. migraine headache -- The International Headache Society (IHS) has developed a headache classification system that divides headaches into thirteen types -- four of which are listed by the choices here. This question best matches the description of a migraine headache. Migraines are felt on one side of the head by a majority of sufferers and are typically throbbing in nature. In addition, nausea (with or without vomiting) as well as sensitivity to light and sound often accompany migraines.

Question 164

164. Client-therapist matching of ethnicity is a good predictor of a. treatment length. b. treatment outcome. c. both treatment length and outcome. d. neither treatment length nor outcome.

Answer 164

a. treatment length -- While the findings are not entirely clear, overall there is a greater impact on premature termination rather than outcome, due to ethnic matching. It also seems that some groups are more likely to benefit than others. When there are benefits, they are usually related more to dropout rates than to treatment effectiveness.

Question 165

165. Digit span, arithmetic, and letter-number sequencing subtests on the WAIS-III are used to calculate which of the following indices? a. perceptual organization b. processing speed c. verbal comprehension d. working memory

Answer 165

d. working memory -- The WAIS-III measures four factors: Verbal Comprehension, Perceptual Organization, Working Memory, and Processing Speed. The Working Memory index is comprised of digit span, arithmetic, and letter-number sequencing. The Perceptual Organization index (A) is calculated with scores on picture completion, block design, and matrix reasoning. Processing Speed (B) is based upon digit symbol and symbol search. And the Verbal Comprehension index (C) uses scores on the vocabulary, similarities, and information subtests.

Question 166

166. An infant born prematurely is most likely to eventually develop: a. Poor social skills b. Poor academic performance c. Low adult body weight d. None of the above

Answer 166

d. None of the above -- An infant born before 37 week gestation period is considered premature. Greenburg and Cmic (1988) found that with a supportive environment and appropriate medical attention premature infants without significant abnormalities often catch up with their peers, in terms of social and cognitive language skills, by two or three years of age. There is no known relationship between prematurity and adult body weight.

Question 167

167. A therapist routinely waives co-payments for all low income clients. This is a. unethical, unless the client is on welfare. b. ethical, if the psychologist is doing this in order to create a sliding scale. c. unethical. d. ethical.

Answer 167

c. unethical -- This is unethical (and illegal) because it constitutes insurance fraud -- the insurance company thinks it's paying for a portion of the client's treatment when it is really paying for the whole thing. Of course, it would not be unethical if you told the insurance company what you were doing. However, most if not all insurance companies would not accept such an arrangement; instead, the company would lower its own contribution to the fee.

Question 168

168. Which of the following is an example of an implicit memory? a. recalling the first time you drove a car b. knowing how to dress yourself c. knowing the definition of implicit memory d. recalling a time when someone implied that you had done something that you hadn't

Answer 168

b. knowing how to dress yourself -- Implicit memories are recalled without conscious effort or awareness. This is in contrast to explicit memories which are retrieved with conscious awareness. Implicit memories can generally be considered the same as procedural memories, which is about how to do things. Dressing oneself and driving a car are examples of implicit/procedural memories. These can be done automatically, without conscious thought. However, Choice A, "recalling the first time you drove a car" is an explicit, episodic, conscious memory and is different than simply "driving a car." Knowing the meaning of words (C) involves explicit, semantic memories.

Question 169

169. According to the recent U.S. Department of Justice’s National Violence Against Women Study, ______________ females have the lowest lifetime rate of victimization by an intimate partner. a. Asian American b. American Indians/Alaska Natives c. African American d. White American

Answer 169

a. Asian American -- Investigators P. Tjaden and N. Thoennes report in Extent, nature and consequences of intimate partner violence: Findings from the National Violence Against Women Study (July 2000) that Asian/Pacific Islander women reported significantly less intimate partner violence than women of other racial backgrounds with a lifetime victimization rate of 15%. It has been suggested that traditional Asian values emphasizing close family ties and harmony may discourage Asian women from disclosing physical and emotional abuse by intimates. Therefore, the lower rates may be partially due to under-reporting. American Indians/Alaska Native women (response “B”) report the highest rates of intimate partner victimization with a lifetime rate of 37.5%. African American females (response “C”) report a rate of 29.1% and White females (response “D”), 24.8%. It is unclear how much of the difference between victimization rates among women of differing racial backgrounds may be explained by differences in willingness to report; by demographic, social, and environmental factors; and how much by actual victimization experiences.

Question 170

170. One of the diagnostic criteria for Mental Retardation is deficits or impairments in adaptive functioning. All of the following are true regarding adaptive functioning except: a. it can be measured with the Vineland b. it refers to an individual's ability to cope with common life demands c. it is viewed in the context of a person's age group, sociocultural background, and community setting d. it remains stable over time

Answer 170

d. it remains stable over time -- According to DSM-IV-TR, "adaptive functioning refers to how effectively individuals cope with common life demands and how well they meet the standards of personal independence expected of someone in their particular age group, sociocultural background, and community setting" (p. 42). One of the most popular measures of adaptive functioning is the Vineland Adaptive Behavior Scales ("A"). Contrary to Choice D, problems in adaptation can improve with remedial training, although cognitive IQ tends to remain stable.

Question 171

171. A person who doesn't feel something they are touching probably has damage to: a. Parietal lobe b. Occipital lobe c. Frontal lobe d. Temporal lobe

Answer 171

a. Parietal lobe -- The parietal lobe contains the somatosensory cortex. Its functions include the processing of touch-pressure, temperature, kinesthesia and pain.

Question 172

172. When a psychologist working out of the Adlerian model serves as a consultant in a school, they: a. Work primarily with the school b. Identify the areas of inferiority within the system c. Primarily educate the parents and teachers through an emphasis on preventive interventions d. Reverse roles--having the teachers see themselves as children and the students as parents in the family school system.

Answer 172

c. Primarily educate the parents and teachers through an emphasis on preventive interventions -- In general, consultants work with the teachers and parents rather than individual students. With the Adlerian model, preventive interventions are emphasized and the consultants educate the parents and teachers. (Dustin and Ehly 1992).

Question 173

173. The research suggests that, to control excessive aggression in children, the best approach is: a. time-out and similar behavioral techniques. b. opportunities for catharsis. c. explaining the consequences of aggressive acts. d. social-skills training

Answer 173

d. social-skills training -- A number of techniques have been found useful for reducing aggression in children, but many of them (e.g., catharsis) have only short-term effects. In the long run, the best thing to do is to teach aggressive children alternative, nonaggressive, prosocial behaviors, which is a component of social-skills training.

Question 174

174. In order to decrease job turnover, an interviewer should: a. Rely on biodata b. Rely on cognitive testing c. Hire only older people d. Rely on an interest inventory

Answer 174

a. Rely on biodata -- Cognitive tests are the most valid predictors of job performance across jobs and settings–and job performance would include job continuity. However, biodata is particularly useful for predicting turnover. In the specific area of predicting turnover, biodata has been found to have validity coefficients of .77 and .79 for predicting the turnover of whites and African-Americans respectively (Cascio 1976). Hunter and Hunter (1984) report an average validity coefficient of .53 when cognitive tests are used to predict performance ratings and .75 when they are used to predict performance on a work sample.

Question 175

175. A patient complains that she cannot stop thinking about killing her child, though she has no intention of doing so. The patient is depressed about these thoughts and occasionally has a drink in an attempt to escape from them, though this attempt is usually unsuccessful. The most likely diagnosis for this person is a. Major Depressive Disorder. b. Substance Dependence. c. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder. d. Delusional Disorder.

Answer 175

c. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder -- This person's thought seems to qualify as an obsession. Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that are experienced as intrusive and cause marked distress. A person with obsessions attempts to ignore, suppress, or neutralize them and recognizes that they are a product of one's own mind. Recurrent obsessions or compulsions are the defining feature of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder. A person with this disorder may be depressed about it and may use alcohol or other substances in an attempt to neutralize his or her distress.

Question 176

176. All of the following are generally considered to be characteristic of brief psychotherapy, except: a. time limited therapy b. lack of theoretical orientation c. effective for acute symptoms d. encourages the development of a positive transference between the client and the therapist.

Answer 176

b. lack of theoretical orientation -- There are many different approaches to brief therapy including psychodynamic, cognitive-behavioral, and eclectic to name a few; however, brief therapy is always based on theory. Brief therapy, as its name implies, is time limited and effective for acute symptoms. A positive transference is also generally considered to be essential to the success of brief therapy.

Question 177

177. The hypnagogic state refers to: a. the transition state of semiconsciousness between sleeping and waking b. the transition state of semiconsciousness between being awake and falling asleep c. a condition in which someone about to fall asleep, or just upon awaking, realizes that s/he is unable to move, or speak, or cry out d. a condition in which there is a sudden loss of partial or complete muscle tone during excitement or arousal

Answer 177

b. the transition state of semiconsciousness between being awake and falling asleep - The hypnagogic state is that state between being awake and falling asleep. The hypnopompic state (a.) is between sleeping and waking. Various sensory experiences such as auditory, visual, kinesthetic and tactile hallucinations are experienced by some during these states. Sleep paralysis is a condition in which someone, about to drop off to sleep, or just upon waking from sleep realizes that s/he is unable to move, or speak, or cry out (c.). Like the previous two states, this may last from a few seconds to several minutes. Sleep paralysis with hypnagogic and hypnopompic hallucinations is commonly reported as an experience of a "sensed" presence accompanied by fear. Sleep paralysis most often has an adolescent onset and is often thought to be associated with narcolepsy. Narcolepsy is a condition in which people are overcome with irresistible sleep attacks that occur unpredictably. Another distinguishing feature of the condition is cataplexy, a sudden loss of partial or complete muscle tone during excitement or arousal (d.) Although conscious during a cataplectic episode, individuals may experience hallucinations during prolonged attacks and subsequently fall asleep.

Question 178

178. Coding Personality Disorders on a separate axis, according to the DSM-IV-TR, is due to: a. the need to reduce the possibility of being overlooked b. the need to reduce the possibility of prioritization over an Axis I disorder c. having a differing etiology than Axis I disorders d. having less daily functioning interference than Axis I disorders

Answer 178

a. the need to reduce the possibility of being overlooked -- In the DSM-IV-TR’s description of Axis II, Personality Disorders and Mental Retardation are classified on a separate axis as they “might otherwise be overlooked when attention is directed to the usually more florid Axis I disorders” and does not suggest “pathogenesis or range of appropriate treatment is fundamentally different from that for the disorders coded on Axis I.”

Question 179

179. A man comes in for therapy very upset because he has had problems achieving and maintaining an erection. He has seen advertisements for Viagra in the Men's Journal and feels this would be the solution for him. What type of disorder does he have? a. Male erectile disorder b. Premature ejaculation c. Psychopharmacological consumerism d. Sexual aversion disorder

Answer 179

a. Male erectile disorder -- According to DSM-IV, the criteria for a diagnosis of male erectile disorder is: persistent or recurrent inability to attain or maintain an adequate erection, AND the disturbance causes marked distress or interpersonal difficulty.

Question 180

180. The best prognostic indicator for individuals with Autistic Disorder is: a. severity of stereotyped behaviors b. early language ability c. level of impairment in social interaction d. presence of symptoms prior to 3 years of age

Answer 180

b. early language ability -- The long-term outcome for autism is variable, however, only a small percentage of individuals with the disorder go on as adults to live and work independently. According to DSM-IV-TR, the best prognostic indicators have been found to be early language skills and overall intellectual level. Choice D can be eliminated because a diagnosis requires symptoms to be present prior to 3 years of age.

Question 181

181. According to Aaron Beck, when faced with a negative event, a depressed person is most likely to maintain an: a. internal locus of control and internal locus of responsibility b. internal locus of control and external locus of responsibility c. external locus of control and internal locus of responsibility d. external locus of control and external locus of responsibility

Answer 181

c. external locus of control and internal locus of responsibility -- The locus of control/locus of responsibility model adds another element to the learned helplessness model in regards to depression. As you know, the learned helplessness model views depressed people as making internal, stable, and global attributions to negative events. However, the "internal" factor in the helplessness model refers only to locus of responsibility. As seen in the cognitive distortion called "personalization," a depressed person uses an internal locus of responsibility to blame him or herself for negative events. Paradoxically, depressed people also feel a lack of control over events, that is, they have an external locus of control – seeing external factors such as fate, luck, or other people as the cause of what happens to them.

Question 182

182. According to Piaget, a child in the autonomous stage of development believes that a. rules are absolute b. rules are useless c. rules are arbitrary and alterable d. punishment should be based on the damage caused by a behavior

Answer 182

c. rules are arbitrary and alterable -- Piaget distinguished two stages of moral development: heteronomous and autonomous. Heteronomous morality is characteristic of children 4-7 years old. The heteronomous child views rules as absolute (Choice "A") and unchangeable and believes that punishment should fit the consequences of the behavior (regardless of the intentions of the actor) (Choice "D"). By age 7 or 8 children begin to exhibit autonomous morality, in which they realize that rules are determined, and agreed to, by individuals and are, therefore, alterable. They also consider the intention of the actor to be most important in determining punishment.

Question 183

183. According to Rutter, the risk patterns that are accurate predictors for child psychopathology are: a. Small family size, parental criminality, marital discord b. Severe marital discord, low socioeconomic status c. Large family size, high socioeconomic status, parental psychopathology d. Low socioeconomic status, small family size

Answer 183

b. Severe marital discord, low socioeconomic status -- Again, getting this question correct involves a willingness to read carefully through the answer choices. As you learned if you took Test 3, Rutter listed low socioeconomic status, severe marital discord, large family size, parental criminality, and placement of children outside the home as predictors of child psychopathology.

Question 184

184. Computer-adaptive testing will yield a. more accurate results for high scorers on a test. b. more accurate results for low scorers on a test. c. more accurate results for examinees who score in the middle range of a test. d. equally accurate results across all range of scores on a test.

Answer 184

d. equally accurate results across all range of scores on a test. -- In computerized adaptive testing, the examinee's previous responses are used to tailor the test to his or her ability. As a result, inaccuracy of scores is reduced across ability levels.

Question 185

185. All of the following are true regarding the relationship between aging and memory, except a. observed age-related cognitive and memory declines are believed to be due to artifacts of intelligence tests and experience, rather than physiological changes. b. the main locus of observed age-related decline in memory is in long-term memory rather than short-term or sensory memory. c. on tests such as the WAIS-III, the least age-related decline is observed on subtests measuring stored knowledge. d. age-related declines on complex psychomotor tasks are greater than they are on simple psychomotor tasks.

Answer 185

a. observed age-related cognitive and memory declines are believed to be due to artifacts of intelligence tests and experience, rather than physiological changes. -- Few, if any, experts believe that age-related declines in cognition and especially memory are solely related to artifacts of experience or testing. These declines have been observed again and again across different cultures and different tests. Certainly, experience and test error can account for some degree of observed decline, but the generally accepted conclusion is that these declines are real and reflect true neuropsychological changes. Choices B, C, and D are true statements about age-related decline in cognition and memory.

Question 186

186. The best explanation for group members’ reluctance to provide negative feedback to one another is: a. minority influence b. group think c. Yalom’s principle d. the mum effect

Answer 186

d. the mum effect -- Rosen and Tesser (1970) conducted research on message transmission in different groups of people to determine how individuals respond to relaying a message that may be displeasing. They proposed there is emotional stress placed on the messenger, predicated on a fear of being infected with the emotional distress of the recipient or of having to assume an emotional state congruent with the bad news, and for this reason there may be a decrease in the transmittance of bad news. Their findings, which have been subsequently supported by others, indicated that bad news is transmitted less frequently than good news. MUM refers to the tendency to keep ‘Mum about Undesirable Messages’ (See: Rosen, S. & Tesser, A. (1970). On reluctance to communicate undesirable information: The MUM effect. Sociometry. 33, 253 - 263.) Minority influence (a.) refers to attempts by a minority to alter of attitudes and beliefs on part of the majority typically involving a break with the accepted norms and conventions; inspiring majority resistance; and creating a cognitive conflict for the majority. The effectiveness of minority influence depends on the extent that it exhibits behavioral consistency, persistence and internal coherence as well as congruency with the prevailing Zeitgeist, that is with values, norms and goals salient for the majority. Groupthink (b.) is an intensive tendency to seek agreement among members of the group, which prevents full consideration of alternative decisions, to the point where the decisions reached may become irrational. Factors which contribute to groupthink include high cohesiveness, homogeneous backgrounds and values, and a strong, directive leader.

Question 187

187. When several individuals are to be compared by a supervisor in a work setting, paired comparisons, as compared to order of merit comparisons, are a. more precise but more difficult. b. less precise but easier. c. more precise and easier. d. less precise and more difficult.

Answer 187

a. more precise but more difficult. -- When using the paired comparison technique, a rater compares each person with every other person. It's specific but time-consuming, as you can see. The order of merit comparisons has the rater rank order the people in terms of some criterion, such as overall job performance. You can see that it wouldn't take as long as paired comparisons, but wouldn't be as precise either.

Question 188

188. The concept of "identical elements" is most applicable to: a. personnel selection b. employee training c. job analysis d. Equity Theory

Answer 188

b. employee training --"Identical elements" is a concept based on the work of learning theorists Thorndike and Woodworth in 1901. It refers to the notion that training is best transferred over to situations which are similar to, or which have "identical elements" with, the training environment. Research has confirmed that identical elements improves transfer of training for both verbal and motor tasks.

Question 189

189. The Working Memory Index of the WAIS-III is based on which of the following subtests? a. vocabulary, similarities, and information b. digit symbol and symbol search c. digit span, arithmetic, and letter-number sequencing d. picture completion, block design, and matrix reasoning

Answer 189

c. digit span, arithmetic, and letter-number sequencing --The WAIS-III measures four factors: verbal comprehension, perceptual organization, working memory, and processing speed. The working memory index is comprised of digit span, arithmetic, and letter-number sequencing. Each of the other choices contain the subtests which comprise the other indices. Vocabulary, similarities, and information subtests (A) make up the verbal comprehension index. Digit symbol and symbol search (B) determine the processing speed index. And picture completion, block design, and matrix reasoning (D) comprise the perceptual organization index.

Question 190

190. In their discussion of mental health services for Latino clients, Rogler et al. (1987) describe three ways to increase the cultural sensitivity of therapy for members of this group. These methods include all of the following except: a. incorporating elements of Latino culture into therapy. b. increasing the accessibility of mental health services for Latino clients. c. selecting standard treatments that best fit Latino culture. d. obtaining cultural sensitivity training.

Answer 190

d. obtaining cultural sensitivity training -- Although all of the actions described in the responses could be called "culturally sensitive," only the first three were described by Rogler and his colleagues, which makes answer D the correct response. [L. H. Rogler et al., What do culturally sensitive mental health services mean? The case of Hispanics. American Psychologist, 1987, 42(6), 656-570.]

Question 191

191. From a legal standpoint, a charge of malpractice against a psychologist would be held valid if it were proven that the therapist: a. had a duty of care to the patient, held malevolent intentions toward the patient, and engaged in activity that resulted in harm to the patient. b. had a duty of care to the patient and held malevolent intentions toward the patient; demonstration of actual harm is not necessary. c. had a duty of care to the patient and engaged in activity that resulted in harm to the patient; malevolent intentions need not be present. d. engages in activity that harms a patient; malevolent intentions and a duty of care are not necessary.

Answer 191

c. had a duty of care to the patient and engaged in activity that resulted in harm to the patient; malevolent intentions need not be present -- For a malpractice claim against a psychologist to be held valid, three elements must be proven: 1) the psychologist must have had a professional relationship with (and, therefore a duty of care to) the client; 2) the psychologist must have been negligent or failed to live up to that duty; and 3) harm to the patient must have resulted. In other words, the psychologist's intentions are not an issue.

Question 192

192. In comparison studies of younger and older adults, it has been found that depression in older adults is least likely to result in a. difficulties with memory problems. b. anxiety feelings. c. feelings of hopelessness. d. expressed sadness.

Answer 192

d. expressed sadness. -- Older adults are less likely than younger adults to express feelings of depression or sadness. They are more willing to express feelings of hopelessness (answer C) and anxiety (answer B). They are also more apt to have memory problems (answer A). (APA Working Group on the Older Adult, What practitioners should know about working with older clients, Professional Psychology: Research and Practice, 1998, 29(5), 413-427).

Question 193

193. A rat is placed in a Skinner box which has two levers. Pressing Lever #1 delivers a food pellet on a variable interval schedule on an average of every 30 seconds. Lever # 2 also delivers a food pellet on a variable interval schedule, but on an average of every 2 minutes. We would expect the rat to press Lever # 1 in what proportion of the total lever presses? a. 0.4 b. 0.6 c. 0.8 d. 1.0

Answer 193

c. 0.8 -- You may have been able to intuitively guess the correct answer. The proportion of lever presses would match the relative frequency of the reinforcement schedule. Since the reinforcement schedule of Lever # 1 compared to Lever # 2 is 4:1, Lever # 1 would receive four-fifths (or 80%) of the total number of presses.

Question 194

194. Which of the following theorists related career development to ego identity development? a. Anna Freud b. Super c. Holland d. Tiedeman and O’Hara

Answer 194

d. Tiedeman and O’Hara -- Tiedeman and O'Hara based their career development model on Erikson's psychosocial theory of ego identity development. They proposed that a person develops a vocational identity through a process of many differentiations and reintegrations throughout one's lifespan. Differentiation comes from the realization that a particular career does not "fit" with one's personality. Integration involves identification with a career.

Question 195

195. Although a therapy group started out with spontaneous, frequent interactions between group members, it has taken on a restrictive interaction pattern in which members speak in rotation so that only two or three members get to talk during each session. This is an example of: a. procedural norms. b. power maintenance. c. task orientation. d. family re-enactment.

Answer 195

a. procedural norms -- This situation is discussed by Yalom in his book titled The Theory and Practice of Group Psychotherapy. The question describes the procedure the group follows, and it apparently reflects a change in group norms. Therefore, the situation is an example of procedural norms.

Question 196

196. Which one of the following is least likely to attenuate a measure of correlation? a. restricted range b. homoscedasticity c. curvilinear relationship d. the use of unreliable measures

Answer 196

b. homoscedasticity -- Homoscedasticity refers to even scatter around the regression line. Homoscedasticity is actually a good thing. It wouldn't attenuate the correlation at all. The other three choices list factors that would attenuate the correlation coefficient.

Question 197

197. An effective behavioral treatment to reduce the symptoms of depression is Structured Learning Therapy (SLT). SLT contains all of the following except: a. social skills training b. overcorrection c. modeling d. role-playing

Answer 197

b. overcorrection -- Structured Learning Therapy incorporates social skills training, an early approach to the treatment of depression, along with modeling (a.), role-playing (b.), skill instruction, and performance appraisal. (See: A. P. Goldstein, Psychological Skills Training: The Structured Learning Technique, New York, Pergamon Press, 1980.)

Question 198

198. According to Nancy Chodorow (1978) roles in society will change only when we have a system of parenting in which men and women are equally responsible for child rearing. Chodorow feels: a. The present system doesn't reflect the gendered division of labor b. The present system teaches girls to remain attached to their mothers c. The present system teaches boys to remain attached to their mothers d. The present system cannot be explained through object relations theory

Answer 198

b. The present system teaches girls to remain attached to their mothers -- Chodorow uses the principles of object relations theory (thus D is incorrect) to show that girls are taught to stay attached to their same sex mother while boys are taught to differentiate (opposite of answer C) from their mothers. Chodorow argues that the present system represents a gendered division of labor and that changes in gender relations will only occur when men and women are equally responsible for child rearing.

Question 199

199. Research on subordinates' satisfaction with their leader at work has found that the strongest determinant is: a. the leader's level of consideration. b. the leader's use of a participative decision-making style. c. the leader's provision of equitable rewards. d. the leader's personality characteristics.

Answer 199

a. the leader's level of consideration -- If you're familiar with the research on leadership, you might be aware that factor analyses of leadership qualities has, over the years, consistently identified two basic factors -- task orientation (instrumentality) and consideration. Knowing this would have helped you pick the right answer. Also, consideration is a better choice because it is a more general answer and could be conceived of as encompassing the characteristics listed in the other responses.

Question 200

200. A post-menopausal woman is most likely to find that her reduced level of estrogen has a. decreased her ability to become sexually aroused. b. reduced her overall interest in sex. c. made intercourse uncomfortable. d. made it easier to achieve orgasm.

Answer 200

c. made intercourse uncomfortable -- Because of its effects on vaginal tissues, a lower estrogen level can cause discomfort during intercourse. However, it is not associated with changes in other aspects of sexual functioning including interest, arousal, or drive.