TP- FINAL COACHING Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following would be an adequate treatment for Addison disease?

A. Administer cortisol
B. Administer aldosterone
C. Administer androgens
D. Administer growth hormone
E. Administer parathyroid hormone

A

A. Administer cortisol

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2
Q

Epithelium is found in the lungs at the site of gas exchange.

A. Simple squamous epithelium
B. Simple columnar epithelium
C. Simple cuboidal epithelium
D. Stratified cuboidal epithelium

A

A. Simple squamous epithelium

NOTES:
Simple squamous epithelium- gas exchange
Simple cuboidal epithelium- surfactant

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3
Q

Which of the following is a major complication of chronic bronchitis?

A. Myxedema.
B. Pneumothorax.
C. Emphysema.
D. Pernicious anemia.
E. Malignant transformation.

A

E. Malignant transformation.

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4
Q

What is the vitamin responsible for the clotting factors?

A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B12
C. Vitamin B9
D. Vitamin K

A

D. Vitamin K

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5
Q

Pancreatic acinar cells are classified as:

A. Merocrine glands
B. Apocrine glands
C. holocrine glands
D. endocrine glands

A

A. Merocrine glands

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6
Q

Chromosomes line up at a cell’s equator during which phase of mitosis?

A. Telophase.
B. Metaphase.
C. Interphase.
D. Anaphase.
E. Prophase.

A

B. Metaphase.

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7
Q

The connective tissue found in the spleen, liver, bone marrow?

A. dense
B. reticular
C. loose
D. adipose

A

B. reticular

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8
Q

Which of the following statements is true of the histology of the trachea?

A. The mucosa is covered with oral epithelium.
B. Elastic cartilage rings lie deep to the submucosa.
C. The cartilage is ring-shaped; the open end of the ring faces anterior.
D. The cartilage is covered by a perichondrium.
E. Skeletal muscle extends across the open end of each cartilage

A

D. The cartilage is covered by a perichondrium.

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9
Q

A productive cough may be seen in all of the following conditions except one. Which one is the exception?

A. Pneumonia.
B. Lung abscess.
C. Bronchiectasis.
D. Asthma.
E. Bronchogenic carcinoma.

A

D. Asthma.

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10
Q

All of the following conditions are commonly associated with a group A, b-hemolytic streptococci infection except one. Which one is the exception?

A. Scarlet fever.
B. Toxic shock syndrome.
C. Pharyngitis.
D. Endocarditis.
E. Impetigo.

A

D. Endocarditis.

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11
Q

A cell wall that contains teichoic acids and a thick peptidoglycan (murein) layer is characteristic of:

A. viruses
B. gram-positive bacteria
C. fungi
D. gram-negative bacteria

A

B. gram-positive bacteria

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12
Q

Hyperglycemia is characterized by blood glucose levels greater than

A. 100mg/dL.
B. 90mg/dL.
C. 125mg/dL.
D. 75 mg/dL.
E. 50mg/dL.

A

C. 125mg/dL.

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13
Q

Which of the following pneumoconiosis is most often associated with bronchogenic carcinoma and mesothelioma in man?

A. Silicosis
B. Asbestosis
C. Anthracosis
D. Beryliosis

A

B. Asbestosis

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14
Q

What is the functional unit of bone?

A. haversian
B. osteocyte
C. osteoblast
D. osteoclast

A

A. haversian

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15
Q

Mature lymphocytes constantly travel through the blood to the lymphoid organs then back to the blood. This constant recirculation ensures that the body is continuously monitored for invading substances. The major areas of antigen-contact and lymphocyte activation are the following, except one:

A. Spleen
B. lymphnodes
C. Thymus gland
D. tonsils
E. MALT

A

C. Thymus gland

NOTES:
Thymus and Bone marrow- produces lymphocytes

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16
Q

These inflammatory cells releases histamine in the tissues called

A. Basophils
B. Cytokines
C. Mast cells
D. Eosinophils

A

C. Mast cells

NOTES:
Basophils- Blood
masT cells- Tissues

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17
Q

A small foreign molecule that is not immunogenic by itself but can react with specific antibody is called a (an):

A. epitope
B. hapten
C. plasmid
D. immunogen

A

B. hapten

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18
Q

Major clinical criteria useful in the diagnosis of rheumatic fever include:

  1. leukocytosis
  2. elevated antibody titer to streptococci
  3. carditis
  4. Polyarthritis
  5. chorea
  6. Fever

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2, 3 and 4
C. 3, 4 and 5
D. 4, 5 and 6
E. 1, 3 and4

A

C. 3, 4 and 5
(3) carditis
(4) Polyarthritis
(5) chorea

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19
Q

Which cells, located in the crypts of Lieberkuhn, secrete an antibacterial enzyme that maintains the gastrointestinal barrier?

A. Paneth cells
B. enteroendocrine cells
C. Sertoli cells
D. absorptive cells
E. None of the above

A

A. Paneth cells

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20
Q

Which cells listed below are the most important phagocytic cells?

A. Eosinophils and basophils
B. Neutrophils and basophils
C. Neutrophils and macrophages
D. Macrophages and eosinophils

A

C. Neutrophils and macrophages

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21
Q

What type of thrombus typically forms after a myocardial infarct or from atrial fibrillation?

A. Mural
B. Agonal
C. Red
D. White
E. Fibrin

A

A. Mural

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22
Q

A patient died from respiratory failure. Past pathologic assessments showed coin lesions, positive Mantoux test and hemoptysis. The lungs will show which of the following types of necrosis?

A. coagulative
B. fat
C. fibrinoid
D. caseous
E. liquefactive

A

D. caseous

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23
Q

Diabetes mellitus type 2 is associated with all of the following characteristics, except:

A. Normal or increased insulin synthesis
B. Onset in adulthood
C. autoimmune origin
D. associated with obesity
E. Rare ketoacidosis

A

C. autoimmune origin

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24
Q

Cancer of the bladder is MOST often histologically:

A. Squamous cell carcinoma
B. adenocarcinoma
C. myosarcoma
D. transitional cell carcinoma

A

D. transitional cell carcinoma

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25
The acidity that drives PUD may be caused by which of the following morphological change? A. Chief cell metaplasia B. Parietal cell hyperplasia C. G cell aplasia D. Surface mucous cell hyperplasia E. Mucous neck cells atrophy
B. Parietal cell hyperplasia
26
What of the following is characterized by left lower quadrant periumbilical pain in an elderly person, with the presence of fever, tender abdomen, leukocytosis, nausea, and vomiting? A. Acute appendicitis B. Diverticulitis C. Gallstones D. Pancreatitis E. Pyelonephritis
B. Diverticulitis
27
Nephrolithiasis is most likely to be associated with which of the following conditions? A. Hyperparathyroidism B. Myxedema C. Pyelonephritis D. Wilson’s disease E. Thrombocytopenia
A. Hyperparathyroidism
28
The causative agent of COVID19 is: A. Novel coronavirus B. SARS-COV-1 C. SARS-COV-2 D. Delta Variant E. MERS-COV
C. SARS-COV-2
29
The following are indicative of Myasthenia Gravis, except: A. Early sign is ptosis B. Ascending paralysis C. Increased cholinesterase D. extreme muscles weakness E. dysphagia
B. Ascending paralysis❌ Descending paralysis
30
Each of the following classifications of fractures is correctly matched with its definition EXCEPT A. Greenstick → bone cracks through one side only. B. Comminuted → bone is crushed into many pieces. C. open → bone pierces skin. D. complete → bone bends but does not break. E. Single → bone breaks only in one place.
D. complete → bone bends but does not break.
31
This is a chronic inflammatory cell found in sites around parasitic infections and as part of immune reactions mediated by IgE, typically associated with allergies. A. lymphocytes B. Mast cells C. eosinophils D. basophils E. histamine
C. eosinophils
32
Which of the following infectious diseases has symptoms associated by the increased release of acetylcholine in the neuromuscular junction? A. Tetanus B. Rabies C. Cholera D. Encephalitis E. Measles
A. Tetanus
33
You are assessing the diagnostic results for a patient that has rheumatoid arthritis. What result is NOT an indicator of this disease? A. Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation B. X-ray imaging showing osteophyte formation C. Positive c-reactive protein D. Positive rheumatoid factor
B. X-ray imaging showing osteophyte formation
34
The picornavirus is responsible for which form of hepatitis? A. Hepatitis A B. Hepatitis B C. Hepatitis C D. Hepatitis D E. Hepatitis E
A. Hepatitis A
35
All of the following conditions are associated with a prolonged bleeding time, except: A. Idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura B. Von Willebrand’s disease C. Hemophilia D. Patients taking anticoagulants E. Long-term treatment with aspirin
C. Hemophilia
36
Nephritic syndrome is a syndrome comprising the clinical symptoms of: A. Nephritis B. Hematuria C. Hypertension D. Renal failure E. all of the above
E. all of the above
37
Which of the following viruses causes two distinct diseases in different age groups? A. Influenza B. Measles C. Smallpox D. Varicella E. Newcastle disease
D. Varicella
38
All of the following diseases are prevented with a vaccine that contains inactivated viruses, except: A. Polio B. Influenza C. Hepatitis A D. Mumps E. Rabies
D. Mumps
39
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is a disease affecting A. Bone B. Connective tissue C. Muscle D. Joints E. Glycogen synthesis
B. Connective tissue
40
If a patient has high levels of bile pigment excreted by the liver, increased destruction of which of the following may be the causative factor? A. Neutrophils B. Eosinophils C. Erythrocytes D. Platelets E. Macrophages
C. Erythrocytes
41
DiGeorge’s syndrome is characterized by a deficiency of. A. B lymphocytes B. T lymphocytes C. Both B and T lymphocytes D. Antibodies E. Complement inhibitor
B. T lymphocytes
42
Which of the following is usually least malignant? A. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia. B. Acute lymphocytic leukemia. C. Acute myelogenous leukemia. D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia. E. Chronic myelogenous leukemia.
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia.
43
All of the following are prokaryotic cells, except: A. bacteria B. mycoplasmas C. fungi D. rickettsia E. chlamydia
C. fungi
44
Which of the following can predispose a women to have vaginal itchiness and white curdy discharge that upon microscopic examination demonstrates fungal hyphae and yeast forms? A. Crohn's disease B. Diabetes mellitus C. Disseminated gonococcal infection D. Rheumatoid arthritis E. Systemic lupus erythematosus
B. Diabetes mellitus
45
Which of the following is the correct sequence of zygotic cell cleavage? A. zygote, morula, blastula, blastomere B. B. morula, zygote, blastula, blastomere C. blastula, blastomere, morula, zygote D. zygote, blastomere, morula, blastula E. blastula, morula, blastomere, zygote
D. zygote, blastomere, morula, blastula
46
Which of the following is may cause sudden extreme hematemesis and eventual loss of consciousness? A. Esophageal varices B. Mallory-Weiss tear C. Barrett’s esophagus D. Schatzki ring E. Zenker’s diverticulum
A. Esophageal varices
47
An infection by which of the following bacteria may result in the formation of gummas? A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis. B. Neisseria gonorrhoreae. C. Treponema pallidum. D. Bordetella pertussis. E. Streptococcus pyogenes.
C. Treponema pallidum.
48
An infant diagnosed with osteopetrosis has dysfunctional. A. Chondrocytes B. Osteoblasts C. Osteoclasts D. Fibroblasts E. Lymphocytes
C. Osteoclasts
49
In a closed system, spores are formed during which of the following phases of bacterial growth? A. Decline phase B. Exponential phase C. Lag phase D. Log phase E. Stationary phase
E. Stationary phase
50
Hospital tests on a patient identify a tumor in the hypophysis that is excessively secreting growth hormone. Given that the patient is a 25-year-old male, what is the expected outcome if no treatment is performed? A. Pituitary gigantism B. Pituitary dwarfism C. acromegaly D. achondroplasia
C. acromegaly
51
Which is the most prominent functional component in the tunica media of small arteries? A. Elastic fibers B. Collagen fibers C. Smooth muscle cells D. Skeletal muscle cell
C. Smooth muscle cells
52
Swollen, bleeding gums accompanied by muscle, joint and bone pain are characteristics of: A. Pellagra B. Scurvy C. Beriberi D. Rickets
B. Scurvy
53
Which of the following mediators aid in the killing of intracellular bacteria? A. Histamine. B. Interleukin-2. C. Catalase. D. IgG. E. Lysozyme.
E. Lysozyme.
54
What is the surface modification seen on the cells of the epididymis? A. Microvilli B. Stereocilia C. Cilia D. Keratinization E. Both a and b
B. Stereocilia
55
The esophagus normally contains which type of epithelium? A. non-keratinized stratified squamous. B. Columnar. C. Keratinized stratified squamous. D. Cuboidal. E. Pseudostratified squamous.
A. non-keratinized stratified squamous.
56
Reduction division occurs during the A. First stage of mitosis B. Second stage of mitosis C. First stage of meiosis D. Second stage of meiosis E. Third stage of meiosis
C. First stage of meiosis
57
What is the collective name given to lifeless substances > such as yolk, fat, and starch > that may be stored in various parts of the cytoplasm? A. Ectoplasm B. Metaplasm C. Protoplasm D. Nucleoplasm
B. Metaplasm
58
All of the following would likely result in an individual with severe anemia EXCEPT A. fatigue. B. cyanosis. C. hypoxia. D. increased cardiac output. E. pulmonary vasoconstriction.
B. cyanosis.
59
If polydipsia and polyuria are present, but without glycosuria, which of the following should be considered? A. Addison's disease B. Diabetes insipidus C. Diabetes mellitus D. Grave's disease
B. Diabetes insipidus
60
What condition will hypertension, exercise, increase workload of the heart, cardiomyopathy and hormonal stimulation lead to? A. Hypertrophy B. Atrophy C. metaplasia D. hypoplasia
A. Hypertrophy
61
A cotton wool appearance may be used to describe the radiograph of a patient with A. Osteopetrosis B. Osteitis deformans C. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome D. Seborrheic keratosis E. Osteogenesis imperfecta
B. Osteitis deformans
62
Tinea pedis, which is commonly known as athlete’s foot, is a fungal infection that is caused by the following dermatophyte(s): A. Microsporum B. Trichophyton C. Epidermophyton D. Both A and B E. Both B and C
E. Both B and C
63
The is a component of the juxtaglomerular apparatus which functions in regulation of blood pressure. A. Proximal convoluted tubule B. Distal convoluted tubule C. Bowman’s capsule D. Glomerulus E. Macula densa
E. Macula densa
64
Which of the following organisms would most likely cause infection after a partial sterilization procedure that killed vegetative cells but did not kill spores? A. Chlamydia B. Clostridium C. Escherichia D. Pseudomonas E. Streptococcus
B. Clostridium
65
Which of the following is characterized by a young boy with failure to thrive, recurrent seizures, hepatomegaly, renomegaly, severe hypoglycemia, hyperlipidemia, lacticacidosis, and ketosis? A. Gaucher's disease B. McArdle's disease C. Niemann-Pick disease D. Pompe's disease E. von Gierke's disease
E. von Gierke's disease
66
Each of the following are included in the grouping of Aschoff bodies EXCEPT A. Anitschkow cells. B. multinucleated giant cells. C. Aschoff myocytes D. focal interstitial myocardial inflammation. E. lines of Zahn.
E. lines of Zahn.
67
The signs and symptoms of Cholera is closely related to the pathogenesis stating that: A. Toxins of the bacteria bind to receptors in the intestinal lining activating the G-protein mechanism to release cAMP which further results to osmosis to the lumen B. Bacteria are taken up by M cells and engulfed by mononuclear cells causing infection of the Peyer Patches leading to watery stool C. Toxin binds to nerve terminals and blocks the action of inhibitory neurotransmitters such as GABA and dopamine D. Cytokines are released by activated macrophages that accumulate in the Peyer patches E. None of the above
A. Toxins of the bacteria bind to receptors in the intestinal lining activating the G-protein mechanism to release cAMP which further results to osmosis to the lumen
68
Which of the following interleukins is produced by macrophages and stimulates fever production by its action on hypothalamic cells? A. IL-1 B. IL-2 C. IL-3 D. IL-4 E. IL-5
A. IL-1
69
Trisomy 18 is seen in which of the following syndromes? A. Patau B. Klinefelter C. Down D. Turner E. Edward
E. Edward
70
A malignant tumor of skeletal muscle is known as: A. fibroma B. rhabdomyosarcoma C. rhabdomyoma D. leiomyoma E. osteocarcinoma
B. rhabdomyosarcoma