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D. General Pathology and Microbiology > Post Test > Flashcards

Post Test Flashcards

1
Q

Redistribution of body fat with round moon face, dorsal “buffalo hump” and relatively thin extremities suggests:

a. Addison’s disease
b. Conn’s syndrome
c. Cushing’s syndrome
d. Sipple syndrome
e. Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome

A

c. Cushing’s syndrome

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2
Q

Which of the following disorders is least likely to
be included in the differential diagnosis of a patient with
jaundice?

a. Hepatitis.
b. Hemolytic anemia.
c. Cholelithiasis.
d. Glomerulonephritis.
e. Carcinoma of the pancreas.

A

d. Glomerulonephritis.

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3
Q

This antibody mediates the most common type
of asthma called atopic asthma:

a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgE
e. IgD

A

d. IgE

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4
Q

The most common cause of bacterial meningitis in newborns is.

a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Streptococcus pneumoniae
c. Escherichia coli
d. Haemophilus influenzae
e. Listeria monocytogenes

A

c. Escherichia coli

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5
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by
inflammation of the ____

a. Articular capsule
b. Articular cartilage
c. Cortical bone
d. Perichondrium
e. Synovium

A

e. Synovium

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6
Q

Which of the following etiologic agents commonly causes sialadenitis?

a. Rhabdovirus
b. Rubula
c. Vibrio cholerae
d. chikungunya
e. plasmodium falciparum

A

b. Rubula

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7
Q

Necrosis of cardiac muscles following a coronary artery thrombosis is what type of necrosis?

a. fibrinoid
b. gangrenous
c. liquefactive
d. caseous
e. coagulation

A

e. coagulation

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8
Q

Symptoms of a myocardial infarction include all of
the following except one. Which one is the exception?

a. Angina.
b. Diaphoresis.
c. Fever.
d. Vomiting.
e. Dyspnea

A

c. Fever.

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9
Q

Which of the following hepatitis virus is dependent on HBV for multiplication?

a. HAV
b. HCV
c. HDV
d. HIV
e. both b and c

A

c. HDV

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10
Q

The usual site of latency for the Herpes simplex virus type 2 is:

a. The cranial sensory ganglia
b. The lumbar or sacral sensory ganglia
c. The cranial or thoracic sensory ganglia
d. T lymphocytes

A

b. The lumbar or sacral sensory ganglia

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11
Q

Anemia in a newborn can result from:

a. excessive blood loss during delivery
b. excessive destruction of red blood cells
c. impaired production of red blood cells
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

A

d. all of the above

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12
Q

A disease unlikely to be spread by the air-borne route is:

a. measles
b. diphtheria
c. tuberculosis
d. typhoid fever
e. whooping cough

A

d. typhoid fever- FECAL ORAL

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13
Q

Each of the following with regard to von Willebrand disease is correct EXCEPT

a. it is a qualitative platelet defect.
b. vWF allows adhesion of platelets to collagen.
c. it affects both the platelet plug and
coagulationcascade.
d. vWF functions independent of factor VIII.
e. it is an autosomal dominant disorder

A

d. vWF functions independent of factor VIII.

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14
Q

Term used to describe exanthem in patients
with Measles:

a. centrifugal rash
b. rose spots
c. Koplik spots
d. evanescence rash
e. morbilliform rash

A

e. morbilliform rash

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15
Q

This type of angina is occurring with progressively less exertion or even at rest

a. typical angina
b. stable angina
c. crescendo angina
d. prinzmetal angina
e. variant angina

A

c. crescendo angina

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16
Q

This type of inflammation is characterized by
watery, relatively protein-poor fluid that derives either
from the plasma or from the secretions of mesothelial
cells lining the peritoneal, pleural, and pericardial cavities.

a. serous
b. granulomatous
c. fibrinous
d. purulent
e. suppurative

A

a. serous

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17
Q

Which of the following statements is not true
about Peptic Ulcer Disease?

a. Peptic ulcer disease is most often associated with
H. pylori infection or NSAID
b. Hematemesis is more common in Duodenal Ulcer
than Gastric Ulcer
c. Peptic ulcers are chronic, recurring lesionsthat
occur most often in middle-aged to older adults
d. Eating may worsen gastric ulcer but may relieve
duodenal ulcer.
e. None of the above

A

b. Hematemesis is more common in Duodenal Ulcer
than Gastric Ulcer

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18
Q

In this stage of Syphilis, common manifestations
include: generalized lymph node enlargement,
mucocutaneous lesions, condylomata lata and skin lesions involving the palms of hands and soles of feet:

a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
d. Terminal
e. Recurrent

A

b. Secondary

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19
Q

Which of the following coagulation factors
is deficient in hemophilia B?

a. VI
b. VII
c. VIII
d. IX

A

d. IX

A=8
B=9
C=11

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20
Q

This necrosis is diagnostic of acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis:

a. coagulative necrosis
b. gumma necrosis
c. enzymatic fat necrosis
d. traumatic fat necrosis
e. caseous necrosis

A

c. enzymatic fat necrosis

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21
Q

Rubeola commonly produces an enanthem of the buccal mucosa designated as:

a. Negri bodies
b. Fordyce’s spots
c. Paschen bodies
d. Koplik’s spots
e. Guarnieri’s bodies

A

d. Koplik’s spots

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22
Q

Common complication of Mumps in male:

a. Gynecomastia
b. Shock
c. Orchitis
d. Testicular abscess
e. bull neck

A

c. Orchitis- STERILITY

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23
Q

Prevention of wound dehiscence and tensile
strengthing a healing wound are closely related to:

a. formation of blood clot
b. collagen formation
c. suppuration
d. fibrin accumulation
e. hematopoietic activity

A

b. collagen formation

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24
Q

Which of the following is the most common co-infection of Gonorrhea?

a. Chlamydia
b. Syphilis
c. Trichomoniasis
d. HIV
e. all of the above

A

a. Chlamydia

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25
Q

The clinical presentation of hemophilia B is indistinguishable from hemophilia A. Which of the
following best describes the laboratory method needed to
distinguish these two conditions?

a. Bleeding time.
b. Assay of coagulation factor levels.
c. Assay of von Willebrand’s factor
d. Blood smear. E. Platelet count.

A

b. Assay of coagulation factor levels.

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26
Q

The most common cause of death in diabetic patients is

a. Peripheral neuropathy
b. Pancreatic cancer
c. Cardiovascular disease
d. Kidney failure
e. Opportunistic infections

A

c. Cardiovascular disease

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27
Q

All but one is included in the clinical manifestations for nephrotic syndrome:

a. proteinuria
b. anasarca
c. hyperalbuminemia
d. lipiduria
e. hyperlipidemia

A

c. hyperalbuminemia

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28
Q

Which of the following is considered to be
normal hemoglobin?

a. Hemoglobin A
b. Hemoglobin C
c. Hemoglobin H
d. Hemoglobin S

A

a. Hemoglobin A

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29
Q

The most common cause of osteomyelitis is

a. Streptococcus pyogenes
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Lactobacillus casei
d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
e. Escherichia coli

A

b. Staphylococcus aureus

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30
Q

Which of the following describes cells that are
abnormal in appearance and may become premalignant?

a. Aplasia.
b. Dysplasia.
c. Karyomegaly.
d. Pleomorphism.
e. Metaplasia.

A

b. Dysplasia.

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31
Q

Adrenal cortical insufficiency with clinical manifestation of extreme weakness, low blood pressure, irregular melanin pigmentation of the oral mucosa and
lips, and bronzing of the skin is known as:

a. Cushing’s syndrome
b. adrenogenital syndrome
c. aldosteronism
d. Addison’s disease
e. hyperadrenocorticism

A

d. Addison’s disease

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32
Q

This is the most common side effect of chemotherapy for cancer patients.

a. body malaise
b. altered consciousness
c. alopecia
d. hematochexia
e. tumor enlargement

A

c. alopecia

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33
Q

Which of the following is not true about acute inflammation?

a. onset is rapid
b. prominent signs and symptoms
c. cellular inifltrates are mainly macrophages
d. self- limited
e. usually mild

A

c. cellular inifltrates are mainly macrophages

34
Q

The mumps virus is transferred in humans by:

a. food
b. feces
c. flies
d. wound infection
e. droplets of saliva

A

e. droplets of saliva

35
Q

In patients with Dengue, stool should be monitored for bleeding. Black “tarry” feces that are associated with upper gastrointestinal bleeding is called:

a. Melena
b. Hematochezia
c. Malaise
d. Trismus
e. none of the above

A

a. Melena

36
Q

What type of vaccine is used for Clostridium tetani?

a. Capsular polysaccharides.
b. Toxoids.
c. Killed bacteria.
d. Immunoglobulins.
e. No vaccine is available.

A

b. Toxoids.

37
Q

Kidney stones (renal calculi) are a common complication in a patient with which disorder listed below?

a. Diabetes Mellitus
b. Hyperthyroidism
c. Hyperparathyroidism
d. Hypoparathyroidism
e. Hypopituitarism

A

c. Hyperparathyroidism

38
Q

All of the following statements concerning infective endocarditis are true, except:

a. it is a bacterial infection of the endocardium and
the heart valves
b. it can come on suddenly and become life-
threatening within days or it can develop
gradually over a period of weeks to several
months
c. It is characterized by accumulation of bacteria and
blood clots on the valves which can break loose
and travel to vital organ where they can block
arterial blood flow
d. aortic valve is most commonly affected

A

d. aortic valve is most commonly affected

39
Q

Which of the following infectious diseases
hassymptoms associated by the increased release of
acetylcholine in the neuromuscular junction?

a. Tetanus
b. Rabies
c. Cholera
d. Encephalitis
e. Measles

A

a. Tetanus

40
Q

Which of the following laboratory results
mayindicate myocardial infarction?

a. inverted P wave in ECG
b. decreased troponin levels
c. elevated serum CK-MB
d. prolonged PTT
e. bradycardia

A

c. elevated serum CK-MB

41
Q

Angina Pectoris can be relieved by:

a. Nitroglycerin
b. rest
c. aspirin
d. a and b only
e. all of the above

A

e. all of the above

42
Q

Type of anemia in which multipotent myeloid
stem cells are suppressed, leading to bone marrow failure
and pancytopenia:

a. iron-deficiency
b. polycythemia
c. aplastic anemia
d. thalassemia
e. hemolytic anemia

A

c. aplastic anemia

43
Q

During cell injury, this ion causes activation of
enzymes that damage cellular components and may
also trigger apoptosis.

a. Nitric oxide
b. calcium
c. sodium
d. carbon monoxide
e. potassium

A

b. calcium

44
Q

All of the following are characteristics of
gout,except:

a. Most often affects the joint at the base of the big
toe
b. Higher incidence in women
c. Hard lumps of urate crystals are depositedunder
the skin around the joints
d. An abnormally high uric acid level in the blood
e. none of the above
f. The aortic valve is the most commonlyinvolved.
g. none of the above

A

b. Higher incidence in women

45
Q

Which of the following is the most common cause
of subacute endocarditis?

a. Staphylococcus aureus.
b. Staphylococcus epidermidis.
c. Streptococcus viridans.
d. Streptococcus pyogenes.
e. Streptococcus pneumoniae.

A

a. Staphylococcus aureus.

46
Q

Which of the following is not TRUE with regard
to cellular dysplasia?

a. It is nonmalignant cellular growth.
b. It involves atypical cells with invasion.
c. It is disorganized and structureless maturation
andspatial arrangement of cells.
d. It can be caused by chronic irritation.
e. There is increased mitosis and pleomorphism

A

b. It involves atypical cells with invasion.

47
Q

Bronchogenic carcinoma is a complication most characteristic of which of the following conditions?

a. Silicosis.
b. Asbestosis.
c. Anthracosis.
d. Sarcoidosis.
e. Bronchiectasis.

A

b. Asbestosis.

48
Q

Tinea pedis, which is commonly known as athlete’s foot, is a fungal infection that is caused by the following dermatophyte(s):

a. Microsporum
b. Trichophyton
c. Epidermophyton
d. Both A and B
e. Both B and C
f. Both Epidermophyton and Trichophyton can
causetinea pedis.

A

e. Both B and C

49
Q

Each of the following endocrine disorders can contribute to secondary hypertension EXCEPT
a. Cushing syndrome.
b. diabetes.
c. pheochromocytoma.
d. hypoaldosteronism.
e. hyperthyroidism.

A

d. hypoaldosteronism.
↓ SALT
↓ WATER
↓ BLOOD VOLUME

50
Q

All of the following conditions are commonly
associated with a group A, b- hemolytic
streptococci infection except one. Which one is the
exception?

a. Scarlet fever.
b. Toxic shock syndrome.
c. Pharyngitis.
d. Endocarditis.
e. Impetigo.

A

e. Impetigo.

51
Q

Bacteria that can satisfy their energy requirements by
oxidation of substances not containing carbon are called:
A. Photoheterotrophs
B. Mesophiles
C. Saprophytes
D. Autotrophs
E. Thermotrophs

A

D. Autotrophs

52
Q

The genus Clostridium is distinguished from the genus
Bacillus primarily in the former is:
A. Aerobic
B. Anaerobic
C. Parasitic
D. A spore-former
E. A coccus

A

B. Anaerobic

53
Q

The bacterial lag phase
i. is required for microbial adaptation to a new
environment
ii.is dependent on the size of the inoculum, within
limits
iii. is the phase in which the number of
organisms actively dividing equals the number
of organisms lysing
iv. may be prolonged by certain antibiotics
v.immediately follows the phase of exponential
growth
A. i, ii, iv
B. ii, iii, iv
C. i, ii, v
D. ii, iv, v
E. i, iii, v

A

A. i, ii, iv

54
Q

Obligate anaerobic bacteria

A. Require oxygen for growth
B. All contain catalase
C. Are killed in the presence of oxygen
D. Produce spores that cannot tolerate the presence of oxygen

A

C. Are killed in the presence of oxygen

55
Q

The site of protein synthesis in a bacterium is (are) the
A. DNA
B. Mesosomes
C. Polyribosomes
D. Metachromatic granules
E. Desmosomes

A

C. Polyribosomes

56
Q

In the logarithmic growth phase of a bacterial culture,
rate of multiplication

A. Is zero
B. Equals death rate
C. Exceeds death rate
D. Is less than the death rate

A

C. Exceeds death rate

57
Q

The presence of capsule on a bacterium is thought to
inhibit:

A. Protein synthesis
B. Phagocytosis
C. Antibiotic activity
D. Penetration of ethylene oxide
E. Bacterial pathogenicity

A

B. Phagocytosis

58
Q

Ethylene oxide is an agent that

A. Sanitizes
B. Is antiseptic
C. Cleanses
D. Sterilizes
E. Disinfects

A

D. Sterilizes

59
Q

Glutaraldehydes are effective against:

A. Gram positive bacteria
B. Acid-fast bacilli
C. Spores
D. Gram-negative bacteria
E. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

60
Q

The form of bacterial genetic transfer which is
susceptible to DNase and does not require cell- to-cell
contact

A. Cell attachment
B. Conjugation
C. Transformation
D. Transduction

A

C. Transformation

61
Q

The control of bubonic plague is related mainly to a
decrease in the population of

A. Rats
B. Cows
C. Rabbits
D. Flies
E. None of the above

A

A. Rats

62
Q

Which of the following do not contain both DNA and
RNA?

A. Bacteria
B. Fungi
C. Rickettsiae
D. Viruses
E. B and D

A

D. Viruses

63
Q

Generally speaking, rickettsial infections are
characterized by:

A. Fever
B. Headaches
C. Skin rash
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

A

D. All of the above

64
Q

Considering nuclear structure which of the following
microorganisms is most closely related to mammalian
cells?

A. Bacteria
B. Fungi
C. Rickettsiae
D. Viruses

A

B. Fungi

65
Q

Scarlet fever is an acute disease caused by:
A. Toxin released by Viridans streptococci
B. Salmonella typhosa with endotoxin release
C. Group A streptococci releasing erythrogenic toxin
D. A mixture of streptococci and staphylococci with
coagulase production

A

C. Group A streptococci releasing erythrogenic toxin

66
Q

Typhus fevers are a result of infection with agents
classified as

A. Fungi
B. Viruses
C. Bacteria
D. Protozoa
E. Rickettsiae

A

E. Rickettsiae

67
Q

Varicella (chickenpox) virus belongs in which of the
following groups?

A. Herpesvirus
B. Poxvirus
C. Papovavirus
D. Adenovirus
E. Coxsackievirs

A

A. Herpesvirus

68
Q

Which of the following genera of fungus disease is not
readily transmitted from human to human?

A. Epidermophyton
B. Microsporum
C. Histoplasma
D. Trichophyton

A

C. Histoplasma

69
Q

Which of the following microorganisms is not involved
in food-borne disease in man?

A. Candida albicans
B. Clostridium botulinum
C. Salmonella enteritidis
D. Staphylococcus aureus
E. Trichinella spiralis

A

A. Candida albicans

70
Q

Bacteria classified as spirochetes include which of the following genera?

i. Borrelia
ii. Clostridium
iii. Leptospira
iv. Treponema
v. Fusobacterium
A. i, iii, iv
B. ii, iii, iv
C. ii, iv, v
D. i, ii, v
E. i, iv

A

A. i, iii, iv

71
Q

Hairlike filaments extending from bacterial cells are
called:

A. Pili
B. Fimbrae
C. Cilia
D. All of the above
E. Both a and b

A

A. Pili

72
Q

Heat-sensitive materials such as plastic retractors and
rubber base appliances may be sterilized by means of

A. Quaternary ammonium compounds
B. Ethylene oxide
C. Ethyl alcohol
D. Autoclaving
E. None of the above

A

B. Ethylene oxide

73
Q

The efficiency of disinfectants depends upon

A. Concentration of microorganisms
B. Concentration of disinfectant
C. Length of exposure time
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

A

D. All of the above

74
Q

The component of the bacterial cell that functions as
an osmotic permeability barrier is the

A. Cytoplasmic membrane
B. Cell wall
C. Capsule
D. Lipopolysaccharide
E. Teichoic acid

A

A. Cytoplasmic membrane

75
Q

Bacteria whose optimum temperature for growth is 15
to 20 degrees Celsius have been termed as

A. Autotrophs
B. Mesophiles
C. Chemotrophs
D. Psychrophiles
E. None of the above

A

D. Psychrophiles

76
Q

Capsules play important roles in all of the following
diseases, except:

A. Haemophilus meningitis
B. Cryptococcoses
C. Gonorrhea
D. Pneumococcal pneumonia
E. Meningococcemia

A

C. Gonorrhea

77
Q

Lactobacillus species are:

A. Gram-negative rods that tend to form clusters
B. Gram-negative cocci that tend to form clusters
C. Gram-positive cocci that tend to form chains
D. Gram-positive rods that tend to form chains

A

D. Gram-positive rods that tend to form chains

78
Q

Most members of the herpesviruses have an affinity
for __ cells.

A. Ectodermal
B. Endodermal
C. Mesodermal
D. Bony
E. Both b and d

A

A. Ectodermal

79
Q

The biologic product that is commonly used for
artificial active immunization against tetanus is

A. Tetanus toxoid
B. Tetanus exotoxin
C. Tetanus endotoxin
D. Tetanus antitoxin
E. Heat-killed Clostridium tetani

A

A. Tetanus toxoid

80
Q

Enterotoxin responsible for food intoxication is most
often produced by

A. Enterococci
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Diplococcus pneumoniae
D. B-hemolytic st

A

B. Staphylococcus aureus

D. General Pathology and Microbiology (3 decks)

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