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MOSBY Flashcards

1
Q

All of the following cells are associated with chronic inflammation except one. Which one is the exception?

A. Macrophages.
B. Neutrophils.
C. T lymphocytes.
D. B lymphocytes.
E. Plasma cells.

A

B. Neutrophils.

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2
Q

Dust cells can be found in the _____.

A. Brain
B. Heart
C. Lungs
D. Liver
E. Spleen

A

C. Lungs

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3
Q

Which of the following mediators aid in the killing of intracellular bacteria?

A. Histamine.
B. Interleukin-2.
C. Catalase.
D. IgG.
E. Lysozyme.

A

E. Lysozyme.

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4
Q

The class of antibodies that plays an important role in type I hypersensitivity reactions is _____.

A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgG
E. IgM

A

C. IgE

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5
Q

DiGeorge’s syndrome is characterized by a deficiency of _____.

A. B lymphocytes
B. T lymphocytes
C. Both B and T lymphocytes
D. Antibodies
E. Complement inhibitor

A

B. T lymphocytes

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6
Q

Which of the following is the most common cause of subacute endocarditis?

A. Staphylococcus aureus.
B. Staphylococcus epidermidis.
C. Streptococcus viridans.
D. Streptococcus pyogenes.
E. Streptococcus pneumoniae.

A

E. Streptococcus pneumoniae.

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7
Q

Aschoff bodies are observed in which of the following conditions?

A. Acute myelogenous leukemia.
B. Pheochromocytoma.
C. Osteopetrosis.
D. Rheumatic fever.
E. Scleroderma .

A

D. Rheumatic fever.

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8
Q

Endotoxin consists of _____.

A. Lipopolysaccharide
B. M protein
C. Hyaluronidase
D. Lactic acid
E. Coagulase

A

C. Hyaluronidase

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9
Q

All of the following conditions are commonly associated with a group A, b-hemolytic streptococci infection except one. Which one is the exception?

A. Scarlet fever.
B. Toxic shock syndrome.
C. Pharyngitis.
D. Endocarditis.
E. Impetigo.

A

D. Endocarditis.

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10
Q

Karyotyping can be used to diagnose which of the following diseases?

A. Klinefelter’s syndrome.
B. Multiple myeloma.
C. Niemann-Pick disease.
D. Pemphigus.
E. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome.

A

A. Klinefelter’s syndrome.

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11
Q

In pemphigus, autoantibodies are directed against which of the following structures?

A. Acetylcholine receptor.
B. Sarcomere.
C. Epidermis.
D. Thyroid follicle.
E. Lysosomes.

A

C. Epidermis.

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12
Q

Which of the following is a major complication of chronic bronchitis?

A. Myxedema.
B. Pneumothorax.
C. Emphysema.
D. Pernicious anemia.
E. Malignant transformation.

A

E. Malignant transformation.

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13
Q

Which of the following cells are defective in chronic granulomatous disease?

A. Neutrophils.
B. Lymphocytes.
C. Plasma cells.
D. Killer T cells.
E. Macrophages.

A

A. Neutrophils.

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14
Q

Which of the following describes cells that are abnormal in appearance and may become premalignant?

A. Aplasia.
B. Dysplasia.
C. Karyomegaly.
D. Pleomorphism.
E. Metaplasia.

A

B. Dysplasia.

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15
Q

The HIV virus binds directly to the surface receptors of CD4 lymphocytes with _____.

A. Reverse transcriptase
B. Integrase
C. Hemagglutinin
D. Glycoprotein 120
E. Protease

A

D. Glycoprotein 120

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16
Q

Which of the following microbes is the most common cause of gastroenteritis in children?

A. Reoviruses.
B. Picornaviruses.
C. Togaviruses.
D. Paramyxoviruses.
E. Orthomyxoviruses.

A

A. Reoviruses.

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17
Q

A cotton wool appearance may be used to describe the radiograph of a patient with _____.

A. Osteopetrosis
B. Osteitis deformans
C. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
D. Seborrheic keratosis
E. Osteogenesis imperfecta

A

B. Osteitis deformans

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18
Q

An autoclave sterilizes dental instruments by causing which of the following?

A. Coagulation of proteins.
B. Denaturing of proteins.
C. Precipitation of nucleic acids.
D. Disruption of cell membranes.
E. Dissolution of lipids.

A

B. Denaturing of proteins.

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19
Q

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is a disease affecting _____.

A. Bone
B. Connective tissue
C. Muscle
D. Joints
E. Glycogen synthesis

A

B. Connective tissue

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20
Q

An increase in alkaline phosphatase may be seen in all of the following conditions except one. Which one is the exception?

A. Hyperparathyroidism.
B. Osteoporosis.
C. Osteitis deformans.
D. Adenocarcinoma of the prostate.
E. Multiple myeloma.

A

B. Osteoporosis.
- normal or decrease in alkaline phosphatase

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21
Q

The most common cause of death in diabetic patients is _____.

A. Peripheral neuropathy
B. Pancreatic cancer
C. Cardiovascular disease
D. Kidney failure
E. Opportunistic infections

A

C. Cardiovascular disease

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22
Q

Neuraminidase is produced by _____.

A. Influenza virus
B. Hepatitis C viruses
C. Human immunodeficiency virus
D. Measles virus
E. Rubella virus

A

A. Influenza virus

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23
Q

Which of the following skin lesions is most likely premalignant?

A. Verruca vulgaris.
B. Keloids.
C. Seborrheic keratosis.
D. Actinic keratosis.
E. Compound nevus.

A

D. Actinic keratosis.

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24
Q

The most prominent mechanism of spread of the hepatitis A virus is by which of the following routes?

A. Oral-anal.
B. Respiratory.
C. Sexual contact.
D. Perinatal.
E. Insect vectors.

A

A. Oral-anal.

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25
Q

Accumulation of fluid in the pericardium occurs most often with which of the following conditions?

A. Unstable angina.
B. Cardiomyopathy.
C. Myocarditis.
D. Acute pericarditis.
E. Tamponade.

A

E. Tamponade.

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26
Q

The most common cause of pyelonephritis is _____.

A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Vibrio cholerae
C. Escherichia coli
D. Helicobacter pylori
E. Bordetella pertussis

A

C. Escherichia coli

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27
Q

Polycystic kidney disease is most commonly associated with _____.

A. Renal cell carcinoma
B. Peripheral neuropathy
C. Urolithiasis
D. Berry aneurysm
E. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

D. Berry aneurysm

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28
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common oral cancer. It is a tumor of _____.

A. Melanocytes
B. Basal cells
C. Fibroblasts
D. Keratinocytes
E. Macrophages

A

D. Keratinocytes

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29
Q

Tinea pedis, which is commonly known as athlete’s foot, is a fungal infection that is caused by the following dermatophyte(s):

A. Microsporum
B. Trichophyton
C. Epidermophyton
D. Both A and B
E. Both B and C

A

E. Both B and C

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30
Q

Fibrotic and thickened heart valves that result in a reduction of blood flow through the valve characterize which of the following?

A. Stenosis.
B. Regurgitation.
C. Insufficiency.
D. Prolapse.
E. Ischemia.

A

A. Stenosis.

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31
Q

Cystic fibrosis is a hereditary disorder that results from defective _____.

A. Collagen
B. Lysosomal enzymes
C. Chloride channels
D. Fibrillin
E. Myelin

A

C. Chloride channels

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32
Q

The most common mutation accounting for the pathogenesis of trisomy 21 is _____.

A. Chromosome translocation
B. Meiotic nondisjunction
C. Mitotic nondisjunction
D. Single deletion
E. X-linked inheritance

A

B. Meiotic nondisjunction

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33
Q

An endocrine disorder that causes an early loss of primary teeth and the early eruption of secondary teeth is _____.

A. Myxedema
B. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
C. DiGeorge’s syndrome
D. Plummer’s disease
E. Dwarfism

A

D. Plummer’s disease

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34
Q

Which of the following is not a feature of poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis?

A. Hematuria.
B. Hypertension.
C. Edema.
D. Polyuria.

A

D. Polyuria.
- decrease in urination is observed in poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis.

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35
Q

The most common cause of osteomyelitis is _____.

A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Lactobacillus casei
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E. Escherichia coli

A

B. Staphylococcus aureus

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36
Q

All of the following are histopathologic features of malignant cells except one. Which one is the exception?

A. Anaplasia.
B. Pleomorphism.
C. Aneuploidy.
D. Large nuclei.
E. Low nuclear-cytoplasmic ratio.

A

E. Low nuclear-cytoplasmic ratio.
-It should be high

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37
Q

Which of the following best describes anaplastic cells that have not invaded the basement membrane and are confined within their epithelium of origin?

A. Dysplasia.
B. Hyperplasia.
C. Metaplasia.
D. Sarcoma.
E. Carcinoma in situ.

A

E. Carcinoma in situ.

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38
Q

A 43-year-old man presents for an emergency dental appointment complaining of a burning sensa
tion in his mouth. Upon examination, white plaques are observed along the oral mucosa. The patient otherwise appears healthy. There is no history of systemic illness, but the patient did state that he had a blood transfusion more than 10 years ago following a car accident. The doctor referred the patient to emergency room for further tests.

Upon further evaluation, the doctor requests an HIV and hepatitis test. The laboratory performed both an ELISA test and Western blot, revealing that the patient is HIV-positive. The Western blot is used to identify which of the following?

A. Antibodies.
B. DNA.
C. RNA.
D. Proteins.
E. Plaque-forming units.

A

D. Proteins.

ELISA- HIV Antibodies

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39
Q

A 43-year-old man presents for an emergency dental appointment complaining of a burning sensa
tion in his mouth. Upon examination, white plaques are observed along the oral mucosa. The patient otherwise appears healthy. There is no history of systemic illness, but the patient did state that he had a blood transfusion more than 10 years ago following a car accident. The doctor referred the patient to emergency room for further tests

Given the patient’s history, if the patient was later diagnosed with active hepatitis, which of the following would most likely be the causative agent?

A. Hepatitis A.
B. Hepatitis B.
C. Hepatitis C.
D. Hepatitis D.
E. Hepatitis E.

A

C. Hepatitis C.

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40
Q

Which of the following would the doctor likely prescribe for the patient’s intraoral infection?

A. Amoxicillin.
B. Vancomycin.
C. Ciprofloxacin.
D. Nystatin.
E. Chlorhexidine.

A

D. Nystatin.

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41
Q

All of the following molecules may be found within the nucleocapsid of an HIV virus except one. Which one is the exception?

A. Reverse transcriptase.
B. Integrase.
C. Neuraminidase.
D. Protease.
E. Ribonucleic acid.

A

C. Neuraminidase.

42
Q

The patient is referred to an infectious disease specialist and placed on “triple therapy.” Two years later, the patient is admitted to the emergency room with a dry cough and shortness of breath. His temperature is 101 degrees F. The most likely cause of the patient’s pneumonia is _____.

A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Haemophilus influenzae
C. Pneumocystis jiroveci (carinii)
D. Klebsiella pneumoniae
E. Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

C. Pneumocystis jiroveci (carinii)

43
Q

A mother brings her 6-year-old daughter in for an examination because she noticed brown macules on her daughter’s leg. The macules have jagged edges but do not appear raised. The mother is worried that her daughter may have a malignancy. After further evaluation and tests, the macules are identified as café au lait spots.

Café au lait spots are seen in conjunction with polyostotic fibrous dysplasia and endocrine abnormalities in which of the following disorders?

A. McCune-Albright’s syndrome.
B. Stevens-Johnson syndrome.
C. Marfan’s syndrome.
D. Gorlin-Goltz syndrome.
E. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome.

A

A. McCune-Albright’s syndrome.

44
Q

The patient having fibrous dysplasia could be described as having what type of radiographic appearance?

A. Cotton wool.
B. Ground glass.
C. Cobweb.
D. Soap bubble.
E. Starry sky.

A

B. Ground glass.

45
Q

A bone biopsy was taken from the patient with fibrous dysplasia. Which of the following would most likely be observed under the microscope?

A. A dense inflammatory infiltrate.
B. Fibrous tissue.
C. Pleomorphic cells.
D. Metastatic calcifications.
E. Giant cells.

A

B. Fibrous tissue.

46
Q

A 6-year-old boy presents with a history of severe epistaxis. For the past 3 years the patient has experienced these nose bleeds, often without any apparent cause. The patient is otherwise in good health, but his mother has noticed that he “bruises easily.” Laboratory tests are ordered.

The laboratory test results show a normal PT but a prolonged PTT. A prolonged PTT test suggests that the patient has an abnormality affecting which component of the coagulation cascade?

A. Activation of platelets.
B. Activation of thromboplastin.
C. Activation of plasminogen.
D. Intrinsic pathway .
E. Extrinsic pathway.

A

D. Intrinsic pathway .

47
Q

The diagnosis of hemophilia A is made. This disease is caused by a deficiency of _____.

A. Factor V.
B. Factor VII.
C. Factor VIII.
D. Factor IX.
E. Factor X.

A

C. Factor VIII.

48
Q

Which of the following describes the hereditary transmission of Hemophilia A?

A. Autosomal dominant.
B. Autosomal recessive.
C. X-linked.
D. It is not genetically transmitted.

A

B. Autosomal recessive.

49
Q

The clinical presentation of hemophilia B is indistinguishable from hemophilia A. Which of the following best describes the laboratory method needed to distinguish these two conditions?

A. Bleeding time.
B. Assay of coagulation factor levels.
C. Assay of von Willebrand’s factor.
D. Blood smear.
E. Platelet count.

A

B. Assay of coagulation factor levels.

50
Q

An infection by which of the following bacteria may result in the formation of gummas?

A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
B. Neisseria gonorrhoreae.
C. Treponema pallidum.
D. Bordetella pertussis.
E. Streptococcus pyogenes.

A

C. Treponema pallidum.

51
Q

Which of the following receptors are recognized by CD8 lymphocytes?

A. Class I MHC molecules.
B. Class II MHC molecules.
C. Surface IgE.
D. Surface IgM.
E. Histamine receptor.

A

A. Class I MHC molecules.

52
Q

Which of the following cytokines stimulate B lymphocytes to differentiate into plasma cells?

A. IL-1.
B. IL-2.
C. IL-3.
D. IL-4.
E. IL-5.

A

E. IL-5.

53
Q

All of the following symptoms are mediated by antibodies except one. Which one is the exception?

A. Arthus reaction.
B. Tuberculin reaction.
C. Asthma.
D. Erythroblastosis fetalis.
E. Serum sickness.

A

B. Tuberculin reaction.

54
Q

Which of the following is released by mast cells after antigen binding?

A. IgE.
B. Lysozyme.
C. IL-4.
D. Leukotriene.
E. Interferon.

A

D. Leukotriene.

55
Q

Symptoms of a myocardial infarction include all of the following except one. Which one is the exception?

A. Angina.
B. Diaphoresis.
C. Fever.
D. Vomiting.
E. Dyspnea

A

C. Fever.

56
Q

A positive quelling reaction can be observed in bacteria with a _____.

A. Thick peptidoglycan layer
B. Capsule
C. Flagella
D. Cell wall that contains teichoic acid
E. Glycocalyx coating

A

B. Capsule

57
Q

Which of the following groups of micro organisms produce dipicolinic acid?

A. Actinomycetes.
B. Histoplasma.
C. Streptococcus.
D. Staphylococcus.
E. Clostridium.

A

E. Clostridium.

58
Q

Which of the following consists of glucose molecules linked together that act as the structural component of plaque?

A. Fructose.
B. Sucrose.
C. Levans.
D. Dextrans.
E. Fructans.

A

D. Dextrans.

59
Q

The most common cause of bacterial meningitis in newborns is _____.

A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Escherichia coli
D. Haemophilus influenzae
E. Listeria monocytogenes

A

C. Escherichia coli

60
Q

All of the following can be found in the cell wall of a gram-negative bacterium except one. Which one is the exception?

A. Endotoxin.
B. A thin peptidoglycan layer.
C. Lipopolysaccharide.
D. Teichoic acid.
E. O antigen.

A

D. Teichoic acid.

61
Q

What type of vaccine is used for Clostridium tetani?

A. Capsular polysaccharides.
B. Toxoids.
C. Killed bacteria.
D. Immunoglobulins.
E. No vaccine is available.

A

B. Toxoids.

62
Q

The class of antibodies that plays an important role in mucosal immunity is _____.

A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgG
E. IgM

A

A. IgA

63
Q

The presence of which of the following in a patient’s serum indicates that the patient is a highly infectious hepatitis B carrier?

A. HBsAg.
B. HBsAb.
C. HBcAg.
D. HBeAg.
E. HBeAb.

A

D. HBeAg.

64
Q

All of the following microbes listed are associated with infections secondary to an HIV infection except one. Which one is the exception?

A. Pneumocystis jiroveci (carinii).
B. Epstein-Barr virus.
C. Coxsackievirus.
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
E. Candida albicans.

A

C. Coxsackievirus.

65
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by inflammation of the _____.

A. Articular capsule
B. Articular cartilage
C. Cortical bone
D. Perichondrium
E. Synovium

A

E. Synovium

66
Q

The most common form of breast cancer is _____.

A. Adenocarcinoma
B. Teratoma
C. Follicular lymphoma
D. Sarcoma
E. Carcinoma

A

A. Adenocarcinoma

67
Q

Which of the following antimicrobials is bacteriostatic and inhibits protein synthesis in bacteria?

A. Streptomycin.
B. Penicillin V.
C. Ciprofloxacin.
D. Cephalexin.
E. Tetracycline.

A

E. Tetracycline.

68
Q

Which of the following may be observed in a child diagnosed with rickets?

A. Dark pigmentation on the oral mucosa.
B. Early eruption of teeth.
C. Hutchinson’s incisors.
D. Abnormal dentin.
E. Macroglossia.

A

D. Abnormal dentin.

69
Q

In 2% glutaraldehyde, which of the following times is minimally sufficient for achieving sterilization?

A. 15 minutes.
B. 1–2 hours.
C. 6 hours.
D. 12 hours.

A

D. 12 hours.

70
Q

An 8-year-old boy presents with macroglossia and delayed eruption of his primary teeth.
Of the following choices, which one is most likely?

A. Plummer’s disease.
B. Osteochondroses.
C. Cretinism.
D. Wilson’s disease.
E. Mallory-Weiss syndrome.

A

C. Cretinism.

71
Q

Which of the following bacteria would be expected to first colonize onto plaque?

A. Streptococci.
B. Bacteroides.
C. Fusobacterium.
D. Actinomyces.
E. Prevotella.

A

A. Streptococci.

72
Q

The hereditary transmission of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is _____.

A. Autosomal dominant
B. Autosomal recessive
C. Sex-linked dominant
D. Sex-linked recessive
E. Not genetically transmitted

A

A. Autosomal dominant

73
Q

Which of the following structures is the most common site for oral cancer?

A. Soft palate.
B. Lateral border of the tongue.
C. Lower lip.
D. Floor of mouth.
E. Buccal mucosa.

A

B. Lateral border of the tongue.

74
Q

The presence of Auer rods in a peripheral blood smear suggests which of the following
conditions?

A. Acute lymphocytic leukemia.
B. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia.
C. Acute myelogenous leukemia.
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia.
E. Hodgkin’s lymphoma.

A

C. Acute myelogenous leukemia.

75
Q

Complications of Barrett’s esophagus include all of the following except one. Which one is the exception?

A. Varices.
B. Stricture.
C. Hemorrhage.
D. Adenocarcinoma.
E. Ulceration.

A

D. Adenocarcinoma.

76
Q

The presence of M-protein antibodies suggests immunity to infection by which type of bacteria?

A. Streptococcus pyogenes.
B. Streptococcus viridans.
C. Streptococcus sanguis.
D. Staphylococcus aureus.
E. Lactobacillus casei.

A

A. Streptococcus pyogenes.

77
Q

Hemorrhagic infarction and tissue necrosis suggest which of the following?

A. Aspergillosis.
B. Blastomycosis.
C. Histoplasmosis.
D. Mucormycosis.
E. Toxoplasmosis.

A

D. Mucormycosis.

78
Q

Which of the following is usually least malignant?

A. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia.
B. Acute lymphocytic leukemia.
C. Acute myelogenous leukemia.
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia.
E. Chronic myelogenous leukemia.

A

D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia.

79
Q

Bronchogenic carcinoma is a complication most characteristic of which of the following
conditions?

A. Silicosis.
B. Asbestosis.
C. Anthracosis.
D. Sarcoidosis.
E. Bronchiectasis.

A

B. Asbestosis.

80
Q

Which of the following disorders is least likely to be included in the differential diagnosis of a patient with jaundice?

A. Hepatitis.
B. Hemolytic anemia.
C. Cholelithiasis.
D. Glomerulonephritis.

A

D. Glomerulonephritis.

81
Q

A productive cough may be seen in all of the following conditions except one. Which one is
the exception?

A. Pneumonia.
B. Lung abscess.
C. Bronchiectasis.
D. Asthma.
E. Bronchogenic carcinoma.

A

D. Asthma.

82
Q

Antinuclear antibodies are seen in the serum samples from patients with _____.

A. Hypogammaglobulinemia
B. Chronic granulomatous disease
C. Systemic lupus erythematosus
D. Multiple myeloma
E. Pheochromocytoma

A

C. Systemic lupus erythematosus

83
Q

Nephrolithiasis is most likely to be associated with which of the following conditions?

A. Hyperparathyroidism.
B. Myxedema.
C. Pyelonephritis.
D. Wilson’s disease.
E. Thrombocytopenia.

A

A. Hyperparathyroidism.

84
Q

An infant diagnosed with osteopetrosis has dysfunctional _____.

A. Chondrocytes
B. Osteoblasts
C. Osteoclasts
D. Fibroblasts
E. Lymphocytes

A

C. Osteoclasts

85
Q

All of the following factors play a role in the virulence of the microbe that causes whooping cough except one. Which one is the exception?

A. IgA protease.
B. Hemagglutinin.
C. Exotoxin.
D. Capsule.
E. Pili.

A

A. IgA protease.

86
Q

T-cell lymphoma is most likely to occur in a patient with which of the following conditions?

A. Chronic granulomatous disease.
B. Myasthenia gravis.
C. Osteochondroma.
D. Wilson’s disease.
E. Celiac sprue.

A

E. Celiac sprue.

87
Q

A 60-year-old homeless man who lives in a community shelter presents with history of coughing for the past 6 months. He has a slight fever, hemoptysis, and productive cough with a yellowish sputum discharge. After further examination and tests, the patient is diagnosed with active tuberculosis.

When the sputum samples were taken to the laboratory, what test did the doctor order to be performed to help make the diagnosis?

A. Gram stain.
B. Acid-fast stain.
C. Spore stain.
D. PPD test (tuberculin test).
E. Voges-Proskauer test.

A

B. Acid-fast stain.

88
Q

After 2 weeks, the bacterial cultures came back from the lab confirming the initial diagnosis, positively identifying the organism Mycobacterium tuberculosis. M. tuberculosis is known to infect which of the following cells?

A. Fibroblasts.
B. Basal cells.
C. Type I pneumocytes.
D. Macrophages.
E. Erythrocytes.

A

D. Macrophages.

89
Q

Which of the following is a glycolipid found on the surface of M. tuberculosis that plays a role in its pathogenesis?

A. Cord factor.
B. O antigen.
C. Protein A.
D. Exotoxin A.
E. Lecithinase.

A

A. Cord factor.

90
Q

Since the patient was living in a homeless shelter, the tuberculin test was administered to all of the staff and residents living at the shelter. This test is based on a delayed type hypersensitivity reaction that is mediated by _____.

A. Only IgG
B. IgG and IgM
C. IgE
D. T cells and macrophages

A

D. T cells and macrophages

91
Q

Which of the following is the most appropriate drug used in combination therapy for tuberculosis to treat the patient?

A. Amoxicillin.
B. Clindamycin.
C. Cephalosporin.
D. Tetracycline.
E. Rifampin.

A

E. Rifampin.

92
Q

After 3 weeks, the patient was feeling “much better” and was discharged from the hospital, although he remained on his drug therapy for another 6 months. Which of the following best describes the calcified scar that later formed in the affected lung parenchyma and hilar lymph node?

A. Gumma.
B. Chancre.
C. Metastatic calcifications.
D. Tubercle.
E. Ghon complex

A

E. Ghon complex

93
Q

A 55-year-old man presents with malaise and dyspnea. He has a low-grade fever and reports that his shortness of breath has increased steadily over the past week and a half. He has a history of rheumatic fever and denies ever using recreational drugs. He is currently being treated by a dentist for full mouth reconstruction.

Upon further examination, a heart murmur was detected. Given the patient’s past medical history, which heart valve is most likely affected?

A. Mitral valve.
B. Tricuspid valve.
C. Aortic valve.
D. Pulmonary valve.

A

A. Mitral valve.

94
Q

Before the patient’s development of rheumatic fever, he likely suffered from which of the following conditions?

A. Cystitis.
B. Pharyngitis.
C. Food poisoning.
D. Thrombocytopenia.
E. Meninigitis.

A

B. Pharyngitis.

95
Q

After further evaluation and tests, the patient is diagnosed with subacute endocarditis. If the infecting microbe was cultured in the laboratory, the results would most likely show that this microbe is positive for _____.

A. α-hemolysis
B. β-hemolysis
C. γ-hemolysis
D. Coagulase
E. Lecithinase

A

A. α-hemolysis

96
Q

Which of the following is the most likely complication that may occur from the vegetations forming on the patient’s defective heart valve?

A. Myocardial infarction.
B. Hemorrhage.
C. Petechiae.
D. Cor pulmonale.
E. Embolus.

A

E. Embolus.

97
Q

After the diagnosis is made, the patient is immediately placed on high-dose, IV antibiotics. One of the antibiotics that is administered to
the patient is streptomycin, an aminoglycoside.The antimicrobial effect of streptomycin is to inhibit the synthesis of _____.

A. The bacterial cell wall
B. Folate
C. Proteins
D. Nucleic acids
E. β-lactamase

A

C. Proteins

98
Q

A 3-year-old African girl presents in the emergency room with a palpable mass in her lower right mandible. She is currently in the United States visiting relatives with her parents. Her mom claims that a few days ago she noticed a growing mass in her daughter’s jaw. There appears to be slight swelling around the area, although it is painless and not tender to the touch. After further examination, a biopsy was taken, and the diagnosis of Burkitt’s lymphoma was made.

Burkitt’s lymphoma is a malignancy that affects which of the following cells?

A. Macrophages.
B. T lymphocytes.
C. B lymphocytes.
D. Neutrophils.
E. Keratinocytes.

A

C. B lymphocytes.

99
Q

The pathology report reveals a characteristic pattern of tumor cells that is classically associated with Burkitt’s lymphoma. Which of the following describes this histopathologic pattern?

A. Honeycomb.
B. Cobweb.
C. Cotton wool.
D. Sun ray.
E. Starry sky

A

E. Starry sky

100
Q

The African form of Burkitt’s lymphoma has been linked to the Epstein-Barr virus. This virus is also responsible for which of the following diseases?

A. Mononucleosis.
B. Shingles.
C. Chicken pox.
D. Kaposi’s sarcoma.
E. Herpangina

A

A. Mononucleosis.

Gen Path and Microbio (1 decks)

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