DECKS Flashcards
From the following list select the THREE items associated with Hepatitis C.
a. picornavirus
b. ss RNA
c. oral-anal
d. flavivirus
e. ds DNA
f. hepadnavirus
g. blood borne
h. vaccination available
b. SS RNA
d. flavivirus
g. blood borne
Rotaviruses are the most common cause of gastroenteritis in children (2 and under).
Reoviruses have an icosahedral capsid composed of an outer and inner protein shell containing a double-stranded segmented genome.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
a. both statements are true
Which of the following is a paramyxovirus that causes many respiratory infection in epidemics each winter. It is a common cause of bronchiolitis in infants, which is complicated by pneumonia in approximately 10% of cases?
a. influenza
b. rubella
c. coxsackievirus
d. respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
d. respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
Which of the following viruses shows latency and requires a trigger to resume replication?
a. measles virus
b. herpes virus
c. mumps virus
d. none of the above
b. herpes virus
All of the following are included in the family of Herpes viruses EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION:
a. varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
b. epstein-barr virus (EBV)
c. cytomegalovirus (CMV)
d. coxsackievirus (A & B)
d. coxsackievirus (A & B)
Prions are the most recently recognized and the simplest infectious agents, consisting of a single protein molecule.
Prions contain no nucleic acid and therefore no genetic information.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
a. both statements are true
Herpes simplex virus type 2 is mainly spread through sexual contact.
It cannot be spread from mother to infant during child birth.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
It cannot be spread from mother to infant during child birth.❌
It CAN be spread from mother to infant during child birth.
Which of the following herpesvirus infections can be treated prophylactically by a vaccine?
a. HSV-1
b. HSV-2
c. varicella-zoster virus
d. Epstein-Barr virus
e. cytomegalovirus
c. varicella-zoster virus
A bacteriophage with the ability to form a stable, nondisruptive relationship with bacterium is called:
a. virulent phage
b. plasmid
c. temperate phage
d. phage T4
c. temperate phage
For each numbered definition below, select the most closely linked term from the list provided.
- A bacterial virus
- A cell within which a virus replicates
- Integration into the host genome without killing the host
- Viral multiplication within a host cell leading to destruction
- Transfer of DNA from a donor cell to a recipient cell with the DNA packaged within a bacteriophage
A. Bacteriophage
B. Host cell
C. Lysogenic cycle
D. Lytic Cycle
E. Transduction
- Bacteriophage- a bacterial virus
- Host cell- A cell within which a virus replicates
- Lysogenic cycle- Integration into the host genome without killing the host
- Lytic cycle- Viral multiplication within a host cell leading to destruction
- Transduction- Transfer of DNA from a donor cell to a recipient cell with the DNA packaged within a bacteriophage
For each numbered site of latency below, select the most closely linked virus from the list provided.
- Sacral Ganglia
- Resting memory B lymphocytes
- Trigeminal ganglion
- T lymphocytes
- Dorsal root and cranial nerve ganglia
A. HSV-2
B. Epstein-Barr
C. HSV-1
D. Cytomegalovirus
E. Varicella-Zoster
1.HSV-2: Sacral Ganglia
2. Epstein-Barr: Resting memory B lymphocytes
3. HSV-1: Trigeminal ganglion
4. Cytomegalovirus: T lymphocytes
5. Varicella-Zoster: Dorsal root and cranial nerve ganglia
Retroviruses contain an RNA genome and reverse transcriptase.
A provirus is formed as viral RNA is directly incorporated into the host DNA.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
a. the first statement is true, the second is false
A provirus is formed as viral RNA is directly incorporated into the host DNA❌
A provirus is formed as viral RNA is INDIRECTLY incorporated into the host DNA
NOTES:
Once infected, this reverse transcriptase uses the viral RNA as a template to create viral DNA, which is then incorporated into the host DNA to form a provirus. This provides the template for viral RNA synthesis by host-derived mechanisms.
All of the following are RNA enveloped viruses EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. rubella virus
b. influenzae viruses A, B, and C
c. rotavirus
d. measles virus
d. rotavirus ❌ (no ENVELOPE)
Human adenoviruses are unlikely to target the central nervous system BECAUSE adenoviruses prefer epithelial cells for replication.
a. both the statement and the reason are correct and related
b. both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related
c. the statement is correct, but the reason is NOT
d. the statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct
e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct
a. both the statement and the reason are correct and related
From the following list select the FOUR items associated with poliovirus.
a. reoviridae
b. salk vaccine
c. poliomyelitis
d. sabin vaccine
e. transverse myelitis
f. picornaviridae
g. MMR vaccine
b. salk vaccine
c. poliomyelitis
d. sabin vaccine
f. picornaviridae
Which of the following is the largest and most complex DNA virus?
a. poxvirus family
b. herpesvirus family
c. papovavirus family
d. parvovirus family
a. poxvirus family
All of the following are members of the Picornaviridae family EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. poliovirus
b. coxsackievirus
c. enterovirus
d. hepadnavirus
e. hepatitis A virus
d. rhinovirus
d. hepadnavirus❌
Atypical lymphocytes and a reactive heterophile antibody test are the most common findings of which of the following diseases?
a. toxoplasmosis
b. enteric fever
c. infectious mononucleosis
d. eosinophilia
c. infectious mononucleosis
HIV-1 and the related virus, HIV-2 are further classified as lentiviruses BECAUSE of their slowly progressive clinical effects.
a. both the statement and the reason are correct and related
b. both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related
c. the statement is correct, but the reason is NOT
d. the statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct
e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct
a. both the statement and the reason are correct and related
All of the following viruses have negative polarity or contain negative sense RNA EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. orthomyxoviruses
b. paramyxoviruses
c. rhabdoviruses
d. retroviruses
d. retroviruses❌ (positive polarity)
A mother takes her child to their primary care physician. The child has a recent history of malaise and fever, and now presents with a widespread rash on his trunk and face. The mother states that the child has received the vaccinia vaccine. This child has most likely been infected with:
a. variola
b. varicella-zoster
c. cytomegalovirus
d. herpes simplex type 1
b. varicella-zoster
Influenza viruses have all of the following features EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. single-stranded DNA
b. hemagglutinin
c. neuraminidase
d. genetic reassortment
e. lipoprotein coat
a. single-stranded DNA❌
DOUBLE-stranded DNA
For each numbered characteristic below, select the most closely linked disorder from the list provided.
- painful swelling of the parotid glands
- skin rash with Koplik’s spots
- flu-like symptoms and lymphadenopathy followed by a rash on the entire body
- inflammation of the pharynx
- complications include Reye’s Syndrome
A. measles
B. mumps
C. influenza
D. rubella
E. pharyngitis
- mumps- painful swelling of the parotid glands
- measles- skin rash with Koplik’s spots
- rubella- flu-like symptoms and lymphadenopathy followed by a rash on the entire body
- pharyngitis- inflammation of the pharynx
- influenza- complications include Reye’s Syndrome
Which of the following macromolecules is NOT synthesized during replication of a virus?
a. early mRNA
b. late mRNA
c. genes for enzymes and nucleic acid binding proteins
d. structural protein
e. immunoglobulin-like receptor
f. immunoglobulin-like receptor
For each characteristic on the left, select the most closely linked associated term from the list on the right.
- Virus that infects Escherichia coli
- When a virus enters a cell but does not replicate immediately
- Defective virus that requires helper virus to infect the host cell
- Single-stranded naked circular RNA
- Consist of both RNA and DNA versions of the genome
A. Satellite virus
B. Viroid
C. Retrovirus
D. Lambda
E. Lysogeny
- Lambda- Virus that infects Escherichia coli
- Lysogeny- When a virus enters a cell but does not replicate immediately
- Satellite virus- Defective virus that requires helper virus to infect the host cell
- Viroid- Single-stranded naked circular RNA
- Retrovirus- Consist of both RNA and DNA versions of the genome
Each of the following viruses cross the placenta EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. rubella
b. herpes
c. HIV
d. Measles
e. cytomegalovirus
d. Measles❌
The rubella virus that causes German measles belongs to which of the following virus families?
a. Togaviridae
b. Herpesviridae
c. Orthomyxovirus group
d. Paramyxovirus group
a. Togaviridae
All of the following are characteristics of Staphylococcus aureus EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. coagulase-negative
b. gram-positive
c. causes infective endocarditis
d. possesses surface protein A
e. causes toxic shock syndrome
a. coagulase-negative❌
coagulase-POSITIVE
From the following list select the THREE items associated with Staphylococcus aureus.
a. protein A
b. streptokinase
c. causes toxic shock syndrome
d. M protein
e. streptolysin O
f. causes scalded skin syndrome
d. gas gangrene
a. protein A
c. causes toxic shock syndrome
f. causes scalded skin syndrome
Which of the following is the predominant type of bacteria on the skin?
a. lactobacilli
b. lactic acid bacteria
c. neisseria
d. staphylococci
d. staphylococci
The Lancefield groupings are based on the antigenic characteristics of a cell wall carbohydrate called the A substance.
The main pathogenic groups for humans are A, B, C, D, and G.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
The Lancefield groupings are based on the antigenic characteristics of a cell wall carbohydrate called the A substance.❌
The Lancefield groupings are based on the antigenic characteristics of a cell wall carbohydrate called the C substance.
Endotoxins are part of the outer membrane of the cell wall of:
a. gram-positive bacteria only
b. gram-negative bacteria only
c. both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria
d. neither gram-positive nor gram-negative bacteria; they are a component of viruses
b. gram-negative bacteria only
Which of the following is essential to the function of the outer membrane of gram- negative bacteria?
a. protein
b. p antigen receptors
c. coagulase
d. LPS
d. LPS
Detection of protein A can be used as a specific identification test for:
a. Streptococcus pyrogenes
b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
c. Salmonella
d. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Staphylococcus aureus
Each of the following bacteria produce hyaluronidase EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Bordetella pertussis
d. Clostridium perfringens
c. Bordetella pertussis❌ (PERTUSIS AC)
Mycobacterium species, along with members of a related genus Nocardia, are classified as:
a. coagulase-positive bacteria
b. collagenase-positive bacteria
c. acid-fast bacteria
d. phospholipase-positive bacteria
c. acid-fast bacteria
In addition to peptidoglycan, the acid-fast cell wall of Mycobacterium contains a large amount of glycolipids, especially that make up approximately 60% of the acid-fast cell wall.
a. beta-lactamases
b. lipopolysaccharides
c. teichoic acids
d. mycolic acids
d. mycolic acids
A major factor in the cariogenicity of S. mutans is the ability to adhere to the tooth surface. This attachment is achieved largely in part due to the presence of an extracellular glycocalyx, or:
a. plasma membrane
b. capsule
c. pellicle
d. reticulum
b. capsule
Which of the following are associated with a Gram-negative cell wall? Select 2.
a. thick murein layer
b. lipopolysaccharide layers
c. teichoic acids
d. mycolic acids
e. thin murein layer
b. lipopolysaccharide layers
e. thin murein layer
Most species of lactic acid bacteria ferment glucose into galactose.
Lactobacillus species are frequently found in association with dental caries
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
Most species of lactic acid bacteria ferment glucose into galactose.❌
Most species of lactic acid bacteria ferment glucose into LACTATE.
The two organisms most commonly associated with the etiology of localized aggressive periodontitis are Capnocytophaga ochraceus and:
a. actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans (aa)
b. wolinella recta
c. porphyromonas gingivalis
d. actinomyces israelii
a. actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans (aa)
Streptococcus mutans grows optimally at a pH well below 7.0. From this statement, it can be reasoned that Streptococcus mutans is:
a. acidophilic
b. acidogenic
c. aciduric
d. alkaliphilic
e. neutrophilic
a. acidophilic
Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding Escherichia coli (E. coli) species?
a. they are catalase-negative
b. they ferment lactose
c. they ferment glucose
d. they reduce nitrates to nitrites
e. they are oxidase-negative
a. they are catalase-negative❌
they are catalase-POSITIVE
Which of the following tests is the key criterion for the identification of Staphylococcus aureus?
a. catalase test
b. coagulase test
c. indole test
d. bile solubility test
b. coagulase test
Which one of the following is NOT correct regarding the phagocytosis of bacteria?
a. neutrophils + macrophage + monocytes → phagocytic cells
b. bacteria + vacuole → phagosome
c. phagosome + lysosomes → phagolysosome
d. bacteria + phagocytic cell → pinocytosis
d. bacteria + phagocytic cell → pinocytosis❌
bacteria + phagocytic cell → PHAGOCYTOSIS
Which of the following is the process in which DNA is transferred from a bacterial donor cell to a recipient cell by cell-to-cell contact?
a. translation
b. transduction
c. transcription
d. conjugation
d. conjugation
The iodine used in Gram staining of bacteria acts as a
a. catalyst
b. mordant
c. chelator
d. decolorizer
b. mordant
The attachment of microbes and other foreign cells to phagocytes by antibody molecules such as IgG and complement proteins such as C3b is called:
a. conjugation
b. transformation
c. opsonization
d. adhesion
c. opsonization
All of the following statements regarding Mycoplasma organisms are true EXCEPT for one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. they are the smallest bacteria
b. they are devoid of a cell wall
c. they are surrounded only by a cell membrane
d. they lack sterols in their cytoplasmic membrane
a. they lack sterols in their cytoplasmic membrane❌
CONTAIN sterols in their cytoplasmic membrane
Spirochetes are a principal etiologic factor in necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.
Prevotella intermedia is the most common spirochete found in patients with this disease.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
Prevotella intermedia is the most common spirochete found in patients with this disease.❌
Prevotella intermedia AND TREPONEMA DENTICOLA (SPIROCHETES) are the most common spirochete found in patients with this disease
Cells from plants, fungi, and animals are prokaryotes, whereas bacteria and archaea belong to the eukaryotes.
The bacterial 70S ribosome is made up of 50S and 30S subunits and is a major target for antibacterial drugs.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
Cells from plants, fungi, and animals are prokaryotes, whereas bacteria and archaea belong to the eukaryotes.❌
Cells from plants, fungi, and animals are EUKARYOTES, whereas bacteria and archaea belong to the PROKARYOTES.
In terms of extracting chemical energy, aerobic respiration is more efficient than fermentation BECAUSE aerobic respiration utilizes metabolically derived organic acids as terminal electron receptors.
a. both the statement and the reason are correct and related
b. both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related
c. the statement is correct, but the reason is NOT
d. the statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct
d. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct
c. the statement is correct, but the reason is NOT
BECAUSE aerobic respiration utilizes metabolically derived organic acids as terminal electron receptors.❌
BECAUSE respiring organisms, including us, have come to dominate the earth
The bacteria most strongly linked with localized aggressive periodontitis (formerly called localized juvenile periodontitis) is:
a. Porphyromonas gingivalis
b. Tannerella forsythia
c. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
d. Prevotella intermedia
c. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
Anaerobic bacteria produce superoxide dismutase and catalase enzymes.
Most bacteria grow in either the presence or the absence of oxygen.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
Anaerobic bacteria produce superoxide dismutase and catalase enzymes. ❌
AEROBIC bacteria produce superoxide dismutase and catalase enzymes.
Some gram-positive, but never gram-negative, bacteria, such as members of the genera Bacillus and Clostridium, are spore formers.
The spore contains a complete copy of the chromosome, the bare minimum concentration of essential proteins and ribosomes, and a high concentration of calcium bound to dipicolinic acid.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
a. both statements are true
One of the most common forms of “traveler’s diarrhea” is caused by an enterotoxin produced by:
a. bacteroides
b. Escherichia coli
c. neisseria
d. eikenella
b. Escherichia coli
Which of the following statements regarding bacterial cell structures is NOT true?
a. the plasma membrane helps in electron transport and energy production
b. fimbriae help in motility of bacteria
c. peptidoglycan in the cell wall confers rigidity and shape to bacterial cells
d. sex pili mediate transfer of DNA during conjugation
b. fimbriae help in motility of bacteria❌
fimbriae is responsible for adherence of bacteria to host surfaces
Which of the following opportunistically infects its host and utilizes Exotoxin A ?
a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
b. Helicobacter pylori
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Which of the following is a symbiotic relationship in which both members of the association benefit?
a. parasitism
b. mutualism
c. commensalism
d. margination
b. mutualism
For each numbered function listed on the left, select the most closely linked cell structure from the list on the right.
- It carries amino acids to the ribosome
- It carries genetic information from the genes to the rest of the cell
- It makes up part of the structure of a ribosome
- Specialized RNA that terminates protein synthesis
- Extrachromosomal genetic elements
A. Messenger RNA (mRNA)
B. Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
C. Transfer RNA (tRNA)
D. Plasmids
E. Transfer messenger RNA (tmRNA)
- Transfer RNA (tRNA)- It carries amino acids to the ribosome
- Messenger RNA (mRNA)- It carries genetic information from the genes to the rest of the cell
- Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)- It makes up part of the structure of a ribosome
- Transfer messenger RNA (tmRNA)- Specialized RNA that terminates protein synthesis
- Plasmids- Extrachromosomal genetic elements
Shrinkage in cell size by loss of cellular substance is known as:
a. atrophy
b. hypertrophy
c. hyperplasia
d. metaplasia
a. atrophy
Tissue transferred between genetically different members of the same species is known as a(n):
a. autologous graft
b. allogeneic graft
c. syngeneic graft
d. xenogeneic graft
b. allogeneic graft
Cellular degradation by enzymes derived from sources extrinsic to the cell is known as:
a. necrosis
b. heterolysis
c. autolysis
d. apoptosis
b. heterolysis
Interferons are species-specific proteins.
In contrast to antibodies, interferons are virus specific but not host specific.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
In contrast to antibodies, interferons are virus specific but not host specific.❌
In contrast to antibodies, interferons are NOT virus specific but host specific
Small polypeptides released by a cell in order to change the function of the same or another cell are called:
a. collectins
b. cytokines
c. defensins
d. effector cells
b. cytokines
Which metabolic pathway is used to convert arachidonic acid into prostaglandins, prostacyclin, or thromboxanes?
a. the lipoxygenase pathway
b. the pentose phosphate pathway
c. the HMG-CoA reductase pathway
d. the cyclooxygenase pathway
the cyclooxygenase pathway
Serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine) is a preformed vasoactive mediator with actions similar to those of:
a. heparin
b. thrombin
c. acetylcholine
d. histamine
d. histamine
Histamine is released largely in part by:
a. macrophages
b. enteroendocrine cells
c. lymphocytes
d. neutrophils
e. mast cell
e. mast cell
All of the following statements regarding plasmin are true EXCEPT for one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. it is a proteolytic enzyme
b. it is formed from plasminogen
c. it digests fibrin and fibrinogen
d. its deficiency causes classic hemophilia
d. Its deficiency causes classic hemophilia❌
(FACTOR VIII)
G6PD deficiency provides partial protection against malaria.
G6PD deficiency is inherited as an X-linked recessive manner.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
a. both statements are true
Cytochromes are found in the mitochondrial inner membrane of prokaryotes.
The mitochondrial electron transport proteins are clustered into complexes known as Complex I, II, III and IV.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
Cytochromes are found in the mitochondrial inner membrane of prokaryotes.❌
Cytochromes are found in the mitochondrial inner membrane of EUKARYOTES.
Which interleukin favors TH-1 type responses and counteracts the action of IL-10?
a. IL-1
b. IL-2
c. IL-6
d. IL-12
d. IL-12
Which of the following is present in the secondary granules of neutrophils?
a. lactoferrin
b. proteolytic enzymes
c. nucleotidase
d. catalase
a. lactoferrin
A bacterial cell wall component susceptible to lysozyme is:
a. lipopolysaccharide
b. teichoic acid
c. lipoprotein
d. peptidoglycan
d. peptidoglycan
Which of the following cell structures acts as the site of mRNA attachment and amino acid assembly?
a. nucleolus
b. lysosomes
c. plasma membrane
d. golgi apparatus
e. ribosomes
e. ribosomes
All of the following are functions of peroxisomes EXCEPT:
a. degradation of alcohol
b. catabolization of long-chain fatty acids
c. catabolization of short-chain fatty acids
d. regulation of hydrogen peroxide (H2Oг )
c. catabolization of short-chain fatty acids❌
catabolization of LONG-chain fatty acids
All of the following are potential characteristics of T cells EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. CD3+
b. CD4+
c. CD8+
d. antigen recognition requires MHC proteins
e. frontline phagocytic cells
e. frontline phagocytic cells❌
Surface membrane immunoglobulin is a marker for:
a. mature T lymphocytes
b. neutrophils
c. mature B lymphocytes
d. monocyte
c. mature B lymphocytes
A surgical wound closed by a sterile suture would heal by:
a. first intention
b. second intention
c. third intention
d. keloid formation
a. first intention
Susceptibility to teratogens is specific for each developmental stage BECAUSE teratogens are dose dependent.
a. both the statement and the reason are correct and related
b. both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related
c. the statement is correct, but the reason is NOT
d. the statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct
e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct
b. both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related
The symptoms of sepsis include all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. fever
b. weakness
c. painful urination
d. nausea
e. vomiting
c. painful urination❌
Following loss or damage to liver tissue, liver cells regenerate by proliferation of surviving hepatocytes or from repopulation of progenitor cells.
Liver cells multiply constantly throughout life, and are thus labile cells.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
Liver cells multiply constantly throughout life, and are thus labile cells.❌
Liver cells multiply constantly throughout life, and are thus STABLE cells
The macrophage is the dominant cellular player in chronic inflammation.
The mononuclear phagocyte system (sometimes called the reticuloendothelial system) consists of closely related cells of bone marrow origin, including blood monocytes and tissue macrophages.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
a. both statements are true
Order the sequence of healing. Match each letter with its proper sequence number.
A. Epithelial bridges cross the wound
B. Inflammation subsides and blanching begins
C. Clotted blood covers the incision and neutrophils accumulate at the wound margins
E. Inflammatory cells are entirely absent
D. Connective tissue bridges the wound
F. Granulation tissue fills the incision space
(C) Clotted blood covers the incision and neutrophils accumulate at the wound margins
(A) Epithelial bridges cross the wound
(F) Granulation tissue fills the incision space
(D) Connective tissue bridges the wound
(B) Inflammation subsides and blanching begins
(E) Inflammatory cells are entirely absent
Each of the following fungal genera cause dermatophytosis EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. blastomyces
b. microsporum
c. trichophyton
d. epidermophyton
a. blastomyces
All of the following are possible characteristics of fungi EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. dimorphic
b. prokaryotic
c. septated
d. sporulate
b. prokaryotic❌
For each numbered term on the left, select the most closely linked description from the list on the right.
- anamorph
- arthrospores
- teleomorph
- blastospores
A. conidia, the asexual reproductive structure that is produced by budding
B. the sexual reproductive state of a fungus
C. asexual reproductive state of fungus
D. conidia, which is produced from the fragmentation of hyphal cells
- anamorph- asexual reproductive state of fungus
- arthrospores- conidia, which is produced from the fragmentation of hyphal cells
- teleomorph- the sexual reproductive state of a fungus
- blastospores- conidia, the asexual reproductive structure that is produced by budding
The endemic mycoses are fungal infections caused by the classic dimorphic fungal pathogens Histoplasma capsulatum,Blastomyces dermatitidis, Coccidioides immitis, Coccidioides posadasii, and Paracoccodioides brasiliensis.
All of these agents produce primary infection in the heart, with subsequent dissemination to other organs and tissues.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
a. the first statement is true, the second is false
All of the these agents produce primary infection in the heart, with subsequent dissemination to other organs and tissues.❌
All of the these agents produce primary infection in the LUNG, with subsequent dissemination to other organs and tissues.
Which of the following is opportunistic in patients with diabetes, leukemia, severe burns, or malnutrition?
a. aspergillosis
b. cryptococcosis
c. zygomycosis
d. dermatophytoses
c. zygomycosis
All of the following are classified as superficial mycoses EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Malassezia furfur
b. Aspergillus fumigatus
c. Hortae werneckii
d. Piedraia hortae
e. Trichosporon spp
b. Aspergillus fumigatus
Malaria in humans is caused by one of four protozoan species of the genus:
a. trichomonas
b. plasmodium
c. cryptosporidium
d. toxoplasm
b. plasmodium
Which of the following protozoan is the etiologic agent of amebic dysentery?
a. Giardia lamella
b. Trichomonas vaginalis
c. Balantidium coli
d. Entamoeba histolytica
d. Entamoeba histolytica
Which of the following diseases is a zoonotic infection transmitted from cats?
a. toxoplasmosis
b. histoplasmosis
c. trichomoniasis
d. all of the above
a. toxoplasmosis
Helminths are the largest internal human parasite.
Helminths reproduce sexually, generating millions of eggs or larvae.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
a. both statements are true
From the following list select the THREE items associated with adult polycystic kidney disease (APKD).
a. autosomal dominant
b. shrunken kidneys
c. corticomedullary cysts
d. large multicystic kidneys
e. liver cysts
f. hepatic fibrosis
a. autosomal dominant
d. large multicystic kidneys
e. liver cysts
Malignant hypertension can adversely affect all the major organ systems. The most susceptible organ is/are the:
a. intestines
b. lungs
c. heart
d. brain
e. kidneys
e. Kidney
Nephrolithiasis (renal stones) is manifested by severe spasms of pain (renal colic) and hematuria, often with recurrent stone formation.
The most commonly occurring form of nephrolithiasis is struvite stones.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
The most commonly occurring form of nephrolithiasis is struvite stones.❌
The most commonly occurring form of nephrolithiasis is KIDNEY stones.
Causes of hydronephrosis include each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. nephrolithiasis
b. a blood clot
c. a tumor in or around the ureter
d. a bacterial infection
e. pregnancy
d. a bacterial infection❌
Nephrotic syndrome (NS), a glomerular disease is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. heavy proteinuria
b. lipiduria
c. hyperalbuminemia
d. hyperlipidemia
e. severe edema
c. hyperalbuminemia❌
Which of the following is the classic presentation of acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis?
a. rapidly progressing glomerulonephritis
b. nephrotic syndrome
c. nephritic syndrome
d. nephrolithiasis
b. nephritic syndrome
The dominant intrahepatic cause of portal hypertension is:
a. obstructive thrombosis
b. severe right-sided heart failure
c. cirrhosis
d. constrictive pericarditis
c. cirrhosis
Ascites is the accumulation of excess fluid in the pleural cavity.
In 85% of cases, ascites is caused by cirrhosis.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
Ascites is the accumulation of excess fluid in the pleural cavity.❌
Ascites is the accumulation of excess fluid in the PERITONEAL cavity.
A patient was told by her physician that her skin xanthomas and pruritis are a sign of cholestasis. Another likely clinical manifestation of cholestasis is:
a. proteinuria
b. hypobilirubinemia
c. albuminemia
d. jaundice
d. jaundice
The most common symptom of hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) is:
a. abdominal pain
b. confusion
c. weight loss
d. impotence
e. nausea
a. abdominal pain
From the following list select THREE items associated with hepatitis B.
a. fecal-oral route of transmission
b. intravenous drug abuse
c. anti-HAV IgM
d. anti-delta agent antibody
e. parenteral transmission
f. HBsAg
b. intravenous drug abuse
e. parenteral transmission
f. HBsAg
All of the following are characteristics or sequelae of cirrhosis EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. fibrous septae
b. more prevalent in females
c. parenchymal regeneration
d. portal hypertension
e. hepatocellular carcinoma
b. more prevalent in females❌
more prevalent in MALE
Which type of emphysema is associated with aging and alpha,- antitrypsin deficiency?
a. paraseptal (distal acinar)
b. centriacinar (centrilobular)
c. panacinar (panlobular)
d. irregular
c. panacinar (panlobular)
For each numbered pathologic change listed below, select the most closely linked clinical term from the list provided.
Pathologic Changes
1. Smooth muscle hyperplasia, excess mucus, inflammation
2. Mucous gland hyperplasia, hypersecretion
3. Airspace enlargement, wall destruction
4. Airway dilation and scarring
5. Inflammatory scarring/obliteration
Clinical Term
A. Emphysema
B. Small-airway disease, bronchiolitis
C. Bronchiectasis
D. Asthma
E. Chronic bronchitis
- Asthma- Smooth muscle hyperplasia, excess mucus, inflammation
- Chronic bronchitis- Mucous gland hyperplasia, hypersecretion
- Emphysema- Airspace enlargement, wall destruction
- Bronchiectasis- Airway dilation and scarring
- Small-airway disease, bronchiolitis- Inflammatory scarring/obliteration
The most common type of asthma, atopic asthma, is a classic example of:
a. type 1 IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction
b. type II IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction
c. type III IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction
d. type IV IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction
a. type I IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction
Causes of left-sided congestive heart failure include all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. pulmonary edema
b. ischemic heart disease
c. mitral regurgitation
d. myocarditis
a. pulmonary edema
Malabsorption of fat-soluble vitamins is likely in most patients with:
a. Von Hippel-Lindau disease
b. cystic fibrosis
c. Marfan’s syndrome
d. familial hypercholesterolemia
b. cystic fibrosis
Which of the following is caused by the inhalation of carbon dust?
a. asbestosis
b. silicosis
c. coal workers’ pneumoconiosis
d. anthracosis
d. anthracosis
Interstitial pneumonia is most often caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae.
The virulence of the pneumococcus is associated with its capsular polysaccharide.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
Interstitial pneumonia is most often caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae.❌
LOBAR pneumonia is most often caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae
Which of the following are most often responsible for lung abcesses ?
a. proteus
b. klebsiella
c. staphylococci
d. pseudomonas
c. staphylococci
From the following list select the TWO items associated with nodular melanoma
a. most common type of melanoma
b. radial growth phase predominates
c. vertical growth phase predominates
d. Hutchinson freckle
e. least common type of melanoma
f. bleeding or ulceration
c. vertical growth phase predominates
f. bleeding or ulceration
All of the following are clinical symptoms of a pheochromocytoma EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. bradycardia
b. hypertension
c. headaches
d. palpitations
e. diaphoresis
a. bradycardia❌
tachycardia
Which of the following are the most aggressive of lung tumors, metastasize widely, and are virtually incurable by surgical means?
a. epidermoid (squamous cell) carcinoma
b. adenocarcinoma
c. small cell (oat cell) carcinoma
d. large cell (anaplastic) carcinoma
c. small cell (oat cell) carcinoma
Which of the following lymphomas usually involves abdominal organs and is closely linked to the Epstein-Barr virus?
a. non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
b. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
c. mantle cell lymphoma
d. Burkitt’s lymphoma
e. follicular lymphoma
d. Burkitt’s lymphoma
All of the following are peripheral T-cell and NK cell neoplasms EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. mycosis fungoides/sezary syndrome
b. large granular lymphocytic leukemia
c. anaplastic large-cell lymphoma
d. Burkitt’s lymphoma
d. Burkitt’s lymphoma❌
Invasion of the dermis by sheets and islands of neoplastic epidermal cells, often with “keratin pearls,” is characteristic of:
a. squamous cell carcinoma
b. basal cell carcinoma
c. malignant melanoma
d. nodular melanoma
e. lentigo maligna melanoma
a. squamous cell carcinoma
Basal cell carcinomas frequently metastasize BECAUSE they are locally aggressive and can form ulcerations and bleed.
a. both the statement and the reason are correct and related
b. both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related
c. the statement is correct, but the reason is NOT
d. the statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct
e. neither the statement NOR the reason is correct
d. the statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct
Basal cell carcinomas frequently metastasize ❌
Basal cell carcinomas RARELY metastasize
Which of the following potential carcinogens is most likely to produce free radicals?
a. an alkylating agent
b. ultraviolet light
c. a virus
d. ionizing radiation
d. ionizing radiation
________ of the colon is the most common malignancy of the Gl tract and is a major cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide.
a. Sarcoma
b. Adenocarcinoma
c. Lymphoma
b. Adenocarcinoma
A patient has prostate cancer. In addition to an increase in prostate-specific antigen, which serum marker might also be elevated?
a. human chorionic gonadotropin
b. acid phosphatase
c. carcinoembryonic antigen-125
d. Bence Jones protein
b. acid phosphatase
All of the following are true regarding Kaposi sarcoma EXCEPT:
a. it is a vascular tumor
b. it is caused by herpesvirus type 2
c. it is highly associated with HIV/AIDS
d. it is a classic lesion characterized by red purple patches and plaques that eventually become nodular
b. it is caused by herpesvirus type 2❌
it is caused by herpesvirus type 8
All of the following are well-known characteristics or associations of breast cancer EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. positive family history
b. late menarche
c. a diet high in animal fats
d. delayed first pregnancy
e. obesity
b. late menarche❌
A 52-year-old male with a 15-year history of smoking presented to the emergency department with pain along the left shoulder extending to the left arm. On examination, ptosis was observed. His chest radiograph showed soft tissue opacity at the left apex of the lung with partial destruction of first and second left posterior ribs near the costovertebral junction. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. constrictive pericarditis
b. pancoast tumor
c. bronchial carcinoid
d. adenocarcinoma lung
b. pancoast tumor
Often the first signs of lung cancer are related to metastatic spread, particularly to the:
a. liver
b. heart
c. brain
d. thyroid
c. Brain
The hallmark of _________ is the presence of the clonal malignant Reed-Sternberg cell in a lymph node biopsy or (rarely) extranodal tissue.
a. chronic lymphocytic leukemia
b. non-Hodgkin lymphoma
c. multiple myeloma
d. Hodgkin lymphoma
d. Hodgkin lymphoma
A study is performed to analyze characteristics of malignant neoplasms in biopsy specimens. The biopsies were performed on patient who upon digital rectal exmination showed palpable mass lesions. Of the following microscopic findings, which is most likely to indicate that the neoplasm is malignant?
a. pleomorphism
b. atypia
c. metastasis
d. increased nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio
e. necrosis
c. metastasis
Which one of the following is NOT associated with multiple myeloma?
a. lytic bone lesions
b. Bence-Jones protein
c. renal failure
d. hypocalcemia
c. anemia
d. hypocalcemia❌
Which of the following contains recognizable mature or immature cells or tissues representative of more than one germ cell layer and sometimes all three?
a. carcinoma
b. sarcoma
c. teratoma
d. APUDoma
c. teratoma
Which of the following is a histologic hallmark of malignancy?
a. dysplasia
b. anaplasia
c. metaplasia
d. desmoplasia
b. anaplasia
All of the following are benign tumors of mesenchymal origin EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. osteogenic sarcoma
b. lipoma
c. fibroma
d. chondroma
a. osteogenic sarcoma❌ (malignant)
The Ewing sarcoma family of tumors encompasses Ewing sarcoma and primitive neuroectodermal tumor (PNET), which are primary malignant small round-cell tumors of bone and soft tissue.
Ewing sarcoma and PNET together account for approximately 6% to 10% of primary malignant bone tumors and follow osteosarcoma as the second most common group of bone sarcomas in children.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true; the second is false
d. the first statement is false; the second is true
a. both statements are true
All of the following are benign neoplasms EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. adenoma
b. fibroma
c. carcinoma
d. hemangioma
e. lipoma
c. carcinoma❌ (malignant)
For each numbered clinical feature listed below, select the most closely linked bone tumor from the list provided.
Clinical Feature
1. Arises from osteoclasts and osteoblasts
2. Develops on the surface of bone instead of the interior
3. Develops from cartilage (malignant)
4. Most commonly in long bones, especially the knee
Bone Tumor
A. Osteogenic sarcoma
B. Malignant giant cell tumor
C. Osteoid osteoma
D. Chondrosarcoma
E. Parosteal osteogenic sarcoma
F. Osteochondroma
- Osteogenic sarcoma- Arises from osteoclasts and osteoblasts
- Parosteal osteogenic sarcoma- Develops on the surface of bone instead of the interior
- Chondrosarcoma- Develops from cartilage (malignant)
- Malignant giant cell tumor- Most commonly in long bones, especially the knee
Which bone tumor of nonosseous origin is characterized by constipation and visual disturbances?
a. Ewing sarcoma
b. fibrosarcoma
c. chordoma
d. none of the above
c. chordoma
Which of the following is a cutaneous disorder marked by hyperkeratosis and pigmentation of the axilla, neck, flexures, and anogenital region?
a. dermatofibroma
b. seborrheic keratosis
c. acrochordon
d. acanthosis nigricans
e. actinic keratosis
d. acanthosis nigricans
A melanoma in the vertical growth phase that has invaded 1.5 mm into the dermal layer has a higher metastatic potential than a melanoma in the horizontal growth phase.
The overall prognosis is best determined by measuring the diameter of the lesion.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true.
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
The overall prognosis is best determined by measuring the diameter of the lesion.❌
The overall prognosis is NOT determined by measuring the diameter of the lesion.
The Schilling test may be used to detect:
a. folate deficiency
b. aplastic anemia
c. pernicious anemia
d. myelophthisic anemia
c. pernicious anemia
Arterial or cardiac thrombi usually begin at sites of turbulence or endothelial injury.
Venous thrombi tend to grow retrograde from the point of attachment.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
Venous thrombi tend to grow retrograde from the point of attachment.❌
ARTERIAL thrombi tend to grow retrograde from the point of attachment.
The body structures most vulnerable to high blood pressure include all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. blood vessels
b. small intestines
c. brain
d. kidneys
e. heart
b. small intestines❌
The most common cause of secondary hypertension is:
a. pheochromocytoma
b. kidney disease
c. hypothyroidism
d. hyperparathyroidism
b. kidney disease
From the following list select the THREE items associated with the normocytic classification of anemia.
a. iron deficiency
b. thalassemias
c. aplastic anemia
d. anemia of chronic disease
e. liver disease
f. vitamin B12 and folate deficiency
g. acute and chronic blood loss
c. aplastic anemia
d. anemia of chronic disease
g. acute and chronic blood loss
Warfarin is an effective anticoagulant that functions by its antagonistic action on:
a. vitamin A
b. vitamin D
c. vitamin E
d. vitamin K
d. vitamin K
The most common form of erythroblastosis fetalis is ABO incompatibility, which can vary in severity.
The less common form is called Rh incompatibility, which can cause very severe anemia in the baby.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
a. both statements are true
The classic pentad of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura includes all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
b. thrombocytopenia
c. liver dysfunction
d. transient neurologic deficits
e. fever
f. renal failure
c. liver dysfunction❌
Which of the following types of arteriosclerosis is characterized by calcific deposits in muscular arteries in persons typically older than age 50?
a. Mönckeberg medial sclerosis
b atherosclerosis
c. arteriolosclerosis (hyperplastic)
d. arteriolosclerosis (hyaline)
a. Mönckeberg medial sclerosis
In sickle cell anemia, the globin portion of the molecule is abnormal due to the amino acid valine being substituted for which of the following amino acids?
a. glutamine
b. glutamic acid
c. aspartic acid
d. glycine
b. glutamic acid
A man who has had flu-like symptoms, but without a fever, now shows a cherry-red discoloration of the skin, mucosa and tissues. He is most likely suffering from an acute:
a. carbon monoxide poisoning
b. mercury poisoning
c. fluoride poisoning
d. sarcoidosis
e. miliary tuberculosis
a. carbon monoxide poisoning
Hemophilia A and von Willebrand Disease both directly involve clotting factor VIII.
Hemophilia B also directly affects clotting factor VIII.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
Hemophilia B also directly affects clotting factor VIII❌
Hemophilia B also directly affects clotting factor IX
Which of the following occurs most commonly in elderly women and is associated with the postmenopausal state and estrogen deficiency?
a. osteogenesis imperfecta
b. osteoporosis
c. myasthenia gravis
d. osteoarthritis
b. osteoporosis
All of the following are features of Albers-Schonberg disease EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. anemia
b. multiple bone fractures
c. decreased bone density
d. blindness
e. deafness
c. decreased bone density❌
INCREASE bone density
For each numbered site of osteochondrosis listed below, select the most closely linked disorder from the list provided.
Site
1. Head of femur
2. Tibial tuberosity
3. Tarsal navicular bone
4. Intervertebral joints
5. Metatarsal head
Disorder
A. Kohler disease
B. Freiberg infraction
C. Scheuermann disease
D. Perthes’ disease
E. Osgood-Schlatter disease
- Perthes’ disease— Head of femur
- Osgood-Schlatter disease—Tibial tuberosity
- Kohler disease—Tarsal navicular bone
- Scheuermann disease—Intervertebral joints
- Freiberg infraction—Metatarsal head
Osteitis deformans presents as a mixed radiopaque and radiolucent lesion BECAUSE the mixed stage of the disease features prominent osteolysis and osteogenesis.
a. both the statement and the reason are correct and related
b. both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related
c. the statement is correct, but the reason is NOT
d. the statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct
e. neither the statement NOR the reason is correct
a. both the statement and the reason are correct and related
Rickets occurs only in children; its typical adult counterpart is called:
a. osteitis fibrosa cystica
b. osteitis deformans
c. osteopetrosis
d. osteomalacia
e. osteomyelitis
d. osteomalacia
Order the histologic stages of fracture healing.
A. Replacement of callus by lamellar bone
B. Remodeling of bone to normal contour
C. Fracture
D. Formation of granulation tissue around fractured bone cells
E. Replacement of granulation tissue by callus
(C) Fracture
(D) Formation of granulation tissue around fractured bone cells
(E) Replacement of granulation tissue by callus
(A) Replacement of callus by lamellar bone
(B) Remodeling of bone to normal contour
Which of the following is the most common viral cause of pericarditis?
a. mumps
b. influenzae
c. herpes
d. HIV
e. coxsackie B virus and echovirus
e. coxsackie B virus and echovirus
The most common cause of right-sided heart failure is:
a. left-sided heart failure
b. hypertension
c. ischemic heart disease
d. aortic and mitral valvular disease
a. left-sided heart failure
Which of the following types of angina is characterized by prolonged or recurrent chest pain at rest?
a. stable angina
b. unstable angina
c. Prinzmetal’s angina
d. variant angina
b. unstable angina
Which of the following is the first cardiac marker to increase after a myocardial infarction?
a. creatine kinase
b. troponin
c. myoglobin
d. lactate dehydrogenase
c. myoglobin
Approximately 50% of cases of subacute (bacterial) endocarditis are caused by:
a. Serratia
b. Pseudomonas
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Streptococcus viridans
d. Streptococcus viridans
The most commonly encountered neck space infection is:
a. angioedema
b. Vincent’s angina
c. Ludwig’s angina
d. hereditary angioedema
c. Ludwig’s angina
Tetanospasmin is a neurotoxin that inactivates proteins that regulate the release of which of the following neurotransmitters?
a. glycine and 5-HT
b. norepinephrine and epinephrine
c. GABA and 5-HT
d. 5-HT and epinephrine
e. glycine and GABA
e. glycine and GABA
Eosinophilia is often associated with:
a. acute infections
b. viral infections
c. tuberculosis
d. parasitic infections
d. parasitic infections
While the cause and cure remain unknown, research has established a link between Reye’s syndrome and the use of:
a. ibuprofen
b. aspirin
c. acetaminophen
d. amoxicillin
e. diphenhydramine
b. Aspirin
The symptoms of tuberculosis include all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. a bad cough that lasts 3 weeks or longer
b. pain in the chest
c. coughing up blood or sputum
d. weakness or fatigue
e. weight gain
f. no appetite
g. chills
h. fever
i. sweating at night
e. weight gain❌
weight LOSS
Which of the following signs are NOT associated with acute appendicitis?
a. Cullen’s and Turner’s signs
b. Obturator sign
c. Rovsing sign
d. Psoas sign
e. Dunphy sign
a. Cullen’s and Turner’s signs
Chlamydial cervicitis, the most common sexually transmitted infection, is caused by which of the following bacteria?
a. C. difficile
b. C. perfringens
c. C. trachomatis
d. C. suis
e. C. muridarum
c. C. trachomatis
The characteristic lesion of secondary syphilis is known as:
a. chancre
b. gumma
c. condyloma lata
d. condyloma acuminatum
c. condyloma lata
Encephalitis is most often caused by a:
a. bacterial infection
b. viral infection
c. fungal infection
d. parasitic infection
b. viral infection
An infection is epidemic if:
a. it has a worldwide distribution
b. it is constantly present at minimal levels within a population
c. it occurs more frequently than normal within a population
d. it is highly communicable
a. it has a worldwide distribution
Acute lymphoblastic leukemia equally affects young children and adults.
This acute leukemia is the most responsive to treatment.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
Acute lymphoblastic leukemia equally affects young children and adults.❌
Acute lymphoblastic leukemia equally affects CHILDREN
The principal organ(s) involved in acute leukemia is/are the:
a. bone marrow
b. brain
c. lungs
d. kidneys
a. Bone marrow
The Philadelphia chromosome and low levels of leukocyte alkaline phosphatase are common characteristics of which type of leukemia?
a. acute myeloid leukemia
b. acute lymphoblastic leukemia
c. chronic myeloid leukemia
d. chronic lymphocytic leukemia
c. chronic myeloid leukemia
No definitive causes have been identified for leukemia.
Possible risk factors include genetic predisposition, environmental exposure to chemicals and radiation, and viruses.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
a. both statements are true
Which of the following immunoglobulins is predominantly found in saliva?
a. immunoglobulin A
b. immunoglobulin G
c. immunoglobulin M
d. immunoglobulin E
a. immunoglobulin A
A patient with a true allergy to a medication is unknowingly injected with the medication. This will lead to:
a. low levels of histamine
b. hyperglobulinemia
c. systemic anaphylaxis
d. localized anaphylaxis
c. systemic anaphylaxis
Cellular immunity is immunity mediated by:
a. B-lymphocytes
b. T-lymphocytes
c. both B- and T-lymphocytes
d. neither B-nor T-lymphocytes
b. T-lymphocytes
Of the anaphylatoxins, C3a is more stable and more potent than C5a.
Only mast cells have receptors specific for C5a and C3а.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
b. both statements are false
Of the anaphylatoxins, C3a is more stable and more potent than C5a.❌
Of the anaphylatoxins, C5a is more stable and more potent than C3a.
Only mast cells have receptors specific for C5a and C3а❌
An exaggerated IgE response to an environmental allergen, a condition known as atopy, manifests itself in all the following ways EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. dermatitis
b. rhinitis
c. jaundice
d. asthma
c. jaundice❌
Which of the following is the most frequently employed diagnostic laboratory technique for the microscopic detection of antigens in tissue secretions or in cell suspensions?
a. immunofluorescence
b. agglutination
c. radioimmunoassay
c. precipitation
d. enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
a. immunofluorescence
Which of the following major pathways of complement activation is triggered by the presence of infection, but does not involve antibody?
a. the classical pathway
b. the alternative pathway
c. the lectin pathway
d. all of the above
b. the alternative pathway
In passive immunity, antibodies are preformed in another host.
Passive immunity lasts as long as active immunity.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
Passive immunity lasts as long as active immunity.❌
Passive immunity DOES NOT lasts as long as active immunity.
A small molecule, not antigenic by itself, that can react with antibodies is called a(an):
a. epitope
b. hapten
c. plasmid
d. immunogen
b. Hapten
Which of the following types of immunity is conferred by transferring lymphoid cells from an actively immunized donor to a naive or immunocompromised host?
a. acquired immunity
b. humoral immunity
c. passive immunity
d. active immunity
e. adoptive immunity
e. adoptive immunity
The complement system is a group of plasma proteins that attack pathogens.
These proteins are primarily synthesized by the kidney.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
These proteins are primarily synthesized by the kidney.❌
These proteins are primarily synthesized by the LIVER.
Each of the following are associated with an anaphylactic hypersensitivity reaction EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. histamine
b. heparin
c. platelet-activating factors
d. serotonin
e. dopamine
e. dopamine
IgM, IgA, and IgG are the main antibodies present in blood, lymph, and the intercellular fluid in conective tissues.
IgA is also made in the lymphoid tissues underlying mucosa and then selectively transported across the mucosal epithelium to bind extracellular pathogens and their toxins on the mucosal surfaces.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d, the first statement is false, the second is true
a. both statements are true
Individuals with which blood group are considered to be universal donors?
a. A
b. B
c. O
d. AB
c. O
Type II hypersensitivity reactions result from the binding of antigen to antigen-specific IgE bound to its Fc receptor, principally on mast cells.
Type III hypersensitivity reactions are caused by small soluble immune complexes formed by soluble protein antigens binding to the IgG made against them.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
Type II hypersensitivity reactions result from the binding of antigen to antigen-specific IgE bound to its Fc receptor, principally on mast cells.❌
Type I hypersensitivity reactions result from the binding of antigen to antigen-specific IgE bound to its Fc receptor, principally on mast cells.
From the following list select the THREE items associated with humoral immunity.
a. provides immunity against extracellular pathogens
b. provides immunity against intracellular pathogens
c. mediated by T-cells
d. mediated by antibodies produced by B-cells
e. antibodies neutralize and eliminate pathogens and toxins
a. provides immunity against extracellular pathogens
d. mediated by antibodies produced by B-cells
e. antibodies neutralize and eliminate pathogens and toxins
All of the following statements regarding the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecule are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. it plays a role in the acute rejection of transplanted tissue
b. it assists T-cells in the recognition of intracellular pathogens
c. it is a glycoprotein secreted by activated plasma cells
d. it is able to interact with the T-cell receptor
e. it is coded by a group of highly polymorphic genes
c. it is a glycoprotein secreted by activated plasma cells❌
MHC molecules are membrane glycoproteins that are not secreted by any type of cell
Although many substances and preparations are known to be adjuvants, the only adjuvants approved for use in human vaccines are:
a. Freund’s complete adjuvant and Alum
b. Freund’s incomplete adjuvant and MF59
c. Immune stimulatory complexes (ISCOMs) and Alum
d. Alum and MF59
d. Alum and MF59
A bacterial toxin that has been weakened until it is no longer toxic but is strong enough to induce the formation of antibodies and immunity to the specific disease caused by the toxin is called a(an):
a. antitoxin
b. antivenin
c. antiserum
d. toxoid
d. toxoid
Human HBIG to prevent hepatitis B in those not actively immunized with the Hep B vaccine is an example of:
a. naturally acquired passive immunity
b. naturally acquired active immunity
c. artificially acquired active immunity
d. artificially acquired passive immunity
d. artificially acquired passive immunity
All of the following vaccines contain attenuated virus EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. yellow fever
b. measles
c. influenza
d. mumps
e. rubella
c. influenza ❌
Each of the following are an example of a live attenuated bacterial vaccine EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. mycobacterium bovis vaccine
b. salmonella typhi vaccine
c. yersinia pestis vaccine
d. coxiella burnetti vaccine
c. yersinia pestis vaccine
Persons vaccinated against hepatitis B virus who have developed immunity are also immune to the:
a. hepatitis A virus
b. hepatitis C virus
c. hepatitis D virus
d. hepatitis E virus
c. hepatitis D virus
From the following list select the THREE items associated with rheumatic fever.
a. pancarditis
b. group B streptococci
c. koplik spots
d. bullous skin lesions
e. aschoff bodies
f. sydenham chorea
a. pancarditis
e. aschoff bodies
f. sydenham chorea
All of the following are characteristics of Addison’s disease EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. hypertension
b. increased pigmentation of the skin
c. hypoglycemia
d. increased serum potassium
a. hypertension❌
Osteoarthritis (degenerative joint disease) is the most common type of joint disease.
Heberden nodes, bony swellings in the distal interphalangeal joints, are a characteristic morphological change.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
a. both statements are true
All of the following can be classified as a type of Langerhans cell histiocytosis EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Letterer-Siwe disease
b. Bruton disease
c. Hand-Schuller-Christian disease
d. eosinophilic granuloma
b. Bruton disease❌
Primary hyperparathyroidism is most often caused by:
a. liver disease
b. parathyroid adenoma
c. bronchogenic squamous cell carcinoma
d. hypocalcemia of chronic renal disease
b. parathyroid adenoma
For each numbered symptom listed below, select the most closely linked collagen vascular disease from the list provided.
- Systemic vasculitis
- Skin rash
- Widespread connective tissue fibrosis
- Butterfly rash over the cheeks and bridge of nose
- Stiffness of joints
A. Systemic lupus erythematosus
B. Scleroderma
C. Polyarteritis nodosa
D. Dermatomyositis
E. Rheumatoid arthritis
- Systemic vasculitis—Polyarteritis nodosa
- Skin rash—Dermatomyositis
- Widespread connective tissue fibrosis—Scleroderma
- Butterfly rash over the cheeks and bridge of nose—Systemic lupus erythematosus
- Stiffness of joints—Rheumatoid arthritis
Which of the following is the most common demyelinating disorder?
a. Devic’s disease
b. Tabes dorsalis
c. Optic neuritis
d. Multiple sclerosis
e. Guillain-Barrè syndrome
d. Multiple sclerosis
In many cases of primary amyloidosis, the patients have some form of
a. macrophage dyscrasia
b. erythrocyte dyscrasia
c. hemoglobin dyscrasia
d. plasma cell dyscrasia
d. plasma cell dyscrasia
Urticaria (hives) is a common disorder of the skin characterized by localized mast cell degranulation and resultant dermal microvascular hyperpermeability. This gives rise to pruritic edematous plaques called wheals.
Angioedema is closely related to urticaria and is characterized by deeper edema of both the dermis and the subcutaneous fat.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
a. both statements are true
Type 1 diabetes is caused by a reduction in sensitivity of insulin’s target cells.
Type 1 diabetes is more common than type 2 diabetes.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
b. Both statements are false
Type 1 diabetes is caused by a reduction in sensitivity of insulin’s target cells.❌
Type 1 diabetes is caused by DESTRUCTION OF BETA CELLS
Type 1 diabetes is more common than type 2 diabetes.❌
Type 2 diabetes is more common than type 1 diabetes.
From the following list select the THREE items associated with rheumatoid arthritis.
a. joint effusions
b. Bouchard’s nodes
c. bacterial in nature
d. fungal in nature
e. Still’s disease
f. osteophyte
g. unknown cause
a. joint effusions
e. Still’s disease
g. unknown cause
Which of the following is the prototype of a systemic immune complex disease?
a. systemic lupus erythematosus
b. acute serum sickness
c. poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
d. reactive arthritis
e. polyarteritis nodosa
b. acute serum sickness
_________ hypersensitivity reactions are initiated by antigen-activated (sensitized) T lymphocytes, including CD4+ and CD8+ T cells.
a. type I
b. type lI
c. type Ill
d. type IV
d. type IV
Which of the following antibodies are specific for systemic lupus erythematosus?
a. anti-Sm
b. anti-Jo
c. anti-Ro
d. anti-centromere
a. anti-Sm
Which of the following autoimmune disorders are caused by the production of antibodies against the acetylcholine receptor which results in the inhibition of neuromuscular transmission and eventual paralysis?
a. Eaton-Lambert syndrome
b. myasthenia gravis
c. Graves’ disease
d. Addison’s disease
e. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
b. myasthenia gravis
In phenylketonuria, tyrosine cannot be synthesized in adequate amounts.
Newborns with phenylketonuria don’t have any symptoms.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
a. both statements are true
Increased melanin pigmentation is seen in:
a. Addison’s disease
b. jaundice
c. albinism
d. vitiligo
e. hemosiderosis
a. Addison’s disease
Gout is caused by a defect in metabolism that results in an overproduction of which of the following?
a. urea
b. ammonia
c. bilirubin
d. uric acid
d. uric acid
Cholelithiasis may induce acute cholecystitis.
Enteric bacteria is cultured more commonly in cases of chronic cholecystitis than in acute cholecystitis.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
Enteric bacteria is cultured more commonly in cases of chronic cholecystitis than in acute cholecystitis.❌
Enteric bacteria is cultured more commonly in cases of ACUTE cholecystitis than in CHRONIC cholecystitis.
Which of the following results from inadequate secretion of thyroid hormones during fetal life or early infancy?
a. myxedema
b. Plummer disease
c. gigantism
d. cretinism
d. cretinism
Which of the following is associated with esophageal varices?
a. hemoptysis
b. hematuria
c. hemophilia
d. hematemesis
d. hematemesis
Which vessels are particularly prone to tearing along their course through the subdural space and are the source of bleeding in most cases of subdural hematoma?
a. the middle meningeal artery
b. the middle cerebral arteries
c. a berry aneurysm in the circle of Willis
d. the bridging veins
d. the bridging veins
Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of a deficiency of vitamin A?
a. rickets
b. neurological disorders
c. coagulation defects
d. night blindness
d. night blindness
Pathologic calcification is the abnormal tissue deposition of calcium slats, together with smaller amounts of iron, magnesium, and other mineral salts.
There are two forms of pathologic calcification: dystrophic and metastatic.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
a. both statements are true
From the following list select the THREE items associated with vitamin B6.
a. component of NAD and NADP
b. component of FAD and FMN
c. wet beriberi
d. cheilosis
e. pellagra
f. required for porphyrin synthesis
g. required for the hydroxylation of proline and lysine
h. anemia
d. cheilosis
f. required for porphyrin synthesis
h. anemia
Trachoma is an eye infection caused by which of the following?
a. chlamydia trachomatis
b. bacteroides fragilis
c. prevotella intermedia
d. leptospira interrogans
a. chlamydia trachomatis
A patient goes to the emergency room with severe mid-abdominal pain. The physician suspects acute pancreatitis and orders a blood test. Lab values show elevated serum lipase. To confirm the diagnosis, what other enzyme would likely be elevated?
a. alkaline phosphatase
b. amylase
c. glucose-6-phosphatase
d. acid phosphatase
b. amylase
Neurofibromatosis Type 1 is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. multiple skin neurofibromas
b. gliomas of the optic nerve
c. multiple meningiomas
d. pigmented nodules of the iris
e. cutaneous hyperpigmented macules
c. multiple meningiomas❌
The most common cause of hypothyroidism in adults is Graves’ disease.
Hypothyroidism can be caused by an iodine deficiency.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
The most common cause of hypothyroidism in adults is Graves’ disease.❌
The most common cause of hypothyroidism in adults is HASHIMOTO’S THYROIDITIS/ CHRONIC THYROIDITIS
A somatotropic adenoma with hypersecretion of growth hormone that develops before epiphyseal closure results in:
a. cretinism
b. acromegaly
c. gigantism
d. myxedema
c. gigantism
The pathognomonic lesion of erythema multiforme is a;
a. butterfly rash
b. “target” lesion
c. “pasted-on” plaque
d. Hill-Sachs lesion
b. “target” lesion
For each numbered symptom listed below, select the most closely linked disorder from the list provided.
- Vesicles on mucosa
- Large, red nose
- Honey colored crust, superficial skin infection
- Herald patch
- Irregular pigmentation
A. Pemphigus
B. Vitiligo
C. Xanthoma
D. Rosacea
E. Impetigo
F. Pityriasis
G. Capillary hemangioma
1.A, 2.D, 3.E, 4.F, 5.B
- Pemphigus—Vesicles on mucosa
- Rosacea—Large, red nose
- Impetigo—Honey colored crust, superficial skin infection
- Pityriasis—Herald patch
- Vitiligo—Irregular pigmentation
Recurrent peptic ulcers or peptic ulcers in aberrant sites such as the jejunum is suggestive of:
a. Cushing syndrome
b. acromegaly
c. Sipple syndrome
d. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
d. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
Vasopressin is produced in which of the following locations?
a. paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus
b. suprachiasmatic nuclei of the hypothalamus
c. arcuate nuclei of the hypothalamus
d. supraoptic nuclei of the hypothalamus
e. preoptic nuclei of the hypothalamus
d. supraoptic nuclei of the hypothalamus
Infectious mononucleosis is a benign, self-limiting disorder caused by:
a. varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
b. herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1)
c. cytomegalovirus (CMV)
d. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
d. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
Although asthma can strike at any age, half of all cases first occur in:
a. middle age adults
b. teenagers
c. elderly persons
d. children under age 10
d. children under age 10
Which of the following is characterized by a breakdown in self-tolerance to thyroid auto-antigens, most importantly the TSH receptor?
a. Graves’ disease
b. thyroiditis
c. myxedema
d. cretinism
a. Graves’ disease
The first white blood cells on the scene during the acute or early stage of inflammation are the:
a. basophils
b. eosinophils
c. neutrophils
d. monocytes
c. neutrophils
Abscesses are localized collections of purulent inflammatory tissue caused by suppuration that buries in a tissue, an organ, or a confined space.
Abscesses are produced by deep seeding of pyogenic bacteria into a tissue.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
a. both statements are true
Gas gangrene occurs as a result of infection by Clostridium perfringens.
Clostridia are obligate aerobes, gram-negative bacteria capable of endospore production.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
Clostridia are obligate aerobes, gram-negative bacteria capable of endospore production.❌
Clostridia are obligate ANAEROBES, gram-POSITIVE bacteria capable of endospore production
Which of the following types of necrosis is the most basic and most common?
a. coagulation
b. liquefaction
c. caseous
d. gangrenous
e. fibrinoid
a. coagulation
Epithelioid cells and giant cells are derived from macrophages and are important in the development of:
a. initial inflammation
b. granulomatous inflammation
c. acute inflammation
d. subacute inflammation
b. granulomatous inflammation
In response to an injury, mononuclear inflammatory cells coupled with the production of fibrous connective tissue are indicative of:
a. acute inflammation
b. chronic inflammation
c. edema
d. gangrene
b. chronic inflammation
In response to an injury, capillary permeability increases resulting in the formation of:
a. plasma
b. serum
c. exudate
d. transudate
c. exudate
Acute inflammation is an early defense mechanism to contain an infection, prevent its spread from the initial focus and signal subsequent specific immune receptors.
Tissue damage is caused to some extend by complement and macrophages but mostly by neutrophils.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
a. both statements are true
From the following list select the THREE items associated with biotin.
a. ataxia
b. beriberi
c. seborrheic dermatitis
d. nervous disorders
e. anemia
f. scurvy
g. can be induced by avidin
c. seborrheic dermatitis
d. nervous disorders
g. can be induced by avidin
Which malabsorption syndrome is caused by a sensitivity to gluten in cereal?
a. tropical sprue
b. celiac disease
c. whipple disease
d. autoimmune enteropathy
b. celiac disease
Which of the following is characterized by the presence of numerous polyps along with skin and bone tumors?
a. Turcot’s syndrome
b. Gardner’s syndrome
c. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
d. familial adenomatous polyposis
b. Gardner’s syndrome
Patients with Down syndrome are at an increased risk for:
a. osteosarcoma
b. lymphoblastic leukemia
c. berry aneurysm of the circle of Willis
d. Fabry disease
b. lymphoblastic leukemia
Each of the following are symptoms of Sjögren’s syndrome EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. xerostomia
b. keratoconjunctivitis sicca
c. sarcoidosis
d. associated CT disease
c. sarcoidosis❌
Chostek’s sign and Trousseau’s sign are reliable indicators of:
a. Bell’s palsy
b. botulism
c. rickets
d. tetany
d. tetany
DiGeorge syndrome adversely affects the development of the 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouches. The result on the immune system will most likely be a deficiency in:
a. B cells
b. T cells
c. complement
d. innate immunity
b. T cells
Which immunodeficiency disorder features incompetent or absent T cells and B cells?
a. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
b. severe combined immunodeficiency disease
c. ataxia-telangiectasia
d. hyper-IgE syndrome
b. severe combined immunodeficiency disease
From the following list select the THREE items associated with Klinefelter’s syndrome.
a. extra chromosome 21
b. XO
c. XXY
d. extra chromosome 18
e. affects 1 in 500 men
f. affects women
g. hypergonadism
h. hypogonadism
c. XXY
e. affects 1 in 500 men
h. hypogonadism
X-linked agammaglobulinemia is characterized by the failure of T cell precursors to develop into mature T cells.
The disease usually does not become apparent until about 6 months of age, as maternal immunoglobulins are depleted.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
X-linked agammaglobulinemia is characterized by the failure of T cell precursors to develop into mature T cells.❌
X-linked agammaglobulinemia is characterized by the failure of B cell precursors to develop into mature B cells.
Right-sided heart failure results in:
a. pulmonary edema
b. peripheral edema
c. lymphedema
d. cirrhosis of the liver
b. peripheral edema
Which of the following types of thrombi form as a result of damage to the ventricular endocardium (usually left ventricle following myocardial infarct)?
a. agonal
b. white
c. red
d. fibrin
e. mural
e. Mural
Intracellular anaerobic glycolysis and a subsequent buildup of lactic acid occur in which stage of shock?
a. non-progressive
b. progressive
c. irreversible
d. cardiogenic
b. progressive
The most common type of shock is:
a. cardiogenic
b. septic
c. neurogenic
d. hypovolemic
d. hypovolemic
Which of the following antibiotics is the drug of choice to be used as a premedication before an invasive dental procedure in a patient with valvular disease to prevent the risk of infective endocarditis?
a. tetracycline
b. amoxicillin
c. streptomycin
d. erythromycin
b. amoxicillin
Nystatin and Clindamycin are the two antifungals used as “swish and swallow” treatments for oral candidiasis.
Nystatin is taken as a troche (lozenge) that is slowly dissolved in the mouth and swallowed.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
b. both statements are false
Nystatin and Clindamycin are the two antifungals used as “swish and swallow” treatments for oral candidiasis.❌
Nystatin and CLOTRIMAZOLE are the two antifungals used as “swish and swallow” treatments for oral candidiasis.
Nystatin is taken as a troche (lozenge) that is slowly dissolved in the mouth and swallowed❌
CLOTRIMAZOLE is taken as a troche (lozenge) that is slowly dissolved in the mouth and swallowed
Which antibiotic is used cautiously due to its side effects (pseudomembranous colitis, severe Gl upset)?
a. azithromycin (zithromax; Z-Pak)
b. clindamycin
c. penicillin VK
d. cephalexin (keflex)
b. clindamycin
A patient allergic to penicillin is most likely to have a cross allergy with a:
a. carbapenem
b. macrolide
c. quinolone
d. cephalosporin
e. glycopeptide
d. cephalosporin
Each of the following antibiotics act by affecting the bacterial cell wall EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. bacitracin
b. azithromycin
c. penicillin
d. vancomycin
e. aztreonam
b. azithromycin❌ (ribosome)
Tetracyclines are the drugs of first choice in the treatment of all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. mycoplasma pneumonia
b. chlamydia infections
c. rickettsial infections
d. staphylococcal infections
d. staphylococcal infections❌
Which penicillin is prescribed primarily in the treatment of severe penicillinase-producing staphylococcal infections?
a. methicillin
b. ampicillin
c. penicillin VK
d. carbenicillin
a. methicillin
Which of the following is classified as an antifungal agent?
a. bacitracin
b. amphotericin-B
c. polymyxin-B
d. neomycin
b. amphotericin-B
The major cariogenic property of Streptococcus mutans appears to be its ability to produce which of the following enzymes?
a. lactase
b. beta-glucosidase
c. cellulase
d. glucosyltransferase
d. glucosyltransferase
Which of the following does not apply to chlorhexidine gluconate?
a. plaque control activity
b. broad antimicrobial activity
c. substantivity
d. anti-sensitivity activity
d. anti-sensitivity activity❌
Which of the following bacteria are first to colonize the oral cavity of newborn infants?
a. Fusobacterium species
b. Streptococcus salivarius
c. Lactobacillus species
d. Streptococcus mutans
b. Streptococcus salivarius
Order the stages in plaque formation.
A. Streptococci colonize the acquired pellicle
B. Filamentous bacteria colonize the acquired pellicle
C. Formation of the pellicle
D. Rod-shaped microorganisms colonize the acquired pellicle
E. Calcification of the crystalline structure
(C) Formation of the pellicle
(A) Streptococci colonize the acquired pellicle
(D) Rod-shaped microorganisms colonize the acquired pellicle
(B) Filamentous bacteria colonize the acquired pellicle
(E) Calcification of the crystalline structure
Which of the following constituents form the structure of materia alba?
a. bacteria, salivary proteins, desquamated epithelial cells, and leukocytes
b. bacteria, glycoprotein, salivary lipids, and hydroxyapatite
c. bacteria, leukocytes, polysaccharide complex, and mucin
d. bacteria, calcium carbonate, magnesium phosphate, and blood cells
a. bacteria, salivary proteins, desquamated epithelial cells, and leukocytes
Calculus is mainly composed of organic material.
It is covered by a layer of bacterial plaque.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
Calculus is mainly composed of organic material. ❌
Calculus is mainly composed of INORGANIC material.
Dental caries arise from the cariogenic bacteria that reside within the supragingival plaque, whereas periodontal disease originates from the periodontopathic bacteria that harbors within the subgingival plaque.
The inorganic components of plaque are predominantly proteins, polysaccharides, and lipids.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
The inorganic components of plaque are predominantly proteins, polysaccharides, and lipids.❌
The inorganic components of plaque are predominantly CALCIUM AND PHOSPHORUS.
Which of the following statements comparing necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG) and primary herpetic gingivostomatitis is correct?
a. NUG involves the oropharynx and throat whereas herpetic gingivostomatitis does not
b. NUG is a fusospirochaetal infection whereas herpetic gingivostomatitis is of viral etiology
c. NUG is a painless condition whereas herpetic gingivostomatitis is very painful
d. NUG is common in children whereas herpetic gingivostomatitis affects adults
b. NUG is a fusospirochaetal infection whereas herpetic gingivostomatitis is of viral etiology
Quaternary ammonium compounds are cationic detergents.
They can be used for skin antisepsis.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
a. both statements are true
Which of the following is a powerful oxidizing agent that inactivates bacteria and most viruses by oxidizing free sulfhydryl groups?
a. alcohol
b. chlorine
c. formaldehyde
d. phenol
b. chlorine
How long does it take to kill bacterial endospores when a dental instruments is immersed in a chemical sterilant such as 2% glutaraldehyde, hydrogen peroxide or peracetic acid?
a. 10-30 minutes
b. 1-2 hours
c. 10-12 hours
d. 24 hours
c. 10-12 hours
The effectiveness of autoclaving is best determined by culturing bacterial spores.
Spore testing of autoclave units is recommended monthly.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
Spore testing of autoclave units is recommended monthly.❌
Spore testing of autoclave units is recommended WEEKLY
The proper time and temperature for dry heat sterilization is:
a. 320°F (160°C) for 2 hours
b. 250°F (121°C) for 20-30 minutes
c. 450°F (232°C) for 5 minutes
d. 89°F (31°C) for 30 minutes
a. 320°F (160°C) for 2 hours
Which one of the following is NOT considered as the parameter for the effectiveness of moist heat sterilization?
a. temperature
b. pure saturated steam
c. exposure time
d. relative humidity
d. relative humidity❌
Ethylene oxide sterilization is faster than a moist heat autoclave.
Ethylene oxide sterilization can be used to sterilize heat sensitive instruments.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
Ethylene oxide sterilization is faster than a moist heat autoclave.❌
Ethylene oxide sterilization is SLOWER than a moist heat autoclave.
The killing or removal of all microorganisms, including bacterial spores, is called:
a. disinfection
b. cleaning
c. sterilization
d. wiping
c. sterilization - refers to the absence of all living forms
All of the following are advantages of using alcohols (70% isopropyl and 70% ethyl alcohol) as surface disinfectants EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. they are bactericidal
b. they are sporicidal
c. they are tuberculocidal
d. they are economical
b. they are sporicidal❌
they are NOT sporicidal
The greatest occupational health care worker risk for bloodborne infection is:
a. hepatitis C virus
b. human immunodeficiency virus
c. hepatitis B virus
d. tuberculosis
c. hepatitis B virus
For each numbered definition below, select the most closely linked term from the list provided.
- An ability to induce a disease.
- Any microorganism capable of causing infection.
- A site where the microorganisms reside and multiply.
- The number of microorganisms available to induce disease.
- The site from where the infection is transmitted to a susceptible host.
A. Reservoir
B. Infection source
C. Pathogenicity
D. Infectious vector
E. Infecting dose
- Pathogenicity—An ability to induce a disease.
- Infectious vector—Any microorganism capable of causing infection.
- Reservoir—A site where the microorganisms reside and multiply.
- Infecting dose—The number of microorganisms available to induce disease.
- Infection source—The site from where the infection is transmitted to a susceptible host.
Which of the following antiseptics does NOT exhibit persistent activity?
a. isopropyl alcohol
b. chlorhexidine gluconate
c. triclosan
d. quaternary ammonium compounds
a. isopropyl alcohol
Bactericidal agents work best during which of the following phases of bacterial growth?
a. lag phase
b. log phase
c. stationary phase
d. death phase
b. log phase
The marker microorganism for intermediate surface disinfection is:
a. Bacillus stearothermophilus
b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c. hepatitis B virus
d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
The antigens most responsible for an immediate Type I reaction to natural rubber latex are:
a. proteins
b. accelerators
c. corn starch powders
d. anti-oxidants
a. proteins
Cleaning surfaces prior to disinfection in clinical settings is required to:
a. destroy all pathogens
b. inhibit pathogen growth
c. reduce the concentration of pathogens
d. weaken the virulence of pathogens
c. reduce the concentration of pathogens
The most efficient way to kill microbes is:
a. cold sterilization
b. proper handwashing with sterilizing antiseptics
c. heat sterilization
d. immersion of contaminated items in chemical sterilants
c. heat sterilization
The most common form of an adverse epithelial reaction noted for healthcare professionals is:
a. irritation dermatitis
b. type I immediate latex allergy
c. type IV, delayed latex allergy
d. superficial fungal infections on the fingers
a. irritation dermatitis
A patient develops a Type I, immediate allergic reaction to latex. When treating him and wearing gloves from now on, you can:
a. wear vinyl or nitrile gloves
b. wear hypoallergenic latex gloves
c. get an exemption and not wear gloves
d. refuse to treat him
a. wear vinyl or nitrile gloves
Which of the following is the process of killing all microorganisms on an object or in a material?
a. standardization
b. sanitization
c. disinfection
d. sterilization
d. sterilization
The most likely route for a dentist to be infected with Hepatitis C from a patient is from the inhalation of aerosols.
There is no vaccination for Hepatitis C.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
The most likely route for a dentist to be infected with Hepatitis C from a patient is from the inhalation of aerosols.❌
The most likely route for a dentist to be infected with Hepatitis C from a patient is from CONTAMINATED NEEDLESTICK
A 62-year-old male was placed on a ventilator in the ICU, post elective surgery (CABG) due to myocardial infarction. After 48 hours the patient developed fever, purulent sputum, and respiratory distress and was diagnosed with ventilator-associated pneumonia. Pneumonia acquired in the hospital is an example of
a. community acquired infection
b. nosocomial infection
c. opportunistic infection
d. secondary infection
b. nosocomial infection
It is recommended that face masks be changed:
a. between patients
b. daily
c. twice per day
d. twice in the morning and twice in the afternoon
a. between patients
Latex allergy risk factors include all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. persons with multiple surgeries
b. atopy
c. rubber industry workers
d. persons with an allergy to pollen
e. persons with an allergy to bananas
d. persons with an allergy to pollen❌
Which of the following precautions that are practiced in contagious patients for controlling the spread of infection is NOT a component of isolation measures?
a. use of transmission-based precautions in addition to standard precautions
b. placement of the patient in a negative airflow room
c. use of vaccinations
d. use of N95 respirator masks by hospital personnel
c. use of vaccinations❌
Each of the following are advantages of rapid heat sterilization EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. very fast cycle time
b. no dulling of cutting edges
c. dry instruments after cycle
d. does not require precleaning
d. does not require precleaning❌
For each numbered definition below, select the most closely linked term from the list provided.
- Group of individuals affected by common disease
- Protects medical staff against infection by patients
- Part of standard precautions that isolates all blood and body fluids of infected patients
- Patients suffering from communicable disease are kept in this hospital unit
- Isolation in immunodeficient
A. Body substance isolation
C. Reverse isolation
D. Isolation unit
E. Patient cohort
F. Barrier nursing
- Patient cohort—Group of individuals affected by common disease
- Barrier nursing—Protects medical staff against infection by patients
- Body substance isolation—Part of standard precautions that isolates all blood and body fluids of infected patients
- Isolation unit—Patients suffering from communicable disease are kept in this hospital unit
- Reverse isolation—Isolation in immunodeficient
What is the most important preventive measure for the spread of nosocomial infections in hospitals?
a. vaccines
b. spray-wipe-spray
c. handwashing
d. isolation measures
c. handwashing
Which one of the following bacteria is capable of forming endospores and is thus difficult to decontaminate with standard disinfectants or autoclaving conditions?
a. Lactobacillus
b. Listeria
c. Bacillus anthracis
d. Corynebacterium
c. Bacillus anthracis
A thermometer is an example of which of the following Spaulding classifications?
a. critical
b. semicritical
c. subcritical
d. noncritical
b. semicritical
Each of the following is characteristic of alcohol-based hand hygiene antiseptics, EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. broad antimicrobial spectrum
b. removal of organic debris from contaminated hands
c. rapid antibacterial action
d. greater antibacterial effect than anionic detergents
b. removal of organic debris from contaminated hands❌
Which of the following items is considered regulated medical waste and cannot be disposed of with general dental office trash?
a. gauze soiled with blood, plaque, and saliva used in a dental prophylaxis procedure
b. blood-saturated gauze used in oral surgical procedures
c. visibly contaminated environmental surface barriers
d. plastic saliva ejectors and high-volume evacuator tips
b. blood-saturated gauze used in oral surgical procedures
latrogenic infections in the dental setting may be induced:
a. by failure to perform hand hygiene between patient procedures
b. by performing treatment procedures
c. in patients with debilitated or compromised immune defenses
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
Gloves, gowns, masks, goggles, and aprons are personal protective equipment.
Surgical gloves provide first-line defense against microbial contamination.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
Surgical gloves provide SECOND-line defense against microbial contamination.❌
FIRST-LINE: Hand hygiene
Using automated cleaning equipment is more time efficient, improves cleaning effectiveness, and is safer than hand-scrubbing.
Cleaned instruments need not be wrapped nor heat sterilized prior to use on subsequent patients.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
Cleaned instruments need not be wrapped nor heat sterilized prior to use on subsequent patients.❌
Cleaned instruments NEED TO be wrapped AND heat sterilized prior to use on subsequent patients.
According to the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) Bloodborne Pathogens Standard, disposable gloves that have been contaminated shall be replaced:
a. immediately
b. as soon as possible
c. as soon as feasible
d. as soon as practical
d. as soon as practical
Standard precaution should be practiced when there is risk of transmission of infectious pathogens. Which of the following specimens is exempted from standard precautions?
a. urine
b. mucous mucous membranes and non-intact skin
c. perspiration
d. blood
c. perspiration
Using cassettes to process and re-circulate instruments in clinical settings can:
a. make instrument processing more efficient
b. increase organization of dental instruments
c. decrease handling of contaminated instruments during cleaning procedures
d. reduce the potential for accidental sharps injuries
c. all of the above
c. all of the above
Which of the following hospital waste is designated by Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) as regulated medical waste?
a. microbiology laboratory waste
b. blood
c. sharps
d. pathology and anatomy waste
e. contaminated animal carcasses
f. all of the above
f. all of the above
