tought q's Flashcards

1
Q
New onset hypertension and proteinuria after 20 weeks gestation in a previously normotensive
women is
A. Placental abruption
B. Preeclampsia
C. Preterm delivery
D. All of them
E. None of them
A

Preeclampsia

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2
Q

A 32-year-old G1P0 reports to your office for a routine OB visit at 14 weeks gestational age.
Labs drawn at her first prenatal visit 4 weeks ago reveal a platelet count of 60.000. a normal PT
PTT and bleeding tot de normal limits. During the present visit, the patient has a blood
pressure of 120/70 mm Hg. Her urine dio reveals the presence of trace protein. The patient
denies any complaints. The only medication setting up On taking a more in-depth history you
learn that, prior to pregnancy, your patient had a history of occasional nose and qum bleeds,
but no serious bleeding episodes. She has comidard benet to be upon the brow the following
is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Alloimmune thrombocytopenia
B. Gestational thrombocytopenia
C. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
D. HELLP syndrome
E. Pregnancy-induced hypertension
A

Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

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3
Q

Which of the following is the most common indication for primary cesarean section?

A. Dystocia
B. Prolapsed cord
C. Diabetes
D. Toxemia
E. Malpresentation
Frage
A

Dystocia

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4
Q

An 18-year-old adolescent female undergoes laparoscopy for an acute abdomen.
Erythematous fallopian tubes are noted and a diagnosis of PD is made. Cultures of the pure
drainage would most likely reveal which of the following?

A. Multiple organisms
B. Chlamydia trachomatis
C. Peptostreptococcus species
D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

A

Multiple organisms

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5
Q

Variable decelerations during labor are caused by:

A. Placental abruption
B. Placental insufficiency
C. Cord compression
D. Head compression

A

Cord compression

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6
Q

A patient at 17 weeks gestation is diagnosed as having an intrauterine fetal demise. She returns to your
office 5 weeks later and her vital signs are: blood pressure 11072 mm Hg, pulse 93 beats per minute,
temperature 36.38°C, respiratory rate 16 breaths per minute. She has not had a miscarriage, although she
has had some occasional spotting Her cervix is closed on examination. This patient is at increased risk
for which of the following?

A
A. Septic abortion
B. Recurrent abortion
C. Consumptive coagulopathy with hypofibrinogenemia
D. Future infertility
E. Ectopic pregnancies
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7
Q

You’re assessing a patient’s chart and find that the patient is 36 weeks pregnant. Where should you find
the fundus of the uterus during your assessment of fundal height?

A. 4 cm below the xiphoid process
B. At the umbilicus
C. Xiphoid process
D. Pubic symphysis

A

Xiphoid process

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8
Q

False contractions are characterized by all except:

A. Occur at irregular intervals
B. Cervix dilates
C. Intensity doesn’t change
D. Pain is primarily in the lower abdomen

A

Cervix dilates

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9
Q

A complication of placental abruption IS NOT

A. Hemorrhagic shock
B. Consumptive coagulopathy (DIC)
C. Uterine inversion
D. Renal failure

A

C. Uterine inversion

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10
Q

Temperature of 38-C or higher on any two of the first 10 days postpartum, exclusive of the first 24 hours
is any of the following EXCEPT

A. Puerperal pyrexia
B. Normal physiological reaction in puerperium
C. Can be a sign of thrombophlebitis
D. Can be a sign of endometritis

A

Normal physiological reaction in puerperium

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11
Q

An 18-year-old adolescent female presents to the emergency department with a 36-hour history of
abdominal pain and nausea. Her temperature is 100.5°F (38.05°C). Her abdominal examination reveals
tenderness in the right lower quadrant with some mild rebound tenderness. Pelvic examination shows
some cervical motion tenderness and adnexal tenderness, and also some right-sided abdominal
tenderness. The pregnancy test is negative. In considering the differential diagnosis of appendicitis
versus PID, which of the following is the most accurate method of making the diagnosis?

A. Following serial abdominal examinations
B. Sonography of the pelvis and abdomen
C. Laparoscopy
D. Serum leukocyte count and cell differential

A

Laparoscopy

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12
Q

New onset hypertension and proteinuria after 20 weeks gestation in a previously normotensive
women is

A. Placental abruption
B. Preeclampsia
C. Preterm delivery
D. All of them
E. None of them
A

Preeclampsia

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13
Q

A 32-year-old G1P0 reports to your office for a routine OB visit at 14 weeks gestational age.
Labs drawn at her first prenatal visit 4 weeks ago reveal a platelet count of 60.000. a normal PT
PTT and bleeding tot de normal limits. During the present visit, the patient has a blood
pressure of 120/70 mm Hg. Her urine dio reveals the presence of trace protein. The patient
denies any complaints. The only medication setting up On taking a more in-depth history you
learn that, prior to pregnancy, your patient had a history of occasional nose and qum bleeds,
but no serious bleeding episodes. She has comidard benet to be upon the brow the following
is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Alloimmune thrombocytopenia
B. Gestational thrombocytopenia
C. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
D. HELLP syndrome
E. Pregnancy-induced hypertension
A

Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

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14
Q

Variable decelerations during labor are caused by:

A. Placental abruption
B. Placental insufficiency
C. Cord compression
D. Head compression

A

Cord compression

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15
Q

Engaging diameter in fully flexed vertex presentation is:

A. Suboccipitobregmatic
B. Occipitofrontal
C. Mento Vertical
D. Sub Occipitofrontal

A

Suboccipitobregmatic

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16
Q

When performing a vaginal hysterectomy for any indication, prevention of future enterocele or vaginal
vault prolapse is aided by which of the following?

A. Closing the vaginal mucosa
B. Reattachment of the round ligaments to the vaginal cuff
C. Complete a purse string suture closure of the cul-de-sac peritoneum
D. Reattachment of the cardinal and uterosacral ligaments to the vaginal cuff

A

Reattachment of the cardinal and uterosacral ligaments to the vaginal cuff

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17
Q

Screening tests for diabetes in pregnancy include everything except

A. Performing glycosylated haemoglobin estimations on all women who have had a macrosomic baby >45
kg)
B. Random blood sampling at 28-32 weeks.
C. A 50 g glucose load at booking.
D. A 50 g glucose load at 28 weeks if potential diabetic features pertain
E. Glucose testing of the urine ?

A

Glucose testing of the urine

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18
Q

Emergency contraception can be effective if administered up until how long after intercourse?

A. 5 days
B. 48 hours
C. 72 hours
D. 24 hours

A

5 days

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19
Q

When does the development of heart begin?

A. 1st week
B. 12th week
C. 3rd week
D. 10th week

A

3rd week

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20
Q

Most common cause of breech presentation is ?

A. Prematurity
B. Postmaturity
C. Contracted pelvis
D. Diabetes mellitus

A

Prematurity

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21
Q

What are the indications for caesarean hysterectomy?

A. Placenta previa
B. Severe cervical dysplasia or early cervical cancer
C. An unrepairable uterine scar
D. Laceration of major uterine vessels

A

Placenta previa

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22
Q

The largest presenting diameter in cephalic presentation is:

A. Submentobregmatic
B. Mentovertical
C. Biparietal diameter
D. Suboccipitobregmatic

A

Mentovertical

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23
Q

Pregnant women in 9 g.w., with pain in a lower part of the abdomen, slight vaginal bleeding, by the USD
examination - GS 30mm in diameter, without FHR of the embryo, TV examination-OECC is closed,
uterus size is corresponding to the gestational age. What is the diagnose?

A. incomplete abortion
B. missed abortion
C. threatened abortion
D. septic abortion

A

incomplete abortion

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24
Q

The parameters measured by ultrasound to assess the gestational age of the fetus are all except

A. Biparietal diameter
B. Crown rump length
C. Fetal weight
D. Femur length

A

Fetal weight

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25
Q

A 21-year-old G1 now P1 just delivered after a prolonged induction of labor due to being postdates. After
the placental delivery she continues to bleed excessively. Your initial intervention to address this
bleeding is to activate the normal physiologic mechanisms. Which of the following is the most important
hemostatic mechanism in combating postpartum hemorrhage!

A. Intramyometrial vascular coagulation due to vasoconstriction
B. Contraction of interlacing uterine muscle bundles
C. Increased blood-clotting factors in pregnancy
D. Fibrinolysis inhibition

A

Contraction of interlacing uterine muscle bundles

26
Q

A 30-year-old woman (gravida 4, para 2, abortus 1) has been seen in the emergency department at 29
weeks gestation because of the sudden onset of painless vaginal bleeding that soaked four perine has
now ceased. The mother’s vital signs and Hct are normal, and the FHTs are regular at 140 bpm. At this
time, what should you do?

A. Performa double setup examination
B. Order an ultrasound examination
C. Performa cesarean section
D. Send the patient home on bed rest
E. Hospital observation with tocolysis as necessary
A

Order an ultrasound examination

27
Q

Which of the following IS NOT an indication for vacuum extraction?

A. Shortening of second stage of labor
B. Cephalo-pelvic disproportion
C. Non-reasuring fetal heart tones in second stage of delivery
D. Prolonged second stage of labor

A

Cephalo-pelvic disproportion

28
Q

Rh-isoimmunization during pregnancy lead to an increased risk for any of the following EXCEPT:

A. İcterus gravis neonatorum
B. Fetal hydrops
C. Fetal anemia
D. Placenta previa

A

Placenta previa

29
Q

A 25-year-old woman experiences galactorrhea and amenorrhea of 8 weeks’ duration with irregular
vaginal bleeding. Which of the following serum assays should initially be performed?

A. hCG
B. Progesterone
C. Prolactin
D. FSH

A

hCG

30
Q

Which of the following is not a risk factor for pre-eclampsia?

A. Multiparity
B. Advanced maternal age
C. Family history
D. Personal history of disorders characterized by microvascular disease
E. Multiple pregnancy
A

Multiparity

31
Q

A patient is being evaluated for excessive postpartum vaginal bleeding after a successful vaginal birth
after C-section of a 3,500-g infant One concern is retained placental tissue Placental separation is
facilitated by which of the following?

A. Deep placental growth into the myometrium
B. Bleeding into the uterus
C. Decreased uterine muscle contractility
D. the changing configuration of the uterus after fetal delivery
E. Presence de a layer of decidua

A

the changing configuration of the uterus after fetal delivery

32
Q

Ovarian tumors can be derived from each of the embryologic components of the ovary. Which of the
following ovarian tumors is derived ovarian “germinal” epithelium?

A. Dysgerminoma
B. Endometrioid
C. Fibroma
D. Theca cell

A

Dysgerminoma

33
Q

Which of the following is the most important prognostic indicator of survival from advanced ovarian
carcinoma?

A. Body mass index
B. Stage of disease
C. Grade of tumor differentiation
D. Nutritional status

A

Stage of disease

34
Q

A 32-year-old male with oligospermia (low sperm count) has a history of fever accompanying painful
swelling of the parotid gland and right testicle during high school What is the most likely etiology of this
condition?

A Herpes simplex
B Cytomegalovirus
C Mumps
D.Vancella-zoster`

A

Mumps

35
Q

A 22-year-old nulliparous woman has recently become sexually active. She consults you because of
painful coitus, with the pain located at the vaginal introitus. It is accompanied by painful involuntary
contraction of the pelvic muscles. Other than confirmation of these findings, the pelvic examination is
normal. Of the following, what is the most common cause of this condition?

A Bartholin’s gland abscess
B Psychogenic causes
C Endometriosis
D. Vulvar atrophy

A

Psychogenic causes

36
Q
Which of the following IS NOT a side effect complication of prostaglandin administration?
A. Uterine atony
B. Nausea Vomiting, diarrhea
C. Fetal distress
D. Tachy systole of uterus
A

uterine atony

37
Q
Which of the following presentations is absolute indication for Caesarean section?
A. Cephalic
B. Breech
C. Βrow
D. Mento anterior
A

Breech

38
Q

In order to treat shoulder dystocia - Flexion of the maternal hips followed by abduction of the thighs,
thereby rotating the pubic symphysis cephalad and straightening the lumbosacral angle is called
maneuver of

A. Barnum
B. McRoberts
C. Rubin
D. Woods

A

McRoberts

39
Q

Which is the following symptoms IS NOT a sign of endometritis?

A. Fever
B. Tachycardia
C. tenne tundus 2 cm below the umbilicus
D. Purulentt, smelling lochia

A

tenne tundus 2 cm below the umbilicus

40
Q

Complications of multiple pregnancy - which of the following is true?
A. Twin pregnancies are at an increased risk of pre-eclampsia.
B. First trimester miscarriage is more common in multiple pregnancy, but late miscarriage
C. Preterm labour is not the main cause of perinatal mortality.
D. In the majority of pregnancies, the presenting twin is breech.

A

A. Twin pregnancies are at an increased risk of pre-eclampsia.
B. First trimester miscarriage is more common in multiple pregnancy, but late miscarriage
C. Preterm labour is not the main cause of perinatal mortality.
D. In the majority of pregnancies, the presenting twin is breech.

41
Q

The following is related to gravidity and parity except:

A. Gravida and para refer to pregnancies and not to babies
B. A nulligravida is one who is not pregnant now but may have had a pregnancy before
C. A nullipara is one who has never completed a pregnancy to the stage of viability
D. Gravida denotes a pregnant state, both present and past, irrespective of period of gestation

A

A nulligravida is one who is not pregnant now but may have had a pregnancy before

42
Q

With regard to molar pregnancy:

A. Women should be advised not to conceive until HCG levels have been normal for 12 months
B. Use of the COCP after HCG levels have returned to normal is associated with increased need for
chemotherapy
C. There is a recognised association with ovarian theca-lutein cysts
D. Use of IUDs is indicated until after HCG levels have returned to normal

A

Women should be advised not to conceive until HCG levels have been normal for 12 months

43
Q

A 45-year-old woman who had two normal pregnancies 15 and 18 years ago presents with the complaint
of amenorrhea for 7 months. She expresses the desire to become pregnant again.
After exclusion of pregnancy, which of the following tests is next indicated in the evaluation of this
patient’s amenorrhea?

A. Testosterone and DHAS levels
B. Hysterosalpingogram
C. LH and FSH levels
D. Endometrial biopsy

A

LH and FSH levels

44
Q

Which of the following is the major problem associated with the administration of barbiturates during
labor?

A. Sudden fetal death
B. Fetal depression after birth
C. Lack of maternal cooperation during the birth process because of narcosis
D. The likelihood of maternal aspiration causing pneumonitis
E. Their effect is not better than placebo

A

Fetal depression after birth

45
Q

A 32-year-old woman has severe postpartum hemorrhage that does not respond to medical therapy. The
obstetrician states that surgical management is the best therapy. The patient desires future child
bearing. Which of the following is most appropriate to achieve the therapeutic goals?

A. Utero-ovarian ligament ligation
B. Supracervical hysterectomy
C. Cervical cerclage
D. Hypogastric artery ligation

A

Hypogastric artery ligation

46
Q

A 21-year-old G1 now P1 just delivered after a prolonged induction of labor due to being postdates. After
the placental delivery she continues to bleed excessively. Your initial intervention address this bleeding
is to activate the normal physiologic mechanisms. Which of the following is the most important
hemostatic mechanism in combating postpartum hemorrhage?

A. Intramyometrial vascular coagulation due to vasoconstriction
B. Contraction of interlacing uterine muscle bundles
C. Increased blood-clotting factors in pregnancy
D. Fibrinolysis inhibition

A

Contraction of interlacing uterine muscle bundles

47
Q

During a prenatal visit, you are assessing the fundal height. You find the fundus of the uterus to be right
above the symphysis pubis Based on this finding the patient is about how far along in her pregnancy?

A. 24 weeks
B. 16 weeks
C. 12 weeks
D. 20 weeks

A

12 weeks

48
Q

The following is related to gravidity and parity except:

A. Gravida and para refer to pregnancies and not to babies
B. A nulligravida is one who is not pregnant now but may have had a pregnancy before
C. A nullipara is one who has never completed a pregnancy to the stage of viability
D. Gravida denotes a pregnant state, both present and past, irrespective of period of gestation

A

A nulligravida is one who is not pregnant now but may have had a pregnancy before

49
Q

A 25-year-old woman is having a severe intrapartum hemorrhage with hypovolemic shock. Which of the
following symptoms is evidence of pituitary infarction?

A

Lactation Failure

50
Q

Women perceive the menstrual flow as an indication that the reproductive system is functioning well. In
fact the actual menstrual flow is associated with which of the following?

A Prolonged maintenance of progesterone
B Withdrawal of progesterone
C Withdrawal of FSH
D Prolonged maintenance of estrogen

A

Withdrawal of progesterone

51
Q

A patient calls your clinic complaining of continued heavy vaginal bleeding. She had an “uncomplicated”
vaginal birth 2 weeks ago of her second child. What is the most likely diagnosis from the following
differentials?

A. Uterine atony
B. Retained placental fragments
C.Uterine rupture
D. Coagulopathies

A

Retained placental fragments

52
Q

In obstetrics which of the following diagnoses is the acting cause septic shock?

A. Endometritis
B. Pyelonephritis
C. chorioamnionitis
D. Necrotizing fascitis

A

Chorioamnionitis

53
Q

Sure sign of pregnancy in the second trimester is

A. Striae Gravidarum and skin pigmentation
B. Feeling of fetal movements by the Pregnant woman
C. Braxton-Hicks contractions
D. None of the answers

A

D. None of the answers

54
Q

The lining of uterus to which the embryo Implants is called?

A. Myometrium
B. Endometrium
C. Trophoblast
D. Coccyx

A

Endometrium

55
Q

A 32 y.o G0P0 patient presents complaining of secondary dysmenorrhea that is increasing in severity.
The pain is triggered by deep thrusting with coitus. Which of the following is the most common cause of
deep-thrust-dyspareunia?

a) Endometriosis
b) Depression
c) Vaginismus
d) Vestibulitis
e) Atrophic changes

A

a) Endometriosis

56
Q

An 18 year-old pregnant women is noted to have vaginal bleeding.She is bleeding from venipuncture
sites,IV sites,and from her gums.Which of the following is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

A. Placenta previa
B. Gestational diabetes
C. Multiple pregnancy
D. Placental abruption

A

Placental abruption

57
Q
Crowning is known to happen when:
A. Head is at perineum and there is no recession
B. Head is at inlet
C. Head is at perineum
D. Head is at ischial spine
A

A. Head is at perineum and there is no recession

58
Q

Uterine leiomyomata are thought to arise from which of the following?

A. Pluripotent endometrial epithelium
B. Degenerative uterine smooth muscle cells
C. Vascular smooth muscle cells
D. Embryonic rests

A

Vascular smooth muscle cells

59
Q

A 56-year-old healthy woman develops vague complaints and presents to her primary care physician.
Which of the following accurately describes symptoms that could be
associated with a diagnosis of ovarian cancer?

A. Shortness of breath and cough
B. Urinary urgency and bloating
C. Symptoms are usually present for years prior to a diagnosis
D. There are no identifiable symptoms in women with ovarian cancer

A

B. Urinary urgency and bloating

60
Q

A 23-year-old woman presents for evaluation of a 7-month history of amenorrhea. Examination discloses
bilateral galactorrhea and normal breast and pelvic examinations. Pregnancy test is negative. Which of
the following classes of medication is a possible cause of her condition?

A. Prostaglandins
B. Antiestrogens
C. Gonadotropins
D. Phenothiazines

A

Phenothiazines

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