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Pedia > Topnotch > Flashcards

Topnotch Flashcards

1
Q

Washing of the newborn should be delayed after?

A

After 6 hours

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2
Q

Cord clamping should be delayed at?

A

2 to 3 minutes

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3
Q

Non-separation of mother and newborn should for breast feeding should last for?

A

20 to 60 minutes

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4
Q

Newborn eye prophylaxis

A

0.5 % erythromycin; 1% tetracycline

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5
Q

Vitamin K dosage for newborn.

A

1.5 kg - 1.5 mg; less than 1.5 kg - 1.5 mg

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6
Q

NBS

A

CH; CAH; G6PD; PKU; Galactosemia; MSUD

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7
Q

NBS, republic act?

A

RA 9288

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8
Q

NBS should be done after how many hours?

A

48 hours

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9
Q

If NBS was done

A

2 weeks old

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10
Q

21 hydroxylase deficiency

A

CAH

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11
Q

Enzymes deficient in galactosemia.

A

Galactose 1 phosphate deficiency; Galactokinase deficiency; Galactose 4 epimerase deficiency

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12
Q

Most common manifestation without treatment of PKU?

A

Developmental delay

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13
Q

Flat, blue gray with well defined margin that can be seen in sacral area.

A

Monglian spots

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14
Q

Most common benign skin lesion.

A

Erythema toxicum

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15
Q

Lacy pattern on the skin similar to cobblestones.; Vasomotor response to cold stress.

A

Cutis marmorata

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16
Q

Subperiosteal bleed.; Does not cross the suture line.; Resolves in few weeks.

A

Cephalhematoma

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17
Q

Swelling of scalp due to birth trauma.; Involves presenting part.; Crosses the suture lines.; Resolves in few days.

A

Caput succedaneum

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18
Q

Erb duchenne palsy with C4 involvement.

A

Ipsilateral diaphragmatic paralysis

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19
Q

Klumpke palsy with T1 sympathetic fibers involvelement.

A

Horner syndrome

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20
Q

Accumulation of fluid in tunica vaginalis.

A

Hydrocoele

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21
Q

Surgical treatment of undescended testis should be done when?

A

Not later than 9 to 15 months

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22
Q

Funnel shaped chest

A

Pectus excavatum

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23
Q

Pigeon shape chest.

A

Pectus carinatum

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24
Q

Post term, AOG?

A

> 42 weeks

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25
Q

LGA, NB is hypoglycemic or hyperglycemic?

A

Hypoglycemic; Due to hyperinsulinism.

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26
Q

Ground glass pattern in CXR.

A

RDS

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27
Q

MCC of persistent pulmonary HPN?

A

Meconium aspiration syndrome

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28
Q

Contributory factor that leads persistent pulmonary HPN of the NB.

A

NSAID use during 3rd trimester

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29
Q

TB less than 5mg/kg/day, peaks at 15, DB less than 10% of TB

A

Physiologic jaundice

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30
Q

TB > 5 mg/dl/day peaks at 15; DB > 10% of TB

A

Pathologic jaundice

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31
Q

In ABO incompatibility, what is the blood type mother and baby?

A

Mother blood type O, baby type A or B

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32
Q

Type of jaundice, decreased milk intake with dehydration, reduced caloric intake.

A

Breastfeeding jaundice

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33
Q

Type of jaundice, presence of glucoronidase in breast milk.

A

Breast milk jaundice

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34
Q

Empiric treatment for neonatal sepsis.

A

Ampicillin + 3rd gen cephalosphorin or aminoglycosides.

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35
Q

Blueberry muffin rash

A

CMV AND RUBELLA

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36
Q

Most common congenital infection.

A

CMV

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37
Q

DOC for CMV

A

Ganciclovir

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38
Q

Cataract, PDA, MR, Deafness, Blueberry muffin

A

Congenital rubella syndrome

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39
Q

Chorioretinits. Microcephaly. Periventricular calcification. Blueberry muffin rash.

A

CMV

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40
Q

Chorioretinitis. Intracranial calcification. Hydrocephalus. Hepatitis. IUGR

A

Toxoplasmosis

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41
Q

Snuffles. Periostitis of long bone. Hutchinson teeth. Saddle nose.

A

Syphillis

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42
Q

Pneumatosis intestinalis

A

NEC

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43
Q

MC life threatening emergency of the GIT in neonates.

A

NEC

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44
Q

Greatest RF for NEC.

A

Prematurity

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45
Q

Triad: Intestinal ischemia. Enteral nutrition. Pathogenic organism.

A

NEC

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46
Q

Average weight of the new born

A

3kg

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47
Q

Average birth length of the newborn.

A

50cm

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48
Q

Average head circumference of the newborn.

A

33 to 35 cm

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49
Q

Approximate age where adult HC is attained.

A

6 years old

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50
Q

First tooth to erupt.

A

Mandibular central incisor

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51
Q

True or false, theres a 10% decrease in birth weight on the first week of life of a new born?

A

TRUE

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52
Q

Physiologic anorexia occurs when?

A

2nd year of life

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53
Q

Complete myelination occurs when?

A

2nd year of life

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54
Q

VA of 20/20

A

4 years old

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55
Q

All primary teeth errupted at?

A

3 years old

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56
Q

Best time to read poetry.

A

3 years old

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57
Q

Vaccines that cannot be given simultaneously

A

Yellow fever and cholera

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58
Q

Fully immunized child means?

A

1 dose of BCG at birth, within 12 months. 3 doses of BCG and OPV every 4 weeks. (Starting 2 months) 3 doses of Hepa B after birth. (0,1,6) 1 dose of measles vaccing at 9 months. Plus MMR (6 months after measles vaccine) and Hib (9 moths)

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59
Q

Polyarticular disease type of juvinile RA. HLA TYPE?

A

HLA DR4

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60
Q

Pauciarticular disease type of RA, HLA TYPE?

A

HLA DR8 & DR5

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61
Q

Reactive AS would present as?

A

Reiters syndrome

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62
Q

Sacroillitis in xray.

A

AS

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63
Q

More specific for lupus and reflects the degree of disease activity.

A

Anti-ds DNA

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64
Q

MC of the pediatric inflammatory myopathies.

A

Dermatomyositis

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65
Q

Earliest manifestation of scleroderma.

A

Reynauds phenomenon

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66
Q

Less than 5yo: Bilateral bulbar conjunctival injection, non purulent. Dry fissured lips, Strawberry tongue. Edema and erythema of the hands and feet in acute phase and periungual desquamation in the subacute phase. Truncal rash, polymorphus, non vesicular. Cervical LAD.

A

Kawasaki disease

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67
Q

BV most affect by kawasaki.

A

Medium sized artery (coronary artery)

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68
Q

Important PE finding in patient with kawasaki less than 1yo.

A

Perineal erythema

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69
Q

Fibrosis affecting the dermis and arteries of the lung, kidney and GIT.

A

Scleroderma

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70
Q

Vasculitis of all blood vessel esp medium sized arteries.

A

Kawasaki

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71
Q

IgA mediated vasculitis of small vessel.

A

HSP

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72
Q

MCC of nonthrombocytopenic purpura in children.

A

HSP

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73
Q

2 to 8 yo. Male. Palpable, raised purpura, red to brown, lasts for 3 to 10 days. Intermittent abdominal pain.

A

HSP

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74
Q

Hallmark of HSP.

A

Palpable petichae or purpura that evolve from red to brown that last from 3 to 10 days.

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75
Q

Skin biopsy finding of HSP.

A

Leukocytoclastic angitis

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76
Q

Renal biopsy finding of HSP.

A

IgA mesangial deposition

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77
Q

6yo; Female; Heliotrophic rash (periorbital violaceous erythema may cross the nasal bridge); Gottron papules (alligator skin like appearance); (+) ANA with speckled pattern in >60%.

A

Dermatomyositis

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78
Q

Tightness, thickening, non-pitting induration involving proximal to the MCP or MTP joints. Sclerodactyly. Digital pitting scars resulting from digital ischemia. Bibasilar pulmonary fibrosis not attributable to primary lung disease.

A

Scleroderma

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79
Q

Most common esophageal disorder in children of all ages

A

GERD

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80
Q

MC TEF

A

Type A

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81
Q

MC foreign object swallowed by 6 months to 3 years old?

A

Coins

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82
Q

MCC of nonbilious vomiting.

A

Pyloric stenosis

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83
Q

Acid base balance abnormality in patient with pyloric stenosis.

A

Hypochloremic metabolic acidosis

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84
Q

Firm, olive-shaped mass, post-prandial vomiting.

A

Pyloric stenosis

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85
Q

Barium: shoulder sign, double tract sign

A

Pyloric stenosis

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86
Q

Surgical procedure for pyloric stenosis.

A

Ramstedt pyloromyotomy

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87
Q

Bird’s beak sign. Inverted U sign. Coffee bean sign.

A

Volvulus

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88
Q

Double bubble sign. Bilious vomiting. Polyhydramnios. Jaundice. Failure to recanalize the lumen during 4th and 5th week AOG.

A

Doudenal atresia

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89
Q

MC type of malrotation.

A

Failure of the cecum to move into RLQ

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90
Q

Remnant of omphalomesenteric duct which connects the yolk sac to the gut in the embryo.

A

Meckels diverticulum

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91
Q

Intermittent painless rectal bleeding and brick colored stool. MC congenital GI anomaly

A

Meckel diverticulum.

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92
Q

Delayed passage of meconium. Chronic constipation. Dec blood flow and deterioration of mucosal barrier leading to enterocolitis.

A

Hirschprung disease

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93
Q

Currarino triad: Anorectal malformation. Sacral bone anomalies. Presacral masses.

A

Hirschprung disease in older patient.

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94
Q

Currant jelly stool. Doubles up (legs and knee are flexed with loud crying). Severe paroxysmal colicky pain that recurs at frequent intervals with straining efforts. Sausage shape mass in RUQ. BARIUM: coiled spring sign. UTZ: doughnut or target sign.

A

Intussusception

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95
Q

Standard ORS composition

A

Glucose : 75, Na: 75, Cl: 65, K: 20, Citrate: 10, Osm: 245mmol/l

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96
Q

Sentinel loop. Colon cut off sign. Ileus. Blurring in left psoas margin. Peripancreatic extraluminal gas bubbles.

A

Acute pancreatitis

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97
Q

Prognostic system for acute pancreatitis in adult. Not in children.

A

Ransons criteria and APACHE score

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98
Q

First clinical evidence of HBV infection.

A

ALT

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99
Q

Window phase of HBV infection.

A

IgM anti HBC

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100
Q

Inc risk of transmitting HBV.

A

HBeAg

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101
Q

Most valuable single serologic marker of acute HBV infection.

A

Anti HBcAg

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102
Q

Presence of this will confer lower risk of transmitting HBV.

A

Anti HBe

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103
Q

Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, uremia.

A

HUS

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104
Q

Helmet cell, Burr cell, Fragmented RBCs

A

HUS

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105
Q

Most common chronic glomerular disease worldwide.

A

IgA nephropathy

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106
Q

Complement decreases in APSGN.

A

C3

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107
Q

What major noxious products of complement activation are produced after c3 activation in APSGN?

A

Anaphylotoxin and c5a

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108
Q

Tea colored urine, hematuria. Periorbital edema. Hypertension. Oliguria.

A

APSGN

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109
Q

Best single Ab titer to document skin infection in patient with APSGN.

A

DNAse antigen

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110
Q

Mangement for APSGN.

A

Ten day course of penicilline. Furosemide 1mg/kg/dose IV. Sodium restriction. ACE inhibitor or CCB.

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111
Q

Bilateral flank mass. Potter facies.

A

PCKD

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112
Q

Most common cause of acute renal failure in young children.

A

HUS

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113
Q

Essential for newborn’s functioning of the visual pigment rhodopsin.

A

Docosahexaenoic acid (DHA)

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114
Q

Most commom acyanotic heart disease.

A

VSD

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115
Q

Major energy source in breastmilk.

A

Fat

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116
Q

MC type of VSD.

A

Perimembranous

117
Q

Initial manifestation of vitamin A deficiency.

A

Nyctalopia

118
Q

What chamber of heart enlarges in VSD?

A

Left side and PA

119
Q

General softening of the bones. Rachitic rosary. Harrison groove. Winswept groove.

A

Rickets

120
Q

Systolic regurgitant murmur at the left lower sternal border, loud and single s2.

A

VSD

121
Q

Rachitic rosary

A

Rickets

122
Q

Chamber of the heart that enlarges in PDA.

A

Left side and PA

123
Q

Kasal’s necklace

A

Niacin

124
Q

Most common cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease in new born.

A

TGA

125
Q

Scorbutic rosary

A

Vitamin C

126
Q

Egg shaped cardiac silhouette.

A

TGA

127
Q

Pellagra

A

Niacin

128
Q

RV tap along left sternal border. Systolic ejection murmur radiates at the back.

A

TOF

129
Q

Microcytic anemia

A

Vitamin B6

130
Q

Failure of development of the spiral septum.

A

Truncus arteriosus

131
Q

Corckscrew hair

A

Vitamin C deficiency

132
Q

All pulmonary veins drain to the RA. RV Volume overload.

A

TAPVR

133
Q

Extreme exogenous obesity in which patient have severe cardiorespiratory distress with alveolar hypoventilation.

A

Pickwickian syndrome

134
Q

Snowman sign.

A

TAPVR

135
Q

Aim for the treatment of obesity.

A

Not weight loss but to slow or halt weight gain - weight maintenance

136
Q

In truncus arteriosus what septal defect is always present?

A

VSD

137
Q

Vitamin A dosage for ages 6 to 12 months

A

100,000IU

138
Q

MC location of coarctation of aorta.

A

Descending aorta

139
Q

Vitamin A dosage for age one year and older.

A

200,000IU

140
Q

Congenital anomaly related to coarctation of aorta.

A

Turner’s syndrome

141
Q

NTD is a failure of spontaneous closure of neural tube during?

A

3rd and 4th week

142
Q

Hypertension in upper extremities. Rib notching in children 7 yo.

A

Coarctation of aorta

143
Q

Folic acid will prevent the occurance of NTD from preconception until?

A

12th week AOG

144
Q

Associated with congenital rubella, noonan, and william syndrome.

A

Pulmonic stenosis

145
Q

Folic acid dosage

A

0.4mg OD

146
Q

Harsh systolic ejection murmur at the Right upper sternal border. Systolic thrill - Suprasternal notch.

A

Aortic stenosis

147
Q

Failure to closure of the rostral neuropore.

A

Anencephaly

148
Q

Systolic ejection murmur at the left upper sternal border with radiation to the back.

A

Pulmonary stenosis

149
Q

Severe form of NTD

A

Meningocoele

150
Q

Surgery done in pulmonary stenosis.

A

Brocks procedure

151
Q

Absent cerebral convolution and a poorly formed sylvian fissure.

A

Lissencephaly

152
Q

Surgery done in aortic stenosis.

A

Ross procedure; Valve translocation from pulmonary valve.

153
Q

Uni or bilateral clefts within the cerebral hemispheres.

A

Schizencephaly

154
Q

Aschoff bodies

A

RHD

155
Q

Presence of cyst or cavities within the brain.

A

Porencephaly

156
Q

Most common valvular involvement in adults.

A

Mitral stenosis

157
Q

Due to defective cleavage of the prosencephalon and inadequate induction of the forebrain structure.

A

Holoprosencephaly

158
Q

Most common valvular involvement in children with RHD.

A

Mitral regurgitation

159
Q

CSF is reabsorbed through what process?

A

Pinocytosis

160
Q

Fish mouth buttonhole deformity. Weak peripheral pulses with narrow pulse pressure. Hemoptysis.

A

Mitral stenosis

161
Q

CSF is reabsorbed by what cell?

A

Arachnoid villus cells

162
Q

Systolic regurgitant murmur at the apex with transmission to the left axilla.

A

Mitral regurgitation

163
Q

Setting sun sign, Long tract sign, Cracked pot sensation or mace wen sign, Chiari malformation (foreshortened occiput), Dandy walker malformation (prominent occiput)

A

Hydrocephalus

164
Q

Chamber enlarge in MS.

A

LA and RV

165
Q

Major complication of shunts?

A

S. epidermidis infection

166
Q

Wide pulse pressure and bounding water hammer pulse. Diastolic murmur heard best at 3rd and 4th LCIS.

A

Aortic regurgitation.

167
Q

Treatment for infantile spasm.

A

Vigabatran

168
Q

Most common valvular heart disease.

A

MVP

169
Q

Most common seizure disorders in childhood?

A

Febrile seizure

170
Q

Most common complaint, MVP.

A

Palpitation

171
Q

DOC for status epilepticus.

A

Phenytoin

172
Q

Murmur at 2nd LICS with widely split S2.

A

ASD

173
Q

Most prevalent type of migraine

A

Migraine without aura

174
Q

Murmur at 2nd LICS with radiation to the upper back.

A

PS

175
Q

Brain lesion consist of tubers located in the covolutions of the cerebral hemispheres at subependymal region that calcified and may produce a candle dripping appearance.

A

Tuberous sclerosis

176
Q

Murmur at 2nd LICS with radiation to the interscapular area.

A

COA

177
Q

Hamartomas located within iris

A

Lisch nodules

178
Q

Murmur at 2nd RICS.

A

AS

179
Q

Ash leaf skin, Shagreen path, Subungual or periungual fibromas

A

Tuberous sclerosis

180
Q

Murmur at LLSB.

A

VSD

181
Q

Murmur at LLSB with radiation to the left anterior axillary line.

A

MR

182
Q

Sterile endocarditis, SLE

A

Libman sacks endocarditis

183
Q

MCC of viral meningitis.

A

Echovirus

184
Q

Osler nodes. Janeway lesion. Splinter hge. Roth spots.

A

Infective endocarditis

185
Q

Brain abscess if common in age?

A

4 to 8 yo

186
Q

Use to diagnose hyperpituitarism.

A

Serum somatomedin c (IGF-1)

187
Q

MC site of brain abscess.

A

Cerebrum

188
Q

Earliest sign of graves disease.

A

Emotional disturbance with motor hyperactivity.

189
Q

Earliest and most constant sign of myasthenia gravis.

A

Ptosis and EOM weakness

190
Q

Proximal muscle weakness, symptomatic late in the day.

A

Myasthenia gravis

191
Q

MC cause of thyroid disease in children and adolescent.

A

Thyroiditis

192
Q

Thought to be the site of Ach receptor antibodies.

A

Thymoma

193
Q

MC endocrine metabolic disorder of childhood and adolescent.

A

DM

194
Q

A short acting cholinestearse inhibitor use for clinical test of patient with guillain barret syndrome. Slight improvement in ptosis and ophthalmoplegia.

A

Edrophonium chloride IV Or Tensilon test

195
Q

Aplastic anemia with microcephaly, microphthalmia, hearing loss, limb abnormalities.

A

Fanconis anemia

196
Q

Not associated with other cranial neuropathies or brainstem dusfunction. Occurs after a systemic viral infection.

A

Bell’s palsy

197
Q

Most impt sign of IDA.

A

Pallor

198
Q

Virus associated with bells palsy.

A

EBV, HSV, Mumps virus

199
Q

Definitive diagnostis test for alpha thalasemia.

A

Hb electrophoresis

200
Q

Acute demyelinating polyradiculoneuropathy / symmetric ascending muscle weakness or paralysis.

A

Guillain barre syndrome

201
Q

Target cell, heinz bodies

A

Alpha thalassemia

202
Q

Landry ascending paralysis.

A

Gullain Barre Syndrome

203
Q

Crew cut or hair on end appearance in skull radiograph.

A

Sickle cell disease * inc erythropoiesis cusing marrow expansion and new bone formation.

204
Q

Last to resolve in guillain barre syndrome.

A

Tendon reflex and lower extremities

205
Q

Howell jolly bodies.

A

Sickle cell disease

206
Q

Used to eradicates nasopharyngeal carriage of diphtheria.

A

Erythromycin 40-50mg/kg/day x14days

207
Q

MCC of thrombocytopenic purpura in childhood.

A

Idipathic thrombocytopenic purpura

208
Q

MOT of diphtheria

A

Close contact via Airborne respiratory droplets

209
Q

Fever. Anemia. Thrombocytopenia. Renal dysfunction. Nervous system changes. Inc bun and crea. Deficiency in metalloproteinase (ADAMTS-13).

A

Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

210
Q

Essential for new borns functioning of the visual pigment.

A

DHA

211
Q

Omega 3

A

Linolenic acid. DHA.

212
Q

Omega 6

A

Linoleic acid. Arachidonic acid.

213
Q

Treatment for von willebrand disease.

A

Desmopressin and factor 8 concentrate

214
Q

Explosive outburst in series of 5 to 10 rapid coughs in one expiration and ending in a high pitched whoop (forceful inspiratory gasp) often associated with suffusion of face or popping out of eyes and vomiting. Well in between paroxysm. Have petechial hge on the upper body.

A

Pertussis

215
Q

MC posterior fosaa tumor in children.

A

Astrocytoma

216
Q

Blood picture with pertussis.

A

Leukemoid reaction

217
Q

MC supratentorial tumor in children.

A

Craniopharyngioma

218
Q

DOC pertusis.

A

Erythromycin 40-50mg/kg/day q6 x14days

219
Q

Abdominal mass that does not cross midline.

A

Wilms tumor

220
Q

MOT meningococcemia.

A

Person to person through infected droplets

221
Q

Abdominal mass that crosses the midline.

A

Neuroblastoma

222
Q

Fever. Morbiliform rash > petechial rash > purpuric rash >echymotic rash

A

Meningococcemia

223
Q

Sunburst pattern

A

Osteosarcoma

224
Q

DOC meningococcemia

A

Pen G 250k-400k IV divided doses for atleast 5to7 days

225
Q

Onion skin, moth eaten appearance.

A

Ewing sarcoma

226
Q

Prophylaxis for meningococcemia.

A

Rifampicin

227
Q

Osteosarcoma, what part of long bone?

A

Metaphysis

228
Q

Rose spots

A

Salmonella

229
Q

Ewing tumor, what part of long bone?

A

Diaphysis

230
Q

Mainstay of diagnosis for salmonella.

A

Blood culture

231
Q

Barking cough

A

LTB

232
Q

DOC typhoid fever

A

Chloramphenicol 50-75 mg/kg/day x14-21days

233
Q

Location of LTB.

A

Subglottic space

234
Q

2 weeks High grade fever, abdominal pain, hepatosplenomegaly, anorexia, diarrhea, rash

A

Typhoid fever

235
Q

Thumbprint or leaf sign.

A

Acute epiglotitis

236
Q

MOT measles

A

Droplet spray

237
Q

Steeple sign.

A

LTB

238
Q

Branny desquamation

A

Measles

239
Q

Location of acute epiglottitis.

A

Supraglottic

240
Q

Vitamins given on complicated measles.

A

Vitamin A

241
Q

Muffled voice, drooling.

A

Acute epiglotitis

242
Q

3 day fever

A

German measles/rubella

243
Q

Most common cause of brochilitis.

A

RSV

244
Q

Forscheimer spot

A

German measles/rubella

245
Q

Staccato cough.

A

Chlamydia

246
Q

Blueberry muffin skin lesion

A

Congenital rubella syndrome

247
Q

Most common significant pediatric cardiac arrhythmia.

A

SVT

248
Q

DOC for SVT.

A

Adenosine

249
Q

Familial nonhemolytic unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia.

A

Criggler najjar syndrome, Gilberts syndrome

250
Q

Most frequent complication of mumps.

A

Meningoencephalitis

251
Q

Inherited conjugated hyperbilirubinemia

A

Dubin johnson syndrome, Rotor syndrome

252
Q

Roseola suppresses what cellular lineage within bone marrow?

A

All

253
Q

Maternal treatment for toxoplasmosis.

A

Spiramycin

254
Q

Nagayama spots - uvulopalatoglossal junction

A

Roseola

255
Q

Paraventricular calcification.

A

CMV

256
Q

Interruption of limb development at 6 to 12 weeks AOG. eye and brain involvement in 16-20 weeks AOG.

A

Congenital VZV.

257
Q

When is the best time to give acyclovir in VZV.

A

Within 24 hours the onset of rash

258
Q

Hydrocephalus with generalized calcifications.

A

Toxoplasmosis

259
Q

Use to measure the bone age-reference standards.

A

Radiograph of left hand and wrist

260
Q

Herpangina causative agent.

A

Cox A

261
Q

Skeletal maturity is linked to? Sexual maturity or chronological age?

A

Sexual maturity

262
Q

5th disease

A

Erythema infectiosum

263
Q

Dominant protein in human milk.

A

Whey

264
Q

Slapped cheek appearance

A

Erythema infectiosum

265
Q

Dominant milk in cows milk.

A

Casein

266
Q

Primary cell line affected by erythema infectiosum.

A

Erythroid cell line

267
Q

Eczema. Thrombocytopenia. Recurrent infection. Decreased IgM. T and B cell deficiency

A

Wiskott-aldrich syndrome

268
Q

Lacy, reticulated appearance rash, sparing the palm and soles without desquamation.

A

Eryhthema infectiosum

269
Q

Prolonged detachment of the umbilical cord.

A

Chronic granulomatous disease

270
Q

6th disease

A

Roseola

271
Q

Associated with IM. Symmetric rash on the cheek. Erythematous papules.

A

Gianotti crosti syndrome

272
Q

Most common congenital infection.

A

CMV

273
Q

Moist, honey colored crust

A

Impetigo

274
Q

Tender, warm, erythematous plaques with ill defined borders.

A

Cellulitis

275
Q

Mild rubbing of the skin results in epidermal separation leaving a shiny, moist, red surface.

A

Nikolsky sign

276
Q

Malassezia furfur invades what layer of epidermis?

A

Stratum corneum

277
Q

Causative agent of scabies.

A

Sarcoptes scabei

278
Q

Brown crusted nodules on the trunk; s-shaped burrows.

A

Scabies

279
Q

White or yellow 1-6mm discrete papules with a central umbilication

A

Molluscum contagoisum

280
Q

Thick silvery scales, nail involvement and isomorphic phenomenon.

A

Psoriasis

281
Q

Oval or round, fixed, red skin lesionwith dusky central zone. Target lesion. Iris lesion. No systemic signs and symptoms. Due to HSV specific host response.

A

Erythema multiforme

282
Q

Fetal CO depends on?

A

HR

283
Q

Functional closure of DA.

A

10-15 hours

284
Q

Anatomical closure of DA.

A

2-3 weeks

285
Q

Strongest stimulus for constriction of the ductal smooth muscle.

A

Inc in oxygen saturation

286
Q

Most common ASD.

A

Ostium secundum

287
Q

Chamber enlarge in ASD.

A

Right side and PA

288
Q

Systolic ejection murmur at LEFT 2nd ICS.

A

ASD

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