Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pedia > GI, Misc + CDB > Flashcards

GI, Misc + CDB Flashcards

1
Q

MC type of TEF

A

Type A: Proximal EA with distal TEF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Best to do lumbar tap at

A

L4-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

MC and life-threatening complication of esophageal atresia with TEF

A

Aspiration pneumonia (gastric contents, chemical pneumonitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

-h/o of polyhydramnios -vomiting w/ 1st feeding -choking/coughing & cyanosis -recurrent aspiration pneumonia

A

EA with TEF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Inability to pass an NGT or OGT in the NB

A

EA with TEF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

___% of EA have TEF

A

90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Sequence associated with EA

A

VACTERL V-vertebral anomalies A-anal atresia C-cardio anomalies T-TEF E-esopageal atresia R-renal anomalies L-limb anomalies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In EA, the esophagus ends blindly approximately ___ from the nares

A

10 to 12 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

T/F All TEFs are congenital

A

F, may be acquired

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

T/F EA is a surgical emergency

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Types of TEF

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

___ is the least common but the most likely to be seen in ED

A

H-type tracheoesophageal fistula (Type C)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

New born infant with frothing and bubbling at the mouth with episodes of coughing and cyanosis noted to be exacerbated on feeding

A

EA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

MC esophageal disorder in children of all ages is

A

GERD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Loss of normal peristalsis and failure of LES to relax in response to swallowing

A

Achalasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Pathophy of achalasia

A

Decreased ganglion cells surrounded by inflammatory cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Bird’s beak on barium swallow

A

Achalasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Achalasia is confirmed by the most sensitive test for it which is

A

Manometry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Medical management for achalasia when surgery cannot be done

A

Nifedipine Botulinum toxin injection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Surgical management for achalasia

A

Heller myotomy or pneumatic dilatation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Syndrome of familial achalasia, alacrima, corticotropin insensitivity

A

Allgrove syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the primary mechanism of GER

A

Transient LES relaxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Main stimulus for transient LES relaxation is ___

A

Gastric distention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Neck contortions seen in GER is called what syndrome

A

Sandifer syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What position worsens the infant GER

A

Seated position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Recommended position in infants with GER

A

If the patient is asleep – supine ( for risk of SIDS); if the patient is awake, prone position or upright carried position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the most important predictor of successful surgical outcome of GER

A

Preoperative accuracy of diagnosis; skill of the surgeon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

It is seen in males and blood type O and B presenting as non billous vomiting after feeding at 3rd wk of life , jaundice, with olive size non movable mass above and right of the umbilicus

A

Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Shoulder sign (bulge of pyloric muscle into the antrum), double tract sign (parallel streaks of barium in the narrow channel; excess mucosa), or string sign (from elongated pyloric channel) on barium studies (upper GI series)

A

Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Management for hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

A

Surgery: Ramstedt pylorotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

MC cause of pyloric stenosis

A

Idiopathic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

T/F Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is usually present at birth

A

F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Drug associated with pyloric stenosis if given to infants within the first 2 weeks of life

A

Erythromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Congenital anomalies associated with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

A

Turner’s, Trisomy 18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Systemic conditions assoc with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

A

Eosinophilic GE, epidermolysis bullosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis may appear as late as

A

5 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Most sensitive test to detect hypertrophic pyloric stenosis; initial test

A

Ultrasound 􏱄 Elongated pyloric channel (> 14 mm) 􏱄 Thickened pyloric wall (> 4 mm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

__ is the most common clinical association of pyloric stenosis

A

Unconjugated hyperbilirubenemia ( icteropyloric syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Acid-base abnormality in hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

A

Hypochloremic, hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis: acid loss in vomit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Mushroom sign in upper GI series

A

Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis; Hypertrophic pylorus against duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

MC cause of non bilous vomiting in children

A

Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Best test for hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

A

Barium swallow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Triad: S I R ( sudden onset of severe epigastric pain, inability to pass tube into stomachl, retching with emesis)

A

Gastric volvulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Management for gastric volvulus

A

Emergency surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

First month of life, bilious vomiting, crampy/colicky abd pain, blood/mucus in stool

A

Intestinal volvulus (congenital malrotation of midgut)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

MC location for volvulus (twisted loop) in children

A

Ileum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

XR: air fluid levels upper GI series: “bird beak” at rotation sight

A

Intestinal volvulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Initial management for intestinal volvulus

A

Endoscopic decompression, fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Inverted U sign of volvulus represents

A

Distended sigmoid loop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Midline crease in the coffee bean sign of volvulus represents

A

Mesenteric root in a greatly distended sigmoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

T/F Ligament of treitz is abnormally located in intestinal volvulus

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Duodenal atresia is due to failure to recanalize (lack/absence of normal duodenal apoptosis) the lumen after the ___ phase of intestinal development during the ___ weeks AOG

A

solid, 4th-5th

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Duodenal atresia is associated with what chromosomal abnormality

A

Down syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the hallmark of duodenal obstruction

A

Billous vomiting without abdominal distention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Double bubble sign

A

Duodenal atresia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What GI anomaly is commonly assoc w/ down syndrome

A

Duodenal atresia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Bile stained vomitus w/in 12 hrs after birth, dehydration; Annular pancreas: wraps around duodenum

A

Duodenal atresia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Management of duodenal atresia

A

Decompress w/ NG tube, correct electrolytes, treat life-threatening anomalies, surgery (duodenoduodenostomy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Presents in infancy w/ coughing, vomiting, gagging after feeding; Resp distress and frothy bubbles in oral cavity

A

TEF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Distended abdomen w/ dilated loops of bowel

A

Malrotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Triple bubble sign

A

Jejunal atresia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

“Ground glass” appearance in the RLQ with trapped “soap bubbles”; egg-shell pattern

A

Meconium ileus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Meconium ileus is diagnostic for what other disease

A

Cystic fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is meconium ileus

A

Obstruction of the small intestine (terminal ileum) in the newborn caused by impaction of thick, dry, tenacious meconium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Failure to pass meconium w/in first 24 hours of life; bilious vomiting, h/o polyhydramnios, family history of CF

A

Meconium ileus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Intestinal perforation–> pneumoperitoneum (after birth) or intrabdominal calification (before birth)

A

Meconium ileus (complications)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Similar presentation to meconium ileus (bilious vomit, failure to pass meconium w/in first 24 h) BUT non-cystic fibrosis babies; no complication with intestinal perforation

A

Meconium plug syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

___ % of meconium ileus are due to CF

A

99

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

The most common presentation of cystic fibrosis in the neonatal period

A

Meconium ileus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

MC congenital GI anomaly

A

Meckel diverticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the cause of meckels diverticulum

A

Failure of omphalomesenteric duct/vitelline duct to obliterate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Omphalomesenteric duct/vitelline duct is a remnant of

A

Yolk sac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Significant sudden intermittent painless rectal bleeding with brick-colored or currant jelly stool

A

Meckel diverticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

MCC of LGIB in children

A

Meckel diverticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Diagnostic test for Meckel

A

Technetium 99M scan aka Meckel scan (scintigraphy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Management for Meckel

A

Diverticular resection with transverse closure of the enterotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

The only true congenital diverticulum

A

Meckel diverticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

MC tissue in Meckel

A

Gastric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

When is a diverticulum considered “true”

A

If involves all layers of bowel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is the meckel’s diverticulum rule of 2’s

A

-2% of population -2 feet from ileocecal valve -2 types of ectopic tissue (gastric/pancreatic) -2x more affects males than females -less than 2 years of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

MC complication of Meckel

A

LGIB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Omphalomesenteric (vitelline) duct should disappear by

A

7th week AOG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Meckel’s diverticulum may mimic ___ and also act as lead point for ___

A

Acute appendicitis; intussusception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

MC cause for emergent surgery in childhood

A

Appendicitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Perforation rates are greatest in youngest children because ___

A

They can’t localize symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Peak age of appendicitis

A

10-12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Appendicitis is rare in children younger than

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Stages of appencidicits

A

1) Luminal obstruction 2) Bacterial invasion 3) Necrosis of wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Appendiceal lumen is most commonly obstructed by

A

Fecalith (other: lymphoid hyperplasia from viral infection, appendices carcinoid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Appendiceal rupture usually occurs within ___ hours of onset of symptoms

A

48

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

It is the single most reliable finding in the diagnosis of acute appendicitis

A

Localized abdominal tenderness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Congenital lack of distal bowel innervation by auerbach plexus -> constant contracture of muscle tone

A

Hirschprung disease (Congenital aganglionic megacolon)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What syndrome is hirschsprung disease freq assoc w/

A

Down syndrome (less frequently, MEN type 2 and Waardenburg, Laurence-Moon-Bardet-Biedl)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Hirschprung disease, boys vs girls

A

Boys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Do not pass meconium in 1st 48 hrs or at all (normal = 1st 24 hrs); bilious vomiting

A

Hirschprung disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Treatment of choice for Hirschprung

A

Single stage laparospcopic endorectal pullthrough is the tx of choice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

How to dx hirschsprung disease, confirmatory, GOLD STANDARD

A

Full thickness biopsy 2 cm above the dentate line: Absence of ganglion cells on the submucosal and myenteric plexus

98
Q

XR: distended bowel loops + no air in rectum Contrast enema: barium retention for >24 hrs, narrow distal colon, proximal dilation Manometry: high pressure anal sphincter

A

Hirschprung disease

99
Q

Most common cause of lower intestinal obstruction in neonates

A

Hirschprung disease

100
Q

Currarino triad: Anorectal malformation, sacral bone anomaly, presacral masses

A

Hirschprung disease

101
Q

Abd distention, *explosive discharge* of stool following a rectal exam

A

Hirschprung

102
Q

How to dx hirschsprung disease, initial

A

Barium enema

103
Q

DRE, rectal vault is empty

A

Hirschprung

104
Q

It is the most common cause of intestinal obstruction in children between 3 mos to 6 years and most common abdominal surgery in children less than 2 years

A

Intussusception

105
Q

2 types of intussusception

A

Ileocolic and ileoileocolic

106
Q

What does the doughnut sign specify in GI tract imaging

A

Intussusception

107
Q

MCC of Intussusception

A

Idiopathic (Other: Polyp, hard stool, lymphoma, viral inflammation)

108
Q

Currant jelly stool + bilious vomiting

A

Intussusception

109
Q

Right upper quadrant sausage-shaped abdominal mass

A

Intussusception

110
Q

Initial test for Intussusception

A

UTZ: Target sign (echogenic mucosa + hypoechogenic submucosa)

111
Q

Diagnostic & therapeutic modality for Intussusception

A

Barium enema

112
Q

Coiled spring sign

A

Intussusception

113
Q

T/F Intussusception is a pediatric emergency

A

T, do air-contrast barium enema

114
Q

Syndrome associated with Intussusception with polyp as leading intussuseptum

A

Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

115
Q

Mode of inheritance of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

A

Autosomal dominant

116
Q

Management for Intussusception

A

Hydrostatic reduction in stable patients; if not stable do not do hydrostatic reduction

117
Q

Intussusception, upper part of bowel that invaginated into distal part, dragging its mesentery along

A

Intussuseptum (distal part, intussusipiens)

118
Q

Light colored (echoic) stools at 3 to 6 weeks, dark urine, hepatomegaly, jaundice due to increased direct hyperbilirubinemia (direct hyperbilirubinemia)

A

Biliary atresia

119
Q

___ is an indication for evaluating neonatal jaundice even if the infant seems normal otherwise

A

Direct hyperbilirubinemia (>2)

120
Q

What are the two inborn disorders of bilirubin metabolism that lead to a CONJUGATED bilirubinemia?

A

Dubin-Johnson, Rotor syndrome (biliary atresia and alpha1 antitrypsin def. can present this way also)

121
Q

Lack of gallbladder and triangular cord sign on ultrasound

A

Biliary atresia

122
Q

Extrahepatic cholestasis

A

Biliary atresia, choledochal cyst

123
Q

Management for biliary atresia

A

Kasai procedure before 8 weeks of life

124
Q

MCC of conjugated hyperbilirubinemia (direct) in neonates

A

Idiopathic neonatal hepatitis (diagnosis of exclusion) and biliary atresia

125
Q

Distal segmental bile duct obliteration with patent extrahepatic ducts up to porta hepatis

A

Extrahepatic Biliary Atresia

126
Q

Prolonged elevated levels of conjugated bilirubin after 14th day of life

A

Neonatal cholestasis

127
Q

Omphalitis in newborn is associated with

A

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency (no pus with minimal wound inflammation) , inadequate care of umbilical cord (with bacterial colonisation from maternal genital tract and envt; often results in sepsis)

128
Q

Delayed separation of umbilical cord is associated with

A

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency

129
Q

Leukocyte defect in leukocyte adhesion deficiency

A

Leukocyte chemotaxis

130
Q

It is the most common life threatening emergency of the GI in newborns characterized by mucosal necrosis of the intestines

A

NEC

131
Q

Gas accumulation in the submucosa of the bowel wall produced by bacteria seen in NEC is called

A

Pneumatosis intestinalis

132
Q

Intestinal ischemia Enteral nutrition Bacterial translocation

A

NEC triad

133
Q

The finding of __ confirms the clinical suspicion of NEC and is diagnostic

A

Pneumatosis intestinalis

134
Q

Most significant risk factor for NEC

A

Prematurity

135
Q

Diseases associated with prematurity

A

NEC, ROP

136
Q

MC site of NEC

A

Distal ileum, proximal colon

137
Q

Mgt for NEC

A

NPO, bowel decompression, antibiotics (G-, G+, anaerobic)

138
Q

mechanism of diarrhea with normal osmolality

A

secretory

139
Q

mechanism of diarrhea that stops with fasting

A

osmotic diarrhea

140
Q

diarrhea that persists even with fasting

A

secretory diarrhea

141
Q

it is seen if the mechanism of diarrhea is mucosal invasion

A

dysentery evident — blood wbc mucus in stool

142
Q

diarrhea common in less than 4 years old with, associated with hemolytic uremic syndorme

A

enterohemorrhagic e.coli (O157H7)

143
Q

___ causes diarrhea from inadequately pasteurized milk

A

listeria monocytogenes

144
Q

salmonella typhi specimen of choice after 1st week of infection

A

urine, stool

145
Q

salmonella is seen in blood cs on what day

A

1st 1 week

146
Q

incubation period of vibrio cholerae toxin causing diarrhea

A

24-72 hrs

147
Q

cholera etiologic agent common in immunocompromised or with chronic liver diase

A

vibrio vulnificus

148
Q

ciguatera fish poisoning is common in what type of fish

A

barracuda

149
Q

the most common complication of shigellosis

A

dehydration

150
Q

SIADH is associated with ____ diarrhea

A

shigella dysenteriae

151
Q

this syndrome is caused by shiga toxin mediated endothelial injury

A

HUS

152
Q

syndrome of severe toxic convulsion, extreme hyperpyrexia, headache, brain edema, dehydration caused by shigella

A

Ekiri syndrome or lethal toxic encephalopathy

153
Q

presumptive data supporting the diagnosis of bacillary dysentery include the____

A

finding of fecal leukocytes and blood leukocytosis with left shift ( bands> neutrophils)

154
Q

treatment regimen of shigellosis

A

ceftriaxone 50mkd as single dose for empiric therapy ( continued for 5days if patient responds despite negative culture results); zinc 20mg/day for 14 days

155
Q

travelers diarrhea is caused by

A

ETEC

156
Q

major cause of infant acute and persistent diarrhea

A

enteropathogenic e. coli

157
Q

this bacteria cause copious watery diarrhea, having fishy odor without the abdominal cramps

A

v. cholera

158
Q

bacteria associated with IgA nephropathy

A

campylobacter

159
Q

In IMCI, the treatment of choice for bloody diarrhea is

A

Ciprofloxacin

160
Q

What is the dose of ciprofloxacin if given to treat bloody diarrhea

A

15mg/kg bid for 3 days

161
Q

Zinc supplement for diarrhea should be given for how many days

A

10-14

162
Q

cause of toddlers diarrhea

A

drinks excessive carbohydrate containing drinks

163
Q

occurs when the transfer of food bolus from the mouth to the esophagus is impaired

A

oropharyngeal dysphagia

164
Q

occurs when there is difficulty in transferring down to the esophagus

A

esophageal dysphagia

165
Q

vomiting begin with involuntary ___

A

retching

166
Q

acute diarrhea is best defined as onset of excessive loose stools of ___ ml/kg/day and ___ g/day which lasts for ___

A

>10mlkgday; > 200g/day; less than 14 days

167
Q

a young infant normally has ___ of stool output

A

5ml/kg/day

168
Q

secretory diarrhea is often caused by __

A

secretagogue

169
Q

diarrhea caused by ingestion of poorly absorbable solute

A

osmotic diarrhea

170
Q

anion gap of osmotic diarrhea

A

> 100 mOsm

171
Q

7 yr old who have soft stool every 3 days but without difficulty. is this constipation?

A

No. HARD stool passed every 3 days WITH difficulty is treated as constipation

172
Q

in visceral pain, the pain and tenderness is felt over the site of the disease. true or false

A

FALSE

173
Q

when will central incisors errupt

A

6.5 months for mandibular (lower); 7.5 months (upper)

174
Q

cleft lip is more common in what gender

A

males

175
Q

surgical correction of cleft lip is done at what age?

A

3 months

176
Q

what technique is commonly used in the repair of cleft lip

A

mod of millard rotation technique

177
Q

what happens when patients with velopharyngeal dysfunction phonates the vowel U

A

the soft palate does not contact the posterior pharyngeal wall

178
Q

what organsim is associated with dental carries

A

streptococcus mutans

179
Q

children should only consume juices at mealtime and not to exceed ___ per day to prevent dental carries

A

6 oz

180
Q

necrotizing peridontal disease or trench mouth is caused by

A

spirochetes and fusobacterium

181
Q

well circumscribed ulcerative lesion with a white necrotic base and surrounded by red halo that last 10-14 days and heals without a scar

A

apthous ulcer (canker sore)

182
Q

disease of the salivary gland is rare except for ___

A

mumps

183
Q

suppurative parotitis is caused by

A

staph aureus

184
Q

swallowing is seen in utero at what age of gestation

A

16-20

185
Q

7 year old male presenting with feeding problems, vomiting, associated with atopic disease and on laboratory there is peripheral eosinophilia and IgE elevation. on microcopy, esophagus has eosinophilia. it is refractory to anti reflux medication and has no esophageal erosion on endoscopy

A

eosinophilic esophagitis

186
Q

what is the treatment of eosinphilic esophagitis

A

6 food elimination ( seafood, egg, wheat, nuts, soy,milk)

187
Q

position of the coin if inside the esophagus in AP view

A

we see the flat surface ( round shaped)

188
Q

position of the coin if inside the trachea in AP view

A

the edge is seen ( line shaped)

189
Q

position of the coin if inside the esophagus in lateral xray view

A

we see the edge ( line shaped)

190
Q

the intrinsic factor required for GI absorption is ___

A

vit b12

191
Q

apple peel appearance is seen in ___

A

jejunoileal atresia

192
Q

what is the most common type of malrotation

A

malrotation that involves failure of the cecum to move into the right lower quadrant

193
Q

what is the imaging test of choice for malrotation

A

Upper GI series

194
Q

treatment of duplications

A

surgical resection

195
Q

there is intentional or subconscious withholding of stool

A

functional constipation

196
Q

it is the failure of intestinal peristalsis caused by coordinated gut motility without obstruction

A

ileus

197
Q

abdominal xray shows air fluid levels through out the abdomen

A

abdominal ileus

198
Q

primary ulcer is associated with ___ infection

A

helicobacter pylori infection

199
Q

secondary peptic ulcer is a result of

A

stress, sepsis, shock

200
Q

what is the method of choice in diagnosing peptic ulcer disease

A

esophagogastroduedenoscopy

201
Q

peptic ulcer caused by gastrimona

A

zollinger ellison syndrome

202
Q

what disease is associated with zollinger ellison syndrome

A

MEN1, tuberous sclerosis; neurofibromatosis

203
Q

perianal disease is common in what IBD

A

crohns diasease

204
Q

___may be the only manifestation of Crohns disease

A

growth failure

205
Q

__ is the mainstay therapy for acute exacerbations of crohns

A

corticosteroids

206
Q

__ is the main clinical expression of malabsorption

A

diarrhea

207
Q

if celiac disease is suspected what test should be determined

A

serum IgA and transglutamate TG2

208
Q

measurement of carbohydrate using this reagent identifies carbohydrate reducing substances

A

clinitest reagent

209
Q

breath hydrogen test is used to identify the specific ___ malabsorbed

A

carbohydrate

210
Q

screening tool for protein loosing enteropathy

A

stool a1 antitrypsin

211
Q

what is the most common cause of exocrine pancreatic insufficiency in children and what test must be done

A

cystic fibrosis; sweat chloride test

212
Q

what is the gold standard for exocrine pancreatic function

A

direct analysis of duodenal aspirate

213
Q

what is the hallmark of celiac disease

A

increase density of CD8 cytotoxic intraepithelial lymphocytes

214
Q

what is the most common extraintestinal manifestation of celiac diases

A

iron def anemia unresponsive to iron therapy

215
Q

the most commonly recognized cause of congenital diarrhea

A

congenital microvillus atrophy ( microvillous inclusion disease)

216
Q

what are the nutrients absorbed in duodenum and proximal jejunun

A

FIMP-C; folic acid, iron, magnesium, phosphorus, calcium

217
Q

nutrient absorbed in distal ileum

A

vit b12; bile acids

218
Q

test that is useful to differentiate between lack of intrinsic factor or malabsorption of cobalamin

A

schilling test

219
Q

severe deficiency of body zinc after birth in bottle fed infants or after weaning from breasteeding

A

acrodermatitis enteropathica

220
Q

it is the 2nd most common cause of child death worldwide

A

diarrhea

221
Q

persistent diarrhea is defined as episodes beginning acutely but lasts for __

A

more than or equal to 14 days

222
Q

management for minimal diarrhea

A

*if less than 10kg –> 60-120 ml ors for each vomiting, diarrhea; * if more than 10 kg –> 120-240 ml ORS

223
Q

management of mild to moderate dehydration

A

* ors 50-100 ml/kg over 3-4 hr; * same replacement of loss as no dehydration

224
Q

management of severe dehydration

A

* LR 20ml/kg until perfusion and mental status improve; *100 ml/kg D5.5 NSS twice the maintenance fluid OR ors over 4 hours; * for replacement of loss NGT same as no dehydration OR D5.35 NSS with 20 meq kcl IV

225
Q

lactose load exceeding ___ may be associated with higher purging in children with diarrhea

A

5 d/kg/day

226
Q

oral zinc after acute diarrhea is given how?

A

10mg/day for infants and 20mg/day for more than 6 months for 10-14 days

227
Q

chronic diarrhea is defined as diarrhea episode that last for ___

A

more than or equal to 14 days

228
Q

it is the most common cause of severe and protracted diarrhea in AIDS

A

enteric cryptosporodiosis

229
Q

what is the gold standard for imaging in patients with appendicitis

A

ct scan

230
Q

most common intestinal tumor of childhood

A

hamartomas

231
Q

the most common primary GI carcinoma

A

colorectal Ca

232
Q

the most common GI malignancy ( wether benign or malignant)

A

lymphoma

233
Q

what is the hallmark of hepatorenal syndorme

A

renal vasoconstiriction

234
Q

persistence of unconjugated bilirubin (>20) after the 1st week of life without hemolysis, jaundice with normal stool color, is seen in what disease

A

crigler-najar I ( gluc transferase def)

235
Q

wilsons disease there is a decreased biliary ___ excretion

A

copper

236
Q

what is the firs serologic marker to appear in hepa b infection

A

hbsAg

237
Q

what is the marker of infectivity of hepa B

A

HbeAg

238
Q

wha vaccine is given in infants with hsbAg + mother

A

HBIG and hepa vaccine within 12 hours of birth

239
Q

preterm infants with HsBAg negative mother should receive vaccine when?

A

unti 1 month or before discharge

240
Q

HBIG can be given until __ after sexual exposure

A

14 days

Pedia (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions