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IMMUNOHEMA OFFSEM PM > TOPIC 2 - P2 > Flashcards

TOPIC 2 - P2 Flashcards

1
Q

(IMMUNE RESPONSE) latency, preseroconversion, or window period: ________

A

lag phase

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2
Q

(IMMUNE RESPONSE) antibody cannot be detected with __________

A

serologic testing

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3
Q

(IMMUNE RESPONSE) ________ are very active in processing antigen and initiating the primary response to the antigen

A

T and B cells

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4
Q

primary antibodies: __________________

A

immunoglobulin M (IgM) subclass

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5
Q

immune maturation, primary antibodies..

there is a period when it overlaps with the production of _________ at the beginning of the ___________

A

IgG antibodies ; secondary response

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6
Q

Many of the antigens that stimulate the primary response have multiple repeating _______ (polysaccharides) and therefore are good immune stimulators at lower concentrations

A

epitopes

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7
Q

secondary response antibodies: _____________________

A

immunoglobulin G (IgG) subclass

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8
Q

immune maturation, secondary response antibodies…

made in great quantities have a _______ for antigen and can be produced by much __________ of antigen

A

higher avidity ; lower concentrations

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9
Q

immune maturation, secondary response antibodies…

can usually be measured within __ to __ days

A

1 to 2

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10
Q

(IMMUNE MATURATION) After the antigen is cleared, ______ are stored in immune organs of the host

A

memory cells

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11
Q

Cell Lineages and Markers..

________: classified by complex in vitro testing using monoclonal antibodies

A

CD markers

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12
Q

specify cellular definitions and functions, including maturation levels and lineage specificity

A

CD markers

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13
Q

CELL LINEAGES AND MARKERS..

All immune cells originate from ___________ (CD34-positive cells)

A

pluripotent hematopoietic progenitors

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14
Q

CELL LINEAGES AND MARKERS

________ are responsible for differentiating and maturing stem cells into the many different cells of the IS

A

growth factors

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15
Q

allow progenitor stem cells to reproduce and differentiate

A

growth factors

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16
Q

____ part of the antibody receptor and the complement receptor ____ are used by phagocytes during opsonization

A

FC ; CR1

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17
Q

_____ all have granules in their cytoplasm (neutral/ basic/acidic)

A

Granulocytes

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18
Q

granulocytes main role: _______; function primarily in ___________-

A

phagocytosis ; acute inflammatory responses

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19
Q

granulocytes have ______ that allow them to destroy engulfed pathogens

A

enzymes

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19
Q

possess receptors for the Fc portion of _____ and complement receptors _____, ______ and ______

A

IgG (CD16) ; C5a, CR1(CD35), and CR3(CD11b)

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20
Q

_______ process antigens for acquired immunity and can directly kill many pathogens such as bacteria and fungi as part of innate immunity

A

Phagocytic cells

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21
Q

_________ present antigen to lymphocytes and interact with other immune cells via cell membrane receptors_

A

MPS cells

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22
Q

monocytes encounter antigen, they can differentiate into ________

A

tissue macrophages

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23
Q

________ possess low-affinity Fc receptors for IgE and therefore play a critical role in allergic reactions and inflammation in parasitic infections

A

eosinophils

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24
Q

_________ and _______ (a type of tissue basophil) possess high-affinity FC immunoglobulin E (IgE) receptors, are powerful effectors of inflammation and allergic reactions, and can cause the release of localized histamine

A

Basophils and mast cells ;

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25
Q

__________ are generated in the thymus or bone marrow

A

Lymphocytic cells

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25
Q

acquire ______ that enable them to interact with antigens and to differentiate between __________ antigens, a very critical part of lymphocyte maturation and the acquired IS in general

A

receptors ; self and nonself

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26
Q

Then travel through the circulatory system to the ________ and _______, where they mature and differentiate

A

lymph nodes and spleen

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27
Q

Provided with a _________ environment in which immune responses are exchanged and made specific

A

highly interactive

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28
Q

___ and ___ cells, and these similar-looking cells can be distinguished by the presence of specific cell markers

A

T and B

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29
Q

cell lineages and markers.

Specific to the ____

A

T cell

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30
Q

__________: in proximity to and usually identified with the CD3 complex

A

T-cell receptor (TCR)

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31
Q

TCR associates in cell-to-cell contacts and interacts with both _______ and _________

A

antigenic determinants and MHC proteins

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32
Q

_____ and _____: involved in cell adhesion

A

CD2 & CD3 marker

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33
Q

_____: has the unique ability to bind with sheep erythrocytes in vitro

A

CD2

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34
Q

_______: Th cells; recognize antigen together with the MHC class II molecules

A

CD4 marker

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35
Q

________: Tc cells and interact with MHC class I molecules

A

CD8 marker

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36
Q

______ is a reversal of the typical CD4 to CD8 ratio

A

AIDS

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37
Q

________: can stimulate multiple T cells, causing them to release large amounts of cytokines; can lead to lethal reactions in the host if the immune system is overstimulated

A

superantigens

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38
Q

_____: possess MHC class II antigens (antigen presentation), complement receptors CD35 and CD21; FC receptors for IgG

A

B cells

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39
Q

CD markers used to identify B cells: _____, _____ and ______

A

CD19, CD20, and CD22 markers

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40
Q

__________ may act as an antigen receptor for binding simple structural antigens or antigens with multiple repeating determinants (referred to as T cell–independent antigens, meaning they do not require the intervention of T-cell help)

A

Membrane-bound immunoglobulin

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41
Q

When _____ become activated, they mature and develop into plasma cells

A

B cells

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42
Q

______, are sometimes referred to as third population cells; also referred to as large granular lymphocytes

A

NK cells

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43
Q

NK cells do not have ______ or do they have _____

A

surface Ig ; antigen receptors

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44
Q

NK cells have the _____ and _____ markers

A

CD56 and CD16

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45
Q

NK cells are ______-independent and are able to lyse virally infected cells and tumor cells directly in a process known as ________________ by anchoring immunoglobulin to the cell surface membrane through an FC receptor

A

thymus ; antibody-dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)

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46
Q

_____ are soluble protein or peptide molecules that function as powerful mediators of the immune response

A

Cytokines

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47
Q

Cytokines function in a complex manner by _________, _______, and differentiation of _______.

A

regulating growth ; mobility ; leukocytes

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48
Q

One cytokine may act by _____ or together with other cytokines.

A

itself

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49
Q

Other cytokines oppose the actions of one or more cytokines and function to quantitatively increase or decrease a particular _______

A

immune reaction

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50
Q

Some cytokines are ______ and need each other to have their full effect

A

synergistic

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51
Q

The effects of cytokines can be in the _______ of their release, or they can travel through the ____ to affect distant cells and tissues

A

immediate area ; plasma

52
Q

(CYTOKINES AND IMMUNOREGULATORY MOLECULES) Major classes: ________, _______, _______ and ______

A

interleukins (IL), interferons (IFN), tumor necrosis factors (TNF), and colony stimulating factors (CSF)

53
Q

_____ act by binding to specific target cell receptors.

Then, the number of receptors is often _____ as the cell is stimulated.

A

Cytokines ; increased

54
Q

both the receptor and the cytokine become internalized, which induces the target cell to _________ and _______.

A

grow and differentiate

55
Q

Immune cells and other host cells respond to cytokines and can react with __________, as well as _______, ______, and _________

A

chemoattraction ; antiviral, antiproliferation, and immunomodulation processes.

56
Q

Cytokines fine-tune the IS and also function as ___________

typically communicate between cells through the _____

A

critical cell activators ; plasma

57
Q

______ are attractant molecules that interact between cells, immunoglobulins, and complement proteins and are important in destroying pathogens

A

Chemokines

58
Q

__________ and __________ play a role in inflammation, a process that recruits appropriate cells to an immune site and modifies the vascular system

A

Acute phase proteins and fibrinolytic proteins

59
Q

some cytokines are _____________

A

immunosuppressive

60
Q

(Immune System Genetics) not all transfusion recipients make ________ to alloantigens on transfused RBCs

A

antibodies

61
Q

(Immune System Genetics) ________: people who have a tendency based on their inheritance to make antibodies

A

Responders

62
Q

(Immune System Genetics) ________ and _______ describe individual responses to antigen challenges

A

high responders and low responders

63
Q

(Immune System Genetics) ________ is the region of the genome that encodes the human leukocyte antigen (HLA) proteins

A

major histocompatibility complex (MHC)

64
Q

(Immune System Genetics) critical in ______ and ___________ in cell-to-cell interactions, transplantation, paternity testing, and specific HLA patterns

A

immune recognition and regulation of antigen presentation

65
Q

Class I molecules are found on all nucleated cells except _____

play a key role in __________ function

A

trophoblasts ; cytotoxic T-cell

66
Q

________ are found on antigen-presenting cells

A

Class II molecules

67
Q

Class II molecules on APCs are essential for presenting processed antigen to _____ and are necessary for ______ and _______

A

CD4 T cells ; T-cell functions and B-cell help

68
Q

Class III molecules that encode complement components such as ___, ____, and ______

A

C2, C4, and factor B

69
Q

_____ aka antibody

A

Immunoglobulins

70
Q

complex protein with specificity to antigens (or immunogens) that stimulate their production

A

Immunoglobulins

71
Q

bind antigen, fix complement, facilitate phagocytosis, and neutralize toxic substances in the circulation

A

Immunoglobulins

72
Q

Characteristics of Immunoglobulins

_____: most concentrated in serum approximately 80% of the total serum Ig;

73
Q

Characteristics of Immunoglobulins…

___, at about 13% (although it is the major Ig found in body secretions)

73
Q

Characteristics of Immunoglobulins

___ is 6%;

74
Q

Characteristics of Immunoglobulins

IgD is ___

75
Q

Characteristics of Immunoglobulins

____ is the least common

76
Q

WHAT IMMUNOGLOBULIN IS..

Heavy Chain Type: Alpha
Sedimentation Coefficient: 7 to 15*
Molecular Weight: 160 to 500
Biologic half-life: 5.8
Carbohydrate content: 7.5 to 9
Placental transfer: No
Complement fixation: No
Agglutination in saline: +
Heavy chain allotypes: Am
Proportion of total immunoglobulin: 13

77
Q

WHAT IMMUNOGLOBULIN IS..

Heavy Chain Type: Delta
Sedimentation Coefficient: 7
Molecular Weight: 180
Biologic half-life: 2.8
Carbohydrate content: 10 to 13
Placental transfer: No
Complement fixation: No
Agglutination in saline: 0
Heavy chain allotypes: None
Proportion of total immunoglobulin: 1

78
Q

WHAT IMMUNOGLOBULIN IS..

Heavy Chain Type: Epsilon
Sedimentation Coefficient: 8
Molecular Weight: 196
Biologic half-life: 2.3
Carbohydrate content: 11 to 12
Placental transfer: No
Complement fixation: No
Agglutination in saline: 0
Heavy chain allotypes: None
Proportion of total immunoglobulin: 0.002

79
Q

WHAT IMMUNOGLOBULIN IS..

Heavy Chain Type: Gamma
Sedimentation Coefficient: 6.7
Molecular Weight: 150
Biologic half-life: 21
Carbohydrate content: 2.2 to 3.5
Placental transfer: Yes
Complement fixation: +
Agglutination in saline: ±
Heavy chain allotypes: Gm
Proportion of total immunoglobulin: 80

80
Q

WHAT IMMUNOGLOBULIN IS..

Heavy Chain Type: Mu
Sedimentation Coefficient: 19
Molecular Weight: 900
Biologic half-life: 5.1
Carbohydrate content: 7 to 14
Placental transfer: No
Complement fixation: +++
Agglutination in saline: ++++
Heavy chain allotypes: None
Proportion of total immunoglobulin: 6

81
Q

___, ___, and ___ have the most significance for the blood bank

A

IgG, IgM, and IgA

82
Q

Most clinically significant antibodies that react at body temperature (37°C) are ____ and capable of destroying transfused antigen-positive RBCs, causing ____ and ______

A

IgG isotype ; anemia and transfusion reactions

83
Q

______ are most commonly encountered as naturally occurring antibodies in the ABO system that react best at _____

A

IgM antibodies ; ambient temperature (22°C to 24°C)

84
Q

IgG antibodies are important in _______, because antibodies can be formed in response against alloantigens on fetal RBCs that enter the mother’s circulation, usually during delivery

A

hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)

85
Q

____ is important in immunohematology: ____ of anti-A and anti-B antibodies

86
Q

anti-IgA antibodies can cause severe ______ if IgA are transfused in plasma products to patients who are deficient in IgA

A

anaphylaxis

87
Q

IgA can increase the effect of ________-

A

IgG-induced RBC hemolysis

88
Q

_____: important in allergic reactions

89
Q

(IgE) FC portion of the IgE molecule attaches to _____ and ______ and facilitates histamine release when an allergen binds to the Fab portion of the molecule

A

basophils and mast cells

90
Q

(IgE) ______ is critical for bringing about an allergic reaction

91
Q

BIOLOGICAL PROPERTIES OF IgG SUBCLASSES

Proportion of total serum IgG (%): 65 to 70
Complement Fixation: ++
Binding to macrophage Fc receptors: +++
Ability to cross placenta: +

dominant antibody activities
Anti Rh: ++
Anti-factor VII: 0
Anti-dextran: 0
Anti-kell: +
Anti-duffy: +
Anti-platelet: 0
Biological half-life (days): 21

92
Q

BIOLOGICAL PROPERTIES OF IgG SUBCLASSES

Proportion of total serum IgG (%): 23 to 28
Complement Fixation: +
Binding to macrophage Fc receptors: ++
Ability to cross placenta: ±

dominant antibody activities
Anti Rh: 0
Anti-factor VII: 0
Anti-dextran: +
Anti-kell: 0
Anti-duffy: 0
Anti-platelet: 0
Biological half-life (days): 21

93
Q

BIOLOGICAL PROPERTIES OF IgG SUBCLASSES

Proportion of total serum IgG (%): 4 to 7
Complement Fixation: +++
Binding to macrophage Fc receptors: +
Ability to cross placenta: +

dominant antibody activities
Anti Rh: +
Anti-factor VII: 0
Anti-dextran: 0
Anti-kell: 0
Anti-duffy: 0
Anti-platelet: +
Biological half-life (days): 7 to 8

94
Q

BIOLOGICAL PROPERTIES OF IgG SUBCLASSES

Proportion of total serum IgG (%): 3 to 4
Complement Fixation: 0
Binding to macrophage Fc receptors: ±
Ability to cross placenta: +

dominant antibody activities
Anti Rh: ±
Anti-factor VII: +
Anti-dextran: 0
Anti-kell: 0
Anti-duffy: 0
Anti-platelet: 0
Biological half-life (days): 21

95
Q

_____ have functions that deal primarily with maturation of B cells into plasma cells usually bound to the membrane of ______

A

IgD ; immature B cells

96
Q

IMMUNOGLOBULIN VARIATIONS…

______ refers to variants present in all members of a species, including the different heavy and light chains and the different subclasses

A

Isotype variation

97
Q

IMMUNOGLOBULIN VARIATIONS…

______ is present primarily in the constant region; not all variants occur in all members of a species

can occur during ______, from multiple transfusions of blood

A

Allotypic variation ; pregnancy

98
Q

IMMUNOGLOBULIN VARIATIONS…

_____ determines the antigen-binding specificity of antibodies and T-cell receptors

A

Idiotypic variation

99
Q

found only in the variable (and hypervariable) regions and is specific for each antibody molecule

A

Idiotypic variation

100
Q

can be seen as nonself because they are often present at concentrations too low to induce self-tolerance

A

Idiotypic variation

101
Q

(Characteristics of Antigens)

  1. _____ (initiates formation of and reacts with an antibody)
102
Q

(Characteristics of Antigens)

  1. ______ (initiates an immune response)
103
Q

(Characteristics of Antigens)

  1. Properties such as _____, _____, _____, _____, ______, ______, _______, and _________ influence the amount and type of immune response
A

size, complexity, conformation, charge, accessibility, solubility, digestibility, and biochemical composition

104
Q

(Characteristics of Antigens)

  1. proteins (___, ____, and ____ blood group substances)
A

Rh, M, and N

105
Q

(Characteristics of Antigens)

  1. _____ (ABH, Lewis, Ii, and P blood group substances)
A

glycolipids

106
Q

(Characteristics of Antigens)

  1. Human leukocyte antigens (HLAs) are ______
A

glycoproteins

107
Q

(Characteristics of Blood Group Antibodies)

it is the _____ and not the entire antigen that a B cell is stimulated to produce antibody against

108
Q

(Characteristics of Blood Group Antibodies)

_________: produced in response to a single antigen with more than one epitope

needed to give immunity against an entire antigen, such as a ________

A

polyclonal or serum antibodies ; pathogen

108
Q

(Characteristics of Blood Group Antibodies)

__________ produced by isolating individual B cells from a polyclonal population and propagating them in cell culture with hybridoma technology

A

monoclonal antibodies

109
Q

monoclonal antibodies are preferred in testing because they are _______, _______ and _________

A

highly specific, well characterized, and uniformly reactive

110
Q

___________ considered naturally occurring when they are found in the serum of individuals who have never been previously exposed to RBC antigens by transfusion, injection, or pregnancy

A

(Naturally Occurring) RBC antibodies

111
Q

The common occurrence of naturally occurring antibodies suggests that their antigens are widely found in _______ and have a ______ pattern.

A

nature ; repetitive complex

112
Q

Most naturally occurring antibodies are _________, which react best at room temperature or lower, activate complement, and may be hemolytic when active at 37°C

A

IgM cold agglutinins

113
Q

In blood banking, the common naturally occurring antibodies react with antigens of the _____, ____, ___, ___, ___, and __ blood group systems.

A

ABH, Hh, Ii, Lewis, MN, and P

114
Q

RBC antibodies are considered ______ when found in the serum of individuals who have been transfused or who are pregnant.

115
Q

IMMUNE ANTIBODIES

  • have a _______ that is unique to human RBCs
  • ____ antibodies
  • require the use of ________ for detection
  • react with the _____, ____, ____, ____, and ___ blood group systems
A
  • molecular makeup
  • IgG
  • antihuman globulin sera (Coombs’ sera)
  • Rh, Kell, Duffy, Kidd, and Ss
116
Q

(Unexpected Antibodies)

All other antibodies directed against RBC antigen are considered _______ and must be detected and identified before blood can be safely transfused

A

unexpected

117
Q

(Unexpected Antibodies)

either isotype ___ or ____; rarely, both may be present

A

IgM or IgG

118
Q

(Unexpected Antibodies)

in vitro analysis of unexpected antibodies involves the use of ___________ to optimize antigen-antibody reactions

A

antibody screening procedures

119
Q

(Antibody Properties)

______, which is used to express the binding strength of a multivalent antigen with antisera produced in an immunized individual

119
Q

(Antibody Properties)

The _______ of an antiserum (or antibody) is one of its most important characteristics and is related to its relative avidity for antigen.

A

specificity

119
Q

(Antibody Properties)

______; it is often defined as the strength of a single antigen-antibody bond produced by the summation of attractive and repulsive forces

119
Q

(Antibody Properties)

A specific reaction implies reaction between ______.

A

similar epitopes

120
Q

(Antibody Properties)

A ______ results when certain epitopes of one antigen are shared by another antigen and the same antibody can react with both antigens.

A

cross-reaction

121
Q

(Antibody Properties)

No reaction occurs when there are no _______.

A

shared epitopes

122
Q

lack of an immune response or an active immunosuppressive response

123
Q

______ to an antigen during fetal life usually produces tolerance to that antigen

IMMUNOHEMA OFFSEM PM (7 decks)

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