Top 200 drugs

Question 1

Kinrix

Answer 1

DTaP / IPV vaccine

Question 2

Vimovo

Answer 2

Naproxen + esomeprazole

Question 3

Giazo

Answer 3

Balsalazide
Mild UC tx
Tablet
Induction: Approved in males only 3.3 (3x1.1 g tablets) PO BID for up to 8 weeks
CI: Salicylate allergy
Warning: Gastric retention (due to pyloric stenosis) can delay release of the drug in the colon, acute intolerance syndrome, caution in patients with renal and hepatic impairment
SE: HA, abdominal pain, N/V/D
Monitoring: Renal fct, LFT, sx of IBD
Colazal capsules can be opened and sprinkled on applesauce, beads are not coated, so mixture can be chewed if needed , when used this way, it can cause staining of the teeth/tongue

Question 4

Mevacor

Answer 4

Lovastatin
Hypercholesterolemia
20-80 mg with evening meal
CI: liver dx, pregnancy, breastfeeding, CYP3A4 inhibitor
Warning: rhabdomyolysis (higher with dose, age, renal impairment, inhibitor), hepatotoxicity, hyperglycemia
SE: muscle pain, diarrhea, cognitive impairment
Monitoring: LFT, lipid panel every 3 months then annually

Question 5

Osmitrol

Answer 5

Mannitol

For hemorrhagic stroke

Question 6

Deltasone

Answer 6

Prednisone
Steroid for the flare episodes in UC/CD tx
Tablet
5-60 mg QD
CI: Infections, live vaccines
SE: Short-term: ↑ appetite, weight gain, Fluid retention, Insomnia, Emotional instability, GI, ↑ BG and BP
Long-term: Adrenal suppression (Cushing’s syndrome), Immunosuppression, BG, BP, Cataracts, Osteoporosis
ADT (alternate day therapy) ↓ adrenal suppression
If > 2 weeks => taper to avoid withdrawal sx
If LT require => bone density, Vitamin D and Ca, Biphosphonate

Question 9

Andexxa

Answer 9

Andexanet alpha

Antidote for Factor Xa inhibitors Eliquis and Xarelto

Question 10

Bydureon

Answer 10

Exenatide ER
GLP-1 agonist
2 mg SC once weekly
Not in ESRD or CrCl < 30
BB: thyroid cancer
CI in thyroid or endocrine cancer
Warnings: pancreatitis, serious injection reaction, not recommended if severe GI disorder
SE: nausea, weight loss

Question 11

Veltassa

Answer 11

Patiromer
Non absorbed cation exchange resin used in hyperkalemia
Powder for oral suspension
8.4 g PO QD Max 25.2 g/day
Warnings: Can worsen GI motility, Hypomagnesemia, Bind other medication => 3h before or after
SE: N/V/C
Monitoring: K, Mg
Store powder in the fridge, max 3 months at room temp

Question 12

Durlaza

Answer 12

Aspirin
Anti platelet aggregation
Caspule ER do not crush

Question 13

Soltamox

Answer 13

Tamoxifen
SERM used in breast cancer
20 mg PO QD
BB: ↑ risk of uterine or endometrial cancers, ↑ risk of thromboembolic events such as VTE, PE, stroke
CI: Do not use with warfarin, hx of DVT/PE
SE: DVT/PE, menopausal symptoms, hot flashes, flushing, edema, weight gain, hypertension, mood changes, amenorrhea, vaginal bleeding/discharge
Not recommended in pregnancy and breast feeding

Question 14

Bethkis

Answer 14

Tobramycin inhalation solution
Chronic pulmonary infection in CF
300 mg / 4 ml ampule single use
300 mg via nebulizer BID (28 days on/28 days off)
SE: Ototoxicity, tinnitus, voice alteration, mouth and throat pain, dizziness, bronchospasm
Do not mix with any other drugs in nebulizer
Pt at least 6 yo
Keep in the fridge / protect from light (pouch)/ room temp for max 28 days
Use with PARI LC Plus nebulizer or De Vilnius Pulmo-aide air compressor

Question 16

Cafergot

Answer 16

Ergotamine 1 mg + caffeine 100 mg
Migraine
2nd line after triptan
2T at onset then 1 T every 30 min max 6T
BB: do not use with 3A4 inhibitors (life-threatening peripheral vasoconstriction)
CI: cardiac problems, uncontrolled hypertension, renal/ hepatic impairment, MAOI within 2 weeks, serotoninergic within 24hrs
Warnings: cardiovascular effects, cerebrovascular effects, ergotism (severe vasoconstriction with gangrene), severe drug interact

Question 17

Infanrix

Answer 17

DTaP vaccine
Routine childhood vaccine for kids younger than 7 yo
5 doses: 2,4,6, 12-18 months and 4-6 yo
CI: Encephalopathy within 7 days
Warning: GBS within 6 weeks of previous DTaP vaccine, infantile spasms, uncontrolled seizure

Question 18

TOBI podhaler

Answer 18

Tobramycin inhalation powder

Chronic pulmonary infection in CF (pseudomonas aeruginosa)

Question 19

Jantoven

Answer 19

Warfarin
OAC
AFib, VTE Tx/Px, bioprosthetic and mechanical mitral valve, mechanical aortic valve, antiphospholipid syndrome (7 indications)
10 mg QD dor 2 days (after see INR) or 5 mg in specific conditions (elderly, malnourrished, interactions, liver dx, HF, ↑ risk for bleeding)
BB: Major or fatal bleeding
CI: Pregnancy (except with mechanical heart valves at high risk for thromboembolism), hemorrhagic tendencies, blood dyscrasias, uncontrolled HTN, noncompliance, recent or potential surgery of the eye or CNS, major regional lumbar block anesthesia or traumatic surgery resulting in large open surfaces, pericarditis or pericardial effusion, bacterial endocarditis, (pre-)eclampsia, threatened abortion
Warnings: Tissue necrosis/gangrene, HIT (CI as monotherapy in the initial tx of active HIT), systemic atheroemboli and cholesterol microemboli, presence of 2C9*2 or *3 alleles and/or polymorphism of VKORC1 gene may↑ bleeding risk (routine genetic testing is not currently recommended)
SE: Bleeding, skin necrosis, purple toe syndrome
Monitoring: INR: INR 2-3 (target 2.5) for most indications (DVT, Afib, bioprosthetic mitral valve, mechanical aortic valve, antiphospholipid syndrome), INR 2.5-3.5 for mechanical valve (mitral, 2 heart valves) / high risk indications, Measure INR after 2 or 3 initial doses, adjust to reach the goal, When stable and within the goal, monitor INR every 12 weeks (3 months) instead of every month
Hct, Hbg, signs of bleeding
Antidote = vitamin K, dental cleanings and single tooth extraction do not generally require a change in warfarin dosing, if INR is in therapeutic range

Question 21

Activase

Answer 21

Alteplase
Fibrinolytic for ischemic stroke management
0.9 mg/kg (max 90 mg); give 10% of the dose as a bolus over 1 mon than infuse remainder over 60 min
Dosing différent for MI and PE
Fibrinolytic for STEMI when PCI not possible
100 mg IV (15 mg bolus + 50 mg over 30 min + 35 mg over 1h)

Question 22

Humira

Answer 22

Adalimumab
Anti-TNF alpha (RA, UC, CD)
BB: serious infection including TB, cancer
CI: active infection
Warnings: demyelination, seizure, HepB reactivation, hepatotoxicity, DILE, do not use with other DMARDS or live vaccines

Question 23

Fragmin

Answer 23

Dalteparin

AC (parenteral)

Question 24

Ascriptin

Answer 24

Aspirin

Anti platelet aggregation

Question 25

Canasa

Answer 25

Mesalamine
Suppository
Mild UC tx
Induction: 1 g rectally QHS, retain for at least 1-3 hrs
CI: Hypersensitivity to salicylates or aminosalicylates
Warnings: Acute intolerance syndrome (cramping, acute abdominal pain, bloody diarrhea), caution in patient with renal or hepatic impairment, delayed gastric retention (due to pyloric stenosis), can delay release of oral products in the colon, hypersensitivity reactions (including myocarditis, pericarditis, nephritis, hematologic abnormalities and other internal organ damage), more likely with sulfasalazine than mesalamine, ↑ risk of blood dyscrasias in patients > 65 yo
Apriso contains phenylalanine, do not use in patients with PKU
Rowasa enema contains potassium bisulfite, a sulfite that may cause an allergic-type reaction
SE: Abdominal pain, nausea, HA, flatulence, eructation, pharyngitis
Monitoring: Renal fct, CBC, sx of IBD
Mesalamine is better tolerated than other aminosalicylates
Rectal mesalamine is more effective than oral mesalamine and rectal steroids for distal dx/proctitis in UC, can use oral and topical formulation together
Swallow capsules and tablets whole, do not crush, chew or break due to delayed-release coating
Apriso: do not use with antacids (dissolution pH-dependent)

Question 26

Genvoya

Answer 26

Elvitegravir + cobicistat + emtricitabine + tenofovir alafenamide

Question 27

NP thyroid

Answer 27

Thyroid desiccated USP

Question 28

Aloprim

Answer 28

Allopurinol 
Gout (chronic urate lowering therapy)
Tablet and injection
100 mg QD titrage slowly to UA 6mg/dL (>300 mg divided dose
Renal adj
Warnings: hypersensitivity (HLA-B*5801 asian), hepatotoxicity, myelosuppression
SE: rash, N/V/D
Monitor: CBC, LFT, renal fct

Question 29

Truvada

Answer 29

Emtricitabine 200 mg + Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate 300 mg | Used in Preexposure Px

Question 30

Nature-Thyroid

Answer 30

Thyroid desiccated

Question 31

Maxalt

Answer 31

Rizatriptan

Question 32

Zerit

Answer 32

Stavudine HIV / NRTI Capsule, Oral solution (30 days in fridge, Shake well) ≥ 60 kg: 40 mg PO BID, < 60 kg: 30 mg PO BID Renal adj CrCl≤50 BB: Pancreatitis (sometimes fatal) has occurred during combination therapy with didanosine Warnings: Neurologic Sx including motor weakness (mimic Guillain-barre syndrome) and hepatotoxicity SE: HA, N/V/D, peripheral neuropathy (reversible), ↑ LFT, hyperbilirubinemia, lipoatrophy, pancreatitis, insulin resistance/diabetes, hyperlipidemia Monitoring: LFT, renal fct, Sx peripheral neuropathy, lipids Avoid stavudine / didanosine combination ↑ risk of peripheral neuropathy, pancreatitis, lactic acidosis Do not combine with zidovudine, antagonist reaction as both are thymidine analogd: d4T and AZT Lipoatrophy: stavudine > zidovudine > other NRTIs

Question 33

Vytorin

Answer 33

Ezetimibe + simvastatin 10/10, 10/20, 10/40, 10/80 Take in the evening (with or without food) CRCl< 60, do not use more than 20 mg of simvastatin

Question 34

Adacel

Answer 34

Tdap vaccine 1 dose if no record of DTaP + no full program DTaP, pregnancy (each), child-care providers, healthcare provider

Question 35

Sitavig

Answer 35

Acyclovir Antiviral agent used in Herpes labialis Buccal tablets 50 mg Single dose (50 mg) apply on gum region Warning: TTP/HUS (Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura / hemolytic uremic syndrome) in immunocompromised PTs, nephrotoxicity SE: N/V/D, Seizure, neutropenia, rash, pruritus

Question 36

Edurant

Answer 36

Rilpivirine HIV / NNRTI CI: Concurrent use of PPIs, rifampin, rifapentine, carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, phenobarbital, phenytoin, St John’s wort, dexamethasone (more than a single dose) Warning: QT prolongation, serious skin reaction, multiorgan hypersensitivity reaction (DRESS), depressive disorders, hepatotoxicity SE: Depressive disorders, mood changes, insomnia, HA, rash Monitoring: LFT, rash, lipids, CNS effects, QT Higher rate of failure with viral load > 100,000 copies / ml and /or CD4+ counts < 200 cell/mm2 at tx initiation Protein supplement drinks should not be substituted for normal to high calorie meal (does not ↑ rilpivirine absorption)

Question 37

Cortifoam

Answer 37

``` Hydrocortisone react foam UC Tx (Flares) ```

Question 40

Cayston

Answer 40

Aztreonam inhalation solution | Chronic pulmonary infection in CF (pseudomonas aeruginosa)

Question 41

Remicade

Answer 41

Infliximab Anti-TNF alpha (RA, UC, CD) BB: serious infection including TB, cancer CI: active infection Warnings: demyelination, seizure, HepB reactivation, hepatotoxicity, DILE, do not use with other DMARDS or live vaccines

Question 42

Biktarvy

Answer 42

Bictegravir + emtricitabine + tenofovir alafenamide | HIV tx

Question 43

Symdeko

Answer 43

Tezacaftor + Ivakaftor | Tezacaftor = CFTR Modulator - increase number of channels on cell surface

Question 44

Ventavis

Answer 44

Iloprost | Prostacyclin analogue used in PAH

Question 45

Dipentum

Answer 45

``` Olsalazine Mild UC tx Capsule Maintenance: 500 mg PO BID with food CI: Salicylate allergy SE: Diarrhea, abdominal pain Monitoring: CBC, LFT, renal fct, sx of IBD ```

Question 46

Epivir

Answer 46

Lamivudine HIV / NRTI BB: Do not use Epivir-HBV (lower dose / 100 mg) =>  HIV resistance, Exacerbation of HBV when discontinue in HBV pt SE: HA, N/V/D, Fatigue, Insomnia, Myalgia, ↑ LFT Monitoring: LFTs, Renal function, HBV status

Question 47

Savaysa

Answer 47

Edoxaban OAC Afib, VTE Tx (2 indications)

Question 48

Quadracel

Answer 48

DTaP / IPV vaccine Give IM Store in fridge, shake before administration Part of the série for DTaP (5 doses at 2,4,6,12-18 months, and 4-6 y) and IPV (4 doses at 2,4,6-18 months, and 4-6y)

Question 49

Duzallo

Answer 49

Allopurinol + lesinurad Gout, association of XOI and uricosuric (↑ uric acid elimination by ↓ its reabsorption in kidneys / always used in combination with XOI)

Question 50

Ecotrin

Answer 50

Aspirin | Anti platelet aggregation

Question 51

Havrix

Answer 51

Hepatitis A vaccine 2 doses (12 months and 6-18 months later) Routine childhood vaccination or adult with high risk

Question 52

Krystexxa

Answer 52

``` Pegloticase Gout (chronic urate lowering therapy) ```

Question 53

Gilenya

Answer 53

Fingolimod Oral immunomodulator used in MS (Multiple sclerosis) Capsule Can cause bradycardia => pt must be monitored for at least 6h after the 1st dose (ECG required at baseline and at the end of initial observation period or if tx course is interrupted, CI in most patients with Hx of CVD or stroke, Caution with other drugs that ↓ HR Other significant AE: macular edema (monitor with eye exam), hepatotoxicity (monitor LFT), myelosuppression (monitor CBC)

Question 55

Tirosint

Answer 55

``` Levothyroxine 1.6 mcg/kg/day (IBW) for healthy adults Elderly: 20-25% less: < 1mcg/kg/day CAD: 12.5-25mcg/day BB: not for obesity CI: uncorrected adrenal insufficiency Warning: low dose in CAD, osteoporosis SE: none if euthyroid (hyper or hypo) Monitor: TSH, Sx, FT4 in pregnancy, central hypothyroidism ```

Question 56

PredniSONE Intensol

Answer 56

Prednisone oral solution | For UC/CD Tx

Question 58

Emtriva

Answer 58

Emtricitabine HIV / NRTI 200 mg PO QD (capsule) 240 mg PO QD (oral solution) Renal adj: CrCl<50 Oral solution should be in the fridge or 3 months max at room temp BB: exacerbation HepB when D/C, Truvada combination with tenofovir disoproxil fumarate used for Px => HIV test negative before start Tx and every 3 months confirmation

Question 59

Pacerone

Answer 59

Amiodarone Antiarrhythmic class III VF, VT with/without pulse, ventricular arrhythmia, AFib (cardioversion/NSR) BB: proarrhytmic, pulmonary toxicity, hepatotoxicity, LD in hospital CI: iodine sensitivity, bradycardia, cardiogenic shock Warning: thyroid, visual, neuropathy, blue skin, SKS/TEN Monitor: cardio (HR, BP, ECG, electrolytes), thyroid, lungs, LFTs, eyes

Question 60

Uceris

Answer 60

``` Budesonide tablet 6 mg (or rectal foam) UC tx (flares)) ```

Question 62

Ziagen

Answer 62

Abacavir HIV / NRTI 300 mg BID or 600 mg QD Renal adj CrCl <15 BB: hypersensitivity reactions (warning card), test HLA*B5701 CI: previous hypersensitivity, liver impairment Warning: higher risk MI

Question 63

Tivicay

Answer 63

Dolutegravir + emtricitabine HIV / INSTI 25 mg

Question 64

Lialda

Answer 64

Mesalamine ER tablet Mild UC tx Induction: 2.4-4.8 g PO QD Maintenance: 2.4 PO QD CI: Hypersensitivity to salicylates or aminosalicylates Warnings: Acute intolerance syndrome (cramping, acute abdominal pain, bloody diarrhea), caution in patient with renal or hepatic impairment, delayed gastric retention (due to pyloric stenosis), can delay release of oral products in the colon, hypersensitivity reactions (including myocarditis, pericarditis, nephritis, hematologic abnormalities and other internal organ damage), more likely with sulfasalazine than mesalamine, ↑ risk of blood dyscrasias in patients > 65 yo Apriso contains phenylalanine, do not use in patients with PKU Rowasa enema contains potassium bisulfite, a sulfite that may cause an allergic-type reaction SE: Abdominal pain, nausea, HA, flatulence, eructation, pharyngitis Monitoring: Renal fct, CBC, sx of IBD Mesalamine is better tolerated than other aminosalicylates Rectal mesalamine is more effective than oral mesalamine and rectal steroids for distal dx/proctitis in UC, can use oral and topical formulation together Swallow capsules and tablets whole, do not crush, chew or break due to delayed-release coating Apriso: do not use with antacids (dissolution pH-dependent)

Question 65

Lexiva

Answer 65

Fosamprenavir | HIV /PI

Question 66

Simponi

Answer 66

Golimumab Anti-TNF alpha (RA, UC) single-dose prefilled syringe or single-dose autoinjector 50 mg monthly SC BB: serious infection including TB, cancer CI: active infection Warnings: demyelination, seizure, HepB reactivation, hepatotoxicity, DILE, do not use with other DMARDS or live vaccines

Question 67

Viramune

Answer 67

Nevirapine HIV / NNRTI Tablet , Oral suspension 200 mg QD 14 days then 200 mg BID (or 400 mg Viramune XR QD) Require titration (lead-in period) 14 days to ↓ rash and hepatotoxicity / titrate again if stop for > 2 weeks BB: Hepatotoxicity (liver failure, death) ↑ risk the 1st 6 weeks of therapy but may be seen out to 18 weeks (or more), more common in women and with higher CD4+ counts Serious skin reaction (SJS/TEN) ↑ risk during the 1st 18 weeks of therapy and intensive monitoring is required CI: Moderate-to-severe hepatic impairment, use in post exposure prophylaxis regimens SE: Rash (SJS/TEN), nausea, diarrhea, ↑ LFT Monitoring: CBC, LFT, Rash Do not initiate therapy in women with CD4+ > 250 cells/mm3 or in men with CD4+ > 400 cells/mm3 due to ↑ risk of hepatotoxicity

Question 68

Pentacel DT

Answer 68

DTaP / IPV / Hib vaccine

Question 69

Xofluza

Answer 69

``` Baloxavir Influenza tx Viral replication inhibition 40-79 kg: 40 mg PO once From 80 kg: 80 mg PO once ```

Question 70

Trulicity

Answer 70

Dulaglitide GLP-1 agonist (diabetes type 2) Start 0.75 mg SC once weekly, then ↑ 1.5 mg SC once weekly Provided with needle in single-dose pen, 14 days at room temperature BB: Thyroid cancer CI: Thyroid or endocrine cancer Warnings: Pancreatitis, serious injection reaction, not recommended in severe GI disorder (including gastroparesis) SE: Nausea, weight loss Monitoring: BG, A1C, Renal function

Question 71

Cortenema

Answer 71

``` Hydrocortisone enema UC Tx (Flares) ```

Question 72

Ozempic

Answer 72

``` Semaglutide GLP1 agonist BB: thyroid cancer CI: thyroid, endocrin cancer Warnings: pancreatitis, serious injection reaction, not recommended in GI dx ```

Question 75

Denavir

Answer 75

Penciclovir Topical Tx herpes labialis (Rx) Cream apply every 2 hours awake for 4 days

Question 76

Frova

Answer 76

Frovatriptan CI: cerebrovascular dx, uncontrolled hypertension, ischemic heart dx, within 24 hrs other Tristan or ergotamine product Warning: BP higher, serotonin syndrome SE: paresthesia, Triptan sensation

Question 77

Rowasa

Answer 77

Mesalamine Enema Mild UC tx Induction: 4 g rectally QHS, retain in the rectum overnight, approximately 8 hr Maintenance: 2 g rectally QHS or 4 g QHS every 2-3 days CI: Hypersensitivity to salicylates or aminosalicylates Warnings: Acute intolerance syndrome (cramping, acute abdominal pain, bloody diarrhea), caution in patient with renal or hepatic impairment, delayed gastric retention (due to pyloric stenosis), can delay release of oral products in the colon, hypersensitivity reactions (including myocarditis, pericarditis, nephritis, hematologic abnormalities and other internal organ damage), more likely with sulfasalazine than mesalamine, ↑ risk of blood dyscrasias in patients > 65 yo Apriso contains phenylalanine, do not use in patients with PKU Rowasa enema contains potassium bisulfite, a sulfite that may cause an allergic-type reaction SE: Abdominal pain, nausea, HA, flatulence, eructation, pharyngitis Monitoring: Renal fct, CBC, sx of IBD Mesalamine is better tolerated than other aminosalicylates Rectal mesalamine is more effective than oral mesalamine and rectal steroids for distal dx/proctitis in UC, can use oral and topical formulation together Swallow capsules and tablets whole, do not crush, chew or break due to delayed-release coating Apriso: do not use with antacids (dissolution pH-dependent)

Question 78

Intelence

Answer 78

Etravirine HIV / NNRTI Tablet 200 mg BID after meals Tablets can be dispersed in water to ease administration SE: Nausea, rash (including SJS/TEN), ↑ cholesterol, LDL, TG, hyperglycemia, ↑ LFT, peripheral neuropathy Monitoring: LFT, lipids, BG Typically used in pt who are tx-experienced and have resistance to 1st line ART regimen

Question 79

Recombivax HB

Answer 79

Hepatitis B vaccination 3 doses (at birth, 1-2 months, 6-18 months) Routine childhood vaccination, adult with risk

Question 80

D.H.E. 45

Answer 80

Dihydroergotamine Migraine Injection (IV, IM, SC) 1 mg at onset then repeat hourly with max 2 mg / day for IV, 3 mg/day IM, SC and max 6 mg per week 2nd line after triptan BB: do not use with 3A4 inhibitors (life-threatening peripheral vasoconstriction) CI: cardiac problems, uncontrolled hypertension, renal/ hepatic impairment, MAOI within 2 weeks, serotoninergic within 24hrs Warnings: cardiovascular effects, cerebrovascular effects, ergotism (severe vasoconstriction with gangrene), severe drug interact

Question 81

Nexterone

Answer 81

Amiodarone Antiarrhythmias class IIII VF, VT with/without pulse, Ventricular arrhythmias, AFib (cardioversion/NSR) BB: proarrhytmic, pulmonary toxicity, hepatotoxicity, LD in hospital CI: iodine sensitivity, bradycardia, cardiogenic shock Warning: thyroid, visual, neuropathy, blue skin, SKS/TEN Monitor: cardio (HR, BP, ECG, electrolytes), thyroid, lungs, LFTs, eyes

Question 82

Byetta

Answer 82

``` Exenatide GLP-1 agonist BB: thyroid cancer CI: thyroid, endocrin cancer Warnings: pancreatitis, serious injection reaction, not recommended in GI dx ```

Question 83

Zurampic

Answer 83

``` Lesinurad Gout (chronic urate lowering therapy) Always with XOI 200 mg QD BB: acute renal failure if use alone CI: CrCl<30, ESRS, dialyse, kidney dx SE: HA, high SCr, renal failure, kidney stone Monitor: SCr, CrCl ```

Question 84

Levalo

Answer 84

Pitavastatin HMG-CoA resductase inhibitor for hypercholesterolemia 1-4 mg QD CI: Liver dx, Pregnancy, breastfeeding, CYP3A4 inhibitors (Simvastatin, lovastatin), Cyclosporine (pitavastatin) Warnings: Rhabdomyolisis (higher with dose, age, inhibitors, renal impairment, hypothyroidism), Hepatotoxicity, Hyperglycemia (↑A1C, FBG) SE: Muscle pain, Diarrhea, Cognitive impairment Monitoring: LFT, Lipid panel every 3 months then every year

Question 85

Arthrotec

Answer 85

Diclofenac + misoprostol

Question 86

Abelcet

Answer 86

Amphotericin B lipid complex Antifungal broad spectrum / empiric usage - injection only - bind to ergosterol 5 mg/kg/ day BB: !!! Conventional, deoxycholate: 0.1-1.5 mg/kg/day do not confuse with liposomal

Question 87

Kaletra

Answer 87

Lopinavir + ritonavir HIV / PI Tablet, oral solution (80 mg lopinavir + 20 mg ritonavir / ml) Naïve pt: 800 mg lopinavir + 200 mg ritonavir QD (or 400 mg/100 mg BID) Experienced pt: 400/100 mg BID Tablet: without regard to meals, swallow whole, store at room temp Oral solution: with food, refrigerate, stable for 2 months at room temp, contain 42% of alcohol Warnings: Pancreatitis, hepatotoxicity, QT and / or PR prolongation, caution in patients with CVD due to ↑ risk or MI SE: N/V/D, abdominal pain, hyperlipidemia (TG), hyperglycemia Monitoring: LFT, BG, lipids, ECG in at-risk patients High risk of hyperglycemia, insulin resistance/diabetes (idem for indinavir) Avoid once daily dosing with carbamazepine, phenytoin, phenobarbital or in pregnant women Common AE for PI: metabolic disorders (Hypercholesterolemia, hyperglycemia, lipohypertrophy) + N/V/D

Question 88

Apriso

Answer 88

Mesalamine ER capsules Mild UC Tx Maintenance: 1.5 g PO QD CI: Hypersensitivity to salicylates or aminosalicylates Warnings: Acute intolerance syndrome (cramping, acute abdominal pain, bloody diarrhea), caution in patient with renal or hepatic impairment, delayed gastric retention (due to pyloric stenosis), can delay release of oral products in the colon, hypersensitivity reactions (including myocarditis, pericarditis, nephritis, hematologic abnormalities and other internal organ damage), more likely with sulfasalazine than mesalamine, ↑ risk of blood dyscrasias in patients > 65 yo Apriso contains phenylalanine, do not use in patients with PKU Rowasa enema contains potassium bisulfite, a sulfite that may cause an allergic-type reaction SE: Abdominal pain, nausea, HA, flatulence, eructation, pharyngitis Monitoring: Renal fct, CBC, sx of IBD Mesalamine is better tolerated than other aminosalicylates Rectal mesalamine is more effective than oral mesalamine and rectal steroids for distal dx/proctitis in UC, can use oral and topical formulation together Swallow capsules and tablets whole, do not crush, chew or break due to delayed-release coating Apriso: do not use with antacids (dissolution pH-dependent)

Question 89

Migergot

Answer 89

Ergotamine+ caffeine Migraine 2nd line after triptan 1 suppo at onset then 1 hr after, Max 2 per attack BB: do not use with 3A4 inhibitors (life-threatening peripheral vasoconstriction) CI: cardiac problems, uncontrolled hypertension, renal/ hepatic impairment, MAOI within 2 weeks, serotoninergic within 24hrs Warnings: cardiovascular effects, cerebrovascular effects, ergotism (severe vasoconstriction with gangrene), severe drug interact

Question 90

Triostat

Answer 90

Liothyronine

Question 91

Onzetra Xsail

Answer 91

Sumatriptan Nasal powder CI: cerebrovascular dx, uncontrolled hypertension, ischemic heart dx, within 24 hrs other Tristan or ergotamine product Warning: BP higher, serotonin syndrome SE: paresthesia, Triptan sensation

Question 92

Sarafem

Answer 92

``` Fluoxetine Premenstrual dysphoric disorder 10-60 mg QD BB: suicidal behavior CI: MAOI, linezolid, IV methylene blue, pregnancy W: QT prolongation, bleeding ```

Question 93

Treximet

Answer 93

Sumatriptan + naproxen | Migraine

Question 94

Abreva

Answer 94

Docosanol Topical tx Herpea labialis (OTC) Cream Apply 5X / day until healed

Question 95

Crixivan

Answer 95

Indinavir | HIV / PI

Question 96

Prevacid

Answer 96

lansoprazole PPI for GERD, PUD Capsule (OTC, Rx), ODT (OTC, Rx), Suspension (Rx) 15-30 MG QD before breakfast Warnings: C.Diff, Osteoporosis, Hypomagnesemia, Vit B12 deficiency (LT > 2years), DILE SE: HA, N/D Prevacid Solutab (ODT) contains aspartame => not in Phenylketonuria (PKU)

Question 97

Rapivab

Answer 97

Peramivir Influenza tx injection Neuraminidase inhibitor 600 mg IV once (dose adj if CrCl<50) Hospital setting only Warning: confusion, skin reaction (SJS/TEN), anaphylaxis, hepatic/renal impairment SE: hypertension, insomnia, hyperglycemia, diarrhea, constipation, neutropenia, higher AST/ALT

Question 98

Adlyxin

Answer 98

``` Lixisenatide GLP-1 agonist BB: thyroid cancer CI: thyroid, endocrin cancer Warnings: pancreatitis, serious injection reaction, not recommended in GI dx ```

Question 100

Viread

Answer 100

Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate HIV / NRTI 300 mg PO QD Renal adj: CrCl<50 BB: exacerbate HepB when D/C in Pt with HepB Warnings; renal tox with AKI, Falconi syndrome, osteomalacia, low bone mineral density SE: renal impairment and low bone mineral density

Question 101

Bydureon BCise

Answer 101

``` Exenatide ER GLP-1 agonist BB: thyroid cancer CI: thyroid, endocrin cancer Warnings: pancreatitis, serious injection reaction, not recommended in GI dx ```

Question 102

Yosprala

Answer 102

Aspirin + omeprazole | Stroke Px

Question 104

WP thyroid

Answer 104

Thyroid desiccated USP

Question 105

Azulfidine

Answer 105

Sulfasalazine Mild UC tx or RA (immunomodulator) Tablet UC: RA: 500-1000 mg QD initially then 1000 mg BID (max 3g/day) CI: Sulfa or salicylate allergy, GI obstruction, porphyria Warnings: Blood dyscrasias, severe skin reaction (SJS/TEN), hepatic failure, pulmonary fibrosis, caution in G6PD deficiency SE: HA, rash, anorexia, dyspepsia, N/V/D, oligospermia, folate deficiency, arthralgia, crystalluria Monitoring: CBC, LFT (baseline, weekly/3months, monthly/3 months, every 3 months), renal function Coloration yellow-orange of the skin/urine Folate supplement 1mg/day

Question 106

Zypitamag

Answer 106

Pitavastatin HMG-CoA resductase inhibitor for hypercholesterolemia 1-4 mg QD CI: Liver dx, Pregnancy, breastfeeding, CYP3A4 inhibitors (Simvastatin, lovastatin), Cyclosporine (pitavastatin) Warnings: Rhabdomyolisis (higher with dose, age, inhibitors, renal impairment, hypothyroidism), Hepatotoxicity, Hyperglycemia (↑A1C, FBG) SE: Muscle pain, Diarrhea, Cognitive impairment Monitoring: LFT, Lipid panel every 3 months then every year

Question 107

Zenpep

Answer 107

Pancrelipase (PEP, PERT) | CF

Question 109

Fuzeon

Answer 109

Enfuvirtide | HIV / fusion inhibitor

Question 110

Digitek

Answer 110

Digoxin | AFib (0.8-2 ng/ml), HF (0.5-0.9 ng/ml)

Question 111

Viokace

Answer 111

Pancrelipase PEP, PERT used in CF Initial doses: < 1yo: varies by product, 1-3 yo: lipase 1,000 units /kg/meal, ≥ 4 yo: lipase 500 units/kg/meal Max all ages lipase ≤ 2,500 units/kg/meal or ≤ 10,000 units/kg/day, doses > 6,000 units/kg/meal are associated with colonic stricture Warnings: Fibrosing colonopathy advancing to colonic stricture (rare, higher risk with doses > 10,000 units/kg/day, mucosal irritation, hyperuricemia SE: Abdominal pain, flatulence, nausea, HA, neck pain Monitor: Abdominal sx, nutritional intake, weight, height, stool, fecal fat

Question 112

Praxbind

Answer 112

Idarucizumab

Question 113

Victoza

Answer 113

Liraglutide GLP-1 agonist SC QD (start 0.6 mg for one week then 1.2 mg) BB: thyroid cancer CI: thyroid, endocrin cancer Warnings: pancreatitis, serious injection reaction, not recommended in GI dx

Question 114

Nimalize

Answer 114

Nimodipine Hemorrhagic stroke Capsule with oral solution 60 mg PO Q4H for 21 days 1h before or 2 hrs after meal Start within 4 days of the SAH BB: Do not administer IV or by other parenteral routes, death and serious life-threatening adverse events have occurred (including cardiac arrest, cardiovascular collapse, hypotension and bradycardia) when the contents of nimodipine capsule have been inadvertently injected parenterally CI: ↑ risk of significant hypotension when used in combination with strong inhibitors of 3A4 SE: Hypotension, bradycardia, HA, nausea, edema Monitoring: CPP, ICP, BP, HR, neurological checks Only PO never parenteral!!! If cannot be swallowed, transfer oral solution from capsule into ORAL syringe within the pharmacy and label properly (For oral use only, Not for IV use) Lipophile CCB with good penetration in brain

Question 115

ActHib

Answer 115

Hib vaccine 4 doses between 2-15 months | Routine childhood vaccination, immunocompromised, asplenia

Question 116

Triumeq

Answer 116

Dolutegravir + abacavir + lamivudine | HIV tx

Question 117

Kionex

Answer 117

Sodium polystyrene sulfonate | Hyperkalemia

Question 118

SPS

Answer 118

Sodium Polystyrene sulfonate | Hyperkalemia

Question 119

Levoxyl

Answer 119

``` Levothyroxine Hypothyroid 1.6 mcg/kg/day (IBW) for healthy adults Elderly: 20-25% less: < 1mcg/kg/day CAD: 12.5-25mcg/day BB: not for obesity CI: uncorrected adrenal insufficiency Warning: low dose in CAD, osteoporosis SE: none if euthyroid (hyper or hypo) Monitor: TSH, Sx, FT4 in pregnancy, central hypothyroidism ```

Question 120

Unithyroid

Answer 120

``` Levothyroxine Hypothyroid 1.6 mcg/kg/day (IBW) for healthy adults Elderly: 20-25% less: < 1mcg/kg/day CAD: 12.5-25mcg/day BB: not for obesity CI: uncorrected adrenal insufficiency Warning: low dose in CAD, osteoporosis SE: none if euthyroid (hyper or hypo) Monitor: TSH, Sx, FT4 in pregnancy, central hypothyroidism ```

Question 121

Tamiflu

Answer 121

``` Oseltamivir Influenza tx Neuraminidase inhibitor Tx from 12 yo: 75 mg BID for 5 days Px from 12 yo: 75 mg QD for 10 days 30, 45, 75 mg tablet 6 mg/ml suspension for Kids (2-12): dosage in mg/kg ```

Question 122

Asacol HD

Answer 122

Mesalamine ER tablet Mild UC tx Induction: 1.6 g PO TID CI: Hypersensitivity to salicylates or aminosalicylates Warnings: Acute intolerance syndrome (cramping, acute abdominal pain, bloody diarrhea), caution in patient with renal or hepatic impairment, delayed gastric retention (due to pyloric stenosis), can delay release of oral products in the colon, hypersensitivity reactions (including myocarditis, pericarditis, nephritis, hematologic abnormalities and other internal organ damage), more likely with sulfasalazine than mesalamine, ↑ risk of blood dyscrasias in patients > 65 yo Apriso contains phenylalanine, do not use in patients with PKU Rowasa enema contains potassium bisulfite, a sulfite that may cause an allergic-type reaction SE: Abdominal pain, nausea, HA, flatulence, eructation, pharyngitis Monitoring: Renal fct, CBC, sx of IBD Mesalamine is better tolerated than other aminosalicylates Rectal mesalamine is more effective than oral mesalamine and rectal steroids for distal dx/proctitis in UC, can use oral and topical formulation together Swallow capsules and tablets whole, do not crush, chew or break due to delayed-release coating Apriso: do not use with antacids (dissolution pH-dependent)

Question 123

Cambia

Answer 123

Diclofenac | Migraine

Question 124

Pediarix

Answer 124

DTaP / HepB / IPV vaccine

Question 125

Famvir

Answer 125

Famciclovir Antiviral agent used in Herpes labialis, genital herpes and shingles Safety: TTP/HUS in immunocompromised PTs Nephrotoxic (> acyclovir) Seizure, high LFTs, SCr, BUN, neutropenia

Question 126

Pentasa

Answer 126

Mesalamine ER capsules Mild UC Tx Induction: 1 g PO QID Maintenance: 1 g PO QID CI: Hypersensitivity to salicylates or aminosalicylates Warnings: Acute intolerance syndrome (cramping, acute abdominal pain, bloody diarrhea), caution in patient with renal or hepatic impairment, delayed gastric retention (due to pyloric stenosis), can delay release of oral products in the colon, hypersensitivity reactions (including myocarditis, pericarditis, nephritis, hematologic abnormalities and other internal organ damage), more likely with sulfasalazine than mesalamine, ↑ risk of blood dyscrasias in patients > 65 yo Apriso contains phenylalanine, do not use in patients with PKU Rowasa enema contains potassium bisulfite, a sulfite that may cause an allergic-type reaction SE: Abdominal pain, nausea, HA, flatulence, eructation, pharyngitis Monitoring: Renal fct, CBC, sx of IBD Mesalamine is better tolerated than other aminosalicylates Rectal mesalamine is more effective than oral mesalamine and rectal steroids for distal dx/proctitis in UC, can use oral and topical formulation together Swallow capsules and tablets whole, do not crush, chew or break due to delayed-release coating Apriso: do not use with antacids (dissolution pH-dependent)

Question 127

Requip

Answer 127

Ropinirole | PD - dopamine agonist

Question 128

Isentress

Answer 128

Raltegravir | HIV / INSTI

Question 129

TOBI

Answer 129

Tobramycin inhalation solution | Chronic pulmonary infection CF (pseudomonas aeruginosa)

Question 130

Uloric

Answer 130

Febuxostat | Gout (chronic urate lowering therapy)

Question 132

Aptivus

Answer 132

Tipranavir HIV / PI Capsule, Oral solution 500 mg +200 mg ritonavir BID Swallow whole, always with ritonavir, capsule should be in the fridge, 60 days at room temp, discard 60 days after opening bottle Solution can be stored at room temp, D/C 60 days after opening the bottle BB; Clinical hepatitis and hepatic decompensation (sometimes fatal), intracranial hemorrhage CI: Moderate or severe hepatic impairment Warnings: Use caution in patient with sulfa allergy, intracranial hemorrhage (caution with bleeding risk) SE: N/V/D, HA, ↑ CPK, hyperlipidemia (TG) Monitoring: LFT, BG, lipids Capsule contains 7% alcohol Oral solution contains Vit E => additional vitamin supplement should be avoided

Question 134

Colazal

Answer 134

Balsalazide Mild UC tx Capsule Induction: 2.25 g (3x 750 mg capsules) PO TID for 8-12 weeks CI: Salicylate allergy Warning: Gastric retention (due to pyloric stenosis) can delay release of the drug in the colon, acute intolerance syndrome, caution in patients with renal and hepatic impairment SE: HA, abdominal pain, N/V/D Monitoring: Renal fct, LFT, sx of IBD Colazal capsules can be opened and sprinkled on applesauce, beads are not coated, so mixture can be chewed if needed , when used this way, it can cause staining of the teeth/tongue

Question 135

Kalydeco

Answer 135

Ivakaftor (CFTR Modulator) | CF - increase time channels are open

Question 136

Viracept

Answer 136

Nelfinavir | HIV / PI

Question 137

Thyrolar

Answer 137

Liotrix T3 and T4 in ratio 1/4 for hypothyroidism Tablet Start 25 mcg/6.25 mcg QD, Usual dose 50-100 mcg/12.5-25 mcg QD BB: Do not use to treat obesity CI: Uncorrected adrenal insufficiency Warnings: ↓ Dose in CAD, Osteoporosis SE: Euthyroid pt: no SE, Too much => hyperthyroid Sx Monitoring: TSH, Clinical Sx, FT4 in selected pt (central hypothyroidism, pregnancy)

Question 138

NeBupent

Answer 138

Pentamidine Alternative option for OI Pneumocystis pneumonia in AIDS Injection, inhalation

Question 139

Mitigare

Answer 139

Colchicine Gout tx 1.2 mg PO (2T) then 1T one hour after (Max 4T/ day) Repeat 3 days after (not earlier) and if CrCl<30 wait 2 weeks Safety: myelosuppression, myopathy, neuropathy, GI N/V/D, anorexi

Question 140

Lokelma

Answer 140

Sodium zirconium cyclosilicate Hyperkalemia (Non absorbed cation exchange resin) Powder for oral suspension 10 g PO TID for up to 48h Warnings: Can worsen GI motility, Edema, Na => monitor diet, Bind to other medications => 2h before or after SE: Peripheral edema Store at room temp

Question 141

Retrovir

Answer 141

Zidovudine | HIV / NRTI

Question 142

Descovy

Answer 142

Emtricitabine 200 mg + Tenofovir alafenamide 25 mg HIV-1/NRTI Tablets Safety class effect NRTI: lactic acidosis

Question 143

Prezista

Answer 143

Darunavir | HIV / PI

Question 144

Lescol

Answer 144

Fluvastatin HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor used in hypercholesterolemia 20-80 mg QPM CI: Liver dx, Pregnancy, breastfeeding, CYP3A4 inhibitors (Simvastatin, lovastatin), Cyclosporine (pitavastatin) Warnings: Rhabdomyolisis (higher with dose, age, inhibitors, renal impairment, hypothyroidism), Hepatotoxicity, Hyperglycemia (↑A1C, FBG) SE: Muscle pain, Diarrhea, Cognitive impairment Monitoring: LFT, Lipid panel every 3 months then every year

Question 145

Pepcid complete

Answer 145

Famotidine + Calcium + magnesium

Question 146

Symbyax

Answer 146

Fluoxetine + olanzapime | Resistant depression

Question 147

Pexeva

Answer 147

Paroxetine Depression 10-60 mg QD BB: suicidal behavior CI: MAOI, linezolid, IV methylene blue, pregnancy Warnings: QT prolongation, bleeding, SIADH, hyponatremia (> elderly) SE: Sexual side effects, Somnolence, dizziness, weakness, insomnia, nausea, headache (LT can help), dry mouth, diaphoresis (sweating), Restless leg syndrome (onset and Tx initiation), ↑ fall risk => caution in frail patients, osteopenia/osteoporosis, use of CNS depressants

Question 148

Boostrix

Answer 148

Tdap vaccine | 1 dose if no record of DTaP, incomplete DTaP, healthcare provider, child-care provider, pregnancy (each)

Question 149

Rayos

Answer 149

Prednisone delayed-release tablet | For UC / CD Tx

Question 150

Sustiva

Answer 150

Efavirenz HIV / NNRTI Capsule, tablet (Capsule content may be sprinkle onto 1-2 teaspoon of food) 600 mg QD Warnings: Serious psychiatric syndrome (suicidal ideation, depression), CNS Sx (generally resolve in 2-4 weeks), convulsions, QT prolongation, hepatotoxicity, fetal toxicity SE: CNS effects (impaired concentration, abnormal dreams, confusion, dizziness), rash, HA, N/V, fatigue, insomnia Monitoring: Lipids, CNS and psychiatric effects, LFT, ECG Package insert state to avoid in the 1st trimester, based on additional data, guidelines recommend no restriction on use in pregnancy May cause false positive for cannabinoid and BZD on drug screening tests Efavirenz should not be used with abacavir/lamivudine (or emtricitabine) in pt with pre-Tx HIV viral load > 100,000 copies/ml

Question 151

Invirase

Answer 151

Saquinavir | HIV/PI

Question 152

Tenivac

Answer 152

Td vaccine | Every 10 years if older than 7 yo or wound prophylaxis

Question 153

Reyataz

Answer 153

Atazanavir | HIV / PI

Question 154

Bufferin

Answer 154

Aspirin | Anti platelet aggregation

Question 155

Entocort EC

Answer 155

Budesonide tablet 3 mg | CD tx

Question 156

Vaqta

Answer 156

Hepatitis A vaccine

Question 157

Hiberix

Answer 157

Hib vaccine

Question 158

Mirapex

Answer 158

Pramipexole | PD - dopamine agonist

Question 159

Ancobon

Answer 159

Flucytosine 5-FC Antifungal use in association with amphotericin B for yeast infection (Cryptococcal meningitis or Candida infections) Capsule (250 or 500 mg) 50-150 mg/kg/day PO divided into Q6H (Renal adj CrCl<40) BB: Use with extreme caution in renal dysfunction (monitor blood, kidney, liver) SE: Myelosuppression, Nephrototoxicity, Hepatotoxicity

Question 160

PedvaxHib

Answer 160

Hib vaccine 3 doses Routine childhood vaccination, immunocompromised, asplenia

Question 161

Engerix-B

Answer 161

Hepatitis B vaccination

Question 162

Kayexalate

Answer 162

Sodium polystyrene sulfonate | Hyperkalemia

Question 163

Daptacel

Answer 163

DTaP Vaccine 5 doses 2,4,6,12-18 months, 4-6 years Routine childhood vaccination (less than 7 yo)

Question 164

Orkambi

Answer 164

``` Lumacaftor + Ivakaftor Cystic fibrosis (CFTR modulator for homozygous F508del mutation only) Tablet Warnings: ↑ LFT, cataract in children Take with high fat meal Approved for ≥ 2 yo ```

Question 165

Heplisav

Answer 165

Hepatitis-B vaccination

Question 166

Selzentry

Answer 166

Maraviroc | HIV / CCR5 antagonist

Question 167

Bentyl

Answer 167

Dicyclomine | Antispasmodic for diarrhea

Question 168

Brisdelle

Answer 168

Paroxetine | Depression

Question 169

Colcrys

Answer 169

Colchicine Acute tx of gout 1.2 mg PO (2T) then 0.6 mg one hour later (Max 4T/day) can be repeated 3 days after but not earlier (if CrCl<30: wait 2 weeks between sessions) CI: do not use in combination with strong inhibitor 3A4, P-gp and renal/hepatic impairment Warnings: myelosuppression, GI Sx, Rhabdomyolysis (do not use with cyclosporine, diltiazem, verapamil, gemfibrozil, statin SE: diarrhea, nausea, neuropathy, myelosuppression, myopathy

Question 170

Migranal

Answer 170

Dihydroergotamine Migraine Nadal spray: 1 spray (0.5 mg)into each nostril, may repeat after 15 minutes and that’s it (Max 2 mg) Prime 4 sprays before use do not inhale deeply 2nd line after triptan 2T at onset then 1 T every 30 min max 6T BB: do not use with 3A4 inhibitors (life-threatening peripheral vasoconstriction) CI: cardiac problems, uncontrolled hypertension, renal/ hepatic impairment, MAOI within 2 weeks, serotoninergic within 24hrs Warnings: cardiovascular effects, cerebrovascular effects, ergotism (severe vasoconstriction with gangrene), severe drug interact

Question 171

Kitabis Pack

Answer 171

Tobramycin inhalation solution | Chronic pulmonary infection in CF (pseudomonas aeruginosa)

Question 172

Videx

Answer 172

Didanosine HIV / NRTI >60 kg: 400 mg PO QD, <60 kg: 250 mg PO QD Renal adj: CrCl<60 Oral solution 30 days in fridge BB: pancreatitis CI: association with allopurinol and ribavirin Warnings: portal hypertension, eye toxicity SE: N/V/D, peripheral neuropathy, high amylase, rash, pruritus Avoid association with stavudine, tenofovir

Question 173

Cimzia

Answer 173

Certolizumab Anti-TNF alpha (RA, CD) BB: serious infection including TB, cancer CI: active infection Warnings: demyelination, seizure, HepB reactivation, hepatotoxicity, DILE, do not use with other DMARDS or live vaccines

Question 174

Amitiza

Answer 174

``` Lubiprostone Constipation (CIC, OIC, IBS-C) chloride channel activation => more fluid in the gut OIC and CIC: 24 mcg PO BID IBS-C: 8 mcg PO BID CI: intestinal obstruction SE: diarrhea, nause, HA, hypokaliémies Take a/ food and water, do not crush Do not take with methadone ```

Question 175

Delzicol

Answer 175

Mesalamine ER capsules Mild UC Tx Induction: 800 mg PO TID Maintenance: 1.6 PO in 2-4 divided doses CI: Hypersensitivity to salicylates or aminosalicylates Warnings: Acute intolerance syndrome (cramping, acute abdominal pain, bloody diarrhea), caution in patient with renal or hepatic impairment, delayed gastric retention (due to pyloric stenosis), can delay release of oral products in the colon, hypersensitivity reactions (including myocarditis, pericarditis, nephritis, hematologic abnormalities and other internal organ damage), more likely with sulfasalazine than mesalamine, ↑ risk of blood dyscrasias in patients > 65 yo Apriso contains phenylalanine, do not use in patients with PKU Rowasa enema contains potassium bisulfite, a sulfite that may cause an allergic-type reaction SE: Abdominal pain, nausea, HA, flatulence, eructation, pharyngitis Monitoring: Renal fct, CBC, sx of IBD Mesalamine is better tolerated than other aminosalicylates Rectal mesalamine is more effective than oral mesalamine and rectal steroids for distal dx/proctitis in UC, can use oral and topical formulation together Swallow capsules and tablets whole, do not crush, chew or break due to delayed-release coating Apriso: do not use with antacids (dissolution pH-dependent)

Question 176

Linzess

Answer 176

Linaclotide Constipation (CIC, IBS-C) Guanylate cyclise C agonist

Question 177

Trulance

Answer 177

Plecanatide Guanylate cyclase C agonist used in constipation (CIC, IBS-C) Tablet BB: Not in children, dehydration can cause death CI: < 6 yo, GI obstruction SE: Diarrhea, HA, Abdominal distension, Flatulence

Question 178

Entereg

Answer 178

Alvimopan PAMORA Inpatient b4 surgery to reduce risk bowel obstruction

Question 179

Relistor

Answer 179

Methylnatrexone PAMORA (OIC) Injection, Tablet 12 mg SC QD or 450 mg PO QD CrCl < 30: ↓ dose CI: Bowel obstruction Warnings: Risk of GI perforation (monitor for abdominal pain), Risk of opioid withdrawal SE: Abdominal pain, N/D, flatulence Relistor: stay close to toilets after injection Discontinue all laxatives before initiating tx (reintroduce OTC laxatives if no improvement after 3 days) Movantik: 3C4 inhibitors interaction => ↓ dose with moderate inhibitor and no strong inhibitor, grapefruit

Question 180

Movantik

Answer 180

``` Naloxegol PAMORA, OIC Tablet 25 mg QD (morning/empty stomach) Renal adj: CrCl < 60: 12.5 mg CI: Bowel obstruction Warnings: Risk of GI perforation (monitor for abdominal pain), Risk of opioid withdrawal SE: Abdominal pain, N/D, flatulence ```

Question 181

Symproic

Answer 181

``` Naldemedine PAMORA (OIC) Tablet 0.2 mg QD CI: Bowel obstruction Warnings: Risk of GI perforation (monitor for abdominal pain), Risk of opioid withdrawal SE: Abdominal pain, N/D, flatulence ```

Question 182

Lovenox

Answer 182

Enoxapirin Parenteral AC VTE Tx / Px, UA/NSTEMI/STEMI

Question 183

Fragmin

Answer 183

Dalteparin Parenteral AC VTE Px, UA, NSTEMI (3 indications)

Question 184

Eliquis

Answer 184

``` Apixaban OAC factor Xa inhibitor Non valvular Afib (5 mg BID), VTE Tx (10mg BID) Px (2.5 mg BID) , recurrence (2.5 mg BID) no renal adj BB: neuraxial anesthesia, brutal D/C CO: bleeding pt Warning: not recommended in prosthetic heart valve, liver dx SE: bleeding, anemia Monitoring: Hb, Hct, SCr, LFT ```

Question 185

Xarelto

Answer 185

``` Rivaroxaban OAC Non valvular AFib (20 mg QD), VTE TX (15 mg QD)/ PX (10 mg QD), Recurrence (5 mg QD) BB: neuraxial anesthesia, brutal D/C CI: bleeding pt Warning: not recommended in prosthetic heart valve, liver dx SE: bleeding, anemia Monitoring: Hb, Hct, SCr, LFT If >= 15 mg, with fat meal Do not use When CrCl<30 ```

Question 186

Arixtra

Answer 186

Fondaparinux Parenteral AC VTE TX (>100kg:10 mg SC QD /50-100 kg: 7.5 mg SC QD/ <50 kg: 5 mg SC QD VTE PX (>= 50 kg: 2.5 mg SC QD/< 50: do not use) BB: neuraxial anesthesia CI: HIT, Bleeding, bacterial endocarditis, CrCl<30 SE: bleeding, anemia, thrombocytopenia, injection reaction, hypokalemia, hypotension

Question 187

Norpace

Answer 187

Disopyramide Antiarrhythmic class Ia CI: heart block, cardiogenic shock, congenital QT syndrome Warnings: proarrhythmic, HF, anticholinergic effects

Question 188

Rythmol

Answer 188

Propafenone | Antiarrhythmic Class Ic

Question 189

Multaq

Answer 189

``` Dronedarone Antiarrhythmic class III ```

Question 190

Tikosyn

Answer 190

``` Dofetilide Antiarrhythmic class III ```

Question 191

Betapace

Answer 191

Sotalol Antiarrhythmic class III BB: TdP => initiate in hospital with ECG and trained staff, renal adj when CrCl<60 (For some CI when CrCl <40) CI: heart block, long QT syndrome, bradycardia, HF, cardiogenic shock, for some QTc > 450 SE: fatigue, bradycardia, bronchoconstriction

Question 192

Sotylize

Answer 192

Sotalol Antiarrhythmic class III BB: TdP => initiate in hospital with ECG and trained staff, renal adj when CrCl<60 (For some CI when CrCl <40) CI: heart block, long QT syndrome, bradycardia, HF, cardiogenic shock, for some QTc > 450 SE: fatigue, bradycardia, bronchoconstriction

Question 193

Sorine

Answer 193

Sotalol Antiarrhythmic class III BB: TdP => initiate in hospital with ECG and trained staff, renal adj when CrCl<60 (For some CI when CrCl <40) CI: heart block, long QT syndrome, bradycardia, HF, cardiogenic shock, for some QTc > 450 SE: fatigue, bradycardia, bronchoconstriction

Question 194

Covert

Answer 194

``` Ibutilide Antiarrhythmic class III ```

Question 195

Cresemba

Answer 195

Isavuconazonium | Azole Antifungal

Question 196

Noxafil

Answer 196

Posaconazole Azole antifungal Yeast + aspergillus + zygomycetes (Mucor, Rhizopus) Suspension: 200 mg TID or 400 mg BID Tablet: 300 mg BID once then QD Injection: 300 mg IV once then QD (not in CrCl<50, Nephrotoxic adjuvant) CI: sirolimus (9x blood level), 3A4 substrates bcz higher risk of QT prolongation, ergotamine derivative (higher risk of ergotism Warning: QT prolongation SE: N/V/D, fever, HA Monitor: LFT, renal fct, electrolytes, CBC

Question 197

Cytovene

Answer 197

Ganciclovir injection CMV BB: Myelosuppression, Teratogen, Carcinogen SE: Fever, N/V/D, Anorexia , Neutropenia, thromcytopenia, leukopenia, anemia , ↑ SCr, Retinal detachment (valganciclovir) Monitoring: CBC, PLT, Retinal exam (with valganciclovir), SCr

Question 198

Zirgan

Answer 198

Gangciclovir ophthalmic gel | CMV

Question 199

Eraxis

Answer 199

Anidulafungin Antifungal (Echinocandin) active against resistant candidas (krusei, glabrata) or in combination for aspergillus Injection Candidemia: 200 mg IV QD, Esophageal Candidiasis: 100 mg IV once then 50 mg IV QD Warnings: Histamine-mediated symptoms / Allergic reactions (skin, anaphylaxis) SE: ↑ LFTs, ↑ Scr, Hypotension, ↑ K, Mg, Fever, N/V/D, Hypoglycemia, Rash, severe skin reactions Monitoring: LFTs

Question 200

Valcyte

Answer 200

Valgancyclovir | CMV

Question 201

Foscavir

Answer 201

Foscarnet injection | CMV

Question 202

Intron A

Answer 202

Interferon-Alfa-2b | Cytokine uses in HepB tx

Question 203

Pegasys

Answer 203

Pegylated interferon-alpha-2a | Cytokine used in HepB tx

Question 204

Vemlidy

Answer 204

Tenofovir alafenamide NRTI used in HepB tx Tablet 25 mg PO QD (with food) BB: Lactic acidosis and severe hepatomegaly with steatosis, which can be fatal Exacerbation of HBV when stopped => monitor closely, Can cause HIV resistance in HBV patient with undiagnosed, untreated HIV, Adefovir: caution in renal dx, with nephrotoxic drugs Warning: Tenofovir: renal toxicity with AKI, Fanconi syndrome, osteomalacia, and ↓ BMD SE: HA, abdominal pain, fatigue, cough, nausea, ↑ LFT, < renal and bone toxicity vs TDF

Question 205

Baraclude

Answer 205

Entecavir | NRTI used in HepB tx

Question 206

Hepsera

Answer 206

Adefovir NRTI used in HepB tx Tablet 10 mg QD BB: Lactic acidosis and severe hepatomegaly with steatosis, which can be fatal Exacerbation of HBV when stopped => monitor closely, Can cause HIV resistance in HBV patient with undiagnosed, untreated HIV, Adefovir: caution in renal dx, with nephrotoxic drugs SE: HA, weakness, abdominal pain, hematuria, rash, nephrotoxicity

Question 207

Epivir HBV

Answer 207

Lamivudine | NRTI used in HepB tx (different dosage in HIV)

Question 208

Harvoni

Answer 208

Sofosbuvir / ledipasvir DAA used in HepC tx BB: Reactivate HBV => test HBV before Tx Warnings: Sofosbuvir: do not use with amiodarone (serious bradycardia), acid suppressive therapy should be avoided SE: Well-tolerated Monitoring: LFT, HCV-RNA

Question 209

Epclusa

Answer 209

Sofosbuvir / velpatasvir DAA used in HepC tx BB: Reactivate HBV => test HBV before Tx Warnings: Sofosbuvir: do not use with amiodarone (serious bradycardia), acid suppressive therapy should be avoided SE: Well-tolerated Monitoring: LFT, HCV-RNA

Question 210

Vosevi

Answer 210

Sofosbuvir/ velpatasvir / voxilaprevir | DAA used in HepC tx

Question 211

Mavyret

Answer 211

Glecaprevir/ pibrentasvir | DAA used in HepC tx

Question 212

Technivie

Answer 212

Paritaprevir/ ritonavir/ ambitasvir DAA used in HepC tx CI: Hepatic dx, 3A4 substrate, inducers (contraceptive pills, patch, ring), lovastatin, simvastatin (ethinyl estradiol-containing medication must be stopped (COC, patches, rings, menopause products) Hepatotoxic (call Dr if yellow skin, eyes, dark urine, light stool, bad stomach pain with nausea)

Question 213

Veikira

Answer 213

Paritaprevir / ritonavir / ambitasvir / dasabuvir | DAA used in HepC

Question 214

Zepatier

Answer 214

Elbasvir / Grazoprevir | DAA used in HepC

Question 215

Viibryd

Answer 215

Vilazodone | SSRI and 5HT1A agonist used in depression

Question 216

Trintellix

Answer 216

vortioxetine | SSRI + 5HT receptor antagonist + 5HT1A agonist used in depression

Question 217

Fetzima

Answer 217

Levomilnacipran SNRI used in depression 40-120 mg QD (start 20 mg QD for 2 days) Do not use when CrCl < 15 ml/min BB: Suicidal behavior CI: MAOI and hypertensive crisis, Do not initiate in patients receiving linezolid, methylene blue IV SE: See SSRIs, SE dur to ↑ NE: ↑ HR, dilated pupils (can lead to narrow angle glaucoma), dry mouth, excessive sweating and constipation Can affect urethral resistance => caution in patients prone to obstructive urinary disorders, ↑ BP (> venlafaxine when > 150 mg/day) all have risk, especially at higher doses => ↓ dose, use antihypertensive or change therapy

Question 218

Elavil

Answer 218

Amitriptyline | TCA used in depression, neuropathic pain, migraine

Question 219

Khedezla

Answer 219

Desvenlafaxine SNRI used in depression 50 mg QD (can ↑ to 400 mg/day but no benefit to > 50 mg) BB: Suicidal behavior CI: MAOI and hypertensive crisis, Do not initiate in patients receiving linezolid, methylene blue IV SE: See SSRIs SE dur to ↑ NE: ↑ HR, dilated pupils (can lead to narrow angle glaucoma), dry mouth, excessive sweating and constipation, Can affect urethral resistance => caution in patients prone to obstructive urinary disorders ↑ BP (> venlafaxine when > 150 mg/day) all have risk, especially at higher doses => ↓ dose, use antihypertensive or change therapy ↓ dose in renal impairment, do not use levomilnacipran CrCl < 15, or duloxetine CrCl < 30

Question 220

Anafranil

Answer 220

Clomipramine | TCA used in depression

Question 221

Tofranil

Answer 221

Imipramine | TCA used in depression

Question 222

Surmontil

Answer 222

Trimipramine | TCA used in depression

Question 223

Norpramin

Answer 223

Desipramine | TCA used in depression

Question 224

Pamelor

Answer 224

Nortriptyline | TCA used in depression

Question 225

Marplan

Answer 225

Isocarboxazid | MAOI used in depression

Question 226

Nardil

Answer 226

Phenelzine | MAOI used in depression

Question 227

Parnate

Answer 227

Trancylcypromine MAOI used in depression 30 mg/day in divided dose (max 60 mg/day) BB: Suicidal behavior CI: Cardiovascular dx, Cerebrovascular Dx, HA history, Hepatic Dx, Pheochromocytoma, Concurrent use of sympathomimetics, CNS depressants Warnings: Drug-drug, Drug-food interactions SE: Anticholinergic, Orthostasis, Sedation, Sexual dysfunction

Question 228

Emsam

Answer 228

Selegiline | MAOI used in depression

Question 229

Wellbutrin

Answer 229

Bupropion | Dopamine and NE reuptake inhibitor used in depression

Question 230

Wellbutrin XL

Answer 230

Bupropion | Dopamine and NE reuptake inhibitor used in seasonal affective disorder

Question 231

Aplenzin

Answer 231

Bupropion | Dopamine and NE reuptake inhibitor used in affective seasonal disorder

Question 232

Forvivo

Answer 232

Bupropion | Dopamine and NE reuptake inhibitor used in depression

Question 233

Rytary

Answer 233

``` Carbidopa/Levodopa Dopamine replacement agents used in PD ER capsules 23.75/95 mg PO TID Take whole or sprinkles on applesauce CI: MAOI within 14 days, Glaucoma SE: Nausea, Dizziness, orthostasis, dyskinesia, Dry mouth, dystonia (sometimes painful), Confusion, hallucination, psychosis, Dark urine, saliva, sweat + discolor clothes, Hemolysis (positive Coombs test) => D/C, Sexual urges and priapism, ↑Uric acid, Rytary: suicidal ideation Duopa: GI complications Titrate cautiously LT use: fluctuation in response and dyskinesia Separate from Iron, separate from protein intake ```

Question 234

Duopa

Answer 234

Levodopa/carbidopa | Dopamine replacement agent used in PD

Question 235

Comtan

Answer 235

Entacapone | COMT inhibitor used in PD

Question 236

Stalevo

Answer 236

Entacapone / carbidopa / levodopa | Association used in PD

Question 237

Neupro

Answer 237

Rotigotine | Dopamine agonist used in PD

Question 238

Apokyn

Answer 238

Apomorphine Dopamine agonist used in PD rescue agent for off episode 0.2 ml (2 mg) SC PRN up to 5x a day titrage by 1 mg weekly to max 0.6 ml (6 mg) (start in medical office, dose in ml

Question 239

Eldepryl

Answer 239

Selegiline | MAOI used in PD

Question 240

Zelapar

Answer 240

Selegiline | MAOI used in PD

Question 241

Azilect

Answer 241

Rasagiline | MAOI used in PD

Question 242

Xadago

Answer 242

Safinamide | MAOI used in PD

Question 243

Cogentin

Answer 243

Benztropine | Central acting anticholinergic used in PD

Question 244

Northera

Answer 244

Droxidopa | Alpha/beta agonist used in PD

Question 245

Rifadin

Answer 245

Rifampin | Active TB tx

Question 246

Rifamate

Answer 246

Rifampin + INH | Active TB to

Question 247

Rifater

Answer 247

Rifampin + INH + Pyrazinamide | Active TB TCA

Question 248

AmBisome

Answer 248

Liposomal amphotericin B Antifungal broad spectrum / empiric usage - injection only - bind to ergosterol 3-6 mg/kg/ day BB: !!! Conventional, deoxycholate: 0.1-1.5 mg/kg/day do not confuse with liposomal SE: infusion-related reaction (=> prémédication with acetaminophen, diphenhydramine, hydrocortisone, meperidine, NS), electrolyte (low K, Mg), nephrotoxicity

Question 249

Fosamax

Answer 249

Alendronate Bisphosphonate for osteoporosis tx Tablet or oral solution Px: 5 mg QD or 35 mg weekly / Tx: 10 mg QD or 70 mg weekly / steroid-induced 5-10 mg QD Before breakfast CI: Inability to stand upright for 30 min, Abnormalities of esophagus, Difficulty swallowing, Hypocalcemia Warnings: Osteonecrosis of the Jaw (ONJ) (> Dental procedure, hygiene, cancer, chemotherapy, Steroids), Atypical femur fracture, Bone, joint, muscle pain, Esophagitis to esophageal perforation (instructions for administration), Hypocalcemia, Renal impairment (CrCl < 35 not recommended) SE: Hypocalcemia, hypophosphatemia, Dyspepsia, heartburn, N/V, abdominal pain, Muscle pain

Question 250

Binosto

Answer 250

Alendronate Bisphosphonate for osteoporosis tx Effervescent tablet Px: 5 mg QD or 35 mg weekly / Tx: 10 mg QD or 70 mg weekly / steroid-induced 5-10 mg QD Before breakfast CI: Inability to stand upright for 30 min, Abnormalities of esophagus, Difficulty swallowing, Hypocalcemia Warnings: Osteonecrosis of the Jaw (ONJ) (> Dental procedure, hygiene, cancer, chemotherapy, Steroids), Atypical femur fracture, Bone, joint, muscle pain, Esophagitis to esophageal perforation (instructions for administration), Hypocalcemia, Renal impairment (CrCl < 35 not recommended) SE: Hypocalcemia, hypophosphatemia, Dyspepsia, heartburn, N/V, abdominal pain, Muscle pain, rash, hypertension, HA, UTI, infection

Question 251

Boniva tablet

Answer 251

Ibandronate Osteoporosis tx Px: 150 mg monthly CI: Inability to stand upright for 30 min, Abnormalities of esophagus, Difficulty swallowing, Hypocalcemia Warnings: Osteonecrosis of the Jaw (ONJ) (> Dental procedure, hygiene, cancer, chemotherapy, Steroids), Atypical femur fracture, Bone, joint, muscle pain, Esophagitis to esophageal perforation (instructions for administration), Hypocalcemia, Renal impairment (CrCl < 30 not recommended) SE: Hypocalcemia, hypophosphatemia, Dyspepsia, heartburn, N/V, abdominal pain, Muscle pain, rash, hypertension, HA, UTI, infection

Question 252

Reclast

Answer 252

Zoledronic acid Bisphosphonate for osteoporosis tx Injection (Over ≥ 15 min) Px: 5 mg IV every 2 years / Tx: 5 mg IV once yearly / steroid-induced: 5 mg IV once yearly CI: Hypocalcemia, CrCl < 35 or AKI Warnings: See oral bisphosphonates (except GI issues), Renal impairment => monitor SCr before each injection, caution in dehydrated pt, with comorbidities, taking other nephrotoxic medications, caution in aspirin-sensitive asthma (bronchoconstriction) SE: See oral bisphosphonate (except esophageal SE) Flu-like symptoms

Question 253

Reclast

Answer 253

Zoledronic acid Bisphosphonate for osteoporosis tx Injection (Over ≥ 15 min) Px: 5 mg IV every 2 years / Tx: 5 mg IV once yearly / steroid-induced: 5 mg IV once yearly CI: Hypocalcemia, CrCl < 35 or AKI Warnings: See oral bisphosphonates (except GI issues), Renal impairment => monitor SCr before each injection, caution in dehydrated pt, with comorbidities, taking other nephrotoxic medications, caution in aspirin-sensitive asthma (bronchoconstriction) SE: See oral bisphosphonate (except esophageal SE) Flu-like symptoms, edema, hypotension, fatigue, dehydration, ↓ electrolytes (PO4, Mg, K)

Question 254

Amaryl

Answer 254

``` Glimepiride SU for diabetes tx (decrease A1C 1-2%) Start 1-2 mg QD Max 8 mg/day increment 1-2 mg every week CI: type 1, DKA, sulfa allergy Warnings: hypoglycemia, G6PD deficiency, anaphylactic reaction SE: weight gain, nausea Monitoring: BG, A1C With breakfast ```

Question 255

Glucotrol

Answer 255

Glipizide SU for diabetes tx (decrease A1C 1-2%) Start 5 mg QD Max 40 mg/day (XL 20 mg/day) > 15 mg divided dose / increment 5 mg every week CI: type 1, DKA, sulfa allergy Warnings: hypoglycemia, G6PD deficiency, anaphylactic reaction SE: weight gain, nausea Monitoring: BG, A1C IR: 30 min before meal - Other with breakfast XL: ghost tablet

Question 256

Glynase

Answer 256

``` Glyburide SU for diabetes tx (decrease A1C 1-2%) Start 1.5-3 mg QD Max 12 mg/day increment 1.5 mg every week CI: type 1, DKA, sulfa allergy, not with bosentan Warnings: hypoglycemia, G6PD deficiency SE: weight gain, nausea Monitoring: BG, A1C Renal clearance => not in CKD Take with breakfast ```

Question 257

Starlix

Answer 257

Nateglinide | Meglitinide for diabetes tx

Question 258

Prandin

Answer 258

Repaglinide | Meglitinide for diabetes Tx

Question 259

Glucovance

Answer 259

Metformin + glyburide | Diabetes tx

Question 260

ActosMet

Answer 260

Metformine + pioglitazone | Diabetes Tx

Question 261

Kazano

Answer 261

Metformin + alogliptin | Diabetes Tx

Question 262

Jentadueta

Answer 262

Metformin + linagliptin | Diabetes tx

Question 263

Janumet

Answer 263

Metformin + sitagliptin | Diabetes tx

Question 264

Kombiglyze

Answer 264

Metformin + Saxagliptin | Diabetes tx

Question 265

Invokamet

Answer 265

Metformin + canagliflozin | Diabetes tx

Question 266

Xigduo

Answer 266

Metformin + dapagliflozin | Diabetes tx

Question 267

Synjardy

Answer 267

Metformin + empaglifozin | Diabetes tx

Question 268

Segluromet

Answer 268

Metformin + ertugliflozin | Diabetes tx

Question 269

PrandiMet

Answer 269

Metformin + repaglinide | Diabetes tx

Question 270

Effient

Answer 270

Prasugrel Prodrug (2C19) Platelet antiaggregant - P2Y12 inhibitor

Question 271

Plavix

Answer 271

Clopidogrel Prodrug (2C19) Platelet antiaggregant - P2Y12 inhibitor

Question 272

Brilinta

Answer 272

Ticagrelor | Platelet antiaggregant - P2Y12 inhibitor

Question 273

TNKase

Answer 273

Tenecteplase | Fibrinolytic

Question 274

Abilify

Answer 274

Aripiprazole | SGA

Question 275

Aristada

Answer 275

Aripiprazole | SGA

Question 276

Saphris

Answer 276

Asenapine | SGA

Question 277

Rexulti

Answer 277

Brexpiprazole | SGA

Question 278

Vraylar

Answer 278

Cariprazine | SGA

Question 279

Clozaril

Answer 279

Clozapine | SGA

Question 280

FazaClo

Answer 280

Clozapine | SGA

Question 281

Versacloz

Answer 281

Clozapine | SGA

Question 282

Fanapt

Answer 282

Iloperidone | SGA

Question 283

Latuda

Answer 283

Lurasidone | SGA

Question 284

Zyprexa

Answer 284

Olanzapine SGA Also for CINV

Question 285

Invega

Answer 285

Paliperidone | SGA

Question 286

Sustenna

Answer 286

Paliperidone | SGA

Question 287

Risperdal

Answer 287

Risperidone | SGA

Question 288

Perseris

Answer 288

Risperidone | SGA

Question 289

Seroquel

Answer 289

Quetiapine | SGA used in ICU for delirium

Question 290

Geodon

Answer 290

Ziprasidone | SGA

Question 291

Riomet

Answer 291

Metformin

Question 292

UFH

Answer 292

Heparin Anticoagulant/ antithrombin activation Px VTE (5000 IU SC BID), Tx VTE (80 IU/kg IV bolus then 18 IU/kg/hr IV infusion or 5000 IU IV bolus then 1000 IU/hr), STEMI (60 IU/kg IV bolus then 12 IU/kg/hr IV infusion) use ABW

Question 293

Angiomax

Answer 293

Bivalirudin | AC / direct thrombin inhibitor

Question 294

Iprivask

Answer 294

Desirudin | AC / direct thrombin inhibitor

Question 295

Duexis

Answer 295

Famotidine + ibuprofen

Question 296

Pepcid

Answer 296

``` Famotidine Stomach pain (GERD/PUD) / H2RA Tablet, chewable, suspension, injection OTC: 10-20 mg BID PRN Rx: 20 mg BID Renal adj when CrCl< 50 Warnings: confusion, QT prolongation SE HA, agitation Take 30-60 min before food (onset: 1hr /duration: 4-10) Tachyphylaxis ```

Question 297

Zantac

Answer 297

``` Ranitidine Stomach pain (GERD/PUD) / H2RA Tablet, chewable, suspension, injection OTC: 75-150 mg BID PRN Rx: 150 mg BID Renal adj when CrCl< 50 Warnings: confusion, high ALT SE HA, agitation Take 30-60 min before food (onset: 1hr /duration: 4-10) Tachyphylaxis ```

Question 298

Aricept

Answer 298

Donepezil | Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor for Alzheimer Tx

Question 299

Namzaric

Answer 299

Donepezil + Memantine | For Alzheimer Tx

Question 300

Exelon

Answer 300

Rivastigmine | Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor for Alzheimer dx

Question 301

Razadyne

Answer 301

Galantamine | Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor for Alzheimer Tx

Question 302

Namenda

Answer 302

Memantine | NMDA receptor antagonist for Alzheimer Tx

Question 303

Pepto-Bismol

Answer 303

Bismuth subsalicylate Anti diarrheal chewable, solution 525 mg every 30 min (1050 mg every hr) PRN max 4200 mg/day max 2 days CI: salicylate allergy, association w/ salicylate, ulcer, coagulopathy, black/bloody stool SE: black tongue/stool, salicylate toxicity (tinnitus, N/V, diaphoresis)

Question 304

Diamode

Answer 304

Loperamide 2T PO after 1st loose stool, 1T (2 mg) after max 8T/day (16mg) when Rx and 8 mg when OTC (max 2 days) BB: torsade de pointe and cardiac arrest (higher dose) CI: kids<2yo, dysentery, bacterial colitis (C.diff), UC SE: abdominal pain, constipation, QT prolongation

Question 305

Anti-diarrheal

Answer 305

Loperamide 2T PO after 1st loose stool, 1T (2 mg) after max 8T/day (16mg) when Rx and 8 mg when OTC (max 2 days) BB: torsade de pointe and cardiac arrest (higher dose) CI: kids<2yo, dysentery, bacterial colitis (C.diff), UC SE: abdominal pain, constipation, QT prolongation Imodium

Question 306

Lomotil

Answer 306

Diphenoxylate/atropine | Diarrhea Tx

Question 307

Viberzil

Answer 307

Eluxadoline Peripherally acting mu opioid receptor agonist (not PAMORA) for IBS-D Tx C IV

Question 308

Phoslyra

Answer 308

Calcium acetate | Phosphate binder for CKD-mineral bone disorder

Question 309

PhosLo

Answer 309

Calcium acetate | Phosphate binder for CKD-mineral bone disorder

Question 310

Velphora

Answer 310

Sucroferric Oxyhydroxide | Phosphate binder for CKF-mineral bone disorder

Question 311

Auryxia

Answer 311

Ferric citrate | Phosphate binder for CKF-mineral bone disorder

Question 312

Fosrenol

Answer 312

Lanthanum carbonate | Phosphate binder for CKF-mineral bone disorder

Question 313

Renvela

Answer 313

Sevelamer carbonate | Phosphate binder for CKF-mineral bone disorder

Question 314

Renagel

Answer 314

Sevelamer hydrochloride | Phosphate binder for CKF-mineral bone disorder

Question 315

Equetro

Answer 315

Carbamazepine | For maintenance of bipolar manic episode in bipolar disorder

Question 316

Qsymia

Answer 316

Phentermine/topiramate | Weight loss

Question 317

Contrave

Answer 317

Natrexone/bupropion | Weight loss

Question 318

Belviq

Answer 318

Lorcaserin | Weight loss

Question 319

Adipex-P

Answer 319

Phentermine | Weight loss

Question 320

Lomaira

Answer 320

Phentermine | Weight loss

Question 321

Regimex

Answer 321

Benzphetamine | Weight loss

Question 322

FeverAll

Answer 322

Acetaminophen | Analgesic suppo

Question 323

Ofirmev

Answer 323

Acetaminophen injection | Analgesic

Question 324

Norco

Answer 324

Acetaminophen + hydrocodone

Question 325

Vicodin

Answer 325

Acetaminophen + hydrocodone

Question 326

Loratab

Answer 326

Acetaminophen + hydrocodone

Question 327

Endocet

Answer 327

Acetaminophen + Oxycodone

Question 328

Percocet

Answer 328

Acetaminophen + oxycodone

Question 329

Primlev

Answer 329

Acetaminophen + Oxycodone

Question 330

Ultracet

Answer 330

Acetaminophen + tramadol

Question 331

Fioricet

Answer 331

Acetaminophen + caffeine + butalbital

Question 332

Ultram

Answer 332

Tramadol | Centrally acting analgesics

Question 333

Conzip

Answer 333

Tramadol | Centrally acting analgesic

Question 334

Nucynta

Answer 334

Tapentadol | Centrally acting analgesic

Question 335

Adriamycin

Answer 335

Doxorubicin | Cancer anthracyclines

Question 336

Doxyl

Answer 336

Doxorubicin liposomal | Cancer anthracyclines

Question 337

Lipodox

Answer 337

Doxorubicin liposomal | Cancer anthracyclines

Question 338

Vyxeos

Answer 338

Daunorubicin + cytarabine liposomal | Cancer anthracyclines

Question 339

Ellence

Answer 339

Epirubicin | Cancer anthracyclines

Question 340

Idamycin PFS

Answer 340

Idarubicin | Cancer anthracyclines

Question 341

Valstar

Answer 341

Valrubicin | Cancer anthracyclines

Question 342

Solu-Cortef

Answer 342

Hydrocortisone

Question 343

Cortef

Answer 343

Hydrocortisone

Question 344

Millipred

Answer 344

Prednisolone

Question 345

Orapred ODT

Answer 345

Prednisolone

Question 346

Veripred

Answer 346

Prednisolone

Question 347

Actonel

Answer 347

Risedronate Bisphosphonate for osteoporosis tx Px: 5 mg QD, 35 mg weekly, 75 mg 2x/month, 150 mg monthly / Tx: 35 mg weekly / steroid-induced: 5 mg QD CI: Inability to stand upright for 30 min, Abnormalities of esophagus, Difficulty swallowing, Hypocalcemia Warnings: Osteonecrosis of the Jaw (ONJ) (> Dental procedure, hygiene, cancer, chemotherapy, Steroids), Atypical femur fracture, Bone, joint, muscle pain, Esophagitis to esophageal perforation (instructions for administration), Hypocalcemia, Renal impairment (CrCl < 30 not recommended) SE: Hypocalcemia, hypophosphatemia, Dyspepsia, heartburn, N/V, abdominal pain, Muscle pain, rash, hypertension, HA, UTI, infection

Question 348

Otrexup

Answer 348

Methotrexate Non biological DMARD used in RA Single dose SC autoinjector 7.5-20 mg once weekly BB: Hepatotoxicity, myelosuppression, mucositis/stomatitis pregnancy, acute renal failure, pneumonitis, GI toxicity, dermatological reactions, malignant lymphoma, potentially fatal opportunistic infections CI: Pregnancy, breastfeeding, liver dx, alcoholism, immunodeficiency syndrome, blood dyscrasis SE: N/V/D, ↑LFT, stomatitis, alopecia, photosensitivity, arthralgia, myalgia Monitoring: CBC, LFT, TB test, HepB and C, chest X-Ray

Question 349

Rasuvo

Answer 349

Methotrexate Non biological DMARD used in RA Single dose SC auto-innjector 7.5-20 mg once weekly BB: Hepatotoxicity, myelosuppression, mucositis/stomatitis pregnancy, acute renal failure, pneumonitis, GI toxicity, dermatological reactions, malignant lymphoma, potentially fatal opportunistic infections CI: Pregnancy, breastfeeding, liver dx, alcoholism, immunodeficiency syndrome, blood dyscrasis SE: N/V/D, ↑LFT, stomatitis, alopecia, photosensitivity, arthralgia, myalgia Monitoring: CBC, LFT, TB test, HepB and C, chest X-Ray

Question 350

Trexall

Answer 350

Methotrexate Non biological DMARD used in RA Tablet 7.5-20 mg once weekly BB: Hepatotoxicity, myelosuppression, mucositis/stomatitis pregnancy, acute renal failure, pneumonitis, GI toxicity, dermatological reactions, malignant lymphoma, potentially fatal opportunistic infections CI: Pregnancy, breastfeeding, liver dx, alcoholism, immunodeficiency syndrome, blood dyscrasis SE: N/V/D, ↑LFT, stomatitis, alopecia, photosensitivity, arthralgia, myalgia Monitoring: CBC, LFT, TB test, HepB and C, chest X-Ray

Question 351

Xatmep

Answer 351

Methotrexate Non biological DMARD used in RA Pediatric oral solution 7.5-20 mg once weekly BB: Hepatotoxicity, myelosuppression, mucositis/stomatitis pregnancy, acute renal failure, pneumonitis, GI toxicity, dermatological reactions, malignant lymphoma, potentially fatal opportunistic infections CI: Pregnancy, breastfeeding, liver dx, alcoholism, immunodeficiency syndrome, blood dyscrasis SE: N/V/D, ↑LFT, stomatitis, alopecia, photosensitivity, arthralgia, myalgia Monitoring: CBC, LFT, TB test, HepB and C, chest X-Ray

Question 352

Plaquenil

Answer 352

Hydroxychloroquine Non biological DMARD used in RA Tablet 400 mg QD then 300 mg QD PO with food or milk CI: Eye toxicity (irreversible retinopathy, ↓ visual acuity), neuromuscular weakness, cardiomyopathy, bone marrow suppression, hypoglycemia, caution in G6PD deficiency SE: N/V/D, abdominal pain, pruritis, rash, HA, vision changes, pigmentation changes (skin, hairs) Monitoring: CBC, LFT, eye exam and muscle strength at baseline and every 3 months Less liver toxic than methotrexate then can be consider as an alternative Monotherapy if low dx activity and Sx < 24 months If no improvement after 6 months, consider alternative

Question 353

Arava

Answer 353

Leflunomide Non biological DMARD used in RA Tablet 100 mg QD for 3 days the 20 mg QD (can ↓ 10 mg if 20 mg not tolerate) PO, Omit LD if higher risk of liver toxicity or immunosuppression BB: Embryo-fetal toxicity => exclude pregnancy before starting Tx, Hepatotoxicity => do not start if liver enzyme 2x upper limit normal value (ULN) CI: Pregnancy, severe hepatic dx, teriflunomide therapy Warnings: Severe infections, severe skin reactions (SJS/TEN), peripheral neuropathy, lung dx, HTN When D/C, use accelerate drug elimination to ↓ level of active metabolite, teriflunomide SE: ↑ LFTs, nausea, diarrhea, respiratory infections, rash, HA Monitoring: LFT, CBE: baseline / monthly for 6 months , BP, Screen TB and pregnancy before starting tx Negative pregnancy before starting and 2 contraception methods during tx, Must wait 2 years after D/C for becoming pregnant or use accelerated elimination procedure

Question 354

ProQuad

Answer 354

MMRV

Question 355

Menactra

Answer 355

MCV4 (Meningococcal conjugated vaccine / quadrivalent) Routine vaccination: 2 doses (11-12 yo, 16 yo) Special population: travelers meningitis belt sub-Sahara Africa (requested by Saoudi Arabia on yellow card), lab worker with N.Meningitis exposition, student 1st year college in dorms (<21 yo) Military recruit Dose/timing depdt on Age/risk Renew every 5 years of at risk

Question 356

Olumiant

Answer 356

Baricitinib Non biological DMARD used in RA Tablet 2 mg QD BB: Infections => screen for TB, Malignancy, Baricitinib: VTE causing death Warnings: GI perforation, LFT, avoid live vaccines SE: URTI, UTI, diarrhea, HA, HTN, ↑ lipids Monitoring: CBC, Lipids, LFT, abdominal pain, signs of infection Do not take if Lymphocyte < 500 cells/mm3, Hemoglobin < 8 g/dL, ANC < 1000 cells/mm3 Caution in Asian, more for SE Available through speciality pharmacy network

Question 357

Menveo

Answer 357

MCV4 (Meningococcal conjugated vaccine / quadrivalent) Routine vaccination: 2 doses (11-12 yo, 16 yo) Special population: travelers meningitis belt sub-Sahara Africa (requested by Saoudi Arabia on yellow card), lab worker with N.Meningitis exposition, student 1st year college in dorms (<21 yo) Military recruit Dose/timing depdt on Age/risk Renew every 5 years of at risk

Question 358

Bexsero

Answer 358

``` Meningococcal vaccine serogroup B 2 doses at 1 month apart for >= 10 yo Immunocompromised Lab worker with N. Meningitis exposition During outbreak In addition to MCV4 ```

Question 359

Trumenda

Answer 359

``` Meningococcal vaccine serogroup B 2 dose 6 months apart For >= 10 yo Immunocompromised Lab worker with N. Meningitis exposition Outbreak (3 dose month 0,2,6) On request 16-23 yo ``` In addition MCV4

Question 360

IPOL

Answer 360

IPV (Inactivated Polyovirus Vaccine)

Question 361

Varivax

Answer 361

Varicelle virus vaccine

Question 362

Zostavax

Answer 362

Zoster Virus Vaccine

Question 363

Shingrix

Answer 363

Zoster virus vaccine

Question 364

Xopenex

Answer 364

Levalbuterol SABA used in asthma as reliever (R-isomer) 1-2 inh Q4-6H PRN (45 mcg/inh) Warning: CVD,diabetes, hyperthyroidism, seizure, glaucoma SE: tremor, nervousness, hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, tachycardia, cough Monitor: Use, Sx, pulmonary fct, BG, HR, K

Question 365

Ventolin HFA

Answer 365

Albuterol 90 mcg/inh SABA for asthma (reliever) 1-2 inh Q4-6H PRN Warning: CVD,diabetes, hyperthyroidism, seizure, glaucoma SE: tremor, nervousness, hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, tachycardia, cough Monitor: Use, Sx, pulmonary fct, BG, HR, K

Question 366

ProAir RespiClick

Answer 366

Albuterol SABA for asthma (reliever) 1-2 inh Q4-6H PRN BB: do not use if allergy to milk proteins Warning: CVD,diabetes, hyperthyroidism, seizure, glaucoma SE: tremor, nervousness, hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, tachycardia, cough Monitor: Use, Sx, pulmonary fct, BG, HR, K

Question 367

Serevent diskus

Answer 367

Salmeterol LABA for asthma (controller) 1 INH BID (50 mcg/inh) BB: higher risk of asthma related deaths Warning: CVD,diabetes, hyperthyroidism, seizure, glaucoma SE: tremor, nervousness, hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, tachycardia, cough Monitor: Use, Sx, pulmonary fct, BG, HR, K

Question 368

Nesina

Answer 368

Alogliptin DDP4 inhibitor un diabetes type II 25 mg QD Renal adjustments: CrCl<60(50%), CrCl<30(25%) Warnings: pancreatitis, heart failure, arthralgia SE: URTI, UTI, rash, peripheral edema Monitoring: BG, A1C, renal function

Question 369

Tradjenta

Answer 369

``` Linagliptin DDP4 inhibitor in disabetes type I 5 mg QD no renal adj Warnings: pancreatitis, heart failure (>alogliptin, Saxagliptin), arthralgia SE: URTI, UTI, rash, peripheral edema Monitoring: BG, A1C, renal function ```

Question 370

Onglyza

Answer 370

``` Saxagliptin DPP4 inhibitor used in diabetes type II 2.5-5 mg QD Renal Adj: eGFR <45 ml/min/1.73m2 Warnings: pancreatitis, heart failure, arthralgia SE: URTI, UTI, rash, peripheral edema Monitoring: BG, A1C, renal function ```

Question 371

Januvia

Answer 371

Sitagliptin DPP4 inhibitor used in diabetes type II 100 mg QD Renal adjustments: CrCl<60(50%), CrCl<30(25%) Warnings: pancreatitis, heart failure (>alogliptin, Saxagliptin), arthralgia SE: URTI, UTI, rash, peripheral edema Monitoring: BG, A1C, renal function

Question 372

Novolog

Answer 372

Insulin aspart | Rapid acting insulin

Question 373

Fiasp

Answer 373

Insulin aspart | Rapid acting insulin

Question 374

Apidra

Answer 374

Insulin glulisine | Rapid acting insulin

Question 375

Humalog

Answer 375

Insulin lispro | Rapid acting insulin

Question 376

Ademalog

Answer 376

Insulin lispro | Rapid acting insulin

Question 377

Afrezza

Answer 377

Human rapid acting insulin | Powder for inhalation

Question 378

TNKase

Answer 378

Tenecteplase | Fibrinolytic for ACS when PCI not available

Question 379

Retavase

Answer 379

Reteplase | Fibrinolytic in ACS when PCI not possible

Question 380

Kemgreal

Answer 380

Cangrelor | P2Y12 inhibitor for ACS when PCI

Question 381

ReoPro

Answer 381

Abciximab | GIIb/GIIIa receptor antagonist in ACS

Question 382

Integrilin

Answer 382

Eptifibatid | GIIb/GIIIa receptor antagonist in ACS

Question 383

Aggrastat

Answer 383

Tirofiban | GIIb/GIIIa receptor antagonist in ACS

Question 384

Simulect

Answer 384

Basiliximab | Interleukin-2 receptor antagonist for induction immunosuppression

Question 385

ATGAM

Answer 385

Horse antithymocyte globulin for induction immunosuppression

Question 386

Thymoglobulin

Answer 386

Rabbit antithymoglobulin for induction immunosuppression

Question 387

Prograf

Answer 387

Tacrolimus | Calcineurin inhibitor for maintenance immunosuppression

Question 388

Astagraf

Answer 388

Tacrolimus | Calcineurin inhibitor for maintenance immunosuppression

Question 389

Envarsus

Answer 389

Tacrolimus | Calcineurin inhibitor for maintenance immunosuppression

Question 390

Neoral

Answer 390

Cyclosporine | Calcineurin inhibitor for maintenance immunosuppression

Question 391

Sandimmune

Answer 391

Cyclosporine | Calcineurin inhibitor for maintenance immunosuppression

Question 392

Gengraf

Answer 392

Cyclosporine | Calcineurin inhibitor for maintenance immunosuppression

Question 393

CellCept

Answer 393

Mycophenolate mofetil | Antiproliferative agent for maintenance immunosuppression

Question 394

Myfortic

Answer 394

Mycophenolic acid | Antiproliferative agent for maintenance immunosuppression

Question 395

Imuran

Answer 395

Azathioprine | Antiproliferative agent for maintenance immunosuppression

Question 396

Azasan

Answer 396

Azathioprine | Antiproliferative agent for maintenance immunosuppression

Question 397

Zortress

Answer 397

Everolimus | Antiproliferative agent for maintenance immunosuppression

Question 398

Rapamune

Answer 398

Sirolimus | Antiproliferative agent for maintenance immunosuppression

Question 399

Xeljanz

Answer 399

Tofacitinib Non biological DMARD used in RA Tablet 5 mg BID, XR: 11 mg QD BB: Infections => screen for TB, Malignancy, Baricitinib: VTE causing death Warnings: GI perforation, LFT, avoid live vaccines SE: URTI, UTI, diarrhea, HA, HTN, ↑ lipids Monitoring: CBC, Lipids, LFT, abdominal pain, signs of infection Do not take if Lymphocyte < 500 cells/mm3, Hemoglobin < 9 g/dL, ANC < 1000 cells/mm3 Caution in Asian, more for SE Available through speciality pharmacy network

Question 400

Praluent

Answer 400

``` Alirocumab PCSK9 inhibitor for cholesterol (HeFH ASCV) Prefilled syringed, Pen-injector 75 mg/ml, 150 mg/ml Warnings: Allergic reactions SE: Injection site reaction, Nasopharyngitis, URTI, UTI, Influenza Monitoring: LDL at baseline and after 4-8 weeks to assess response ```

Question 401

Questran

Answer 401

Cholestyramine Bile acid séquestrant for cholesterol Powder packet (4 grams ) Initial: 4 grams QD or BID, Maintenance: 4-8 grams BID with meals (max 24 grams/day) CI: Cholestyramine: biliary obstruction, Colesevelam: bowel obstruction and TG>500 Warnings: Cholestyramine and colesevelam with phenylalanine (!!!phenylketonuria), Bleeding (vit K deficiency) SE: Constipation, abdominal pain, bloating, cramping, gas, ↑ TG ,LFT, dyspepsia, nausea, esophageal obstruction ACC/AHA do not recommend when TG ≥ 300 mg/dL Colesevelam can be considered as an option in a pregnant patient

Question 402

Repatha

Answer 402

Evolocumab PCSK9 inhibitor for cholesterol (HeFH, ASCVD, HoFH) Prefilled syringed, auto-injector, Prefilled cartridges 140 mg/ml, 420 mg/3.5 ml Warnings: Allergic reactions SE: Injection site reaction, Nasopharyngitis, URTI, UTI, Influenza Monitoring: LDL at baseline and after 4-8 weeks to assess response

Question 403

Prevalite

Answer 403

Cholestyramine Bile acid sequestrant used for cholesterol Powder packet (4 grams ) Initial: 4 grams QD or BID, Maintenance: 4-8 grams BID with meals (max 24 grams/day) CI: Cholestyramine: biliary obstruction, Colesevelam: bowel obstruction and TG>500 Warnings: Cholestyramine and colesevelam with phenylalanine (!!!phenylketonuria), Bleeding (vit K deficiency) SE: Constipation, abdominal pain, bloating, cramping, gas, ↑ TG ,LFT, dyspepsia, nausea, esophageal obstruction ACC/AHA do not recommend when TG ≥ 300 mg/dL Colesevelam can be considered as an option in a pregnant patient

Question 404

Welchol

Answer 404

Colesevelam Bile acid sequestrant for cholesterol Tablet (625 mg), Granule packet (3.75 grams) 3.75 grams QD (divided doses option) w/ meal and liquid CI: Cholestyramine: biliary obstruction, Colesevelam: bowel obstruction and TG>500 Warnings: Cholestyramine and colesevelam with phenylalanine (!!!phenylketonuria), Bleeding (vit K deficiency) SE: Constipation, abdominal pain, bloating, cramping, gas, ↑ TG ,LFT, dyspepsia, nausea, esophageal obstruction ACC/AHA do not recommend when TG ≥ 300 mg/dL Colesevelam can be considered as an option in a pregnant patient

Question 405

Antara

Answer 405

Fenofibrate For cholesterol 30-90 mg QD For cholesterol 45-135 mg QD CI: Severe liver dx including primary biliary cirrhosis, Severe renal dx (CrCl<30), Gallbladder dx, Nursing mother: fenofibrate only, Concurrent use with repaglinide or simvastatin (gemfibrozil only) Warnings: Myopathy ↑ when coadministration of statin, > in elderly, diabetes, renal failure, hypothyroidism Cholelithiasis, Reversible ↑ SCr (>2 g/dl) clinical significance unknown SE: ↑ LFT, abdominal pain, ↑ CPK, dyspepsia, URTI Monitoring: LFT, renal function ↓ dose if CrCl 30-80 (fenofibrate)

Question 406

Colestid

Answer 406

Colestipol Bile acid sequestrant for cholesterol Tablet (1 gram), Powder Packet (5 grams), Granule packet (5 grams) 2 T PO QD/BID (max 16g/day), 5 grams pack QD/BID (max 30g/day) CI: Cholestyramine: biliary obstruction, Colesevelam: bowel obstruction and TG>500 Warnings: Cholestyramine and colesevelam with phenylalanine (!!!phenylketonuria), Bleeding (vit K deficiency) SE: Constipation, abdominal pain, bloating, cramping, gas, ↑ TG ,LFT, dyspepsia, nausea, esophageal obstruction ACC/AHA do not recommend when TG ≥ 300 mg/dL Colesevelam can be considered as an option in a pregnant patient

Question 407

Tricor

Answer 407

Fenofibrate For cholesterol 48-145 mg QD For cholesterol 45-135 mg QD CI: Severe liver dx including primary biliary cirrhosis, Severe renal dx (CrCl<30), Gallbladder dx, Nursing mother: fenofibrate only, Concurrent use with repaglinide or simvastatin (gemfibrozil only) Warnings: Myopathy ↑ when coadministration of statin, > in elderly, diabetes, renal failure, hypothyroidism Cholelithiasis, Reversible ↑ SCr (>2 g/dl) clinical significance unknown SE: ↑ LFT, abdominal pain, ↑ CPK, dyspepsia, URTI Monitoring: LFT, renal function ↓ dose if CrCl 30-80 (fenofibrate)

Question 408

Trilipix

Answer 408

Fenofibrate For cholesterol 45-135 mg QD CI: Severe liver dx including primary biliary cirrhosis, Severe renal dx (CrCl<30), Gallbladder dx, Nursing mother: fenofibrate only, Concurrent use with repaglinide or simvastatin (gemfibrozil only) Warnings: Myopathy ↑ when coadministration of statin, > in elderly, diabetes, renal failure, hypothyroidism Cholelithiasis, Reversible ↑ SCr (>2 g/dl) clinical significance unknown SE: ↑ LFT, abdominal pain, ↑ CPK, dyspepsia, URTI Monitoring: LFT, renal function ↓ dose if CrCl 30-80 (fenofibrate)

Question 409

Fenoglide

Answer 409

Fenofibrate For cholesterol 40-100 mg QD with meal For cholesterol 45-135 mg QD CI: Severe liver dx including primary biliary cirrhosis, Severe renal dx (CrCl<30), Gallbladder dx, Nursing mother: fenofibrate only, Concurrent use with repaglinide or simvastatin (gemfibrozil only) Warnings: Myopathy ↑ when coadministration of statin, > in elderly, diabetes, renal failure, hypothyroidism Cholelithiasis, Reversible ↑ SCr (>2 g/dl) clinical significance unknown SE: ↑ LFT, abdominal pain, ↑ CPK, dyspepsia, URTI Monitoring: LFT, renal function ↓ dose if CrCl 30-80 (fenofibrate)

Question 410

Fibricor

Answer 410

Fenofibrate For cholesterol 35-105 mg QD For cholesterol 45-135 mg QD CI: Severe liver dx including primary biliary cirrhosis, Severe renal dx (CrCl<30), Gallbladder dx, Nursing mother: fenofibrate only, Concurrent use with repaglinide or simvastatin (gemfibrozil only) Warnings: Myopathy ↑ when coadministration of statin, > in elderly, diabetes, renal failure, hypothyroidism Cholelithiasis, Reversible ↑ SCr (>2 g/dl) clinical significance unknown SE: ↑ LFT, abdominal pain, ↑ CPK, dyspepsia, URTI Monitoring: LFT, renal function ↓ dose if CrCl 30-80 (fenofibrate)

Question 411

Lipofen

Answer 411

Fenofibrate For cholesterol 50-150 mg QD with meal For cholesterol 45-135 mg QD CI: Severe liver dx including primary biliary cirrhosis, Severe renal dx (CrCl<30), Gallbladder dx, Nursing mother: fenofibrate only, Concurrent use with repaglinide or simvastatin (gemfibrozil only) Warnings: Myopathy ↑ when coadministration of statin, > in elderly, diabetes, renal failure, hypothyroidism Cholelithiasis, Reversible ↑ SCr (>2 g/dl) clinical significance unknown SE: ↑ LFT, abdominal pain, ↑ CPK, dyspepsia, URTI Monitoring: LFT, renal function ↓ dose if CrCl 30-80 (fenofibrate)

Question 412

Ritalin

Answer 412

Methylphenidate IR | Tablet, chewable

Question 413

Methylin

Answer 413

Methylphenidate IR | Oral solution

Question 414

Adderall

Answer 414

Dextrophetamine / amphetamine IR Stimulant used in ADHD Start 5 mg QAM or BID with 2nd dose 4-6h after 1st (max 40 mg/day) Adderal XR (ER): Start 20 mg QAM BB: High potential for abuse CI: Within 14 days of MAOI, ↑ levels of dopamine and NE => ↑ HR and BP leading to serious CV events in children and adults with or without preexisting cardiac conditions, Pt should be assessed at baseline and Tx should be avoided if cardiac abnormalities (sudden death risk), Some agents are CI in HF, recent MI, arrhythmia, moderate-severe hypertension, Also CI in patients with marked anxiety, tension, agitation, glaucoma, hyperthyroidism, or Hx of Tourette’s syndrome or other tic disorder Warnings: Severe CV events and other vascular problems (priapism, Raynaud’s syndrome) can occur Can ↑ suicidal behaviors and thoughts + exacerbate of mixed / mania episodes in pt with bipolar disorder => caution in pt with pre-existing psychological disorder Can lower the seizure threshold => ↑ risk of seizure Can ↓ appetite => ↓ in growth trajectory of the child Risk of serotonin syndrome ↑ when use with other serotoninergic drugs

Question 415

Lopid

Answer 415

Gemfibrozil For cholesterol 600 mg BID 30 min before breakfast and diner For cholesterol 45-135 mg QD CI: Severe liver dx including primary biliary cirrhosis, Severe renal dx (CrCl<30), Gallbladder dx, Nursing mother: fenofibrate only, Concurrent use with repaglinide or simvastatin (gemfibrozil only) Warnings: Myopathy ↑ when coadministration of statin, > in elderly, diabetes, renal failure, hypothyroidism Cholelithiasis, Reversible ↑ SCr (>2 g/dl) clinical significance unknown SE: ↑ LFT, abdominal pain, ↑ CPK, dyspepsia, URTI Monitoring: LFT, renal function ↓ dose if CrCl 30-80 (fenofibrate)

Question 416

Concerta

Answer 416

Methylphenidate ER | OROS tablet

Question 417

Metadata ER

Answer 417

Methylphenidate ER | Tablet

Question 418

Methylin ER

Answer 418

Methylphenidate ER | Tablet

Question 419

Relexxii

Answer 419

Methylphenidate ER | Tablet

Question 420

Ritalin SR

Answer 420

Methylphenidate ER | Tablet

Question 421

Jornay PM

Answer 421

Methylphenidate ER | Capsule

Question 422

QuilliChew ER

Answer 422

Methylphenidate XR | Chewable

Question 423

Quillivant XR

Answer 423

Methylphenidate XR | Oral suspension

Question 424

Cotempla XR ODT

Answer 424

Methylphenidate XR | ODT

Question 425

Daytrana

Answer 425

Methylphenidate transdermal patch

Question 426

Focalin

Answer 426

Dexmethylphenidate

Question 427

Evekeo

Answer 427

Amphetamine | Tablet

Question 428

Adzenys XR-ODT

Answer 428

Amphetamine | ODT

Question 429

Dyanavel XR

Answer 429

Amphetamine | Suspension

Question 430

Adzenys ER

Answer 430

Amphetamine | Suspension

Question 431

Mydayis

Answer 431

Dextroamphetamine/amphetamine ER

Question 432

Zenzedi

Answer 432

Dextroamphetamine | IR tablet

Question 433

ProCentra

Answer 433

Dextroamphetamine | Oral solution

Question 434

Dexedrine spansule

Answer 434

Dextroamphetamine ER capsule

Question 435

Vyvanse

Answer 435

Lisdexamfetamine | Capsule, chewable

Question 436

Desoxyn

Answer 436

Methamphetamine

Question 437

Nuplazid

Answer 437

Pimavenserin | Antipsychotic for PD (does not act on dopamine receptor but in 5HT2

Question 438

Vibativ

Answer 438

Telavancin | Lipoglycopeptide, AB for Gram+ infection

Question 439

Orbactiv

Answer 439

Oritavancin | Lipoglycopeptide, AB for Gram+ infection

Question 440

Dalvance

Answer 440

Dalbavancin | Lipoglycopeptide, AB for Gram+ infections

Question 441

Cubicin

Answer 441

Daptomycin | AB for Gram+ infection (MRSA, VRE, E. Faecalis, E. Faecium)

Question 442

Triglide

Answer 442

Fenofibrate For cholesterol 160 mg QD For cholesterol 45-135 mg QD CI: Severe liver dx including primary biliary cirrhosis, Severe renal dx (CrCl<30), Gallbladder dx, Nursing mother: fenofibrate only, Concurrent use with repaglinide or simvastatin (gemfibrozil only) Warnings: Myopathy ↑ when coadministration of statin, > in elderly, diabetes, renal failure, hypothyroidism Cholelithiasis, Reversible ↑ SCr (>2 g/dl) clinical significance unknown SE: ↑ LFT, abdominal pain, ↑ CPK, dyspepsia, URTI Monitoring: LFT, renal function ↓ dose if CrCl 30-80 (fenofibrate)

Question 443

Lamictal

Answer 443

Lamotrigine AE broad spectrum BB: Serious skin reaction (SJS/TEN)  with dose in pediatric, starting dose and valproic acid Warnings: Aseptic meningitis, Hemotoxic, DRESS reaction, Immune reaction that can be fatal SE: N/V, Somnolence, Blurred vision, Alopecia Monitoring: Rash

Question 444

Spritam

Answer 444

Levetiracetam AE broad spectrum Warnings: Psychosis and suicidal behavior, Anaphylaxis and angioedema, Serious skin reaction (SJS/TEN), Anemia, BP ↑ SE: Irritability, Dizziness, Asthenia = Keppra

Question 445

Trokendi XR

Answer 445

Topiramate AE broad spectrum CI: Trokendi XR: alcohol within 6hrs before/after, Metabolic acidosis in pt taking metformin Warnings: Metabolic acidosis, ↓Sweat (hypohidrosis => hyperthermia), Nephrolithiasis, Glaucoma, Fetal harm SE: Somnolence, dizziness, ataxia, difficulty with memory, attention, concentration, Weight loss, anorexia Monitoring: Electrolytes (bicarbonates), hydration, eye exam (pressure)

Question 446

Qudexy XR

Answer 446

Topiramate AE broad spectrum CI: Trokendi XR: alcohol within 6hrs before/after, Metabolic acidosis in pt taking metformin Warnings: Metabolic acidosis, ↓Sweat (hypohidrosis => hyperthermia), Nephrolithiasis, Glaucoma, Fetal harm SE: Somnolence, dizziness, ataxia, difficulty with memory, attention, concentration, Weight loss, anorexia Monitoring: Electrolytes (bicarbonates), hydration, eye exam (pressure)

Question 447

Depacon

Answer 447

Valproic acid AE broad spectrum = Depakene BB: Hepatic failure: usually during first 6 months of therapy, children < 2 yo and patients with mitochondrial disorders (mutation in mitochondrial DNA polymerase gamma gene (POLG)) are at higher risk, fetal harm (neural tube defects and ↓ IQ scores), pancreatitis CI: Hepatic dx, urea cycle disorders, prophylaxis of migraine in pregnancy, known or suspected (<2yo) POLG-related disorder Warnings: hyperammonia (treat with carnitine in symptomatic adults only), hypothermia, dose-related thrombocytopenia (↑ bleeding risk), multiorgan hypersensitivity (DRESS) reactions SE: N/V, anorexia, abdominal pain, dizziness, somnolence, tremor, alopecia (supplement selenium and zinc), weight gain, edema, polycystic ovary syndrome, diplopia, blurred vision Monitoring: LFT (baseline and frequently in the first 6 months), CBC with differential, platelets

Question 448

Depakote

Answer 448

Divalproex AE broad spectrum BB: Hepatic failure: usually during first 6 months of therapy, children < 2 yo and patients with mitochondrial disorders (mutation in mitochondrial DNA polymerase gamma gene (POLG)) are at higher risk, fetal harm (neural tube defects and ↓ IQ scores), pancreatitis CI: Hepatic dx, urea cycle disorders, prophylaxis of migraine in pregnancy, known or suspected (<2yo) POLG-related disorder Warnings: hyperammonia (treat with carnitine in symptomatic adults only), hypothermia, dose-related thrombocytopenia (↑ bleeding risk), multiorgan hypersensitivity (DRESS) reactions SE: N/V, anorexia, abdominal pain, dizziness, somnolence, tremor, alopecia (supplement selenium and zinc), weight gain, edema, polycystic ovary syndrome, diplopia, blurred vision Monitoring: LFT (baseline and frequently in the first 6 months), CBC with differential, platelets

Question 449

Carbatrol

Answer 449

Carbamazepine AE narrow spectrum BB: Serious skin reactions, including SJS/TEN: patients of Asian descent should be tested for HLA-B*1502 allele prior initiation, if +, do not use (unless benefit > risk), aplastic anemia and agranulocytosis, D/C if significant myelosuppression occurs CI: Myelosuppression, hypersensitivity to TCAs, use of MAOI within 14 days, nefazodone, delaviridine and other NNRTIs Warnings: Risk of developing hypersensitivity reactions can be ↑ in patients with variant HLA-A*3101 allele, multiorgan hypersensitivity (DRESS) reactions, hyponatremia (SIADH), hypothyroidism, mild anticholinergic effects, cardiac conduction abnormalities, liver damage, fetal harm SE: N/V, dry mouth, pruritus, photosensitivity, blurred vision, rash, ↑ LFT, alopecia Monitoring: CBC with differential and platelets prior to and during therapy, LFT, rash, eye exam, thyroid fct, electrolytes (Na), renal fct, Monitor levels within 3-5 days of initiation and after 4 weeks due to autoinduction Enzyme inducer, autoinducer, ↓ level of other drugs and itself

Question 450

Epitol

Answer 450

Carbamazepine AE narrow spectrum BB: Serious skin reactions, including SJS/TEN: patients of Asian descent should be tested for HLA-B*1502 allele prior initiation, if +, do not use (unless benefit > risk), aplastic anemia and agranulocytosis, D/C if significant myelosuppression occurs CI: Myelosuppression, hypersensitivity to TCAs, use of MAOI within 14 days, nefazodone, delaviridine and other NNRTIs Warnings: Risk of developing hypersensitivity reactions can be ↑ in patients with variant HLA-A*3101 allele, multiorgan hypersensitivity (DRESS) reactions, hyponatremia (SIADH), hypothyroidism, mild anticholinergic effects, cardiac conduction abnormalities, liver damage, fetal harm SE: N/V, dry mouth, pruritus, photosensitivity, blurred vision, rash, ↑ LFT, alopecia Monitoring: CBC with differential and platelets prior to and during therapy, LFT, rash, eye exam, thyroid fct, electrolytes (Na), renal fct, Monitor levels within 3-5 days of initiation and after 4 weeks due to autoinduction Enzyme inducer, autoinducer, ↓ level of other drugs and itself

Question 451

Carnexiv

Answer 451

Carbamazepine AE narrow spectrum BB: Serious skin reactions, including SJS/TEN: patients of Asian descent should be tested for HLA-B*1502 allele prior initiation, if +, do not use (unless benefit > risk), aplastic anemia and agranulocytosis, D/C if significant myelosuppression occurs CI: Myelosuppression, hypersensitivity to TCAs, use of MAOI within 14 days, nefazodone, delaviridine and other NNRTIs Warnings: Risk of developing hypersensitivity reactions can be ↑ in patients with variant HLA-A*3101 allele, multiorgan hypersensitivity (DRESS) reactions, hyponatremia (SIADH), hypothyroidism, mild anticholinergic effects, cardiac conduction abnormalities, liver damage, fetal harm SE: N/V, dry mouth, pruritus, photosensitivity, blurred vision, rash, ↑ LFT, alopecia Monitoring: CBC with differential and platelets prior to and during therapy, LFT, rash, eye exam, thyroid fct, electrolytes (Na), renal fct, Monitor levels within 3-5 days of initiation and after 4 weeks due to autoinduction Enzyme inducer, autoinducer, ↓ level of other drugs and itself

Question 452

Vimpat

Answer 452

Lacosamide AE narrow spectrum Warnings: Prolong PR interval and ↑ risk of arrhythmias, obtain ECG prior to use and after titrated to steady state in patients with or at risk of cardiac conduction problems Multiorgan hypersensitivity (DRESS) reactions, syncope, dizziness, ataxia SE: N/V, HA, diplopia, blurred vision, ataxia, tremor, euphoria Monitoring: ECG (baseline and steady state) in at-risk patients

Question 453

Trileptal

Answer 453

Oxcarbazepine AE narrow spectrum CI: Hypersensitivity to eslicarbazepine Warnings: ↑ risk of serious skin reactions (SJS/TEN), consider screening patients of Asian descent for HLA-B*1502 prior initiating therapy, multiorgan hypersensitivity (DRESS) reactions, hyponatremia, hypothyroidism, hypersensitivity reactions to carbamazepine have 25-30% cross-reactivity to oxcarbazepine, potential worsening of seizures SE: Somnolence, dizziness, N/V, abdominal pain, diplopia, visual disturbances, ataxia, tremor Monitoring:Serum Na levels especially during 1st 3 months of therapy, thyroid fct, CBC Trileptal oral suspension muss be used within 7 weeks once original container is opened XR tablets: take on empty stomach 1h before or 2h after meals

Question 454

Oxtellar XR

Answer 454

Oxcarbazepine AE narrow spectrum CI: Hypersensitivity to eslicarbazepine Warnings: ↑ risk of serious skin reactions (SJS/TEN), consider screening patients of Asian descent for HLA-B*1502 prior initiating therapy, multiorgan hypersensitivity (DRESS) reactions, hyponatremia, hypothyroidism, hypersensitivity reactions to carbamazepine have 25-30% cross-reactivity to oxcarbazepine, potential worsening of seizures SE: Somnolence, dizziness, N/V, abdominal pain, diplopia, visual disturbances, ataxia, tremor Monitoring:Serum Na levels especially during 1st 3 months of therapy, thyroid fct, CBC Trileptal oral suspension muss be used within 7 weeks once original container is opened XR tablets: take on empty stomach 1h before or 2h after meals

Question 455

RabAvert

Answer 455

Rabies vaccine

Question 456

Imovax

Answer 456

Rabies vaccine

Question 457

Cerebyx

Answer 457

Fosphenytoin AE narrow spectrum BB: Phenytoin IV administration rate should not exceed 50 mg/min and fosphenytoin IV should not exceed 150 mgPE/min or 2 mgPE/kg/min (use the slower rate), if given faster hypotension and cardiac arrhythmias can occur CI: Previous hepatotoxicity due to phenytoin Warnings: Extravasation (leading to Purple Glove Syndrome, characterized by edema, pain and bluish discoloration of the skin which can sometimes lead to tissue necrosis) Bradycardia, ↑ risk of serious skin reactions (SJS/TEN), avoid phenytoin in patients with a positive HLA-B*1502 and in patients who have had a severe rash with carbamazepine, multiorgan hypersensitivity (DRESS) reactions, fetal harm, fraction of unbound (free) drug is higher with renal or hepatic failure or ↓ albumin, blood dyscrasias, caution in cardiac dx, hepatic and renal impairment, hypothyroidism SE: Dose-related toxicity: nystagmus, ataxia, diplopia/blurred vision, slurred speech, dizziness, somnolence, lethargy, confusion Chronic: skin thickening (children), gingival hyperplasia, hair growth, morbilliform rash (measle-like), rash, hepatotoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, ↑ BG, metallic taste, connective tissue changes, enlargement of facial features (lips) Monitoring: LFT, CBC with differential IV: continuous cardiac (ECG, BP, HR) and respiratory monitoring

Question 458

Vaxchora

Answer 458

Cholera vaccine

Question 459

Ixiaro

Answer 459

Japanese encephalitis vaccine

Question 460

BCG

Answer 460

Tuberculosis Bacille Calmette Guerin vaccine

Question 461

Vivotif

Answer 461

Typhoid fever vaccine

Question 462

Typhym

Answer 462

Typhoid fever vaccine

Question 463

YF-VAX

Answer 463

Yellow fever vaccine

Question 464

Clinoril

Answer 464

Sulindac | NSAID for acute tu of gout

Question 465

Caldolar

Answer 465

Ibuprofen NSAID Motrin, Advil

Question 466

NeoProfen

Answer 466

Ibuprofen injection | Closure of PDA (Patent Ductus Arteriosus) in premature infant

Question 467

Trivorbex

Answer 467

Indomethacin NSAID Indocin

Question 468

Naprelan

Answer 468

Naproxen NSAID Aleve, Naprosyn

Question 469

Toradol

Answer 469

Ketorolac | NSAID

Question 470

Sprix

Answer 470

Ketorolac | NSAID

Question 471

DST Plus Pak

Answer 471

Diclofenac | NSAID

Question 472

EnovaRX

Answer 472

Diclofenac | NSAID

Question 473

Flector

Answer 473

Diclofenac | NSAID

Question 474

Klofensaid II

Answer 474

Diclofenac | NSAID

Question 475

Pennsaid

Answer 475

Diclofenac | NSAID

Question 476

Zorvolex

Answer 476

Diclofenac | NSAID

Question 477

Zipsor

Answer 477

Diclofenac | NSAID

Question 478

Xrylix

Answer 478

Diclofenac | NSAID

Question 479

Vivlodex

Answer 479

Meloxicam NSAID Mobic

Question 480

Lodine

Answer 480

Etodac | NSAID

Question 481

Relafen

Answer 481

Nabumetone | NSAID

Question 482

Doans

Answer 482

Salsalate | Salicylate NSAID

Question 483

Zyvox

Answer 483

Linezolid AB for gram+ infections (VRE, MRSA) and C.diff 600 mg BID CI: MAOI within 2 weeks Warnings: myelosuppression, optic neuropathy (>28 days), serotonin syndrome, hypoglycemia, hypertension SE: low platelets, Hgb, WBC, HA, nausea/diarrhea, high LFTs Monitoring: CBC, BP, BG, HR

Question 484

Sivextro

Answer 484

``` Tedizolid Oxazolodinone AB for gram + infections (MRSA, VRE) same class than linezolid ```

Question 485

Synercid

Answer 485

Quinupristin/dalfopristin AB for gram+ infection (MRSA, VRE but not E. Faecalis) Approved for SSTI Not well tolerated

Question 486

Tigacyl

Answer 486

Tigecycline Broad coverage except 3 Ps Use as last option

Question 487

Ferate

Answer 487

Ferrous gluconate | Microcytic anemia

Question 488

FeroSul

Answer 488

Ferrous sulfate | Microcytic anemia

Question 489

Fer-in-Sol

Answer 489

Ferrous sulfate | Microcytic anemia

Question 490

Slow Fe

Answer 490

Ferrous sulfate dried | Microcytic anemia

Question 491

Slow Iron

Answer 491

Ferrous sulfate dried | Microcytic anemia

Question 492

Ferretts

Answer 492

Ferrous fumarate | Microcytic anemia

Question 493

Ferrimin 150

Answer 493

Ferrous fumarate | Microcytic anemia

Question 494

Hemocyte

Answer 494

Ferrous fumarate

Question 495

FerrPlus 90

Answer 495

Carbonyl iron | Microcytic anemia

Question 496

Ferrate 90

Answer 496

Carbonyl iron | Microcytic anemia

Question 497

Iron Chews

Answer 497

Carbonyl iron | Microcytic anemia

Question 498

Ferrer 100

Answer 498

Polysaccharide iron complex | Microcytic anemia

Question 499

INFeD

Answer 499

Iron dextran complex injection Microcytic anemia for specific pts

Question 500

Ferrlecit

Answer 500

Sodium ferric gluconate Injection Microcytic anemia for specific pt

Question 501

Venofer

Answer 501

Iron sucrose Injection Microcytic anemia for specific pt

Question 502

Feraheme

Answer 502

Ferumoxytol Injection Microcytic anemia for specific pt

Question 503

Injectafer

Answer 503

Ferric carboxymaltose Injection Microcytic anemia

Question 504

Triferic

Answer 504

Ferric pyrophosphate citrate Injection Microcytic anemia for specific pt

Question 505

Duragesic

Answer 505

Fentanyl patch | Opioid analgesic

Question 506

Sublimaze

Answer 506

Fentanyl injection | Opioid analgesic

Question 507

Actiq

Answer 507

Fentanyl lollipop | Opioid analgesic

Question 508

Lazanda

Answer 508

Fentanyl nasal spray | Opioid analgesic

Question 509

Fentora

Answer 509

Fentanyl buccal tab | Opioid analgesic

Question 510

Abstral

Answer 510

Fentanyl tab SL | Opioid analgesic

Question 511

Subsys

Answer 511

Fentanyl spray SL | Opioid analgesic

Question 512

Onsolis

Answer 512

Fentanyl buccal film | Opioid analgesic

Question 513

Dexilant

Answer 513

``` Dexlansoprazole PPI 30-60 mg QD with or without food Warnings: C.diff, osteoporosis, hypomagnesemia, vit B12 deficiency (LT), DILE SE: HA, N/D ```

Question 514

Nexium

Answer 514

Esomeprazole PPI 20-40 mg QD Warnings: C.diff, osteoporosis, hypomagnesemia, vit B12 deficiency (LT), DILE SE: HA, N/D, for IV: phlebitis, severe skin reaction (SJS, TEN)

Question 515

Prevacid

Answer 515

Lansoprazole PPI 15-30 mg QD Warnings: C.diff, osteoporosis, hypomagnesemia, vit B12 deficiency (LT), DILE SE: HA, N/D Prevacid Solutab: not in PKU bcp aspartame

Question 516

Prilosec

Answer 516

``` Omeprazole PPI 20 mg QD Warnings: C.diff, osteoporosis, hypomagnesemia, vit B12 deficiency (LT), DILE SE: HA, N/D ```

Question 517

Protonix

Answer 517

``` Pantoprazole PPI 40 mg QD Warnings: C.diff, osteoporosis, hypomagnesemia, vit B12 deficiency (LT), DILE SE: HA, N/D ```

Question 518

Talicia

Answer 518

Amoxicillin 1 g + rifabutin 50 mg + omeprazole 40 mg

Question 519

Prepvac

Answer 519

Amoxicillin 1 g + clarithromycin 500 mg + Lansoprazole 30 mg

Question 520

Azo

Answer 520

Phenazopyridin | Urinary Analgesic

Question 521

Uristat

Answer 521

Phenazopyridine | Urinary analgesic

Question 522

Pyridium

Answer 522

Phenazopyridine | Urinary analgesic

Question 523

Hexalen

Answer 523

Altretamine | Alkylating agent

Question 524

Bendeka

Answer 524

Bendamustine | Alkylating agent

Question 525

Treanda

Answer 525

Bendamustine | Alkylating agent

Question 526

Myleran

Answer 526

Busulfan | Alkylating agent

Question 527

Busulfex

Answer 527

Busulfan | Alkylating agent

Question 528

BiCNU

Answer 528

Carmustin | Alkylating agent

Question 529

Gliadel Wafer

Answer 529

Carmustine | Alkylating agent

Question 530

Cytoxan

Answer 530

Cyclophosphamide | Alkylating agent

Question 531

Ifex

Answer 531

Ifosfamide | Alkylating agent

Question 532

Gleostine

Answer 532

Lomustine | Alkylating agent

Question 533

Phenytek

Answer 533

Phenytoin AE narrow spectrum = Dilantin BB: Phenytoin IV administration rate should not exceed 50 mg/min and fosphenytoin IV should not exceed 150 mgPE/min or 2 mgPE/kg/min (use the slower rate), if given faster hypotension and cardiac arrhythmias can occur CI: Previous hepatotoxicity due to phenytoin Warnings: Extravasation (leading to Purple Glove Syndrome, characterized by edema, pain and bluish discoloration of the skin which can sometimes lead to tissue necrosis) Bradycardia, ↑ risk of serious skin reactions (SJS/TEN), avoid phenytoin in patients with a positive HLA-B*1502 and in patients who have had a severe rash with carbamazepine, multiorgan hypersensitivity (DRESS) reactions, fetal harm, fraction of unbound (free) drug is higher with renal or hepatic failure or ↓ albumin, blood dyscrasias, caution in cardiac dx, hepatic and renal impairment, hypothyroidism SE: Dose-related toxicity: nystagmus, ataxia, diplopia/blurred vision, slurred speech, dizziness, somnolence, lethargy, confusion Chronic: skin thickening (children), gingival hyperplasia, hair growth, morbilliform rash (measle-like), rash, hepatotoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, ↑ BG, metallic taste, connective tissue changes, enlargement of facial features (lips) Monitoring: LFT, CBC with differential IV: continuous cardiac (ECG, BP, HR) and respiratory monitoring

Question 534

Maxipime

Answer 534

Cefepime Cephalosporin 4th generation IV/IM 1-2 g Q8H Active against Pseudomonas CAP with MDRO, HAP, VAP CI: Ceftriaxone: hyperbilirubinemic neonates (biliary sludging), concurrent use with Ca-containing IV products in neonates ≤ 28 days old Warnings: Anaphylaxis/hypersensitivity reaction, Some can ↑ INR with warfarin, Cross sensitivity with PNC allergy (<10%): do not use in patients with type 1 PCN allergy (angioedema, anaphylaxis, swelling), Cefotetan: side chain (N-Methylthiotetrazole, NMTT or 1-MTT) ↑ risk of bleeding and disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol SE: Seizures (accumulation), GI upset, diarrhea, rash/allergic/anaphylactic reaction, acute interstitial nephritis, myelosuppression with LT use, ↑ LFT, drug fever Monitoring: Renal fct, Sx anaphylaxy with 1st dose, LFT, CBC

Question 535

Fortaz

Answer 535

Ceftazidime Cephalosporin 3rd generation groupe 2 IV/IM 1-2 g Q8H Active against pseudomonas CAP, HAP, VAP with MDRO CI: Ceftriaxone: hyperbilirubinemic neonates (biliary sludging), concurrent use with Ca-containing IV products in neonates ≤ 28 days old Warnings: Anaphylaxis/hypersensitivity reaction, Some can ↑ INR with warfarin, Cross sensitivity with PNC allergy (<10%): do not use in patients with type 1 PCN allergy (angioedema, anaphylaxis, swelling), Cefotetan: side chain (N-Methylthiotetrazole, NMTT or 1-MTT) ↑ risk of bleeding and disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol SE: Seizures (accumulation), GI upset, diarrhea, rash/allergic/anaphylactic reaction, acute interstitial nephritis, myelosuppression with LT use, ↑ LFT, drug fever Monitoring: Renal fct, Sx anaphylaxy with 1st dose, LFT, CBC

Question 536

Primaxin

Answer 536

Imipenem/cilastatin Carbapenem For MDRO IV:250-1000 mg Q6-8H Renl adj CrCl ≤70 CI: Anaphylactic reactions to beta-lactams Warnings: CNS AE including confusion and seizures Doripenem: do not use for the tx of pneumonia (including HAP, VAP) Do not use in patients with PNC allergy (cross-reactivity reported to be as high as 50% but more recent studies show 10% SE: Diarrhea, rash/ severe skin reactions (DRESS), seizures with higher doses and in patient with impaired renal fct (mainly imipenem), bone marrow suppression with prolonged use, ↑ LFT Imipenem combined with cilastatin to prevent degradation by renal tubular dehydropeptidase

Question 537

Azactam

Answer 537

``` Aztreonam Monobactam IV 500-2000 mg Q6H Active against MDRO but no gram+ or anaerobie activity Can be use if penicillin allergy ```

Question 538

Copy-Mycin M

Answer 538

Colistimethate sodium Polymyxin IV/IM 2.5-5 mg/kg/day in 2-4 divided doses For MDRO gram-

Question 539

Mustargen

Answer 539

Mechloretamine | Alkylating agent

Question 540

Azactam

Answer 540

``` Aztreonam Monobactam Active against Gram -MDRO but no gram+ or anaerobie activity, Can be use if penicillin allergy (≠ structure) IV 500-2000 mg Q6H SE: ~ PNC, including rash, N/V/D, ↑LFT ```

Question 541

Valchlor

Answer 541

Mechloretamine Topical gel Alkylating agent

Question 542

Alkeran

Answer 542

Mephalan | Alkylating agent

Question 543

Evomela

Answer 543

Mephalan | Alkylating agent

Question 544

Matulane

Answer 544

Procarbazine | Alkylating agent

Question 545

Temodar

Answer 545

Temozolomide | Alkylating agent

Question 546

Diuril

Answer 546

Chlorothiazide Thiazide diuretic for HTN 500-2000 mg CI: sulfa allergy, anuria Warning: sulfa allergy, exacerbation liver dx, CKD, diabetes, gout, SLE SE: hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypercalcemia, hyperuricemia, HDL, hyperglycemia, dizziness, photosensitivity, rash Monitoring: BP, electrolytes, renal function, BG, fluids

Question 547

Microzide

Answer 547

Hydrochlorothiazide Thiazide diuretics for HTN 12.5-50 mg QD CI: sulfa allergy, anuria Warning: sulfa allergy, exacerbation liver dx, CKD, diabetes, gout, SLE SE: hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypercalcemia, hyperuricemia, HDL, hyperglycemia, dizziness, photosensitivity, rash Monitoring: BP, electrolytes, renal function, BG, fluids

Question 548

Duetact

Answer 548

Glimepirirde/pioglitazone

Question 549

Oseni

Answer 549

Alogliptin/pioglitazone

Question 550

Glyxambi

Answer 550

Linagliptin/empagliflozin

Question 551

Qtern

Answer 551

Saxagliptin/dapagliflozin

Question 552

Steglujan

Answer 552

Sitagliptin/ertugliflozin

Question 553

Xultophy

Answer 553

``` Liraglutide/insulin degludec Liraglutide BB: thyroid cancer CI: thyroid, endocrin cancer Warnings: pancreatitis, serious injection reaction, not recommended in GI dx ```

Question 554

Soliqua

Answer 554

Lixisenatide/insulin glargine

Question 555

Miacalcin

Answer 555

Calcitonin Osteoporosis Hypercalcemia of malignancy (in association with IV bisphosponate or denosumab)

Question 556

Zometa

Answer 556

Zoledronic acid | Hypercalcemia of malignancy

Question 557

Xgeva

Answer 557

Denosumab | RANKL inhibitor for osteoporosis or hypercalcemia of malignancy

Question 558

Aredia

Answer 558

Pamidronate | Bisphophonate for hypercalcemia of malignancy

Question 559

Anzemet

Answer 559

Dolasetron | 5HT3R Antagonist for CINV

Question 560

Sancuso

Answer 560

Granisetron | 5HT3R antagonist for CINV

Question 561

Sustol

Answer 561

Granisetron | 5HT3R antagonist for CINV

Question 562

Zofran

Answer 562

Ondansetron | 5HT3R antagonist for CINV

Question 563

Zuplenz film

Answer 563

Ondansetron | 5HT3R antagonist for CINV

Question 564

Aloxi

Answer 564

Palonosetron | 5HT3R antagonist for CINV

Question 565

Emend

Answer 565

Aprepitant Fosaprepitant Neurokin-1 receptor antagonist for CINV

Question 566

Akinzeo

Answer 566

Netupitant + palonosetron | 5HT3R AND Neurokin-1 receptor antagonist for CINV

Question 567

Varubi

Answer 567

Rolapitant | Neurokin-1 receptor antagonist for CINV

Question 568

Tazicef

Answer 568

Ceftazidime Cephalosporin 3rd generation groupe 2 IV/IM 1-2 g Q8H Active against pseudomonas CAP, HAP, VAP with MDRO CI: Ceftriaxone: hyperbilirubinemic neonates (biliary sludging), concurrent use with Ca-containing IV products in neonates ≤ 28 days old Warnings: Anaphylaxis/hypersensitivity reaction, Some can ↑ INR with warfarin, Cross sensitivity with PNC allergy (<10%): do not use in patients with type 1 PCN allergy (angioedema, anaphylaxis, swelling), Cefotetan: side chain (N-Methylthiotetrazole, NMTT or 1-MTT) ↑ risk of bleeding and disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol SE: Seizures (accumulation), GI upset, diarrhea, rash/allergic/anaphylactic reaction, acute interstitial nephritis, myelosuppression with LT use, ↑ LFT, drug fever Monitoring: Renal fct, Sx anaphylaxy with 1st dose, LFT, CBC

Question 569

Zithromax

Answer 569

Azithromycin Macrolide antibiotic Injection, Suspension, Tablets 250-500 mg IV QD CI: Cholestatic jaundice / hepatic dx with prior use, Clarithromycin, erythromycin: do not use with lovastatin, simvastatin, pimozide, ergotamine, dihydroergotamine, Clarithromycin: do not use with colchicine in pt with renal/hepatic dx or pt with a Hx of QT prolongation Warnings: QT prolongation (> erythromycin), Hepatotoxicity, Exacerbate myasthenia gravis Clarithromycin: caution in pt with CAD (↑ mortality) SE: GI, Taste perversion, Ototoxicity, Sever skin reaction (SJS/TEN)

Question 570

Erelzi

Answer 570

Etanercept Biological DMARD for RA Biosimilar for Enbrel BB: serious infection including TB, cancer CI: active infection Warnings: demyelination, seizure, HepB reactivation, hepatotoxicity, DILE, do not use with other DMARDS or live vaccines

Question 571

Amjevita

Answer 571

Adalimumab Biological DMRAD for RA biosimilar for Humira BB: serious infection including TB, cancer CI: active infection Warnings: demyelination, seizure, HepB reactivation, hepatotoxicity, DILE, do not use with other DMARDS or live vaccines

Question 572

EES

Answer 572

Erythromycin Macrolide antibiotic CI: Cholestatic jaundice / hepatic dx with prior use, Clarithromycin, erythromycin: do not use with lovastatin, simvastatin, pimozide, ergotamine, dihydroergotamine, Clarithromycin: do not use with colchicine in pt with renal/hepatic dx or pt with a Hx of QT prolongation Warnings: QT prolongation (> erythromycin), Hepatotoxicity, Exacerbate myasthenia gravis Clarithromycin: caution in pt with CAD (↑ mortality) SE: GI, Taste perversion, Ototoxicity, Sever skin reaction (SJS/TEN)

Question 573

Cyltezo

Answer 573

Adalimumab Biological DMARDS for RA Biosimilar for Humira BB: serious infection including TB, cancer CI: active infection Warnings: demyelination, seizure, HepB reactivation, hepatotoxicity, DILE, do not use with other DMARDS or live vaccines

Question 574

Renflexis

Answer 574

Infliximab Biological DMARD anti-TNF for RA Biosimilar for Remicade BB: serious infection including TB, cancer CI: active infection Warnings: demyelination, seizure, HepB reactivation, hepatotoxicity, DILE, do not use with other DMARDS or live vaccines

Question 575

Inflectra

Answer 575

Infliximab Biological DMARD anti-TNF for RA Biosimilar for Remicade BB: serious infection including TB, cancer CI: active infection Warnings: demyelination, seizure, HepB reactivation, hepatotoxicity, DILE, do not use with other DMARDS or live vaccines

Question 576

Ixifi

Answer 576

Infliximab Biological DMARD anti-TNF for RA Biosimilar for Remicade BB: serious infection including TB, cancer CI: active infection Warnings: demyelination, seizure, HepB reactivation, hepatotoxicity, DILE, do not use with other DMARDS or live vaccines

Question 577

Symtuza

Answer 577

Darunavir + cobicistat + emtricitabine + tenofovir adafenamide Only PI- Based for HIV

Question 578

Sandostatin

Answer 578

Octreotide Splanchnique vasopressor for variceal bleeding 50 mcg IV bolus repeat 1 hr later if bleeding not controlled then 25-50 mcg/hr IV infusion for 2-5 days

Question 579

Flolan

Answer 579

Epoprostenol | prostacyclin analogue for PAH

Question 580

Veletri

Answer 580

Epoprostenol | prostacyclin analogue for PAH

Question 581

Vasostrict

Answer 581

Vasopressin Non-selective vasoconstrictor for variceal bleeding IV infusion 0.2-0.4 units/min Max 24hrs Also used in critical care Vasopressor (not on adrenergic receptors, act on vasopressin receptors) used in ICU, anaphylactic shock BB: Dopamine/ Norepinephrine: extravasation (treat with phentolamine) Warnings: Use with MOAI can caused prolong hypertension SE: Dopamine, epinephrine, vasopressin: arrhythmia, tachycardia Phenylephrine: bradycardia Epinephrine: hyperglycemia Necrosis (gangrene), tachyphylaxis, peripheral and gut ischemia Monitoring: Continuous monitoring of BP for infusion, HR, MAP, ECG, urine output, infusion site reaction (extravasation) Solution should not be used if discolored All vasopressors are vesicants (~ chemotherapy) = medical emergency, Use central line, Treat with phentolamine (𝛼"−1" blocker) or nitroglycerine ointment

Question 582

Remodulin

Answer 582

Treprostinil prostacyclin analogue for PAH Injection

Question 583

Tyvaso

Answer 583

Treprostinil prostacyclin analogue for PAH Inhalation

Question 584

Orenitram

Answer 584

Treprostinil prostacyclin analogue for PAH Tablet

Question 585

Uptravi

Answer 585

Selexipag | prostacyclin analogue for PAH

Question 586

Tracleer

Answer 586

Bosentan | ERA for PAH

Question 587

Letairis

Answer 587

Ambrisentan | ERA for PAH

Question 588

Opsumit

Answer 588

Macitentan | ERA for PAH

Question 589

Revatio

Answer 589

Sildenafil | PD-5 inhibitor for PAH

Question 590

Adcirca

Answer 590

Tadalafil | PD-5 inhibitor for PAH

Question 591

Adempas

Answer 591

Riociguat | Soluble guanylate cyclase stimulator for PAH

Question 592

Decadron

Answer 592

Dexamethasone Corticosteroid Tablet

Question 593

Compazine

Answer 593

Prochlorperazine | Dopamine receptor antagonist for CINV

Question 594

Compro

Answer 594

Prochlorperazine | Dopamine receptor antagonist for CINV

Question 595

Phenergan

Answer 595

Promethazine | Dopamine receptor antagonist for CINV

Question 596

Phenadoz

Answer 596

Promethazine | Dopamine receptor antagonist for CINV

Question 597

Promethegan

Answer 597

Promethazine | Dopamine receptor antagonist for CINV

Question 598

Strattera

Answer 598

Atomoxetine | ADHD drug

Question 599

Intuniv

Answer 599

Guanfacine ER | For ADHD

Question 600

Kapvay

Answer 600

Clonidine ER | For ADHD

Question 601

Remeron

Answer 601

Mirtazapine | For depression

Question 602

Tiazac

Answer 602

Diltiazem | Arrhythmia and rate control

Question 603

Cardura

Answer 603

Doxazosin Non-specific alpha-blocker for BPH IR: 1 mg QHS XL: 4 mg with breakfast Warnings: orthostatic hypotension, intraoperative iris floppy syndrome SE: dizziness, fatigue, HA, abnormal ejaculation

Question 604

Flomax

Answer 604

Tamsulosine Alpha1A-blocker for BPH 0.4 mg QD 30 min after same meal Warnings: orthostatic hypotension, intraoperative iris floppy syndrome SE: dizziness, fatigue, HA, abnormal ejaculation

Question 605

Uroxatral

Answer 605

Afluzosin Alpha1A-blocker for BPH 10 mg QD after same meal Warnings: orthostatic hypotension, intraoperative iris floppy syndrome SE: dizziness, fatigue, HA, abnormal ejaculation

Question 606

Rapaflo

Answer 606

Silidosin Alpha1A-blocker for BPH 8 mg with same meal QD Warnings: orthostatic hypotension, intraoperative iris floppy syndrome SE: dizziness, fatigue, HA, abnormal ejaculation

Question 607

Proscar

Answer 607

``` Finasteride 5-alpha reductase inhibitor for BPH 5 mg QD CI: pregnant or potential, kids SE: impotence, less libido, ejaculation issues, breast enlargement and tenderness ```

Question 608

Avodart

Answer 608

``` Dutasteride 5-alpha reductase inhibitor for BPH 0.5 mg QD CI: pregnant or potential, kids SE: impotence, less libido, ejaculation issues, breast enlargement and tenderness ```

Question 609

Jalyn

Answer 609

Tamsulosine + dutasteride | For BPH

Question 610

Cialis

Answer 610

Tadalafil Phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor for BPH 5 mg QD at the same time with or without food CI: nitrates, riociguat Warnings: color discoloration, hearing loss, vision loss, hypotension, priapism, MI SE: HA, flushing, dizziness, dyspepsia, back pain

Question 611

Biaxin

Answer 611

Clarithromycin Macrolide antibiotic Tablet, Suspension PO: 250-500 mg BID, XL: 1 G QD Renal adj: CrCl < 30 CI: Cholestatic jaundice / hepatic dx with prior use, Clarithromycin, erythromycin: do not use with lovastatin, simvastatin, pimozide, ergotamine, dihydroergotamine, Clarithromycin: do not use with colchicine in pt with renal/hepatic dx or pt with a Hx of QT prolongation Warnings: QT prolongation (> erythromycin), Hepatotoxicity, Exacerbate myasthenia gravis Clarithromycin: caution in pt with CAD (↑ mortality) SE: GI, Taste perversion, Ototoxicity, Sever skin reaction (SJS/TEN)

Question 612

EpiPen

Answer 612

Epinephrine Auto-injector, injection (0.01% for IV, 0.1% for IM or SC) Vasopressor used in ICU, anaphylactic shock Act on both alpha and beta adrenergic receptors BB: Dopamine/ Norepinephrine: extravasation (treat with phentolamine) Warnings: Use with MOAI can caused prolong hypertension SE: Dopamine, epinephrine, vasopressin: arrhythmia, tachycardia Phenylephrine: bradycardia Epinephrine: hyperglycemia Necrosis (gangrene), tachyphylaxis, peripheral and gut ischemia Monitoring: Continuous monitoring of BP for infusion, HR, MAP, ECG, urine output, infusion site reaction (extravasation) Solution should not be used if discolored All vasopressors are vesicants (~ chemotherapy) = medical emergency, Use central line, Treat with phentolamine (𝛼"−1" blocker) or nitroglycerine ointment

Question 613

Levophed

Answer 613

Norepinephrine Vasopressor used in ICU, anaphylactic shock Act on both alpha and beta adrenergic receptors (alpha > beta) BB: Dopamine/ Norepinephrine: extravasation (treat with phentolamine) Warnings: Use with MOAI can caused prolong hypertension SE: Dopamine, epinephrine, vasopressin: arrhythmia, tachycardia Phenylephrine: bradycardia Epinephrine: hyperglycemia Necrosis (gangrene), tachyphylaxis, peripheral and gut ischemia Monitoring: Continuous monitoring of BP for infusion, HR, MAP, ECG, urine output, infusion site reaction (extravasation) Solution should not be used if discolored All vasopressors are vesicants (~ chemotherapy) = medical emergency, Use central line, Treat with phentolamine (𝛼"−1" blocker) or nitroglycerine ointment

Question 614

Vazculep

Answer 614

Phenylephrine Vasopressor used in ICU, anaphylactic shock Selective for alpha receptors => no inotrope effect BB: Dopamine/ Norepinephrine: extravasation (treat with phentolamine) Warnings: Use with MOAI can caused prolong hypertension SE: Dopamine, epinephrine, vasopressin: arrhythmia, tachycardia Phenylephrine: bradycardia Epinephrine: hyperglycemia Necrosis (gangrene), tachyphylaxis, peripheral and gut ischemia Monitoring: Continuous monitoring of BP for infusion, HR, MAP, ECG, urine output, infusion site reaction (extravasation) Solution should not be used if discolored All vasopressors are vesicants (~ chemotherapy) = medical emergency, Use central line, Treat with phentolamine (𝛼"−1" blocker) or nitroglycerine ointment

Question 615

Vibramycin

Answer 615

Doxycyclin

Question 616

Minocin

Answer 616

Minocycline

Question 617

Giapreza

Answer 617

Angiotensin II analog Vasopressor used in ICU, anaphylactic shock BB: Dopamine/ Norepinephrine: extravasation (treat with phentolamine) Warnings: Use with MOAI can caused prolong hypertension SE: Dopamine, epinephrine, vasopressin: arrhythmia, tachycardia Phenylephrine: bradycardia Epinephrine: hyperglycemia Necrosis (gangrene), tachyphylaxis, peripheral and gut ischemia Monitoring: Continuous monitoring of BP for infusion, HR, MAP, ECG, urine output, infusion site reaction (extravasation) Solution should not be used if discolored All vasopressors are vesicants (~ chemotherapy) = medical emergency, Use central line, Treat with phentolamine (𝛼"−1" blocker) or nitroglycerine ointment

Question 618

Solodyn

Answer 618

Minocycline

Question 619

Camptosar

Answer 619

Irinotecan | Topoisomerase I inhibitor (cell cycle specific cytotoxic agent)

Question 620

Hycamtin

Answer 620

Topotecan | Topoisomerase I inhibitor (cell cycle specific agent)

Question 621

Revlimid

Answer 621

Lenalidomide | Cytotoxic agent immunomodulator, used in multiple myeloma

Question 622

Pomalyst

Answer 622

Pomalidomide | Cytotoxic agent immunomodulator, used in multiple myeloma

Question 623

Thalomid

Answer 623

Thalidomide | Cytotoxic agent immunomodulator, used in multiple myeloma

Question 624

Neo -synephrin

Answer 624

Phenylephrine Vasopressor used in ICU, anaphylactic shock BB: Dopamine/ Norepinephrine: extravasation (treat with phentolamine) Warnings: Use with MOAI can caused prolong hypertension SE: Dopamine, epinephrine, vasopressin: arrhythmia, tachycardia Phenylephrine: bradycardia Epinephrine: hyperglycemia Necrosis (gangrene), tachyphylaxis, peripheral and gut ischemia Monitoring: Continuous monitoring of BP for infusion, HR, MAP, ECG, urine output, infusion site reaction (extravasation) Solution should not be used if discolored All vasopressors are vesicants (~ chemotherapy) = medical emergency, Use central line, Treat with phentolamine (𝛼"−1" blocker) or nitroglycerine ointment

Question 625

Vaprisol

Answer 625

Conivaptan Arginine vasopressin receptor antagonist used in SIADH (euvolemic/hypervolemic hyponatremia) Injection, Max 4 days and do not use if CrCl <30 CI: Hypovolemic hyponatremia, anuria, 3A4 inhibitors Warnings: Overly rapid correction SE: Orthostatic hypotension, fever, hypokalemia, infusion site reaction (> 60%) Monitoring: Na, BP, Volume, urine output

Question 626

Lorcet

Answer 626

Hydrocodone + acetaminophen opioid used in pain management BB: 3A4 inhibitors (or stopping 3A4 inducers) can cause fatal overdose Warning: Respiratory and CNS depression, constipation, hypotension, skin reactions, caution in liver dx and 2D6 poor metabolizer, avoid alcohol SE: N/V, dizziness, lightheadedness, SE related to acetaminophen Hydrocodone containing cough and cold preparation are no longer indicated in patients < 18 yo – do not use

Question 627

Samsca

Answer 627

Tolvaptan Arginine vasopressin receptor antagonist used in SIADH (euvolemic/hypervolemic hyponatremia) Tablet, Max 30 days and do not use if CrCl <10 BB: Initiate in hospital where monitoring Na Overly rapid correction (consider slower correction in malnutrition, alcoholism, liver dx) CI: Hypovolemic hyponatremia, anuria, 3A4 inhibitors Pt unable to sense thirst, urgent need to raise Na Warnings: Hepatotoxicity (max 30 days) SE:Thirst, nausea, dry mouth, polyuria, weakness, hyperglycemia, hypernatremia Monitoring: Rate of Na ↑, BP, volume, urine output, signs hepatotxicity

Question 628

Lortab

Answer 628

Hydrocodone + acetaminophen opioid used in pain management BB: 3A4 inhibitors (or stopping 3A4 inducers) can cause fatal overdose Warning: Respiratory and CNS depression, constipation, hypotension, skin reactions, caution in liver dx and 2D6 poor metabolizer, avoid alcohol SE: N/V, dizziness, lightheadedness, SE related to acetaminophen Hydrocodone containing cough and cold preparation are no longer indicated in patients < 18 yo – do not use

Question 629

Verdrocet

Answer 629

Hydrocodone + acetaminophen opioid used in pain management BB: 3A4 inhibitors (or stopping 3A4 inducers) can cause fatal overdose Warning: Respiratory and CNS depression, constipation, hypotension, skin reactions, caution in liver dx and 2D6 poor metabolizer, avoid alcohol SE: N/V, dizziness, lightheadedness, SE related to acetaminophen Hydrocodone containing cough and cold preparation are no longer indicated in patients < 18 yo – do not use

Question 630

Xodol

Answer 630

Hydrocodone + acetaminophen opioid used in pain management BB: 3A4 inhibitors (or stopping 3A4 inducers) can cause fatal overdose Warning: Respiratory and CNS depression, constipation, hypotension, skin reactions, caution in liver dx and 2D6 poor metabolizer, avoid alcohol SE: N/V, dizziness, lightheadedness, SE related to acetaminophen Hydrocodone containing cough and cold preparation are no longer indicated in patients < 18 yo – do not use

Question 631

Tussionex

Answer 631

Hydrocodone + chlorpheniramine opioid used in pain management BB: 3A4 inhibitors (or stopping 3A4 inducers) can cause fatal overdose Warning: Respiratory and CNS depression, constipation, hypotension, skin reactions, caution in liver dx and 2D6 poor metabolizer, avoid alcohol SE: N/V, dizziness, lightheadedness, SE related to acetaminophen Hydrocodone containing cough and cold preparation are no longer indicated in patients < 18 yo – do not use

Question 632

Pennkinetic ER

Answer 632

Hydrocodone + chlorpheniramine opioid used in pain management BB: 3A4 inhibitors (or stopping 3A4 inducers) can cause fatal overdose Warning: Respiratory and CNS depression, constipation, hypotension, skin reactions, caution in liver dx and 2D6 poor metabolizer, avoid alcohol SE: N/V, dizziness, lightheadedness, SE related to acetaminophen Hydrocodone containing cough and cold preparation are no longer indicated in patients < 18 yo – do not use

Question 633

TussiCaps

Answer 633

Hydrocodone + chlorpheniramine opioid used in pain management BB: 3A4 inhibitors (or stopping 3A4 inducers) can cause fatal overdose Warning: Respiratory and CNS depression, constipation, hypotension, skin reactions, caution in liver dx and 2D6 poor metabolizer, avoid alcohol SE: N/V, dizziness, lightheadedness, SE related to acetaminophen Hydrocodone containing cough and cold preparation are no longer indicated in patients < 18 yo – do not use

Question 634

Tussignon

Answer 634

Hydrocodone + homatropine opioid used in pain management BB: 3A4 inhibitors (or stopping 3A4 inducers) can cause fatal overdose Warning: Respiratory and CNS depression, constipation, hypotension, skin reactions, caution in liver dx and 2D6 poor metabolizer, avoid alcohol SE: N/V, dizziness, lightheadedness, SE related to acetaminophen Hydrocodone containing cough and cold preparation are no longer indicated in patients < 18 yo – do not use

Question 635

Vicoprofen

Answer 635

Hydrocodone + ibuprofen opioid used in pain management BB: 3A4 inhibitors (or stopping 3A4 inducers) can cause fatal overdose Warning: Respiratory and CNS depression, constipation, hypotension, skin reactions, caution in liver dx and 2D6 poor metabolizer, avoid alcohol SE: N/V, dizziness, lightheadedness, SE related to acetaminophen Hydrocodone containing cough and cold preparation are no longer indicated in patients < 18 yo – do not use

Question 636

Ibudone

Answer 636

Hydrocodone + ibuprofen opioid used in pain management BB: 3A4 inhibitors (or stopping 3A4 inducers) can cause fatal overdose Warning: Respiratory and CNS depression, constipation, hypotension, skin reactions, caution in liver dx and 2D6 poor metabolizer, avoid alcohol SE: N/V, dizziness, lightheadedness, SE related to acetaminophen Hydrocodone containing cough and cold preparation are no longer indicated in patients < 18 yo – do not use

Question 637

Zohydro

Answer 637

Hydrocodone ER Opioid used in pain management BB: Initiation of 3A4 inhibitors (or cessation of 3A4 inducers) can cause fatal overdose Major substrate for 3A4 and minor substrate for 2D6 Preferably avoid use in breastfeeding Abuse-deterrent formulation Hysingla: QT prolongation has occurred at doses > 160 mg/day

Question 638

Hysingla ER

Answer 638

Hydrocodone ER Opioid used in pain management BB: Initiation of 3A4 inhibitors (or cessation of 3A4 inducers) can cause fatal overdose Major substrate for 3A4 and minor substrate for 2D6 Preferably avoid use in breastfeeding Abuse-deterrent formulation Hysingla: QT prolongation has occurred at doses > 160 mg/day

Question 639

Ventrela

Answer 639

Hydrocodone ER Opioid used in pain management BB: Initiation of 3A4 inhibitors (or cessation of 3A4 inducers) can cause fatal overdose Major substrate for 3A4 and minor substrate for 2D6 Preferably avoid use in breastfeeding Abuse-deterrent formulation Hysingla: QT prolongation has occurred at doses > 160 mg/day

Question 640

Dilaudid

Answer 640

Hydromorphone Opioid used in pain management Tablet, Injection, Solution Initial (naïve patient): Oral: 2-4 mg Q4-6H PRN, IV: 0.2-1 mg Q2-3H PRN BB: Risk of medication error with high potency injection (used in opioid-tolerant patient only) Potent, start low, convert carefully, high risk for overdose Caution with 3A4 inhibitors, use lower doses initially Commonly used in PCA and epidurals Less nausea and pruritus Dilaudid HP (10 mg/ml) higher potency than Dilaudid (1 mg/ml) Exalgo: abuse-deterrent formulation (crush and extraction resistant) CI in opioid-naïve patient, 2 weeks wash out period between Exalgo and MAOI

Question 641

Exalgo

Answer 641

Hydromorphone Opioid used in pain management ER tablet Exalgo: abuse-deterrent formulation (crush and extraction resistant) CI in opioid-naïve patient, 2 weeks wash out period between Exalgo and MAOI

Question 642

Demerol

Answer 642

Meperidine

Question 643

Dolophine

Answer 643

Methadone Tablet Initial 2.5-10 mg Q8-12H BB: Life-threatening QT prolongation and serious arrhythmia (torsade de pointe)(> large, multiple daily dose) should be prescribed by professionals who known requirements for safe use Initiation of CYP inhibitors (or stopping inducers) can cause fatal overdose Warnings: Combination with serotoninergic drugs and MAOI can ↑ risk of serotoninergic syndrome Also block reuptake of norepinephrine Due to variable half life, difficult to dose safely Can ↓ testosterone and contribute to sexual dysfunction Major 3A4 substrate => avoid inhibitors or lower methadone dose

Question 644

Demerol

Answer 644

Meperidine Opioid used in pain management Tablet, Solution, Injection Warnings: Renal impairment / elderly at risk of CNS toxicity, avoid use with or within 2 weeks of MAOI SE: Lightheadedness, dizziness, somnolence, N/V, sweating No longer recommended as analgesic (> elderly and renal impairment) Avoid for chronic pain and even short term in elderly Acceptable for short term acute or single use (eg suture in ER) and use off-label for post-operative rigors (shivering) Short duration of action (pain controlled for max 3h) Normepiridine = metabolite is renally cleared and can accumulate and cause CNS toxicity including seizures Serotoninergic => ↑ risk of serotoninergic syndrome if use in combination with other drugs

Question 645

MS Contin

Answer 645

Morphine Opioid used in pain managemet BB: Medication errors with oral solution Appropriate staff and equipment needed for intrathecal/epidural administration SE: N/V (anti-emetic), dizziness, changes in mood, confusion, delirium, flushing, pruritus, diaphoresis (anti-histamine) Do not use MSO4 or MS abbreviations for morphine or magnesium Do not crush, chew ER products, Kadian can be opened and sprinkle on applesauce or soft food If renal impaired, start at low dose or avoid morphine due to accumulation of parent drug or active metabolite

Question 646

Kadian

Answer 646

Morphine Opioid used in pain managemet BB: Medication errors with oral solution Appropriate staff and equipment needed for intrathecal/epidural administration SE: N/V (anti-emetic), dizziness, changes in mood, confusion, delirium, flushing, pruritus, diaphoresis (anti-histamine) Do not use MSO4 or MS abbreviations for morphine or magnesium Do not crush, chew ER products, Kadian can be opened and sprinkle on applesauce or soft food If renal impaired, start at low dose or avoid morphine due to accumulation of parent drug or active metabolite

Question 647

Roxanol

Answer 647

Morphine Opioid used in pain managemet BB: Medication errors with oral solution Appropriate staff and equipment needed for intrathecal/epidural administration SE: N/V (anti-emetic), dizziness, changes in mood, confusion, delirium, flushing, pruritus, diaphoresis (anti-histamine) Do not use MSO4 or MS abbreviations for morphine or magnesium Do not crush, chew ER products, Kadian can be opened and sprinkle on applesauce or soft food If renal impaired, start at low dose or avoid morphine due to accumulation of parent drug or active metabolite

Question 648

MorphaBond

Answer 648

Morphine Opioid used in pain managemet BB: Medication errors with oral solution Appropriate staff and equipment needed for intrathecal/epidural administration SE: N/V (anti-emetic), dizziness, changes in mood, confusion, delirium, flushing, pruritus, diaphoresis (anti-histamine) Do not use MSO4 or MS abbreviations for morphine or magnesium Do not crush, chew ER products, Kadian can be opened and sprinkle on applesauce or soft food If renal impaired, start at low dose or avoid morphine due to accumulation of parent drug or active metabolite

Question 649

Arymo ER

Answer 649

Morphine Opioid used in pain managemet BB: Medication errors with oral solution Appropriate staff and equipment needed for intrathecal/epidural administration SE: N/V (anti-emetic), dizziness, changes in mood, confusion, delirium, flushing, pruritus, diaphoresis (anti-histamine) Do not use MSO4 or MS abbreviations for morphine or magnesium Do not crush, chew ER products, Kadian can be opened and sprinkle on applesauce or soft food If renal impaired, start at low dose or avoid morphine due to accumulation of parent drug or active metabolite

Question 650

Duramorph

Answer 650

Morphine Opioid used in pain managemet BB: Medication errors with oral solution Appropriate staff and equipment needed for intrathecal/epidural administration SE: N/V (anti-emetic), dizziness, changes in mood, confusion, delirium, flushing, pruritus, diaphoresis (anti-histamine) Do not use MSO4 or MS abbreviations for morphine or magnesium Do not crush, chew ER products, Kadian can be opened and sprinkle on applesauce or soft food If renal impaired, start at low dose or avoid morphine due to accumulation of parent drug or active metabolite

Question 651

Astramorph

Answer 651

Morphine Opioid used in pain managemet BB: Medication errors with oral solution Appropriate staff and equipment needed for intrathecal/epidural administration SE: N/V (anti-emetic), dizziness, changes in mood, confusion, delirium, flushing, pruritus, diaphoresis (anti-histamine) Do not use MSO4 or MS abbreviations for morphine or magnesium Do not crush, chew ER products, Kadian can be opened and sprinkle on applesauce or soft food If renal impaired, start at low dose or avoid morphine due to accumulation of parent drug or active metabolite

Question 652

Infumorph

Answer 652

Morphine Opioid used in pain managemet BB: Medication errors with oral solution Appropriate staff and equipment needed for intrathecal/epidural administration SE: N/V (anti-emetic), dizziness, changes in mood, confusion, delirium, flushing, pruritus, diaphoresis (anti-histamine) Do not use MSO4 or MS abbreviations for morphine or magnesium Do not crush, chew ER products, Kadian can be opened and sprinkle on applesauce or soft food If renal impaired, start at low dose or avoid morphine due to accumulation of parent drug or active metabolite

Question 653

Embeda

Answer 653

Morphine + naltrexone Opioid used in pain managemet BB: Medication errors with oral solution Appropriate staff and equipment needed for intrathecal/epidural administration SE: N/V (anti-emetic), dizziness, changes in mood, confusion, delirium, flushing, pruritus, diaphoresis (anti-histamine) Do not use MSO4 or MS abbreviations for morphine or magnesium Do not crush, chew ER products, Kadian can be opened and sprinkle on applesauce or soft food If renal impaired, start at low dose or avoid morphine due to accumulation of parent drug or active metabolite

Question 654

Xartemis XR

Answer 654

Oxycodone + acetaminophen Opioid used in pain managemet BB: Initiation of 3A4 inhibitors (or stopping 3A4 inducers) can cause fatal overdose Caution between oxycodone oral solution and oral concentrate (confusion between ml, mg and different concentration) Obando, OxyContin, Targiniq ER, Troxyca ER and Xtampza ER: abuse-deterrent formulation Xtampza ER capsules can be opened and mix with soft food or administered by NG tube Avoid high fat meal with higher doses (except re-formulated OxyContin) If renal impairment, start low doses or avoid oxycodone due to parent drug / active metabolite accumulation

Question 655

Oxaydo

Answer 655

Oxycodone Opioid used in pain managemet BB: Initiation of 3A4 inhibitors (or stopping 3A4 inducers) can cause fatal overdose Caution between oxycodone oral solution and oral concentrate (confusion between ml, mg and different concentration) Obando, OxyContin, Targiniq ER, Troxyca ER and Xtampza ER: abuse-deterrent formulation Xtampza ER capsules can be opened and mix with soft food or administered by NG tube Avoid high fat meal with higher doses (except re-formulated OxyContin) If renal impairment, start low doses or avoid oxycodone due to parent drug / active metabolite accumulation

Question 656

Roxicodone

Answer 656

Oxycodone Opioid used in pain managemet BB: Initiation of 3A4 inhibitors (or stopping 3A4 inducers) can cause fatal overdose Caution between oxycodone oral solution and oral concentrate (confusion between ml, mg and different concentration) Obando, OxyContin, Targiniq ER, Troxyca ER and Xtampza ER: abuse-deterrent formulation Xtampza ER capsules can be opened and mix with soft food or administered by NG tube Avoid high fat meal with higher doses (except re-formulated OxyContin) If renal impairment, start low doses or avoid oxycodone due to parent drug / active metabolite accumulation

Question 657

OxyContin

Answer 657

Oxycodone Opioid used in pain managemet BB: Initiation of 3A4 inhibitors (or stopping 3A4 inducers) can cause fatal overdose Caution between oxycodone oral solution and oral concentrate (confusion between ml, mg and different concentration) Obando, OxyContin, Targiniq ER, Troxyca ER and Xtampza ER: abuse-deterrent formulation Xtampza ER capsules can be opened and mix with soft food or administered by NG tube Avoid high fat meal with higher doses (except re-formulated OxyContin) If renal impairment, start low doses or avoid oxycodone due to parent drug / active metabolite accumulation

Question 658

Xtampza

Answer 658

Oxycodone Opioid used in pain managemet BB: Initiation of 3A4 inhibitors (or stopping 3A4 inducers) can cause fatal overdose Caution between oxycodone oral solution and oral concentrate (confusion between ml, mg and different concentration) Obando, OxyContin, Targiniq ER, Troxyca ER and Xtampza ER: abuse-deterrent formulation Xtampza ER capsules can be opened and mix with soft food or administered by NG tube Avoid high fat meal with higher doses (except re-formulated OxyContin) If renal impairment, start low doses or avoid oxycodone due to parent drug / active metabolite accumulation

Question 659

Troxyca

Answer 659

Oxycodone + naltrexone Opioid used in pain management BB: Initiation of 3A4 inhibitors (or stopping 3A4 inducers) can cause fatal overdose Caution between oxycodone oral solution and oral concentrate (confusion between ml, mg and different concentration) Obando, OxyContin, Targiniq ER, Troxyca ER and Xtampza ER: abuse-deterrent formulation Xtampza ER capsules can be opened and mix with soft food or administered by NG tube Avoid high fat meal with higher doses (except re-formulated OxyContin) If renal impairment, start low doses or avoid oxycodone due to parent drug / active metabolite accumulation

Question 660

Opana

Answer 660

Oxymorphone Opioid used in pain management Do not use with moderate-to-severe liver impairment Use low dose in elderly, renal impaired or liver impaired patients Take on empty stomach

Question 661

Narcan

Answer 661

``` Naloxone Opioid abuse agent Nasal spray acute withdrawal Sx (pain, anxiety, ↑RR) Low BA => use PO for OIC (off-label) ```

Question 662

Evzio

Answer 662

``` Naloxone Injection (auto-injector) Opioid abuse agent acute withdrawal Sx (pain, anxiety, ↑RR) Low BA => use PO for OIC (off-label) ```

Question 663

Buprenex

Answer 663

Buprenorphine Opioid abuse agent Injection BB: Belbuca, Butrans: Risk of addiction, abuse and misuse, Risk of serious fatal respiratory depression Life-threatening neonatal opioid withdrawal if prolonged used during pregnancy Accidental ingestion (children) can be fatal Warnings: CNS depression, QT prolongation SE:sedation, dizziness, HA, confusion, mental and physical impairment, diaphoresis, QT prolongation, respiratory depression Patch: nausea, HA, application site rash, dizziness, constipation, somnolence, vomiting, dry mouth Do not expose patch to heat Apply patch upper outer arm, upper chest, side of chest, upper back once weekly, do not use same site for 3 weeks Fold and flush in the toilet or disposed in special container that came with the drug If prescribe for opioid dependence, prescriber needs a drug addiction treatment act (DATA 2000) waiver, unique identification number delivered by DEA that starts with X

Question 664

Sublocade

Answer 664

Buprenorphine Opioid abuse agent Injection (monthly) BB: Belbuca, Butrans: Risk of addiction, abuse and misuse, Risk of serious fatal respiratory depression Life-threatening neonatal opioid withdrawal if prolonged used during pregnancy Accidental ingestion (children) can be fatal Warnings: CNS depression, QT prolongation SE:sedation, dizziness, HA, confusion, mental and physical impairment, diaphoresis, QT prolongation, respiratory depression Patch: nausea, HA, application site rash, dizziness, constipation, somnolence, vomiting, dry mouth Do not expose patch to heat Apply patch upper outer arm, upper chest, side of chest, upper back once weekly, do not use same site for 3 weeks Fold and flush in the toilet or disposed in special container that came with the drug If prescribe for opioid dependence, prescriber needs a drug addiction treatment act (DATA 2000) waiver, unique identification number delivered by DEA that starts with X

Question 665

Butrans

Answer 665

Buprenorphine Opioid abuse agent Patch BB: Belbuca, Butrans: Risk of addiction, abuse and misuse, Risk of serious fatal respiratory depression Life-threatening neonatal opioid withdrawal if prolonged used during pregnancy Accidental ingestion (children) can be fatal Warnings: CNS depression, QT prolongation SE:sedation, dizziness, HA, confusion, mental and physical impairment, diaphoresis, QT prolongation, respiratory depression Patch: nausea, HA, application site rash, dizziness, constipation, somnolence, vomiting, dry mouth Do not expose patch to heat Apply patch upper outer arm, upper chest, side of chest, upper back once weekly, do not use same site for 3 weeks Fold and flush in the toilet or disposed in special container that came with the drug If prescribe for opioid dependence, prescriber needs a drug addiction treatment act (DATA 2000) waiver, unique identification number delivered by DEA that starts with X

Question 666

Belbuca

Answer 666

Buprenorphine Opioid abuse agent Buccal film BB: Belbuca, Butrans: Risk of addiction, abuse and misuse, Risk of serious fatal respiratory depression Life-threatening neonatal opioid withdrawal if prolonged used during pregnancy Accidental ingestion (children) can be fatal Warnings: CNS depression, QT prolongation SE:sedation, dizziness, HA, confusion, mental and physical impairment, diaphoresis, QT prolongation, respiratory depression Patch: nausea, HA, application site rash, dizziness, constipation, somnolence, vomiting, dry mouth Do not expose patch to heat Apply patch upper outer arm, upper chest, side of chest, upper back once weekly, do not use same site for 3 weeks Fold and flush in the toilet or disposed in special container that came with the drug If prescribe for opioid dependence, prescriber needs a drug addiction treatment act (DATA 2000) waiver, unique identification number delivered by DEA that starts with X

Question 667

Bunavail

Answer 667

Buprenorphine +naloxone Opioid abuse agent Buccal film BB: Belbuca, Butrans: Risk of addiction, abuse and misuse, Risk of serious fatal respiratory depression Life-threatening neonatal opioid withdrawal if prolonged used during pregnancy Accidental ingestion (children) can be fatal Warnings: CNS depression, QT prolongation SE:sedation, dizziness, HA, confusion, mental and physical impairment, diaphoresis, QT prolongation, respiratory depression Patch: nausea, HA, application site rash, dizziness, constipation, somnolence, vomiting, dry mouth Do not expose patch to heat Apply patch upper outer arm, upper chest, side of chest, upper back once weekly, do not use same site for 3 weeks Fold and flush in the toilet or disposed in special container that came with the drug If prescribe for opioid dependence, prescriber needs a drug addiction treatment act (DATA 2000) waiver, unique identification number delivered by DEA that starts with X

Question 668

Suboxone

Answer 668

Buprenorphine + naloxone Opioid abuse agent Sublingual film BB: Belbuca, Butrans: Risk of addiction, abuse and misuse, Risk of serious fatal respiratory depression Life-threatening neonatal opioid withdrawal if prolonged used during pregnancy Accidental ingestion (children) can be fatal Warnings: CNS depression, QT prolongation SE:sedation, dizziness, HA, confusion, mental and physical impairment, diaphoresis, QT prolongation, respiratory depression Patch: nausea, HA, application site rash, dizziness, constipation, somnolence, vomiting, dry mouth Do not expose patch to heat Apply patch upper outer arm, upper chest, side of chest, upper back once weekly, do not use same site for 3 weeks Fold and flush in the toilet or disposed in special container that came with the drug If prescribe for opioid dependence, prescriber needs a drug addiction treatment act (DATA 2000) waiver, unique identification number delivered by DEA that starts with X

Question 669

Tegretol

Answer 669

Carbamazepine | Adjuvant for pain management

Question 670

Carnevix

Answer 670

Carbamazepine | Adjuvant for pain management

Question 671

Lucemyra

Answer 671

Lofexidine Opioid abuse agent Warnings: Risk of hypotension, bradycardia, syncope, QT prolongation, ↑ CNS depression, ↑ risk of opioid overdose after D/C, risk of withdrawal Sx => must taper over 2-4 days SE: Orthostatic hypotension, dizziness, dry mouth ↓ efficacy of oral naltrexone (OIC) Paroxetine and other 2D6 inhibitors ↑ risk of hypotension and bradycardia

Question 672

Zubsolv

Answer 672

Buprenorphine + naloxone Opioid abuse agent Sublingual tablet BB: Belbuca, Butrans: Risk of addiction, abuse and misuse, Risk of serious fatal respiratory depression Life-threatening neonatal opioid withdrawal if prolonged used during pregnancy Accidental ingestion (children) can be fatal Warnings: CNS depression, QT prolongation SE:sedation, dizziness, HA, confusion, mental and physical impairment, diaphoresis, QT prolongation, respiratory depression Patch: nausea, HA, application site rash, dizziness, constipation, somnolence, vomiting, dry mouth Do not expose patch to heat Apply patch upper outer arm, upper chest, side of chest, upper back once weekly, do not use same site for 3 weeks Fold and flush in the toilet or disposed in special container that came with the drug If prescribe for opioid dependence, prescriber needs a drug addiction treatment act (DATA 2000) waiver, unique identification number delivered by DEA that starts with X

Question 673

Neurontin

Answer 673

Gabapentin Adjuvant for pain management Capsule, Tablet, Solution Initial: 300 mg TID (max 3,600 mg/day) CrCl<60: ↓ dose or extend interval Warnings: Angioedema, anaphylaxis, multiorgan hypersensitivity (DRESS) reactions, suicidal thoughts, ↑ seizure frequency if rapidly D/C in pt with seizure, CNS effect SE: Somnolence, ataxia, peripheral edema, weight gain, dizziness, diplopia, blurred vision, dry mouth Commonly used of-label for fibromyalgia, neuropathic pain, drug abuse, OH withdrawal Take ER formulation with food IR, ER and gabapentin enacarbil (Horizant) are not interchangeable

Question 674

Fanatrex

Answer 674

Gabapentin Adjuvant for pain management Oral suspension (RapidPak oral supension / reconstitution valid for 8 weeks room temp) Initial: 300 mg TID (max 3,600 mg/day) CrCl<60: ↓ dose or extend interval Warnings: Angioedema, anaphylaxis, multiorgan hypersensitivity (DRESS) reactions, suicidal thoughts, ↑ seizure frequency if rapidly D/C in pt with seizure, CNS effect SE: Somnolence, ataxia, peripheral edema, weight gain, dizziness, diplopia, blurred vision, dry mouth Commonly used of-label for fibromyalgia, neuropathic pain, drug abuse, OH withdrawal Take ER formulation with food IR, ER and gabapentin enacarbil (Horizant) are not interchangeable

Question 675

Gralise

Answer 675

Gabapentin Adjuvant for pain management, indicated for PHN (post herpetic neuropathy) Initial: 300 mg TID (max 3,600 mg/day) CrCl<60: ↓ dose or extend interval Warnings: Angioedema, anaphylaxis, multiorgan hypersensitivity (DRESS) reactions, suicidal thoughts, ↑ seizure frequency if rapidly D/C in pt with seizure, CNS effect SE: Somnolence, ataxia, peripheral edema, weight gain, dizziness, diplopia, blurred vision, dry mouth Commonly used of-label for fibromyalgia, neuropathic pain, drug abuse, OH withdrawal Take ER formulation with food IR, ER and gabapentin enacarbil (Horizant) are not interchangeable

Question 676

Marinol

Answer 676

Dronabinol Cannabinoid used in CINV C-III

Question 677

Syndros

Answer 677

Dronabinol Cannabinoid used in CINV C-III

Question 678

Lyrica

Answer 678

Pregabalin (C V) Adjuvant for pain management Capsule, Solution Initial: 75 mg BID or 50 mg TID, Max 450 mg/day CrCl<60: ↓ dose or extend interval Warnings: Angioedema, multiorgan hypersensitivity (DRESS) reactions, suicidal thoughts, ↑ seizure frequency if rapidly D/C in pt with seizure, CNS effect SE: Somnolence, mild euphoria, ataxia, peripheral edema, weight gain, dizziness, diplopia, blurred vision, dry mouth Approved for fibromyalgia, PHN, neuropathic pain associated with diabetes and spinal cord injury

Question 679

Cesamet

Answer 679

Nabilone Cannabinoid used in CINV C-II

Question 680

Horizant

Answer 680

Gabapentin enacarbil Adjuvant for pain management (post-herpetic neuralgia) Also used in RLS ER formulation more expensive than IR Initial: 300 mg TID (max 3,600 mg/day) CrCl<60: ↓ dose or extend interval Warnings: Angioedema, anaphylaxis, multiorgan hypersensitivity (DRESS) reactions, suicidal thoughts, ↑ seizure frequency if rapidly D/C in pt with seizure, CNS effect SE: Somnolence, ataxia, peripheral edema, weight gain, dizziness, diplopia, blurred vision, dry mouth Commonly used of-label for fibromyalgia, neuropathic pain, drug abuse, OH withdrawal Take ER formulation with food IR, ER and gabapentin enacarbil (Horizant) are not interchangeable

Question 681

Copaxone

Answer 681

Glatiramer acetate Use in MS Pre-filled syringes 20 mg SC daily or 40 mg SC 3x per week (at least 48h apart) , If ↑ dose to 40 mg, start at least 48h after the 20 mg dose Warnings: Immediate post-injection reaction, chest pain, lipoatrophy SE: Injection site reaction (inflammation, erythema, pain, pruritus, residual mass), infection, pain, flushing, diaphoresis, dyspnea, weakness, anxiety, rash, nausea, nasopharyngitis, vasodilation, antibody development Preferred agent if tx is necessary during pregnancy Check solution for discoloration and discard if present Can be kept at room temp for up to one month, or in the fridge (preferred), if cold, let it stand at room temp for 20 min before injection

Question 682

Glatopa

Answer 682

Gatiramer acetate Used in MS Pre-filled syringes 20 mg SC daily or 40 mg SC 3x per week (at least 48h apart) , If ↑ dose to 40 mg, start at least 48h after the 20 mg dose Warnings: Immediate post-injection reaction, chest pain, lipoatrophy SE: Injection site reaction (inflammation, erythema, pain, pruritus, residual mass), infection, pain, flushing, diaphoresis, dyspnea, weakness, anxiety, rash, nausea, nasopharyngitis, vasodilation, antibody development Preferred agent if tx is necessary during pregnancy Check solution for discoloration and discard if present Can be kept at room temp for up to one month, or in the fridge (preferred), if cold, let it stand at room temp for 20 min before injectio

Question 683

Avonex

Answer 683

Interferon beta-1a Used in MS Pre-filled syringe, Powder for reconstitution 30 mcg IM weekly Warnings: Psychiatric disorders (depression/suicide), injection site necrosis, myelosuppression, ↑ LFT, thyroid dysfunction (hyper/hypo), infections, anaphylaxis, worsening cardiovascular dx, seizure risk SE: Flu-like sx following administration (lasting min to hours), ↓ with continued tx, can use acetaminophen or NSAID prior injection or start with lower dose and titrate up weekly to target dose Visual disturbance, fatigue, depression, pain, urinary tract infections, HA Monitoring: LFT, CBC (at 1, 3, and 6 months then periodically), thyroid function every 6 months (in pt with thyroid dysfunction or as clinical necessary) Refrigerate all except Betaseron and Extavia (which can be stored at room temp) If refrigerate, let stand at room temp before injection, do not expel the small air bubble in pre-filled syringe due to loss of dose Do not shake Avonex, Betaseron, Extavia Some formulations contain albumin which can ↑ the risk of Creutzfeldt-Jakob dx transmission, avoid in albumin sensitive pt

Question 684

Rebif

Answer 684

Interferon beta-1a Used in MS Pre-filled syringe, Powder for reconstitution 22 mcg or 44 mcg SC 3x/week (at least 48h apart) Warnings: Psychiatric disorders (depression/suicide), injection site necrosis, myelosuppression, ↑ LFT, thyroid dysfunction (hyper/hypo), infections, anaphylaxis, worsening cardiovascular dx, seizure risk SE: Flu-like sx following administration (lasting min to hours), ↓ with continued tx, can use acetaminophen or NSAID prior injection or start with lower dose and titrate up weekly to target dose Visual disturbance, fatigue, depression, pain, urinary tract infections, HA Monitoring: LFT, CBC (at 1, 3, and 6 months then periodically), thyroid function every 6 months (in pt with thyroid dysfunction or as clinical necessary) Refrigerate all except Betaseron and Extavia (which can be stored at room temp) If refrigerate, let stand at room temp before injection, do not expel the small air bubble in pre-filled syringe due to loss of dose Do not shake Avonex, Betaseron, Extavia Some formulations contain albumin which can ↑ the risk of Creutzfeldt-Jakob dx transmission, avoid in albumin sensitive pt

Question 685

Betaseron

Answer 685

Interferon beta-1b Used in MS Powder for reconstitution, Auto-injector SC: 0.25 mg every other day (use within 3h of reconstitution) Warnings: Psychiatric disorders (depression/suicide), injection site necrosis, myelosuppression, ↑ LFT, thyroid dysfunction (hyper/hypo), infections, anaphylaxis, worsening cardiovascular dx, seizure risk SE: Flu-like sx following administration (lasting min to hours), ↓ with continued tx, can use acetaminophen or NSAID prior injection or start with lower dose and titrate up weekly to target dose Visual disturbance, fatigue, depression, pain, urinary tract infections, HA Monitoring: LFT, CBC (at 1, 3, and 6 months then periodically), thyroid function every 6 months (in pt with thyroid dysfunction or as clinical necessary) Refrigerate all except Betaseron and Extavia (which can be stored at room temp) If refrigerate, let stand at room temp before injection, do not expel the small air bubble in pre-filled syringe due to loss of dose Do not shake Avonex, Betaseron, Extavia Some formulations contain albumin which can ↑ the risk of Creutzfeldt-Jakob dx transmission, avoid in albumin sensitive pt

Question 686

Extavia

Answer 686

Interferon beta-1b Used in MS Powder for reconstitution, Auto-injector SC: 0.25 mg every other day (use within 3h of reconstitution) Warnings: Psychiatric disorders (depression/suicide), injection site necrosis, myelosuppression, ↑ LFT, thyroid dysfunction (hyper/hypo), infections, anaphylaxis, worsening cardiovascular dx, seizure risk SE: Flu-like sx following administration (lasting min to hours), ↓ with continued tx, can use acetaminophen or NSAID prior injection or start with lower dose and titrate up weekly to target dose Visual disturbance, fatigue, depression, pain, urinary tract infections, HA Monitoring: LFT, CBC (at 1, 3, and 6 months then periodically), thyroid function every 6 months (in pt with thyroid dysfunction or as clinical necessary) Refrigerate all except Betaseron and Extavia (which can be stored at room temp) If refrigerate, let stand at room temp before injection, do not expel the small air bubble in pre-filled syringe due to loss of dose Do not shake Avonex, Betaseron, Extavia Some formulations contain albumin which can ↑ the risk of Creutzfeldt-Jakob dx transmission, avoid in albumin sensitive pt

Question 687

Plegridy

Answer 687

Peginterferon beta-1a Used in MS Prefilled syringe and pen SC: 63 mcg on day 1, 94 mcg on day 15, then 125mcg every 14 days starting on day 29 Warnings: Psychiatric disorders (depression/suicide), injection site necrosis, myelosuppression, ↑ LFT, thyroid dysfunction (hyper/hypo), infections, anaphylaxis, worsening cardiovascular dx, seizure risk SE: Flu-like sx following administration (lasting min to hours), ↓ with continued tx, can use acetaminophen or NSAID prior injection or start with lower dose and titrate up weekly to target dose Visual disturbance, fatigue, depression, pain, urinary tract infections, HA Monitoring: LFT, CBC (at 1, 3, and 6 months then periodically), thyroid function every 6 months (in pt with thyroid dysfunction or as clinical necessary) Refrigerate all except Betaseron and Extavia (which can be stored at room temp) If refrigerate, let stand at room temp before injection, do not expel the small air bubble in pre-filled syringe due to loss of dose Do not shake Avonex, Betaseron, Extavia Some formulations contain albumin which can ↑ the risk of Creutzfeldt-Jakob dx transmission, avoid in albumin sensitive pt

Question 688

Tysabri

Answer 688

Natalizumab Monoclonal antibody used in MS or IBD Injection IV

Question 689

Aubagio

Answer 689

Teriflunomide | Oral Immunomodulator used in MS

Question 690

Lemtrada

Answer 690

Alemtuzumab Recombinant human monoclonal antibody used in MS Injection IV BB: Alemtuzumab: serious, sometimes fatal autoimmune conditions, infusion reactions, malignancies, REMS program required CI: Alemtuzumab: HIV (caused prolonged ↓ in CD4+) Ocrelizumab: active HepB infection Indicated when there is an inadequate response to ≥ 2 MS drugs Complete all vaccinations 6 weeks before tx Premedicate with a steroid, an antihistamine and/or acetaminophen (varies by drug) Ocrelizumab requires a 0.22 micron in-line filter Ocrelizumab has similar safety issues as other drugs that target the CD20 (eg rituximab)

Question 691

Tecfidera

Answer 691

Dimethyl fumarate Oral immunomodulator used in MS Capsules NrF2 activator Hepatotoxicity (monitor LFT), neutropenia (reversible, but monitor CBC) Can cause flushing (prevent with aspirin 30 min before to dose and administer with food) Do not crush, chew, or sprinkle capsule contents on food

Question 692

Atrovent HFA

Answer 692

Ipratropium bromide SAMA MDI used in COPD 17 mcg/inhalation

Question 693

Combivent Respimat

Answer 693

Ipratropium bromide + albuterol SAMA + SABA MDI used in COPD 20/100 mcg per inhalation

Question 694

Ampyra

Answer 694

Dalfampridine K channel blocker used in MS to improve signal nerve conduction and walking, most pt do not respond Tablet CI in pt with Hx of seizure Takes up to 6 weeks to show efficacy, most pt do not respond

Question 695

Tudorza Pressair

Answer 695

Aclidinium LAMA used in COPD 400 mcg/inhalation

Question 696

Seebri Neohaler

Answer 696

Glycopyrrolate LAMA used in COPD DPI 15.6 mcg/inhalation

Question 697

L’inhalation Magnair

Answer 697

Glycopyrrolate LAMA used in COPD Nebulizer 25 mcg/inhalation

Question 698

Spiriva HandiHaler

Answer 698

Tiotropium LAMA used in COPD DPI 18 mcg/caps

Question 699

Spiriva Respimat

Answer 699

Tiotropium LAMA used in COPD MDI 2.5 mcg/inhalation

Question 700

Incruse Ellipta

Answer 700

Umeclidinium LAMA used in COPD DPI 62.5 mcg/inhalation

Question 701

Serevent Diskus

Answer 701

Salmeterol LABA used in COPD DPI 50 mcg/inhalation

Question 702

Perforomist

Answer 702

Formoterol LABA used in COPD Nebulizer 20 mcg/2 ml

Question 703

Brovana

Answer 703

Artformoterol LABA used in COPD Nebulizer 15 mcg/2 ml

Question 704

Arcapta Neohaler

Answer 704

Indacaterol LABA used in COPD DPI 75 mcg /caps

Question 705

Striverdi Respimat

Answer 705

Olodaterol LABA used in COPD MDI 2.5 mcg/inhalation

Question 706

Daliresp

Answer 706

Roflumilast | PDE-4 inhibitor for severe COPD always in combination with bronchodilator

Question 707

Nulojix

Answer 707

Belatacept | Maintenance immunosuppression

Question 708

Aubagio

Answer 708

Teriflunomide Oral Immunomodulator used in MS Tablets Active metabolite of leflunomide Severe hepatotoxicity and teratogenicity => CI in pregnancy and with severe hepatic Dx Can use accelerated elimination to remove drug (like leflunomide) Accelerated elimination procedures (2 options) Cholestyramine 8 mg PO TID for 11 days Activated charcoal suspension 50 g PO Q12H for 11 days

Question 709

Caduet

Answer 709

Atorvastatin + amlodipin

Question 710

Pen VK

Answer 710

Penicillin V potassium Antibiotic (natural penicillin) used in strep throat (pharyngitis) or non-purulent skin infections Tablet, Suspension 125-500 mg Q6-12H on empty stomach BB: Penicillin G benzathine: not for IV use, can cause cardiorespiratory arrest and death CI: Augmentin/Unasyn: Hx of cholestatic jaundice or hepatic dysfunction associated with previous use Severe renal impairment (CrCl<30): do not used extended-released oral forms of amoxicillin (Moxatag) and amoxicillin/clavunate (Augmentin XR) or 875 mg strength of amoxicillin/ clavunate SE: Seizures (with accumulation), GI upset, diarrhea, rash/allergic/anaphylactic reactions, hemolytic anemia, renal failure, myelosuppression with prolonged use, ↑ LFT Monitoring: Renal fct, Sx of anaphylaxis with 1st dose, CBC and LFT with prolonged use

Question 711

Pfizerpen-G

Answer 711

Penicillin G aqueous Antibiotic (natural penicillin) used in neurosyphilis Injection IV: 2-4 millions units Q4-6H BB: Penicillin G benzathine: not for IV use, can cause cardiorespiratory arrest and death CI: Augmentin/Unasyn: Hx of cholestatic jaundice or hepatic dysfunction associated with previous use Severe renal impairment (CrCl<30): do not used extended-released oral forms of amoxicillin (Moxatag) and amoxicillin/clavunate (Augmentin XR) or 875 mg strength of amoxicillin/ clavunate SE: Seizures (with accumulation), GI upset, diarrhea, rash/allergic/anaphylactic reactions, hemolytic anemia, renal failure, myelosuppression with prolonged use, ↑ LFT Monitoring: Renal fct, Sx of anaphylaxis with 1st dose, CBC and LFT with prolonged use

Question 712

Bicillin L-A

Answer 712

Penicillin G benzathine Antibiotic (natural penicillin) used in syphilis Injection IM: 1.2-2.4 million units (variable frequency) BB: Penicillin G benzathine: not for IV use, can cause cardiorespiratory arrest and death CI: Augmentin/Unasyn: Hx of cholestatic jaundice or hepatic dysfunction associated with previous use Severe renal impairment (CrCl<30): do not used extended-released oral forms of amoxicillin (Moxatag) and amoxicillin/clavunate (Augmentin XR) or 875 mg strength of amoxicillin/ clavunate SE: Seizures (with accumulation), GI upset, diarrhea, rash/allergic/anaphylactic reactions, hemolytic anemia, renal failure, myelosuppression with prolonged use, ↑ LFT Monitoring: Renal fct, Sx of anaphylaxis with 1st dose, CBC and LFT with prolonged use

Question 713

Bicillin CR

Answer 713

Penicillin G benzathine + penicillin G procaine Injection BB: Penicillin G benzathine: not for IV use, can cause cardiorespiratory arrest and death CI: Augmentin/Unasyn: Hx of cholestatic jaundice or hepatic dysfunction associated with previous use Severe renal impairment (CrCl<30): do not used extended-released oral forms of amoxicillin (Moxatag) and amoxicillin/clavunate (Augmentin XR) or 875 mg strength of amoxicillin/ clavunate SE: Seizures (with accumulation), GI upset, diarrhea, rash/allergic/anaphylactic reactions, hemolytic anemia, renal failure, myelosuppression with prolonged use, ↑ LFT Monitoring: Renal fct, Sx of anaphylaxis with 1st dose, CBC and LFT with prolonged use

Question 714

Moxatag

Answer 714

Amoxicillin Aminopenicillin Tablet, Capsule, Chewable, Suspension 24h ER = once daily BB: Penicillin G benzathine: not for IV use, can cause cardiorespiratory arrest and death CI: Augmentin/Unasyn: Hx of cholestatic jaundice or hepatic dysfunction associated with previous use Severe renal impairment (CrCl<30): do not used extended-released oral forms of amoxicillin (Moxatag) and amoxicillin/clavunate (Augmentin XR) or 875 mg strength of amoxicillin/ clavunate SE: Seizures (with accumulation), GI upset, diarrhea, rash/allergic/anaphylactic reactions, hemolytic anemia, renal failure, myelosuppression with prolonged use, ↑ LFT Monitoring: Renal fct, Sx of anaphylaxis with 1st dose, CBC and LFT with prolonged use

Question 715

Zosyn

Answer 715

Piperacillin/tazobactam Extended spectrum penicillin active against pseudomonas Injection IV: 3.375 g Q6H or 4.5 g Q6-8H BB: Penicillin G benzathine: not for IV use, can cause cardiorespiratory arrest and death CI: Augmentin/Unasyn: Hx of cholestatic jaundice or hepatic dysfunction associated with previous use Severe renal impairment (CrCl<30): do not used extended-released oral forms of amoxicillin (Moxatag) and amoxicillin/clavunate (Augmentin XR) or 875 mg strength of amoxicillin/ clavunate SE: Seizures (with accumulation), GI upset, diarrhea, rash/allergic/anaphylactic reactions, hemolytic anemia, renal failure, myelosuppression with prolonged use, ↑ LFT Monitoring: Renal fct, Sx of anaphylaxis with 1st dose, CBC and LFT with prolonged use

Question 716

Unasyn

Answer 716

Ampicillin/ sulbactam Aminopenicillin Injection IV:1.5-3 g Q6H BB: Penicillin G benzathine: not for IV use, can cause cardiorespiratory arrest and death CI: Augmentin/Unasyn: Hx of cholestatic jaundice or hepatic dysfunction associated with previous use Severe renal impairment (CrCl<30): do not used extended-released oral forms of amoxicillin (Moxatag) and amoxicillin/clavunate (Augmentin XR) or 875 mg strength of amoxicillin/ clavunate SE: Seizures (with accumulation), GI upset, diarrhea, rash/allergic/anaphylactic reactions, hemolytic anemia, renal failure, myelosuppression with prolonged use, ↑ LFT Monitoring: Renal fct, Sx of anaphylaxis with 1st dose, CBC and LFT with prolonged use

Question 717

Keflex

Answer 717

Cephalexin Cephalosporin 1st generation 250 mg – 2 grams PO Q6-12H CI: Ceftriaxone: hyperbilirubinemic neonates (biliary sludging), concurrent use with Ca-containing IV products in neonates ≤ 28 days old Warnings: Anaphylaxis/hypersensitivity reaction, Some can ↑ INR with warfarin, Cross sensitivity with PNC allergy (<10%): do not use in patients with type 1 PCN allergy (angioedema, anaphylaxis, swelling), Cefotetan: side chain (N-Methylthiotetrazole, NMTT or 1-MTT) ↑ risk of bleeding and disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol SE: Seizures (accumulation), GI upset, diarrhea, rash/allergic/anaphylactic reaction, acute interstitial nephritis, myelosuppression with LT use, ↑ LFT, drug fever Monitoring: Renal fct, Sx anaphylaxy with 1st dose, LFT, CBC

Question 718

Daxbia

Answer 718

Cephalexin Cephalosporin 1st generation 250 mg – 2 grams PO Q6-12H CI: Ceftriaxone: hyperbilirubinemic neonates (biliary sludging), concurrent use with Ca-containing IV products in neonates ≤ 28 days old Warnings: Anaphylaxis/hypersensitivity reaction, Some can ↑ INR with warfarin, Cross sensitivity with PNC allergy (<10%): do not use in patients with type 1 PCN allergy (angioedema, anaphylaxis, swelling), Cefotetan: side chain (N-Methylthiotetrazole, NMTT or 1-MTT) ↑ risk of bleeding and disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol SE: Seizures (accumulation), GI upset, diarrhea, rash/allergic/anaphylactic reaction, acute interstitial nephritis, myelosuppression with LT use, ↑ LFT, drug fever Monitoring: Renal fct, Sx anaphylaxy with 1st dose, LFT, CBC

Question 719

Augmentin

Answer 719

Amoxicillin/ clavulanate Aminopenicillin + Beta-Lactamase inhibitor Tablet, Chewable, Suspension BB: Penicillin G benzathine: not for IV use, can cause cardiorespiratory arrest and death CI: Augmentin/Unasyn: Hx of cholestatic jaundice or hepatic dysfunction associated with previous use Severe renal impairment (CrCl<30): do not used extended-released oral forms of amoxicillin (Moxatag) and amoxicillin/clavunate (Augmentin XR) or 875 mg strength of amoxicillin/ clavunate SE: Seizures (with accumulation), GI upset, diarrhea, rash/allergic/anaphylactic reactions, hemolytic anemia, renal failure, myelosuppression with prolonged use, ↑ LFT Monitoring: Renal fct, Sx of anaphylaxis with 1st dose, CBC and LFT with prolonged use

Question 720

Ceftin

Answer 720

Cefuroxime Cephalosporin 2nd generation PO / IV / IM 250 mg – 1.5 g Q8-12H CI: Ceftriaxone: hyperbilirubinemic neonates (biliary sludging), concurrent use with Ca-containing IV products in neonates ≤ 28 days old Warnings: Anaphylaxis/hypersensitivity reaction, Some can ↑ INR with warfarin, Cross sensitivity with PNC allergy (<10%): do not use in patients with type 1 PCN allergy (angioedema, anaphylaxis, swelling), Cefotetan: side chain (N-Methylthiotetrazole, NMTT or 1-MTT) ↑ risk of bleeding and disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol SE: Seizures (accumulation), GI upset, diarrhea, rash/allergic/anaphylactic reaction, acute interstitial nephritis, myelosuppression with LT use, ↑ LFT, drug fever Monitoring: Renal fct, Sx anaphylaxy with 1st dose, LFT, CBC

Question 721

Cefotan

Answer 721

Cefotetan Cephalosporin 2nd generation IV / IM 1-2 g Q12H CI: Ceftriaxone: hyperbilirubinemic neonates (biliary sludging), concurrent use with Ca-containing IV products in neonates ≤ 28 days old Warnings: Anaphylaxis/hypersensitivity reaction, Some can ↑ INR with warfarin, Cross sensitivity with PNC allergy (<10%): do not use in patients with type 1 PCN allergy (angioedema, anaphylaxis, swelling), Cefotetan: side chain (N-Methylthiotetrazole, NMTT or 1-MTT) ↑ risk of bleeding and disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol SE: Seizures (accumulation), GI upset, diarrhea, rash/allergic/anaphylactic reaction, acute interstitial nephritis, myelosuppression with LT use, ↑ LFT, drug fever Monitoring: Renal fct, Sx anaphylaxy with 1st dose, LFT, CBC

Question 722

Omnicef

Answer 722

Cefdinir Cephalosporin 3rd generation group 1 300 mg Q12H or 600 mg QD PO CI: Ceftriaxone: hyperbilirubinemic neonates (biliary sludging), concurrent use with Ca-containing IV products in neonates ≤ 28 days old Warnings: Anaphylaxis/hypersensitivity reaction, Some can ↑ INR with warfarin, Cross sensitivity with PNC allergy (<10%): do not use in patients with type 1 PCN allergy (angioedema, anaphylaxis, swelling), Cefotetan: side chain (N-Methylthiotetrazole, NMTT or 1-MTT) ↑ risk of bleeding and disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol SE: Seizures (accumulation), GI upset, diarrhea, rash/allergic/anaphylactic reaction, acute interstitial nephritis, myelosuppression with LT use, ↑ LFT, drug fever Monitoring: Renal fct, Sx anaphylaxy with 1st dose, LFT, CBC

Question 723

Spectracet

Answer 723

Cefditoren Cephalosporin 3rd generation group 1 200-400 mg PO Q12H w/ food CI: Ceftriaxone: hyperbilirubinemic neonates (biliary sludging), concurrent use with Ca-containing IV products in neonates ≤ 28 days old Warnings: Anaphylaxis/hypersensitivity reaction, Some can ↑ INR with warfarin, Cross sensitivity with PNC allergy (<10%): do not use in patients with type 1 PCN allergy (angioedema, anaphylaxis, swelling), Cefotetan: side chain (N-Methylthiotetrazole, NMTT or 1-MTT) ↑ risk of bleeding and disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol SE: Seizures (accumulation), GI upset, diarrhea, rash/allergic/anaphylactic reaction, acute interstitial nephritis, myelosuppression with LT use, ↑ LFT, drug fever Monitoring: Renal fct, Sx anaphylaxy with 1st dose, LFT, CBC

Question 724

Avycaz

Answer 724

Ceftazidime/ avibactam Cephalosporin 3rd generation group 2 CI: Ceftriaxone: hyperbilirubinemic neonates (biliary sludging), concurrent use with Ca-containing IV products in neonates ≤ 28 days old Warnings: Anaphylaxis/hypersensitivity reaction, Some can ↑ INR with warfarin, Cross sensitivity with PNC allergy (<10%): do not use in patients with type 1 PCN allergy (angioedema, anaphylaxis, swelling), Cefotetan: side chain (N-Methylthiotetrazole, NMTT or 1-MTT) ↑ risk of bleeding and disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol SE: Seizures (accumulation), GI upset, diarrhea, rash/allergic/anaphylactic reaction, acute interstitial nephritis, myelosuppression with LT use, ↑ LFT, drug fever Monitoring: Renal fct, Sx anaphylaxy with 1st dose, LFT, CBC

Question 725

Suprax

Answer 725

Cefixime Cephalosporin 3rd generation group 1 400 mg PO divided Q12-24H CI: Ceftriaxone: hyperbilirubinemic neonates (biliary sludging), concurrent use with Ca-containing IV products in neonates ≤ 28 days old Warnings: Anaphylaxis/hypersensitivity reaction, Some can ↑ INR with warfarin, Cross sensitivity with PNC allergy (<10%): do not use in patients with type 1 PCN allergy (angioedema, anaphylaxis, swelling), Cefotetan: side chain (N-Methylthiotetrazole, NMTT or 1-MTT) ↑ risk of bleeding and disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol SE: Seizures (accumulation), GI upset, diarrhea, rash/allergic/anaphylactic reaction, acute interstitial nephritis, myelosuppression with LT use, ↑ LFT, drug fever Monitoring: Renal fct, Sx anaphylaxy with 1st dose, LFT, CBC

Question 726

Teflaro

Answer 726

Ceftaroline fosamil Cephalosporin 5th generation CI: Ceftriaxone: hyperbilirubinemic neonates (biliary sludging), concurrent use with Ca-containing IV products in neonates ≤ 28 days old Warnings: Anaphylaxis/hypersensitivity reaction, Some can ↑ INR with warfarin, Cross sensitivity with PNC allergy (<10%): do not use in patients with type 1 PCN allergy (angioedema, anaphylaxis, swelling), Cefotetan: side chain (N-Methylthiotetrazole, NMTT or 1-MTT) ↑ risk of bleeding and disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol SE: Seizures (accumulation), GI upset, diarrhea, rash/allergic/anaphylactic reaction, acute interstitial nephritis, myelosuppression with LT use, ↑ LFT, drug fever Monitoring: Renal fct, Sx anaphylaxy with 1st dose, LFT, CBC

Question 727

Anoro Ellipta

Answer 727

Umeclidinium | LAMA used in COPD

Question 728

Breo Ellipta

Answer 728

Fluticasone furoate + vilanterol | ICS + LABA used in COPD

Question 729

Doribax

Answer 729

Doripenem Carbapenem IV 500 mg Q8H CI: Anaphylactic reactions to beta-lactams Warnings: CNS AE including confusion and seizures Doripenem: do not use for the tx of pneumonia (including HAP, VAP) Do not use in patients with PNC allergy (cross-reactivity reported to be as high as 50% but more recent studies show 10% SE: Diarrhea, rash/ severe skin reactions (DRESS), seizures with higher doses and in patient with impaired renal fct (mainly imipenem), bone marrow suppression with prolonged use, ↑ LFT

Question 730

Arnuity Ellipta

Answer 730

Fluticasone furoate | ICS used in asthma

Question 731

Trelegy Ellipta

Answer 731

Fluticasone furoate + umeclidinium + vilanterol | ICS+LAMA+LABA used in COPD

Question 732

Duoneb

Answer 732

Ipratropium + albuterol | SAMA+SABA used in COPD (nebulizer)

Question 733

Stiolto Respimat

Answer 733

Tiotropium + Olodaterol LAMA+LABA used in COPD

Question 734

Utibron NeoHaler

Answer 734

Glycopyrrolate + indacaterol | LAMA+LABA used in COPD

Question 735

Bevespi Aerosphere

Answer 735

Glycopyrrolate + Formoterol | LAMA+LABA used in COPD

Question 736

Monurol

Answer 736

Fosfomycin AB used in UTI 3g once

Question 737

Tybost

Answer 737

Cobicistat | Booster for HIV PI atazanavir and darunavir

Question 738

Claforan

Answer 738

Cefotaxime Cephalosporin 3rd generation group 1 used in meningitis 1-2 g IV/IM Q4-12H CI: Ceftriaxone: hyperbilirubinemic neonates (biliary sludging), concurrent use with Ca-containing IV products in neonates ≤ 28 days old Warnings: Anaphylaxis/hypersensitivity reaction, Some can ↑ INR with warfarin, Cross sensitivity with PNC allergy (<10%): do not use in patients with type 1 PCN allergy (angioedema, anaphylaxis, swelling), Cefotetan: side chain (N-Methylthiotetrazole, NMTT or 1-MTT) ↑ risk of bleeding and disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol SE: Seizures (accumulation), GI upset, diarrhea, rash/allergic/anaphylactic reaction, acute interstitial nephritis, myelosuppression with LT use, ↑ LFT, drug fever Monitoring: Renal fct, Sx anaphylaxy with 1st dose, LFT, CBC

Question 739

Zontivity

Answer 739

Vorapaxar | PAR-1 antagonist used in MI patient inhibit platelet aggregation

Question 740

Tenormin

Answer 740

Atenolol | Beta-1 sélective blocker used in HTN

Question 741

Brevibloc

Answer 741

Esmolol Beta-1 selective blocker Injection

Question 742

Lopressor

Answer 742

Metoprolol tartrate | Beta-1 selective blocker in HTN

Question 743

Toprol XL

Answer 743

Metoprolol succinate | Beta-1 selective blocker used in HTN and HF

Question 744

Brystolic

Answer 744

Nebivolol | Beta-1 selective blocker with nitric oxide-dependent vasodilation

Question 745

Corgard

Answer 745

Nadolol | Non-selective bêta-blocker

Question 746

Coreg

Answer 746

Carvedilol | Non-selective beta-blocker + alpha-1 blocker

Question 747

Ciloxin

Answer 747

Ciprofloxacin Fluoroquinolone antibiotics Eye drops

Question 748

Cetraxal

Answer 748

Cephalosporin Fluoroquinolone antibiotics Ear drop

Question 749

Cipro

Answer 749

Ciprofloxacin Fluoroquinolone antibiotics Tablet, Suspension, Injection PO: 250-750 mg Q12H, IV: 200-400 mg Q8-12H Renal adj: CrCl<30: Q18-24H BB: Tendon inflammation/rupture (often Achille tendon) within hours/days of starting or up to several months after completion of tx (↑ risk if concurrent use of systemic steroids, organ transplant patient, age > 60) => D/C immediately if Sx occur Peripheral neuropathy, can last months to years after the drug D/C and may become permanent =>D/C immediately if Sx occur, CNS effects (seizure, tremor, restlessness, confusion, hallucination, depression and suicidal thoughts, paranoia, nightmares, insomnia, ↑ intracranial pressure including pseudotumor cerebri) => use with caution in CNS disorder or drugs cause seizures, Avoid in patients with myasthenia gravis (↑ muscle weakness), Last line only for acute bacterial sinusitis, acute exacerbation of chronic bronchitis, uncomplicated UTI CI: Ciprofloxacine: concurrent association of tizanidine Warnings: QT prolongation (> moxifloxacin) => avoid in pt with known QT prolongation, or hypokalemia, other drugs with QT prolongation including class Ia and III antiarrhythmic, Hypo and hyperglycemia, Psychiatric disturbance: agitation, disorientation, lack of attention, nervousness, memory impairment, delirium, Avoid systemic quinolones in children, risk of musculoskeletal toxicity (except for anthrax where the benefit > risk), Photosensitivity / phototoxicity, hepatotoxicity, crystalluria (drink to stay hydrated) SE: N/D, HA, dizziness, serious skin reaction (SJS/TEN)

Question 750

Otiprio

Answer 750

Ciprofloxacin Fluoroquinolone antibiotics Ear drops

Question 751

Zymaxid

Answer 751

Gatifloxacin Fluoroquinolone antibiotics Eye drops

Question 752

Invanz

Answer 752

Ertapenem Carbapenem, For MDRO including ESBL 1 g QD Renal adj CrCl ≤30 CI: Anaphylactic reactions to beta-lactams Warnings: CNS AE including confusion and seizures Doripenem: do not use for the tx of pneumonia (including HAP, VAP) Do not use in patients with PNC allergy (cross-reactivity reported to be as high as 50% but more recent studies show 10% SE: Diarrhea, rash/ severe skin reactions (DRESS), seizures with higher doses and in patient with impaired renal fct (mainly imipenem), bone marrow suppression with prolonged use, ↑ LFT Ertapenem: no coverage for pseudomonas, Acinetobacter, or enterococcus (PEA) / common use: diabetic foot infection / stable in NS only

Question 753

Baxdela

Answer 753

Delafloxacin Fluoroquinolone antibiotics (active against MRSA) Tablet, Injection PO: 450 mg Q12H, IV: 300 mg Q12H Renal adj: CrCl 15-29 IV only with ↓ dose, CrCl<15 not recommended BB: Tendon inflammation/rupture (often Achille tendon) within hours/days of starting or up to several months after completion of tx (↑ risk if concurrent use of systemic steroids, organ transplant patient, age > 60) => D/C immediately if Sx occur Peripheral neuropathy, can last months to years after the drug D/C and may become permanent =>D/C immediately if Sx occur, CNS effects (seizure, tremor, restlessness, confusion, hallucination, depression and suicidal thoughts, paranoia, nightmares, insomnia, ↑ intracranial pressure including pseudotumor cerebri) => use with caution in CNS disorder or drugs cause seizures, Avoid in patients with myasthenia gravis (↑ muscle weakness), Last line only for acute bacterial sinusitis, acute exacerbation of chronic bronchitis, uncomplicated UTI CI: Ciprofloxacine: concurrent association of tizanidine Warnings: QT prolongation (> moxifloxacin) => avoid in pt with known QT prolongation, or hypokalemia, other drugs with QT prolongation including class Ia and III antiarrhythmic, Hypo and hyperglycemia, Psychiatric disturbance: agitation, disorientation, lack of attention, nervousness, memory impairment, delirium, Avoid systemic quinolones in children, risk of musculoskeletal toxicity (except for anthrax where the benefit > risk), Photosensitivity / phototoxicity, hepatotoxicity, crystalluria (drink to stay hydrated) SE: N/D, HA, dizziness, serious skin reaction (SJS/TEN)

Question 754

Factive

Answer 754

Gemifloxacin Fluoroquinolone antibiotics Tablet PO: 320 mg QD Reanl adj: CrCl≤40 BB: Tendon inflammation/rupture (often Achille tendon) within hours/days of starting or up to several months after completion of tx (↑ risk if concurrent use of systemic steroids, organ transplant patient, age > 60) => D/C immediately if Sx occur Peripheral neuropathy, can last months to years after the drug D/C and may become permanent =>D/C immediately if Sx occur, CNS effects (seizure, tremor, restlessness, confusion, hallucination, depression and suicidal thoughts, paranoia, nightmares, insomnia, ↑ intracranial pressure including pseudotumor cerebri) => use with caution in CNS disorder or drugs cause seizures, Avoid in patients with myasthenia gravis (↑ muscle weakness), Last line only for acute bacterial sinusitis, acute exacerbation of chronic bronchitis, uncomplicated UTI CI: Ciprofloxacine: concurrent association of tizanidine Warnings: QT prolongation (> moxifloxacin) => avoid in pt with known QT prolongation, or hypokalemia, other drugs with QT prolongation including class Ia and III antiarrhythmic, Hypo and hyperglycemia, Psychiatric disturbance: agitation, disorientation, lack of attention, nervousness, memory impairment, delirium, Avoid systemic quinolones in children, risk of musculoskeletal toxicity (except for anthrax where the benefit > risk), Photosensitivity / phototoxicity, hepatotoxicity, crystalluria (drink to stay hydrated) SE: N/D, HA, dizziness, serious skin reaction (SJS/TEN)

Question 755

Moxega

Answer 755

Moxifloxacin Fluoroquinolone antibiotics Eye drops

Question 756

Vigamox

Answer 756

Moxifloxacin Fluoroquinolone antibiotics Eye drops

Question 757

Avelox

Answer 757

Moxifloxacin Fluoroquinolone antibiotics Tablet, Injection PO/IV: 400 mg QD No renal adj BB: Tendon inflammation/rupture (often Achille tendon) within hours/days of starting or up to several months after completion of tx (↑ risk if concurrent use of systemic steroids, organ transplant patient, age > 60) => D/C immediately if Sx occur Peripheral neuropathy, can last months to years after the drug D/C and may become permanent =>D/C immediately if Sx occur, CNS effects (seizure, tremor, restlessness, confusion, hallucination, depression and suicidal thoughts, paranoia, nightmares, insomnia, ↑ intracranial pressure including pseudotumor cerebri) => use with caution in CNS disorder or drugs cause seizures, Avoid in patients with myasthenia gravis (↑ muscle weakness), Last line only for acute bacterial sinusitis, acute exacerbation of chronic bronchitis, uncomplicated UTI CI: Ciprofloxacine: concurrent association of tizanidine Warnings: QT prolongation (> moxifloxacin) => avoid in pt with known QT prolongation, or hypokalemia, other drugs with QT prolongation including class Ia and III antiarrhythmic, Hypo and hyperglycemia, Psychiatric disturbance: agitation, disorientation, lack of attention, nervousness, memory impairment, delirium, Avoid systemic quinolones in children, risk of musculoskeletal toxicity (except for anthrax where the benefit > risk), Photosensitivity / phototoxicity, hepatotoxicity, crystalluria (drink to stay hydrated) SE: N/D, HA, dizziness, serious skin reaction (SJS/TEN)

Question 758

Ocuflox

Answer 758

Ocuflox Fluoroquinolone antibiotics Eye drop

Question 759

Klonopin

Answer 759

Clonazepam | BZD for short term anxiety

Question 760

Tranxene-T

Answer 760

Clorazepam | BZD for anxiety

Question 761

Vistaril

Answer 761

Hydroxyzine | Antihistamine for anxiety

Question 762

Lunesta

Answer 762

Eszopiclone Non-BZD for sleep disorder C-IV

Question 763

Ativan

Answer 763

Lorazepam BZD for anxiety (elderly LOT) Also used as agitation/sedation agent in ICU BB: Used with opioid can result in sedation, respiratory depression, coma, and death CI: Acute narrow angle glaucoma, sleep apnea, severe respiratory insufficiency, severe liver dx (clonazepam, diazepam), myasthenia gravis (diazepam), not for use in infants < 6 months (diazepam oral), premature infants (lorazepam parenteral products) Warnings: Physiological dependence and tolerance develop with chronic use => do not D/C abruptly (taper slowly) CNS depression, retrograde amnesia, potential for abuse, safety risks in patients ≥ 65 yo (impaired cognition, delirium, falls/fractures), extravasation with IV use, paradoxical reaction, severe renal and hepatic impairment Pregnancy: cross placenta and cause birth defects and neonatal withdrawal syndrome SE: Somnolence, dizziness, ataxia, weakness, lightheadedness Injection formulated in propylene glycol => 1 mg/kg/day can cause propylene glycol toxicity (AKI and metabolic acidosis) Monitor BP, HR, RR, sedation scale, Sx propylene glycol toxicity (BUN, SCr, lactate, anion gap) if receiving continuous infusion, limit use for delirium C IV Diazepam: lipophilic, fast onset, long t1/2, high abuse potential Alprazolam: fast onset, often abuse due to quick action Commonly used for alcohol withdrawal syndrome: lorazepam, diazepam, chlordiazepoxide Antidote = flumazenil

Question 764

Sonata

Answer 764

Zaleplon Non-BZD for sleep disorder C-IV

Question 765

Ambien

Answer 765

Zolpidem Non-BZD for sleep disorder C-IV

Question 766

Zolpimist

Answer 766

Zolpidem Non-BZD for sleep disorder Spray C-IV

Question 767

Edluar

Answer 767

Zolpidem Non-BZD for sleep disorder C-IV

Question 768

Intermetzzo

Answer 768

Zolpidem Non-BZD for sleep disorder C-IV

Question 769

Belsomra

Answer 769

Suvorexant Orexin receptor antagonist C-IV

Question 770

Rozerem

Answer 770

Ramelteon | Melatonin receptor antagonist for sleep disorder

Question 771

Silenor

Answer 771

Doxepin | Antidepressant used in sleep disorder

Question 772

Restoril

Answer 772

Temazepam BZD for sleep disorder C-IV

Question 773

Doral

Answer 773

Quazepam BZD for sleep disorder C-IV

Question 774

Halcion

Answer 774

Triazolam BZD for sleep disorder C-IV

Question 775

Benadryl

Answer 775

Diphenhydramine | Antihistamine for sleep disorder

Question 776

Sleep Aid

Answer 776

Doxylamine | Antihistamine for sleep disorder

Question 777

Provigil

Answer 777

Modafinil Stimulant used in narcolepsy C-IV

Question 778

Nuvigil

Answer 778

Armodafinil Stimulant used in narcolepsy C-IV

Question 779

Xyrem

Answer 779

Sodium oxybate Derived from GABA used in narcolepsy with cataplexy C-III

Question 780

HyperSal

Answer 780

Hypertonic saline solution | Use in nebulizer for CF

Question 781

PulmoSal

Answer 781

Hypertonic saline solution | Used in nebulizer for CF

Question 782

Pulmozyme

Answer 782

Dornase alfa | Used in CF to thin the mucus

Question 783

Toposar

Answer 783

Etoposide IV Topoisomerase II inhibitor Poor solubility (Max 0.4 mg/ml)

Question 784

Etopophos

Answer 784

Etoposide phosphate Topoisomerase II inhibitor For concentration above 0.4 mg/ml

Question 785

VePesid

Answer 785

Etoposide capsules Topoisomerase II inhibitor IV:PO ratio 1:2 Store in the fridge

Question 786

Adrucil

Answer 786

Fluorouracil (5-FU) Pyrimidine analog antimetabolite DPD (dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase) deficiency increases toxicity

Question 787

Xeloda

Answer 787

Capecitabine Oral prodrug of fluorouracil Pyrimidine analog antimetabolite DPD (dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase) deficiency increases toxicity

Question 788

DepoCyt

Answer 788

Cytarabine liposomal | Pyrimidine analog antimetabolite

Question 789

Gemzar

Answer 789

Gemcitabine | Pyrimidine analog antimetabolite

Question 790

Alimata

Answer 790

Pemetrexed | Folate antimetabolite

Question 791

Folotyn

Answer 791

PRALAtrexate | Folate antimetabolite

Question 792

Absorica

Answer 792

Isotretinoin | Vitamin A derivative use in severe acne

Question 793

Amnesteem

Answer 793

Isotretinoin | Vitamin A derivative used for severe acne

Question 794

Claravis

Answer 794

Isotretinoin | Vitamin A derivative used for severe acne

Question 795

Myorisan

Answer 795

Isotretinoin | Vitamin A derivative used for severe acne

Question 796

Vincasar PFS

Answer 796

Vincristin Vinka alkaloid agent used in chemotherapy IV administration only (intrathecal = fatal)

Question 797

Marqibo

Answer 797

Vincristine liposomal Vinca alkaloid used in chemotherapy IV administration only (intrathecal = fatal)

Question 798

Gardasil 9

Answer 798

HPV vaccine Cervical, vaginal, oropharyngeal cancer, genital warts 2 doses before 15 yo (0; 6-12 months later) and 3 doses after 15 yo (0; 1-2; 6 months later)

Question 799

Navelbine

Answer 799

Vinorelbine Vinka alkaloid for chemotherapy IV administration only (intrathecal = fatal)

Question 800

Levaquin

Answer 800

Levofloxacine Fluoroquinolone antibiotics Tablet, Suspension, Injection, Eye drop PO/IV: 250-750 mg QD reanl adj: CrCl<50 Q48H and ↓ dose according to indication and renal fct BB: Tendon inflammation/rupture (often Achille tendon) within hours/days of starting or up to several months after completion of tx (↑ risk if concurrent use of systemic steroids, organ transplant patient, age > 60) => D/C immediately if Sx occur Peripheral neuropathy, can last months to years after the drug D/C and may become permanent =>D/C immediately if Sx occur, CNS effects (seizure, tremor, restlessness, confusion, hallucination, depression and suicidal thoughts, paranoia, nightmares, insomnia, ↑ intracranial pressure including pseudotumor cerebri) => use with caution in CNS disorder or drugs cause seizures, Avoid in patients with myasthenia gravis (↑ muscle weakness), Last line only for acute bacterial sinusitis, acute exacerbation of chronic bronchitis, uncomplicated UTI CI: Ciprofloxacine: concurrent association of tizanidine Warnings: QT prolongation (> moxifloxacin) => avoid in pt with known QT prolongation, or hypokalemia, other drugs with QT prolongation including class Ia and III antiarrhythmic, Hypo and hyperglycemia, Psychiatric disturbance: agitation, disorientation, lack of attention, nervousness, memory impairment, delirium, Avoid systemic quinolones in children, risk of musculoskeletal toxicity (except for anthrax where the benefit > risk), Photosensitivity / phototoxicity, hepatotoxicity, crystalluria (drink to stay hydrated) SE: N/D, HA, dizziness, serious skin reaction (SJS/TEN)

Question 801

Lioresal

Answer 801

Baclofen Myorelaxant (antispasmodic with analgesic effect) Tablet, injection 5-20 mg TID PRN BB: abrupt withdrawal, intratechal administration (organ failure and death) SE: excessive sedation, dizziness, confusion

Question 802

Felxmid

Answer 802

``` Cyclobenzaprine Myorelaxant (antispasmodic with analgesic effect) Tablet IR 5-10 mg TID PRN SE: dry mouth ```

Question 803

Amrix ER

Answer 803

``` Cyclobenzaprine Myorelaxant (antispasmodic with analgesic effect) Capsule ER 15-30 mg once daily SE: dry mouth ```

Question 804

Flexeril

Answer 804

``` Cyclobenzaprine Myorelaxant (antispasmodic with analgesic effect) Tablet IR 5-10 mg TID PRN SE: dry mouth ```

Question 805

Skelaxin

Answer 805

Metaxalone Myorelaxant (antispasmodic with sedative effects) 800 mg TID PRN SE: Hepatotoxic

Question 806

Zanaflex

Answer 806

``` Tizanidine Myorelaxant (antispasmodic with analgesic effect) Tablet, capsule 2-4 mg TID PRN SE: hypotension, dry mouth, weakness ```

Question 807

Robaxin

Answer 807

Methocarbamol Myorelaxant (antispasmodic with sedative effects) 1500-2000 mg QID PRN SE: hypotension

Question 808

Nitropress

Answer 808

Nitroprusside Used in acute care for uncontrolled hypertension, mixed venous and arterial vasodilation Do not use in acute MI, coronary steal (↓ blood fow in coronary arteries) BB: degradation in cyanide, excessive hypotension, must be diluted before injection (preferably in D5W) Warning: ↑ ICP SE: HA, tachycardia, thiocyanate/cyanide toxicity (> renal/hepatic impairment) Monitoring: BP (continuous), HR, renal/hepatic function, urine output , thiocyanate/ cyanide toxicity, acid-base status, venous oxygen concentration Protect from light during administration Use only clear solution, if discolored blue (cyanide degradation), do not use Nitroprusside degradation in cyanide/thiocyanate - Cyanide toxicity antidote: sodium thiosulfate - Thiocyanate toxicity antidote: hyrdroxocobalamine

Question 809

Faslodex

Answer 809

Fluvestrant SERM used in breast cancer 500 mg IM day1, day15, day29 then monthly SE: DVT/PE, menopausal symptoms, hot flashes, flushing, edema, weight gain, hypertension, mood changes, amenorrhea, vaginal bleeding/discharge Not recommended in pregnancy and breast feeding

Question 810

Fareston

Answer 810

Toremifene SERM used in breast cancer 60 mg PO QD BB: QT prolongation CI: QT prolongation, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia SE: DVT/PE, menopausal symptoms, hot flashes, flushing, edema, weight gain, hypertension, mood changes, amenorrhea, vaginal bleeding/discharge Not recommended in pregnancy and breast feeding Toremifene offers an alternative if slow 2D6 metabolizer or drug interactions

Question 811

Nipride

Answer 811

Nitroprusside Used in acute care for uncontrolled hypertension, mixed venous and arterial vasodilation, not in acute MI because coronary steal (↓ blood flow in coronary arteries) BB: Metabolism produce cyanide, excessive hypotension (BP monitoring) Must be diluted before injection (preferably in D5W) Warning: ↑ ICP SE: HA, tachycardia, thiocyanate/cyanide toxicity (> renal/ hepatic impairment) Monitoring: BP (continuous), HR, renal/hepatic function, urine output , thiocyanate/ cyanide toxicity, acid-base status, venous oxygen concentration Protect from light during administration, use only clear solution, if discolored blue (cyanide degradation), do not use Nitroprusside degradation in cyanide/thiocyanate - Cyanide toxicity antidote: sodium thiosulfate - Thiocyanate toxicity antidote: hyrdroxocobalamine

Question 812

Estrace

Answer 812

17-Beta-estradiol Topical hormone therapies or Systemic Hormone Therapies Vaginal cream or Oral tablet micronized

Question 813

Evista

Answer 813

Raloxifene SERM used for prophylaxis of breast cancer, not tx / used in Ox and Tx of postmenopausal women with osteoporosis 60 mg PO QD BB: ↑ risk of thromboembolic events such as VTE, PE, stroke CI: hx of DVT/PE, pregnancy and breast feeding SE: DVT/PE, menopausal symptoms, hot flashes, flushing, edema, weight gain, hypertension, mood changes, amenorrhea, vaginal bleeding/discharge, Muscle spams / cramps, Arthralgia, Flu Sx, Infections Not recommended in pregnancy and breast feeding Separate raloxifene and levothyroxine by several hours Discontinue 72 hours prior to and during prolonged immobilization

Question 814

Estring

Answer 814

17-Beta-estradiol Topical hormone therapies Vaginal ring

Question 815

Vagifem

Answer 815

17-Beta-estradiol Topical hormone therapies Vaginal tablet

Question 816

Imvexxy

Answer 816

17-Beta-estradiol Topical hormone therapies Vaginal insert

Question 817

Premarin

Answer 817

Conjugated equine estrogens Topical hormone therapies or Systemic Hormone Therapies Vaginal cream / Oral tablet / Injection

Question 818

Elestrin

Answer 818

Estradiol Systemic Hormone Therapies Topical gel BB: Endometrial cancer, Dementia, VTE, Breast cancer CI: Breast cancer, VTE or coagulopathy dx, Uterine bleeding, Hepatic impairment, Pregnancy Warnings: Breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Retinal vascular thrombosis, Lipid effect (↑ HDL, TG, ↓LDL) SE: Edema, Hypertension, HA, Weight gain, depression Nausea, abdominal pain

Question 819

Alora

Answer 819

Estradiol Systemic Hormone Therapies Transdermal patch BB: Endometrial cancer, Dementia, VTE, Breast cancer CI: Breast cancer, VTE or coagulopathy dx, Uterine bleeding, Hepatic impairment, Pregnancy Warnings: Breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Retinal vascular thrombosis, Lipid effect (↑ HDL, TG, ↓LDL) SE: Edema, Hypertension, HA, Weight gain, depression, Nausea, abdominal pain

Question 820

Climara

Answer 820

Estradiol Systemic Hormone Therapies Transdermal patch BB: Endometrial cancer, Dementia, VTE, Breast cancer CI: Breast cancer, VTE or coagulopathy dx, Uterine bleeding, Hepatic impairment, Pregnancy Warnings: Breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Retinal vascular thrombosis, Lipid effect (↑ HDL, TG, ↓LDL) SE: Edema, Hypertension, HA, Weight gain, depression Nausea, abdominal pain

Question 821

Vivelle-Dot

Answer 821

Estradiol Systemic Hormone Therapies Transdermal patch applied twice weekly BB: Endometrial cancer, Dementia, VTE, Breast cancer CI: Breast cancer, VTE or coagulopathy dx, Uterine bleeding, Hepatic impairment, Pregnancy Warnings: Breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Retinal vascular thrombosis, Lipid effect (↑ HDL, TG, ↓LDL) SE: Edema, Hypertension, HA, Weight gain, depression Nausea, abdominal pain

Question 822

Menostar

Answer 822

Estradiol Systemic Hormone Therapies Transdermal patch BB: Endometrial cancer, Dementia, VTE, Breast cancer CI: Breast cancer, VTE or coagulopathy dx, Uterine bleeding, Hepatic impairment, Pregnancy Warnings: Breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Retinal vascular thrombosis, Lipid effect (↑ HDL, TG, ↓LDL) SE: Edema, Hypertension, HA, Weight gain, depression, Nausea, abdominal pain

Question 823

Minivelle

Answer 823

Estradiol Systemic Hormone Therapies Transdermal patch BB: Endometrial cancer, Dementia, VTE, Breast cancer CI: Breast cancer, VTE or coagulopathy dx, Uterine bleeding, Hepatic impairment, Pregnancy Warnings: Breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Retinal vascular thrombosis, Lipid effect (↑ HDL, TG, ↓LDL) SE: Edema, Hypertension, HA, Weight gain, depression Nausea, abdominal pain

Question 824

Femring

Answer 824

Estradiol Systemic Hormone Therapies Vaginal ring BB: Endometrial cancer, Dementia, VTE, Breast cancer CI: Breast cancer, VTE or coagulopathy dx, Uterine bleeding, Hepatic impairment, Pregnancy Warnings: Breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Retinal vascular thrombosis, Lipid effect (↑ HDL, TG, ↓LDL) SE: Edema, Hypertension, HA, Weight gain, depression Nausea, abdominal pain

Question 825

Prempro

Answer 825

Conjugated equine estrogens + medroxyprogesterone Systemic Hormone Therapies Oral tablet BB: Endometrial cancer, Dementia, VTE, Breast cancer CI: Breast cancer, VTE or coagulopathy dx, Uterine bleeding, Hepatic impairment, Pregnancy Warnings: Breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Retinal vascular thrombosis, Lipid effect (↑ HDL, TG, ↓LDL) SE: Edema, Hypertension, HA, Weight gain, depression Nausea, abdominal pain

Question 826

Premphase

Answer 826

Conjugated equine estrogens + medroxyprogesterone Systemic Hormone Therapies Oral tablet BB: Endometrial cancer, Dementia, VTE, Breast cancer CI: Breast cancer, VTE or coagulopathy dx, Uterine bleeding, Hepatic impairment, Pregnancy Warnings: Breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Retinal vascular thrombosis, Lipid effect (↑ HDL, TG, ↓LDL) SE: Edema, Hypertension, HA, Weight gain, depression Nausea, abdominal pain

Question 827

Provera

Answer 827

Medroxyprogesterone Systemic Hormone Therapies Oral tablet BB: Endometrial cancer, Dementia, VTE, Breast cancer CI: Breast cancer, VTE or coagulopathy dx, Uterine bleeding, Hepatic impairment, Pregnancy Warnings: Breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Retinal vascular thrombosis, Lipid effect (↑ HDL, TG, ↓LDL) SE: Edema, Hypertension, HA, Weight gain, depression Nausea, abdominal pain

Question 828

Prometrium

Answer 828

Micronized progesterone Systemic Hormone Therapies Oral tablet BB: Endometrial cancer, Dementia, VTE, Breast cancer CI: Breast cancer, VTE or coagulopathy dx, Uterine bleeding, Hepatic impairment, Pregnancy Warnings: Breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Retinal vascular thrombosis, Lipid effect (↑ HDL, TG, ↓LDL) SE: Edema, Hypertension, HA, Weight gain, depression Nausea, abdominal pain

Question 829

Boniva injection

Answer 829

``` Ibandronic acid Bisphosphonate used in osteoporosis Injection (over 15-30 sec) Tx: 3 mg IV every 3 months CI: Hypocalcemia Warnings: See oral bisphosphonates (except GI issues), Renal impairment => monitor SCr before each injection, caution in dehydrated pt, with comorbidities, taking other nephrotoxic medications, not in CrCl < 30 SE: See oral bisphosphonate (except esophageal SE) Flu-like symptoms ```

Question 830

Miacalcin

Answer 830

Calcitonin For osteoporosis last line therapy Nasal spray: 1 spray (200 U) in one nostril QD (alternate nostril) Injection: SC/IM: 100 U QD CI: Allergy to calcitonin salmon Warnings: Hypocalcemia with tetany and seizure, Anaphylactic reaction with angioedema, Cancer with LT use, Nasal reaction => nasal exam recommended SE: Backpain, myalgia, Nausea, dizziness, Injection reaction, nose bleeding (epistaxis) Keep refrigerated (injection and unopened nasal spray)

Question 831

Forteo

Answer 831

Teriparatide PTH analogue for osteoporosis Injection SC 20 mg QD BB: Bone cancer (bone cancer) with LT use (rats studies) CI: Bone cancer or bone metabolic dx Warnings: Hypercalcemia, use carefully when urolithiasis, Orthostatic hypotension SE: Arthralgia, cramp, pain, Nausea, orthostasis, dizziness Only when high risk of fracture since LT use CI (max 2 years) Keep in the fridge, requires protection from light

Question 832

Tymlos

Answer 832

Abaloparatide PTH analogue for osteoporosis Injection SC 80 mg QD BB: Bone cancer (bone cancer) with LT use (rats studies) CI: Bone cancer or bone metabolic dx Warnings: Hypercalcemia, use carefully when urolithiasis, Orthostatic hypotension SE: Arthralgia, cramp, pain, Nausea, orthostasis, dizziness, ↑uric acid, antibody development, erythema at injection site (58%) Only when high risk of fracture since LT use CI (max 2 years) Keep in the fridge

Question 833

Prolia

Answer 833

Denosumab RANKL used in osteoporosis (last line) SC 60 mg every 6 months for postmenopausal women or men CI: Hypocalcemia (must be corrected before Tx), Pregnancy Warnings: Osteonecrosis of the jaw, Hypocalcemia, Atypical fracture, Serious infection SE: Hypertension, fatigue, edema, dyspnea, HA, N/V/D, ↓ PO4

Question 834

Norvasc

Answer 834

``` Amlodipine CCB (DHP) used in HTN Talets 2.5-10 mg QD Warnings: Hypotension (especially in patients with severe aortic stenosis); worsening angina and/or MI has occurred with initiation or dosage titration (reflex tachycardia); severe hepatic impairment (start low and titrate slowly); use caution in HF SE: Peripheral edema, flushing, HA, palpitation/tachycardia, gingival hyperplasia, dizziness, fatigue Monitoring: BP, HR, peripheral edema Amlodipine = safest for ↓ BP in HFrEF ```

Question 835

Adalat CC

Answer 835

Nifedipine ER CCB (DHP) used in HTN ER Talets 30-90 mg QD Warnings: Hypotension (especially in patients with severe aortic stenosis); worsening angina and/or MI has occurred with initiation or dosage titration (reflex tachycardia); severe hepatic impairment (start low and titrate slowly); use caution in HF SE: Peripheral edema, flushing, HA, palpitation/tachycardia, gingival hyperplasia, dizziness, fatigue Monitoring: BP, HR, peripheral edema Nifedipine ER drug of choice in pregnancy Adalat CC, Procardia XL OROS => ghost tablet

Question 836

Procardia XL

Answer 836

Nifedipine ER CCB (DHP) used in HTN ER Talets 30-90 mg QD Warnings: Hypotension (especially in patients with severe aortic stenosis); worsening angina and/or MI has occurred with initiation or dosage titration (reflex tachycardia); severe hepatic impairment (start low and titrate slowly); use caution in HF SE: Peripheral edema, flushing, HA, palpitation/tachycardia, gingival hyperplasia, dizziness, fatigue Monitoring: BP, HR, peripheral edema Nifedipine ER drug of choice in pregnancy Adalat CC, Procardia XL OROS => ghost tablet

Question 837

Afeditab CR

Answer 837

Nifedipine ER CCB (DHP) used in HTN ER Talets 30-90 mg QD Warnings: Hypotension (especially in patients with severe aortic stenosis); worsening angina and/or MI has occurred with initiation or dosage titration (reflex tachycardia); severe hepatic impairment (start low and titrate slowly); use caution in HF SE: Peripheral edema, flushing, HA, palpitation/tachycardia, gingival hyperplasia, dizziness, fatigue Monitoring: BP, HR, peripheral edema Nifedipine ER drug of choice in pregnancy Adalat CC, Procardia XL OROS => ghost tablet

Question 838

Sular

Answer 838

Nisoldipine ER CCB (DHP) used in HTN ER Talets 8.5-34 mg QD Warnings: Hypotension (especially in patients with severe aortic stenosis); worsening angina and/or MI has occurred with initiation or dosage titration (reflex tachycardia); severe hepatic impairment (start low and titrate slowly); use caution in HF SE: Peripheral edema, flushing, HA, palpitation/tachycardia, gingival hyperplasia, dizziness, fatigue Monitoring: BP, HR, peripheral edema

Question 839

Cardene IV

Answer 839

Nicardipin IV CCB (DHP) used in HTN Injection 5 mg/h, ↑ by 2.5 mg/h every 5-15 min up to max 15 mg/h Warnings: Hypotension (especially in patients with severe aortic stenosis); worsening angina and/or MI has occurred with initiation or dosage titration (reflex tachycardia); severe hepatic impairment (start low and titrate slowly); use caution in HF SE: Peripheral edema, flushing, HA, palpitation/tachycardia, gingival hyperplasia, dizziness, fatigue Monitoring: BP, HR, peripheral edema

Question 840

Cleviprex

Answer 840

Clevidipine CCB (DHP) used in HTN Injection 1-21 mg/h CI: Allergy to soybeans, soy products, or eggs; effective lipid metabolism (lipoid nephrosis, HDL with acute pancreatitis), severe aortic stenosis Warnings: Hypotension; reflex tachycardia, hypertriglyceridemia, infections SE: HA, atrial fibrillation, nausea, fever Monitoring: BP, HR Lipid emulsion (2 kcal/ml), milky-white Use strict aseptic technique, maximum time of use after vial puncture = 12h

Question 841

AndroGel

Answer 841

Testosterone gel 1%,1.62% used in hypogonadism Tx 1% applied QAM on upper arms, shoulders and abdomen 1.62% applied daily on upper arms, shoulders BB: Secondary child exposure CI: Breast cancer, breastfeeding, pregnancy, prostate cancer Warnings: Risk breast cancer, prostate cancer, priapism, gynecomastia, VTE, cardiac event, dyslipidemia, liver dx, worsen BPH SE: Appetite, Scr, sensitive nipples, acne, edema, hepatotoxicity, reduced sperm count, sleep apnea Monitoring: Testosterone, PSA, liver fct, cholesterol, hematocrit for some products

Question 842

Volgelxo

Answer 842

Testosterone gel 1% used in hypogonadism Tx QAM upper arms, shoulders BB: Secondary child exposure CI: Breast cancer, breastfeeding, pregnancy, prostate cancer Warnings: Risk breast cancer, prostate cancer, priapism, gynecomastia, VTE, cardiac event, dyslipidemia, liver dx, worsen BPH SE: ↑ Appetite, Scr, sensitive nipples, acne, edema, hepatotoxicity, reduced sperm count, sleep apnea Monitoring: Testosterone, PSA, liver fct, cholesterol, hematocrit for some products

Question 843

Testim

Answer 843

Testosterone gel 1% used in hypogonadism Tx QAM upper arms, shoulders BB: Secondary child exposure CI: Breast cancer, breastfeeding, pregnancy, prostate cancer Warnings: Risk breast cancer, prostate cancer, priapism, gynecomastia, VTE, cardiac event, dyslipidemia, liver dx, worsen BPH SE: Appetite, Scr, sensitive nipples, acne, edema, hepatotoxicity, reduced sperm count, sleep apnea Monitoring: Testosterone, PSA, liver fct, cholesterol, hematocrit for some products

Question 844

Fortesta

Answer 844

Testosterone gel 2% used in hypogonadism Tx QAM tighs BB: Secondary child exposure CI: Breast cancer, breastfeeding, pregnancy, prostate cancer Warnings: Risk breast cancer, prostate cancer, priapism, gynecomastia, VTE, cardiac event, dyslipidemia, liver dx, worsen BPH SE: Appetite, Scr, sensitive nipples, acne, edema, hepatotoxicity, reduced sperm count, sleep apnea Monitoring: Testosterone, PSA, liver fct, cholesterol, hematocrit for some products

Question 845

Natesto

Answer 845

Testosterone nasal gel used in hypogonadism Tx 1 spray per nostril TID BB: Secondary child exposure CI: Breast cancer, breastfeeding, pregnancy, prostate cancer Warnings: Risk breast cancer, prostate cancer, priapism, gynecomastia, VTE, cardiac event, dyslipidemia, liver dx, worsen BPH SE: Appetite, Scr, sensitive nipples, acne, edema, hepatotoxicity, reduced sperm count, sleep apnea, nasal irritation Monitoring: Testosterone, PSA, liver fct, cholesterol, hematocrit for some products

Question 846

Androderm

Answer 846

Testosterone transdermal patches used in hypogonadism Tx 2 mg, 4 mg: on upper arm, abdomen, thighs, back each night BB: Secondary child exposure CI: Breast cancer, breastfeeding, pregnancy, prostate cancer Warnings: Risk breast cancer, prostate cancer, priapism, gynecomastia, VTE, cardiac event, dyslipidemia, liver dx, worsen BPH SE: Appetite, Scr, sensitive nipples, acne, edema, hepatotoxicity, reduced sperm count, sleep apnea, skin irritation Monitoring: Testosterone, PSA, liver fct, cholesterol, hematocrit for some products do not apply 2x2mg to reach the 4 mg dose remove before MRI

Question 847

Striant

Answer 847

Testosterone buccal tabs used in hypogonadism Tx 30 mg BID (gum region) BB: Secondary child exposure CI: Breast cancer, breastfeeding, pregnancy, prostate cancer Warnings: Risk breast cancer, prostate cancer, priapism, gynecomastia, VTE, cardiac event, dyslipidemia, liver dx, worsen BPH SE: Appetite, Scr, sensitive nipples, acne, edema, hepatotoxicity, reduced sperm count, sleep apnea, buccal irritation Monitoring: Testosterone, PSA, liver fct, cholesterol, hematocrit for some products

Question 848

Testopel

Answer 848

Testosterone implantable pellets (SC) used in hypogonadism Tx SC every 3-6 months BB: Secondary child exposure CI: Breast cancer, breastfeeding, pregnancy, prostate cancer Warnings: Risk breast cancer, prostate cancer, priapism, gynecomastia, VTE, cardiac event, dyslipidemia, liver dx, worsen BPH SE: Appetite, Scr, sensitive nipples, acne, edema, hepatotoxicity, reduced sperm count, sleep apnea Monitoring: Testosterone, PSA, liver fct, cholesterol, hematocrit for some products

Question 849

Depo-testosterone

Answer 849

Testosterone cypionate IM injection Used in hypogonadism Tx IM every 4 weeks (2 doses) then every 10 weeks BB: Secondary child exposure CI: Breast cancer, breastfeeding, pregnancy, prostate cancer, cardiac, hepatic, renal dx Warnings: Risk breast cancer, prostate cancer, priapism, gynecomastia, VTE, cardiac event, dyslipidemia, liver dx, worsen BPH SE: Appetite, Scr, sensitive nipples, acne, edema, hepatotoxicity, reduced sperm count, sleep apnea Monitoring: Testosterone, PSA, liver fct, cholesterol, hematocrit for some products

Question 850

Aveed

Answer 850

Testosterone undecanoate IM injection Used in hypogonadism Tx IM every 2- weeks BB: Secondary child exposure, POME (pulmonary oil microembolism, life-threatening, require observation for 30 minutes after injection CI: Breast cancer, breastfeeding, pregnancy, prostate cancer, allergy to castor oil or benzyl benzoate Warnings: Risk breast cancer, prostate cancer, priapism, gynecomastia, VTE, cardiac event, dyslipidemia, liver dx, worsen BPH SE: Appetite, Scr, sensitive nipples, acne, edema, hepatotoxicity, reduced sperm count, sleep apnea Monitoring: Testosterone, PSA, liver fct, cholesterol, hematocrit for some products

Question 851

Cardizem

Answer 851

Diltiazem CCB non-DHP used in HTN Tablet (IR, ER), Capsule (ER 12h/ER 24hr), Injection 120-360 mg QD, IR: divided in 4, ER: divided BID (12h) or QD CI: Hypotension (SBP<90 mmHg) or cardiogenic shock; 2nd or 3rd degree AV block or sick sinus syndrome (unless patient has a functioning artificial pacemaker); acute MI and pulmonary congestion Warnings: Hypotension, HF (may worsen Sx), bradycardia, AV block, ↑ LFT SE: Edema, constipation, (>verapamil), gingival hyperplasia, HA, dizziness Monitoring: BP, HR. ECG, LFT IV:PO conversion 1:1

Question 852

Cartia XT

Answer 852

Diltiazem CCB non-DHP used in HTN CI: Hypotension (SBP<90 mmHg) or cardiogenic shock; 2nd or 3rd degree AV block or sick sinus syndrome (unless patient has a functioning artificial pacemaker); acute MI and pulmonary congestion Warnings: Hypotension, HF (may worsen Sx), bradycardia, AV block, ↑ LFT SE: Edema, constipation, (>verapamil), gingival hyperplasia, HA, dizziness Monitoring: BP, HR. ECG, LFT

Question 853

Calan

Answer 853

Verapamil CCB non-DHP used in HTN Tablet, Capsule, Injection 240-480 mg QD, IR: TID, SR: BID CI: Hypotension (SBP<90 mmHg) or cardiogenic shock; 2nd or 3rd degree AV block or sick sinus syndrome (unless patient has a functioning artificial pacemaker); acute MI and pulmonary congestion Warnings: Hypotension, HF (may worsen Sx), bradycardia, AV block, ↑ LFT SE: Edema, constipation (>verapamil), gingival hyperplasia, HA, dizziness Monitoring: BP, HR. ECG, LFT IV:PO conversion 1:1

Question 854

Verelan

Answer 854

Verapamil CCB non-DHP used in HTN 240-480 mg QD CI: Hypotension (SBP<90 mmHg) or cardiogenic shock; 2nd or 3rd degree AV block or sick sinus syndrome (unless patient has a functioning artificial pacemaker); acute MI and pulmonary congestion Warnings: Hypotension, HF (may worsen Sx), bradycardia, AV block, ↑ LFT SE: Edema, constipation, (>verapamil), gingival hyperplasia, HA, dizziness Monitoring: BP, HR. ECG, LFT

Question 855

Tiazac

Answer 855

Diltiazem CCB non-DHP used in HTN ER capsules 120 - 360 mg QD CI: Hypotension (SBP<90 mmHg) or cardiogenic shock; 2nd or 3rd degree AV block or sick sinus syndrome (unless patient has a functioning artificial pacemaker); acute MI and pulmonary congestion Warnings: Hypotension, HF (may worsen Sx), bradycardia, AV block, ↑ LFT SE: Edema, constipation, (>verapamil), gingival hyperplasia, HA, dizziness Monitoring: BP, HR. ECG, LFT

Question 856

Lotensin

Answer 856

Benazepril ACEI used in HTN 5-40 mg QD BB: Pregnancy (fetal injury, death when taken 2nd, 3rd trimester) CI: Hx of angioedema, With aliskiren in pt with diabetes, Within 36 hrs with entresto Warnings: Angioedema, Hyperkalemia, Hypotension, Renal impairment, Renal artery stenosis SE: Cough, Dizziness, HA, Rash Monitoring: BP, K, renal function, Sx of angioedema

Question 857

Vasotec

Answer 857

Enalapril ACEI used in HTN PO: 5-20 mg QD or BID, IV: 0.625-5 mg Q6H BB: Pregnancy (fetal injury, death when taken 2nd, 3rd trimester) CI: Hx of angioedema, With aliskiren in pt with diabetes, Within 36 hrs with entresto Warnings: Angioedema, Hyperkalemia, Hypotension, Renal impairment, Renal artery stenosis SE: Cough, Dizziness, HA, Rash Monitoring: BP, K, renal function, Sx of angioedema

Question 858

Epaned

Answer 858

Enalapril ACEI used in HTN Powder for oral solution PO: 5-20 mg QD or BID BB: Pregnancy (fetal injury, death when taken 2nd, 3rd trimester) CI: Hx of angioedema, With aliskiren in pt with diabetes, Within 36 hrs with entresto Warnings: Angioedema, Hyperkalemia, Hypotension, Renal impairment, Renal artery stenosis SE: Cough, Dizziness, HA, Rash Monitoring: BP, K, renal function, Sx of angioedema

Question 859

Prinivil

Answer 859

Lisinopril ACEI used in HTN 5-40 mg QD BB: Pregnancy (fetal injury, death when taken 2nd, 3rd trimester) CI: Hx of angioedema, With aliskiren in pt with diabetes, Within 36 hrs with entresto Warnings: Angioedema, Hyperkalemia, Hypotension, Renal impairment, Renal artery stenosis SE: Cough, Dizziness, HA, Rash Monitoring: BP, K, renal function, Sx of angioedema

Question 860

Zestril

Answer 860

Lisinopril ACEI used in HTN 5-40 mg QD BB: Pregnancy (fetal injury, death when taken 2nd, 3rd trimester) CI: Hx of angioedema, With aliskiren in pt with diabetes, Within 36 hrs with entresto Warnings: Angioedema, Hyperkalemia, Hypotension, Renal impairment, Renal artery stenosis SE: Cough, Dizziness, HA, Rash Monitoring: BP, K, renal function, Sx of angioedema

Question 861

Qbrelis

Answer 861

Lisinopril oral solution ACEI used in HTN 5-40 mg QD BB: Pregnancy (fetal injury, death when taken 2nd, 3rd trimester) CI: Hx of angioedema, With aliskiren in pt with diabetes, Within 36 hrs with entresto Warnings: Angioedema, Hyperkalemia, Hypotension, Renal impairment, Renal artery stenosis SE: Cough, Dizziness, HA, Rash Monitoring: BP, K, renal function, Sx of angioedema

Question 862

Accupril

Answer 862

Quinapril ACEI used in HTN 5-40 mg QD BB: Pregnancy (fetal injury, death when taken 2nd, 3rd trimester) CI: Hx of angioedema, With aliskiren in pt with diabetes, Within 36 hrs with entresto Warnings: Angioedema, Hyperkalemia, Hypotension, Renal impairment, Renal artery stenosis SE: Cough, Dizziness, HA, Rash Monitoring: BP, K, renal function, Sx of angioedema

Question 863

Altace

Answer 863

Ramipril ACEI used in HTN 2.5-20 mg QD BB: Pregnancy (fetal injury, death when taken 2nd, 3rd trimester) CI: Hx of angioedema, With aliskiren in pt with diabetes, Within 36 hrs with entresto Warnings: Angioedema, Hyperkalemia, Hypotension, Renal impairment, Renal artery stenosis SE: Cough, Dizziness, HA, Rash Monitoring: BP, K, renal function, Sx of angioedema

Question 864

Lipitor

Answer 864

Atorvastatin HMG-CoA reductase for hypercholesterolemia 10-80 mg CI: Liver dx, Pregnancy, breastfeeding, CYP3A4 inhibitors (Simvastatin, lovastatin), Cyclosporine (pitavastatin) Warnings: Rhabdomyolisis (higher with dose, age, inhibitors, renal impairment, hypothyroidism), Hepatotoxicity, Hyperglycemia (↑A1C, FBG) SE: Muscle pain, Diarrhea, Cognitive impairment Monitoring: LFT, Lipid panel every 3 months then every year

Question 865

Pravachol

Answer 865

Pravastatin HMG-CoA reductase for hypercholesterolemia 10-80 mg CI: Liver dx, Pregnancy, breastfeeding, CYP3A4 inhibitors (Simvastatin, lovastatin), Cyclosporine (pitavastatin) Warnings: Rhabdomyolisis (higher with dose, age, inhibitors, renal impairment, hypothyroidism), Hepatotoxicity, Hyperglycemia (↑A1C, FBG) SE: Muscle pain, Diarrhea, Cognitive impairment Monitoring: LFT, Lipid panel every 3 months then every year

Question 866

Crestor

Answer 866

Rosuvastatin HMG-CoA reductase for hypercholesterolemia 5-40 mg CI: Liver dx, Pregnancy, breastfeeding, CYP3A4 inhibitors (Simvastatin, lovastatin), Cyclosporine (pitavastatin) Warnings: Rhabdomyolisis (higher with dose, age, inhibitors, renal impairment, hypothyroidism), Hepatotoxicity, Hyperglycemia (↑A1C, FBG) SE: Muscle pain, Diarrhea, Cognitive impairment Monitoring: LFT, Lipid panel every 3 months then every year

Question 867

Zocor

Answer 867

Simvastatin HMG-CoA reductase for hypercholesterolemia 10-40 mg QPM CI: Liver dx, Pregnancy, breastfeeding, CYP3A4 inhibitors (Simvastatin, lovastatin), Cyclosporine (pitavastatin) Warnings: Rhabdomyolisis (higher with dose, age, inhibitors, renal impairment, hypothyroidism), Hepatotoxicity, Hyperglycemia (↑A1C, FBG) SE: Muscle pain, Diarrhea, Cognitive impairment Monitoring: LFT, Lipid panel every 3 months then every year

Question 868

Altoprev

Answer 868

Lovastatin HMG-CoA reductase for hypercholesterolemia 20-80 mg QPM CI: Liver dx, Pregnancy, breastfeeding, CYP3A4 inhibitors (Simvastatin, lovastatin), Cyclosporine (pitavastatin) Warnings: Rhabdomyolisis (higher with dose, age, inhibitors, renal impairment, hypothyroidism), Hepatotoxicity, Hyperglycemia (↑A1C, FBG) SE: Muscle pain, Diarrhea, Cognitive impairment Monitoring: LFT, Lipid panel every 3 months then every year

Question 869

Zetia

Answer 869

Ezetimibe Hypercholesterolemia (inhibit cholesterol absorption in the gut) 10 mg QD CI: active liver dx (including unexplained ↑ LFT), pregnancy, breastfeeding Warnings: Avoid use in moderate or severe hepatic impairment, Skeletal muscle effects (eg myopathy, rhabdomolysis), ↑ risk when used with statin SE: Myalgia, diarrhea, URTI, arthralgia, pain in extremities, sinusitis Monitoring: When used with a stain or fibrate, LFT at baseline and as clinically indicated thereafter

Question 870

Niacor

Answer 870

Niacin IR Hypercholesterolemia 250 mg with evening meal, Max 3 g QD in 3 divided doses, Titrate every week CI: Active liver dx, active PUD, arterial bleeding Warnings: Caution in patient with unstable angina or in acute phase of MI, Rhabdomyolysis with niacin ≥ 1g/day combined with statin, Hepatotoxicity SE: Flushing, pruritus, N/V/D, ↑ BG, hyperuricemia, cough, orthostatic hypotension, hypophosphatemia, ↓ platelets Monitoring: LFT baseline, every 3 months the 1st year, every 6 months thereafter, If diabetes, BG, If gout, uric acid, If warfarin, INR, Lipid profile IR poor tolerability due to flushing/itching (Niacor), CR/SR a bit less flushing but more hepatotoxic (Slo-Niacin), ER Niaspan (Niaspan) = best clinical choice but more expensive ↓ flushing by taking 325 mg of aspirin (or ibuprofen 200 mg) 30 to 60 min before niacin, take niacin with food (avoid spicy and hot beverages) Flush free niacin, niacinamide, or nicotinamide are not effective

Question 871

Niaspan

Answer 871

Niacin ER Hypercholesterolemia 500 mg before bed for 4 weeks, Max 2 g QD CI: Active liver dx, active PUD, arterial bleeding Warnings: Caution in patient with unstable angina or in acute phase of MI, Rhabdomyolysis with niacin ≥ 1g/day combined with statin, Hepatotoxicity SE: Flushing, pruritus, N/V/D, ↑ BG, hyperuricemia, cough, orthostatic hypotension, hypophosphatemia, ↓ platelets Monitoring: LFT baseline, every 3 months the 1st year, every 6 months thereafter, If diabetes, BG, If gout, uric acid, If warfarin, INR, Lipid profile IR poor tolerability due to flushing/itching (Niacor), CR/SR a bit less flushing but more hepatotoxic (Slo-Niacin), ER Niaspan (Niaspan) = best clinical choice but more expensive ↓ flushing by taking 325 mg of aspirin (or ibuprofen 200 mg) 30 to 60 min before niacin, take niacin with food (avoid spicy and hot beverages) Flush free niacin, niacinamide, or nicotinamide are not effective

Question 872

Slo-Niacin

Answer 872

Niacin CR or SR 250-750 mg QD CI: Active liver dx, active PUD, arterial bleeding Warnings: Caution in patient with unstable angina or in acute phase of MI, Rhabdomyolysis with niacin ≥ 1g/day combined with statin, Hepatotoxicity SE: Flushing, pruritus, N/V/D, ↑ BG, hyperuricemia, cough, orthostatic hypotension, hypophosphatemia, ↓ platelets Monitoring: LFT baseline, every 3 months the 1st year, every 6 months thereafter, If diabetes, BG, If gout, uric acid, If warfarin, INR, Lipid profile IR poor tolerability due to flushing/itching (Niacor), CR/SR a bit less flushing but more hepatotoxic (Slo-Niacin), ER Niaspan (Niaspan) = best clinical choice but more expensive ↓ flushing by taking 325 mg of aspirin (or ibuprofen 200 mg) 30 to 60 min before niacin, take niacin with food (avoid spicy and hot beverages) Flush free niacin, niacinamide, or nicotinamide are not effective

Question 873

Lovaza

Answer 873

Omega-3 acid ethyl ester Fish oil for hypertriglyceridemia 1 g capsule = 465 g eicosapentaenoic (EPA) acid and 375 m docosahexaenoic acid (DHA) 4 capsules QD, 2 capsules BID Warnings: Caution if known hypersensitivity to fish or shellfish, Lovaza, Epanova: ↑ LDL (monitor), Monitor LFT and LDL periodically during therapy, Possible association between Lovaza and Atrial fibrillation or flutter during the 1st month of therapy in patient with paroxysmal or persistent atrial fibrillation SE: Eructation, dyspepsia, taste perversion (Lovaza, Epanova), Arthralgia (Vascepa), Vomiting, flatulence (Epanova) Many OTC with omega-3 fatty acid but only Lovaza, Epanova, Vascepa approved by FDA in addition to diet for TG ≥ 500 mg/dl Stop before surgery, ↑ risk of bleeding

Question 874

Vascepa

Answer 874

Icosapent ethyl Fish oil for hypertriglyceridemia 0.5 or 1 g of icosapent ethyl = ethyl ester of Omega-3 fatty acid EPA 0.5 g capsules: 4 BID with food, 1g capsules: 2 BID with food Warnings: Caution if known hypersensitivity to fish or shellfish Lovaza, Epanova: ↑ LDL (monitor) Monitor LFT and LDL periodically during therapy Possible association between Lovaza and Atrial fibrillation or flutter during the 1st month of therapy in patient with paroxysmal or persistent atrial fibrillation SE: Eructation, dyspepsia, taste perversion (Lovaza, Epanova), Arthralgia (Vascepa), Vomiting, flatulence (Epanova) Many OTC with omega-3 fatty acid but only Lovaza, Epanova, Vascepa approved by FDA in addition to diet for TG ≥ 500 mg/dl Stop before surgery, ↑ risk of bleeding

Question 875

Epanova

Answer 875

Omega-3-carboxylic acids Fish oil for hypertriglyceridemia 1g capsule = 3-carboxylic acids with 850 mg of polyunsaturated fatty acid (mostly EPA +DHA) 2-4 capsules QD Warnings: Caution if known hypersensitivity to fish or shellfish Lovaza, Epanova: ↑ LDL (monitor) Monitor LFT and LDL periodically during therapy Possible association between Lovaza and Atrial fibrillation or flutter during the 1st month of therapy in patient with paroxysmal or persistent atrial fibrillation SE: Eructation, dyspepsia, taste perversion (Lovaza, Epanova), Arthralgia (Vascepa), Vomiting, flatulence (Epanova) Many OTC with omega-3 fatty acid but only Lovaza, Epanova, Vascepa approved by FDA in addition to diet for TG ≥ 500 mg/dl Stop before surgery, ↑ risk of bleeding

Question 876

Juxtapid

Answer 876

Lomitapide For HoFH (homozygous familial hypercholesterolemia) Capsule 5-60 mg QD, hepatic, renal Dx: dosage adjustment, Take whole, HS without food, at least 2hrs after your evening meal BB: Hepatotoxicity (↑ LFT, steatosis) CI: Active liver dx (unexplained ↑ LFT), moderate or sever hepatic impairment, Lomitapide: pregnancy and 3A4 inhibitors SE: N/V/D, dyspepsia, abdominal pain, constipation, flatulence, ↑ LFT, chest pain, back pain, fatigue, weight loss, influenza, nasopharyngitis, Mipomersen: injection site reaction, flu-like Sx, antibody formation Monitoring: LFT (including total bilirubin), alkaline phosphatase, lipids Lomitapide: pregnancy test before tx Hepatotoxic => available only through REMS program Interactions with 3A4, Expensive: 433,000-$440,000/year

Question 877

Kynamro

Answer 877

Mipomersen For HoFH (homozygous familial hypercholesterolemia) Prefilled syringe 200 mg SC once weekly BB: Hepatotoxicity (↑ LFT, steatosis) CI: Active liver dx (unexplained ↑ LFT), moderate or sever hepatic impairment, Lomitapide: pregnancy and 3A4 inhibitors SE: N/V/D, dyspepsia, abdominal pain, constipation, flatulence, ↑ LFT, chest pain, back pain, fatigue, weight loss, influenza, nasopharyngitis, Mipomersen: injection site reaction, flu-like Sx, antibody formation Monitoring: LFT (including total bilirubin), alkaline phosphatase, lipids Lomitapide: pregnancy test before tx Hepatotoxic => available only through REMS program Interactions with 3A4, Expensive: 433,000-$440,000/year

Question 878

Cancidas

Answer 878

Caspofungin Antifungal (Echinocandins) Injection 70 mg day one then 50 mg QD Hepatic adjustment: 70 mg IV once then 35 mg QD, No renal adj Warnings: Histamine-mediated symptoms / Allergic reactions (skin, anaphylaxis) SE: ↑ LFTs, ↑ Scr, Hypotension, ↑ K, Mg, Fever, N/V/D, Hypoglycemia, Rash, severe skin reactions Monitoring: LFTs

Question 879

Mycamine

Answer 879

Micafungin Antifungal (Echinocandins) Injection Candidemia: 100 mg IV QD, Esophageal Candidiasis: 150 mg IV QD, No renal adj Warnings: Histamine-mediated symptoms / Allergic reactions (skin, anaphylaxis) SE: ↑ LFTs, ↑ Scr, Hypotension, ↑ K, Mg, Fever, N/V/D, Hypoglycemia, Rash, severe skin reactions Monitoring: LFTs

Question 880

Ancef

Answer 880

Cefazoline Cephalosporine 1st generation 1-1.5 grams IV/IM Q8H CI: Ceftriaxone: hyperbilirubinemic neonates (biliary sludging), concurrent use with Ca-containing IV products in neonates ≤ 28 days old Warnings: Anaphylaxis/hypersensitivity reaction, Some can ↑ INR with warfarin, Cross sensitivity with PNC allergy (<10%): do not use in patients with type 1 PCN allergy (angioedema, anaphylaxis, swelling), Cefotetan: side chain (N-Methylthiotetrazole, NMTT or 1-MTT) ↑ risk of bleeding and disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol SE: Seizures (accumulation), GI upset, diarrhea, rash/allergic/anaphylactic reaction, acute interstitial nephritis, myelosuppression with LT use, ↑ LFT, drug fever Monitoring: Renal fct, Sx anaphylaxy with 1st dose, LFT, CBC

Question 881

Diflucan

Answer 881

Fluconazole Azole antifungal Tablet, Suspension, Injection 50 - 800 mg QD, Vaginal candidiasis: 150 mg PO once Warnings: Hepatotoxicity, Skin disorder (peeling) SE: ↑LFTs, QT prolongation, N/V, HA, Rash, ↑TG, ↓ Mg, HTN, Edema, Dizziness, Hair problems (loss, growth, texture change)

Question 882

Nizoral

Answer 882

Ketoconazole Azole antifungal Tablet, Cream, Foam, Gel, Shampoo 200-400 mg PO QD BB: Hepatotoxicity (Liver transplant / death), Do not use with cisapride, dofetilide, pimozide, quinidine (QT prolongation drugs and torsade de pointe), Oral tablet = last line therapy Warnings: Hepatotoxicity, Skin disorder (peeling) SE: ↑LFTs, QT prolongation, N/V, HA, Rash, ↑TG, ↓ Mg, HTN, Edema, Dizziness, Hair problems (loss, growth, texture change)

Question 883

Ketodan

Answer 883

Ketoconazole Azole antifungal BB: Hepatotoxicity (Liver transplant / death), Do not use with cisapride, dofetilide, pimozide, quinidine (QT prolongation drugs and torsade de pointe), Oral tablet = last line therapy Warnings: Hepatotoxicity, Skin disorder (peeling) SE: ↑LFTs, QT prolongation, N/V, HA, Rash, ↑TG, ↓ Mg, HTN, Edema, Dizziness, Hair problems (loss, growth, texture change)

Question 884

Extina

Answer 884

Ketoconazole Azole antifungal BB: Hepatotoxicity (Liver transplant / death), Do not use with cisapride, dofetilide, pimozide, quinidine (QT prolongation drugs and torsade de pointe), Oral tablet = last line therapy Warnings: Hepatotoxicity, Skin disorder (peeling) SE: ↑LFTs, QT prolongation, N/V, HA, Rash, ↑TG, ↓ Mg, HTN, Edema, Dizziness, Hair problems (loss, growth, texture change)

Question 885

Xolegel

Answer 885

Ketoconazole Azole antifungal BB: Hepatotoxicity (Liver transplant / death), Do not use with cisapride, dofetilide, pimozide, quinidine (QT prolongation drugs and torsade de pointe), Oral tablet = last line therapy Warnings: Hepatotoxicity, Skin disorder (peeling) SE: ↑LFTs, QT prolongation, N/V, HA, Rash, ↑TG, ↓ Mg, HTN, Edema, Dizziness, Hair problems (loss, growth, texture change)

Question 886

Sporanox

Answer 886

Itraconazole Azole antifungal Tablet, Capsules 200-400 mg PO QD BB: Not in cadio pt, Big inhibitor and QT prolongation => not with a lot of drugs Warnings: Hepatotoxicity, Skin disorder (peeling) SE: ↑LFTs, QT prolongation, N/V, HA, Rash, ↑TG, ↓ Mg, HTN, Edema, Dizziness, Hair problems (loss, growth, texture change)

Question 887

Onmel

Answer 887

Itraconazole Azole antifungal Solution BB: Not in cadio pt, Big inhibitor and QT prolongation => not with a lot of drugs Warnings: Hepatotoxicity, Skin disorder (peeling) SE: ↑LFTs, QT prolongation, N/V, HA, Rash, ↑TG, ↓ Mg, HTN, Edema, Dizziness, Hair problems (loss, growth, texture change)

Question 888

Vfend

Answer 888

Voriconazole Azole antifungal Tablet, Suspension, Injection Loading dose: 6 mg/kg Q12H (2 doses), Maintenance dose: 4 mg/kg Q12H or 400 mg PO Q12H Trough level:1-5 mcg/mL CrCl<50: PO preferred bcz less nephrotoxic (excipient of injection form)(loading dose IV maintenance dose PO) CI: Not with barbiturates, carbamazepine, efavirenz, ergot alkaloids, pimozide, quinidine, rifabutin, rifampin, ritonavir, sirolimus, St John’s wort Warnings: Hepatotoxicity, visual disturbance (optic neuritis)(caution when driving), QT prolongation, phototoxicity (avoid sunlight), skin reactions, infusion-related reaction, embryotoxcity SE: Visual change,↑ LFTs,↑ SCr, CNS toxicity (hallucination, dizziness, HA) Monitoring: LFTs, SCr, Electrolytes, Visual function, Through concentration (therapeutic range = through levels1-5 mcg/ml)

Question 889

Noxafil

Answer 889

Posaconazole Azole antifungal Tablet, Suspension, injection Suspension: 200 mg TID or 400 mg BID, Tablet: 300 mg PO BID day 1 after QD, Injection: 300 mg BID day 1 after QD CrCl<50: PO preferred bcz less nephrotoxic (excipient of injection form)(loading dose IV maintenance dose PO) CI: Sirolimus (↑sirolimus level 9x),Ergot alkaloid(higher risk of vasoconstriction), CYP3A4 substrate (Higher risk of QT prolongation): pimozide, quinidine, atorvastatin, lovastatin, simvastatin Warnings: QT prolongation SE: N/V/D, Fever,HA Monitoring: LFT, renal function, electrolytes, CBC

Question 890

Cresemba

Answer 890

Isavuconazonium Sulfate Azole antifungal for aspergillus and zygomycetes Capsules, Injection CI: Use with strong 3A4 inhibitors, inducers, familial short QT syndrome Warnings: Hepatic adverse drug reaction, infusion reaction (discontinue infusion if occurs), hypersensitivity reactions (anaphylaxis, SJS/TEN), embryofetal toxicity, drug interactions, particulates (undissolved drug) SE: N/V/D, HA, infusion reactions (hypotension, dyspnea, chills, dizziness, tingling, and numbness), peripheral edema, ↓ K, LFT Monitoring: LFT, electrolytes Require a filter (0.2-1.2 micron) during administration due to possible particulates Causes QT shortening (not prolongation) Capsules must be protected from moisture, original container has desiccant

Question 891

Vabomere

Answer 891

Meropenem/vaborbactam Carbapenem Injection IV 4 g Q8H CI: Anaphylactic reactions to beta-lactams Warnings: CNS AE including confusion and seizures Doripenem: do not use for the tx of pneumonia (including HAP, VAP) Do not use in patients with PNC allergy (cross-reactivity reported to be as high as 50% but more recent studies show 10% SE: Diarrhea, rash/ severe skin reactions (DRESS), seizures with higher doses and in patient with impaired renal fct (mainly imipenem), bone marrow suppression with prolonged use, ↑ LFT

Question 892

Garamycin

Answer 892

Gentamicin Aminoglycoside IV, IM, Ophthalmic, Topical Traditional dosing: 1-2.5 mg/kg/dose, Extended dosing: 4-7 mg/kg/dose (common 7 mg/kg/dose) Renal adj: CrCl≥60: Q8H, CrCl 40-60: Q12H, CrCl 20-40: Q24H, CrCl<20: 1X then per level BB: Nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity (hearing loss, vertigo, ataxia), Avoid use with other nephrotoxic, neurotoxic drugs, Neuromuscular blockade and respiratory paralysis, Fetal harm if given in pregnancy Warnings: Caution in renal dx, elderly and other nephrotoxic drugs (amphotericin B, cisplatin, polymyxin, cyclosporine, loop diuretics, NSAIDS, contrast dye, tacrolimus, vancomycin) SE: Nephrotoxicity (acute tubular necrosis), Hearing loss (early toxicity associated with high-pitched sounds), Vestibular toxicity (balance deficits) Monitoring: Drug level, renal function, urine output, hearing test Amikacin has the broadest spectrum of activity

Question 893

Amikin

Answer 893

Amikacin Aminoglycoside IV, IM 5-7.5 mg/kg/dose Q8H BB: Nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity (hearing loss, vertigo, ataxia), Avoid use with other nephrotoxic, neurotoxic drugs, Neuromuscular blockade and respiratory paralysis, Fetal harm if given in pregnancy Warnings: Caution in renal dx, elderly and other nephrotoxic drugs (amphotericin B, cisplatin, polymyxin, cyclosporine, loop diuretics, NSAIDS, contrast dye, tacrolimus, vancomycin) SE: Nephrotoxicity (acute tubular necrosis), Hearing loss (early toxicity associated with high-pitched sounds), Vestibular toxicity (balance deficits) Monitoring: Drug level, renal function, urine output, hearing test Amikacin has the broadest spectrum of activity

Question 894

Nebcin

Answer 894

Tobramycin Aminoglycoside IV, IM, Ophthalmic, Inhaled Traditional dosing: 1-2.5 mg/kg/dose Extended dosing: 4-7 mg/kg/dose (common 7 mg/kg/dose) Renal adj: CrCl≥60: Q8H, CrCl 40-60: Q12H, CrCl 20-40: Q24H, CrCl<20: 1X then per level BB: Nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity (hearing loss, vertigo, ataxia), Avoid use with other nephrotoxic, neurotoxic drugs, Neuromuscular blockade and respiratory paralysis, Fetal harm if given in pregnancy Warnings: Caution in renal dx, elderly and other nephrotoxic drugs (amphotericin B, cisplatin, polymyxin, cyclosporine, loop diuretics, NSAIDS, contrast dye, tacrolimus, vancomycin) SE: Nephrotoxicity (acute tubular necrosis), Hearing loss (early toxicity associated with high-pitched sounds), Vestibular toxicity (balance deficits) Monitoring: Drug level, renal function, urine output, hearing test Amikacin has the broadest spectrum of activity

Question 895

Zemdri

Answer 895

Plazomicin Aminoglycoside 15 mg/kg IV QD Renal adj: CrCl<60 BB: Nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity (hearing loss, vertigo, ataxia), Avoid use with other nephrotoxic, neurotoxic drugs, Neuromuscular blockade and respiratory paralysis, Fetal harm if given in pregnancy Warnings: Caution in renal dx, elderly and other nephrotoxic drugs (amphotericin B, cisplatin, polymyxin, cyclosporine, loop diuretics, NSAIDS, contrast dye, tacrolimus, vancomycin) SE: Nephrotoxicity (acute tubular necrosis), Hearing loss (early toxicity associated with high-pitched sounds), Vestibular toxicity (balance deficits) Monitoring: Drug level, renal function, urine output, hearing test Amikacin has the broadest spectrum of activity

Question 896

Rituxan

Answer 896

Rituximab Biologic DMARDs / NON-ANTI-TNF used in RA IV BB: Serious and fatal infusion-related reactions (usually with the 1st infusion), progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML) due to JC virus (can be fatal), serious skin reaction (SJS/TEN), hepatitis B virus reactivation, some cases resulting in fulminant hepatitis, hepatic failure and death, screen high risk groups for HBV and HCV prior initiation of therapy, monitor patients for clinical and laboratory signs (HBsAg and anti-HBc) several months Warnings: Infections, do not give with other biologic DMARDs or live vaccine SE: In patient treated for RA: infusion-related reactions, URTI, UTI, N/V/D, peripheral edema, weight gain, HTN, HA, angioedema, fever, insomnia, pain Monitoring: ECG, vitals, infusion reactions, CBC, SCr, electrolytes, screen for HBV before tx

Question 897

Kineret

Answer 897

Anakinra Biologic DMARDs / NON-ANTI-TNF used in RA SC Warnings: Malignancies and serious infections, D/C if a serious infection develops, screen for TB prior initiating therapy, do not give with other biological DMARDs or live vaccines SE: URTI, HA, N/V/D, abdominal pain, injection site reactions, antibody development, arthralgia Monitoring: CBC, SCr, signs of infections Do not shake or freeze, refrigerate and protect from light

Question 898

Orencia

Answer 898

Abatacept Biologic DMARDs / NON-ANTI-TNF used in RA IV/SC Warnings: Malignancies and serious infections, D/C if a serious infection develops, screen for TB prior initiating therapy, do not give with other biological DMARDs or live vaccines, caution in patients with COPD, may worsen sx SE: HA, nausea, injection site reactions, infections, nasopharyngitis, antibody development Monitoring: Signs of infection, hypersensitivity Stable in NS only, require a filter and light protection during administration, do not shake

Question 899

Actemra

Answer 899

Tocilizumab Biologic DMARDs / NON-ANTI-TNF used in RA IV/SC BB: Serious infection, D/C if a serious infection develops, screen for TB prior initiating therapy Warnings: ↑ LFT, neutropenia and thrombocytopenia, GI perforation, can cause demyelinating dx, hypersensitivity reactions, lipid abnormalities, do not give with other DMARDs or live vaccines SE: URTI, HA, HTN, injection-site reactions, ↑ LDL and total cholesterol Monitoring: LFT, CBC (baseline, 4-8 weeks after start of therapy, and every 3 months thereafter), lipid panel, signs of infection

Question 900

Kevzara

Answer 900

Sarilumab Biologic DMARDs / NON-ANTI-TNF used in RA SC BB: Serious infection, D/C if a serious infection develops, screen for TB prior initiating therapy Warnings: ↑ LFT, neutropenia and thrombocytopenia, GI perforation, can cause demyelinating dx, hypersensitivity reactions, lipid abnormalities, do not give with other DMARDs or live vaccines SE: URTI, HA, HTN, injection-site reactions, ↑ LDL and total cholesterol Monitoring: LFT, CBC (baseline, 4-8 weeks after start of therapy, and every 3 months thereafter), lipid panel, signs of infection

Question 901

Effexor

Answer 901

Venlafaxine SNRI used in Depression, GAD, Panic disorder, Social anxiety disorder 37.5 to 375 mg QD (max 375 mg/day for IR and 225 mg / day for ER) BB: Suicidal behavior CI: MAOI and hypertensive crisis, Do not initiate in patients receiving linezolid, methylene blue IV SE: See SSRIs SE dur to ↑ NE: ↑ HR, dilated pupils (can lead to narrow angle glaucoma), dry mouth, excessive sweating and constipation, Can affect urethral resistance => caution in patients prone to obstructive urinary disorders ↑ BP (> venlafaxine when > 150 mg/day) all have risk, especially at higher doses => ↓ dose, use antihypertensive or change therapy ↓ dose in renal impairment, do not use levomilnacipran CrCl < 15, or duloxetine CrCl < 30

Question 902

Pristiq

Answer 902

Desvenlafaxine SNRI used in Depression 50 mg QD (can ↑ to 400 mg/day but no benefit to > 50 mg) BB: Suicidal behavior CI: MAOI and hypertensive crisis, Do not initiate in patients receiving linezolid, methylene blue IV SE: See SSRIs SE due to ↑ NE: ↑ HR, dilated pupils (can lead to narrow angle glaucoma), dry mouth, excessive sweating and constipation, Can affect urethral resistance => caution in patients prone to obstructive urinary disorders ↑ BP (> venlafaxine when > 150 mg/day) all have risk, especially at higher doses => ↓ dose, use antihypertensive or change therapy ↓ dose in renal impairment, do not use levomilnacipran CrCl < 15, or duloxetine CrCl < 30

Question 903

Cymbalta

Answer 903

Duloxetine SNRI used in Depression, Peripheral neuropathy (pain), Fibromyalgia, GAD, Chronic musculoskeletal pain 40-60 mg QD (or 20-30 mg BID), max 120 mg/day but dose > 60 mg/day not more effective Do not use when CrCL < 30 ml/min BB: Suicidal behavior CI: MAOI and hypertensive crisis, Do not initiate in patients receiving linezolid, methylene blue IV SE: See SSRIs SE dur to ↑ NE: ↑ HR, dilated pupils (can lead to narrow angle glaucoma), dry mouth, excessive sweating and constipation, Can affect urethral resistance => caution in patients prone to obstructive urinary disorders ↑ BP (> venlafaxine when > 150 mg/day) all have risk, especially at higher doses => ↓ dose, use antihypertensive or change therapy ↓ dose in renal impairment, do not use levomilnacipran CrCl < 15, or duloxetine CrCl < 30

Question 904

Edarbi

Answer 904

Azilsartan ARB used in hypertension 40-80 mg QD BB: Pregnancy (fetal injury, death when taken 2nd, 3rd trimester) CI: Hx of angioedema, With aliskiren in pt with diabetes Warnings: Angioedema, Hyperkalemia, Hypotension, Renal impairment, Renal artery stenosis SE: Cough, Dizziness, HA, Rash Monitor: BP, K, renal function, Sx of angioedema

Question 905

Atacand

Answer 905

Candesartan ARB used in hypertension 8-32 mg daily in 1-2 doses BB: Pregnancy (fetal injury, death when taken 2nd, 3rd trimester) CI: Hx of angioedema, With aliskiren in pt with diabetes Warnings: Angioedema, Hyperkalemia, Hypotension, Renal impairment, Renal artery stenosis SE: Cough, Dizziness, HA, Rash Monitor: BP, K, renal function, Sx of angioedema

Question 906

Avapro

Answer 906

Irbesartan ARB used in hypertension 75-300 mg QD BB: Pregnancy (fetal injury, death when taken 2nd, 3rd trimester) CI: Hx of angioedema, With aliskiren in pt with diabetes Warnings: Angioedema, Hyperkalemia, Hypotension, Renal impairment, Renal artery stenosis SE: Cough, Dizziness, HA, Rash Monitor: BP, K, renal function, Sx of angioedema

Question 907

Cozaar

Answer 907

Losartan ARB used in hypertension 25-100 mg daily in 1-2 divided doses BB: Pregnancy (fetal injury, death when taken 2nd, 3rd trimester) CI: Hx of angioedema, With aliskiren in pt with diabetes Warnings: Angioedema, Hyperkalemia, Hypotension, Renal impairment, Renal artery stenosis SE: Cough, Dizziness, HA, Rash Monitor: BP, K, renal function, Sx of angioedema

Question 908

Benicar

Answer 908

Olmesartan ARB used in hypertension 10-40 mg QD BB: Pregnancy (fetal injury, death when taken 2nd, 3rd trimester) CI: Hx of angioedema, With aliskiren in pt with diabetes Warnings: Angioedema, Hyperkalemia, Hypotension, Renal impairment, Renal artery stenosis SE: Cough, Dizziness, HA, Rash Monitor: BP, K, renal function, Sx of angioedema Olmesartan: sprue-like enteropathy can appear long after starting Tx characterized by sever chronic diarrhea

Question 909

Micardis

Answer 909

Telmisartan ARB used in hypertension 40-80 mg QD BB: Pregnancy (fetal injury, death when taken 2nd, 3rd trimester) CI: Hx of angioedema, With aliskiren in pt with diabetes Warnings: Angioedema, Hyperkalemia, Hypotension, Renal impairment, Renal artery stenosis SE: Cough, Dizziness, HA, Rash Monitor: BP, K, renal function, Sx of angioedema

Question 910

Diovan

Answer 910

Valsartan ARB used in hypertension 80-320 mg QD BB: Pregnancy (fetal injury, death when taken 2nd, 3rd trimester) CI: Hx of angioedema, With aliskiren in pt with diabetes Warnings: Angioedema, Hyperkalemia, Hypotension, Renal impairment, Renal artery stenosis SE: Cough, Dizziness, HA, Rash Monitor: BP, K, renal function, Sx of angioedema

Question 911

Prexxartan

Answer 911

Valsartan ARB used in hypertension oral solution 80-320 mg QD BB: Pregnancy (fetal injury, death when taken 2nd, 3rd trimester) CI: Hx of angioedema, With aliskiren in pt with diabetes Warnings: Angioedema, Hyperkalemia, Hypotension, Renal impairment, Renal artery stenosis SE: Cough, Dizziness, HA, Rash Monitor: BP, K, renal function, Sx of angioedema

Question 912

Lupron depot

Answer 912

``` Leuprolide GnRH agonists (LHRH agonist) used in prostate cancer ```

Question 913

Eligard

Answer 913

``` Leuprolide GnRH agonists (LHRH agonist) used in prostate cancer ```

Question 914

Zoladex

Answer 914

``` Goserelin GnRH agonists (LHRH agonist) used in prostate cancer ```

Question 915

Supprelin LA

Answer 915

``` Histrelin GnRH agonists (LHRH agonist) used in prostate cancer ```

Question 916

Vantas

Answer 916

``` Histrelin GnRH agonists (LHRH agonist) used in prostate cancer ```

Question 917

Trelstar

Answer 917

``` Triptorelin GnRH agonists (LHRH agonist) used in prostate cancer ```

Question 918

Firmagon

Answer 918

Degarelix | GnRH antagonists used in prostate cancer

Question 919

Casodex

Answer 919

Bicalutamide | Antiandrogens 1st generation used in prostate cancer

Question 920

Nilandron

Answer 920

Nilutamide | Antiandrogens 1st generation used in prostate cancer

Question 921

Xtandi

Answer 921

Enzalutamide | Antiandrogen 2nd generation used in prostate cancer

Question 922

Zytiga

Answer 922

Abiraterone | Androgen biosynthesis inhibitors used in prostate cancer

Question 923

Ultiva

Answer 923

Remifentanil opioid analgesisc used in ICU IV injection

Question 924

Precedex

Answer 924

Dexmedetomidine Agents for agitation/sedation in ICU Warnings: Caution in patient with hepatic dx, diabetes, heart block, bradycardia, severe ventricular dysfunction, hypovolemia, chronic HTN SE: Hypo/hypertension, bradycardia, dry mouth, nausea, constipation Monitoring: BP, HR, sedation scale Does not require refrigeration Duration of infusion should not > 24h (FDA) For sedation in intubated and non intubated patients (pt are arousable, alert when stimulated, less respiratory depression than other sedatives)

Question 925

Diprivan

Answer 925

Propofol Agents for agitation/sedation in ICU CI: Hypersensitivity to eggs, egg product, soy, soy product SE: Hypotension, apnea, hypertriglyceridemia, green urine/hair/nail beds, PRIS (propofol related infusion syndrome / can be fatal), myoclonus, pancreatitis, pain (injection), QT prolongation Monitoring: BP, HR, RR, sedation scale, TG (if > 2days) Sx pancreatitis Shake well, do not use if not homogenous, use strict aseptic technique (risk of infection) and discard vial and tubing within 12hrs, if transferred to syringe prior administration, syringe must be D/C within 6h, do not use filter < 5 microns for administration Does not require refrigeration Lipid (oil in water) emulsion (1.1 kcal/d)

Question 926

Ketalar

Answer 926

Ketamine Agents for agitation/sedation in ICU Warnings: Emergence reactions (vivid dreams, hallucinations, delirium) CSF pressure ↑, respiratory depression, apnea, may cause dependence/tolerance Monitoring: BP, HR, respiratory status, emergence reaction, sedation scale Pretreatment with BZD ↓ emergence reaction by 50% NMDA receptor antagonist Used as induction for intubation

Question 927

Amidate

Answer 927

Etomidate Agents for agitation/sedation in ICU Wanings: Inhibit 11-B- hydroxylase => ↓ cortisol production for up to 24h Monitoring: Adrenal insufficiency (hypotension, hypokalemia), respiratory status, BP, HR, infusion site, sedation scale Ultra short acting agent used for induction when intubating

Question 928

Versed

Answer 928

Midazolam Agents for agitation/sedation in ICU BB: Respiratory depression, respiratory arrest, apnea, start lowest dose in debilitated patients and geriatric, do mot administer by rapid injection in neonates CI: Intrathecal and epidural administration (Benzyl alcohol in formulation), acute narrow angle glaucoma, potent 3A4 inhibitors SE: Hypotension Monitoring: BP, HR, RR, sedation scale Short action vs lorazepam if normal fct Can accumulate in obese patients (highly lipophilic) and renal impairment

Question 929

Xylocaine

Answer 929

Lidocaine Anesthetic used in ICU Local and injectable Never dual route (eg IV and topical) Lidocaine / epinephrine combination for local anesthesia only (eg IV line insertion) never inject! SE of anesthetic: Hypotension, bradycardia, N/V, ↓ body temp (shivering), Overdose => respiratory depression, Inhaled anesthetic => malignant hyperthermia (rare), Bupivacaine for epidural never IV (fatal)

Question 930

Exparel

Answer 930

Liposomal bipuvacaine Anesthetic used in ICU Local SE of anesthetic: Hypotension, bradycardia, N/V, ↓ body temp (shivering), Overdose => respiratory depression, Inhaled anesthetic => malignant hyperthermia (rare), Bupivacaine for epidural never IV (fatal)

Question 931

Suprane

Answer 931

Desflurane Anesthetic used in ICU Inhaled SE of anesthetic: Hypotension, bradycardia, N/V, ↓ body temp (shivering), Overdose => respiratory depression, Inhaled anesthetic => malignant hyperthermia (rare), Bupivacaine for epidural never IV (fatal)

Question 932

Ultane

Answer 932

Sevoflurane Anesthetic used in ICU Inhaled SE of anesthetic: Hypotension, bradycardia, N/V, ↓ body temp (shivering), Overdose => respiratory depression, Inhaled anesthetic => malignant hyperthermia (rare), Bupivacaine for epidural never IV (fatal)

Question 933

Forane

Answer 933

Isoflurane Anesthetic used in ICU Inhaled SE of anesthetic: Hypotension, bradycardia, N/V, ↓ body temp (shivering), Overdose => respiratory depression, Inhaled anesthetic => malignant hyperthermia (rare), Bupivacaine for epidural never IV (fatal)

Question 934

Marcaine

Answer 934

Bupivacaine Anesthetic used in ICU Injectable SE of anesthetic: Hypotension, bradycardia, N/V, ↓ body temp (shivering), Overdose => respiratory depression, Inhaled anesthetic => malignant hyperthermia (rare), Bupivacaine for epidural never IV (fatal)

Question 935

Sensorcaine

Answer 935

Bupivacaine Anesthetic used in ICU Injectable SE of anesthetic: Hypotension, bradycardia, N/V, ↓ body temp (shivering), Overdose => respiratory depression, Inhaled anesthetic => malignant hyperthermia (rare), Bupivacaine for epidural never IV (fatal)

Question 936

Naropin

Answer 936

Ropivacaine Anesthetic used in ICU Injectable SE of anesthetic: Hypotension, bradycardia, N/V, ↓ body temp (shivering), Overdose => respiratory depression, Inhaled anesthetic => malignant hyperthermia (rare), Bupivacaine for epidural never IV (fatal)

Question 937

Quelicin

Answer 937

Succinylcholine Depolarizing Neuromuscular blocking agents Auxiliary label: WARNING, PARALYZING AGENT (should be kept separate from other injectables to prevent mistake) Patients receiving NMBA are unable to breath, cough, move, blink => special cares like protect the skin, lubricate eyes, airway suction frequently to clear secretion / glycopyrrolate (Robinul) anticholinergic that ↓secretion paralyze skeletal muscle including respiratory muscles => must be mechanically ventilated

Question 938

Anectine

Answer 938

Succinylcholine Depolarizing Neuromuscular blocking agents Auxiliary label: WARNING, PARALYZING AGENT (should be kept separate from other injectables to prevent mistake) Patients receiving NMBA are unable to breath, cough, move, blink => special cares like protect the skin, lubricate eyes, airway suction frequently to clear secretion / glycopyrrolate (Robinul) anticholinergic that ↓secretion paralyze skeletal muscle including respiratory muscles => must be mechanically ventilated

Question 939

Nimbex

Answer 939

Cisatracurium Non-depolarizing Neuromuscular blocking agents Auxiliary label: WARNING, PARALYZING AGENT (should be kept separate from other injectables to prevent mistake) Patients receiving NMBA are unable to breath, cough, move, blink => special cares like protect the skin, lubricate eyes, airway suction frequently to clear secretion / glycopyrrolate (Robinul) anticholinergic that ↓secretion paralyze skeletal muscle including respiratory muscles => must be mechanically ventilated Short t1/2, intermediate acting, metabolize by Hofmann elimination (indepdt of renal and hepatic fcts)

Question 940

Zemuron

Answer 940

Rocuronium Non-depolarizing Neuromuscular blocking agents Auxiliary label: WARNING, PARALYZING AGENT (should be kept separate from other injectables to prevent mistake) Patients receiving NMBA are unable to breath, cough, move, blink => special cares like protect the skin, lubricate eyes, airway suction frequently to clear secretion / glycopyrrolate (Robinul) anticholinergic that ↓secretion paralyze skeletal muscle including respiratory muscles => must be mechanically ventilated

Question 941

Amicar

Answer 941

Aminocaproic acid Hemostatic agents used in ICU Tablet, Solution, Injection

Question 942

Cyklokapron

Answer 942

Tranexamic acid Hemostatic agents used in ICU Injection CI: IV: acquired defective color vision, active clotting, subarachnoid hemorrhage Oral: thromboembolic dx, combination hormonal contraception SE: IV: vascular occlusion, thrombosis Oral: retinal clotting Lysteda approved for Menorrhagia (heavy menstruation) Injection is approved for bleeding with hemophilia but often use off-label for surgical bleeding

Question 943

Lysteda

Answer 943

Tranexamic acid Hemostatic agents used in ICU Tablet CI: IV: acquired defective color vision, active clotting, subarachnoid hemorrhage Oral: thromboembolic dx, combination hormonal contraception SE: IV: vascular occlusion, thrombosis Oral: retinal clotting Lysteda approved for Menorrhagia (heavy menstruation) Injection is approved for bleeding with hemophilia but often use off-label for surgical bleeding

Question 944

NovoSeven RT

Answer 944

Recombinant Factor VIIa Hemostatic agents used in ICU Injection

Question 945

Nuvaring

Answer 945

Combined Hormonal Contraceptives (CHC) Vaginal ring Inserted once a month in the vagina (small flexible ring) Inserted for 3 weeks and 1 week off (sometimes for 4 weeks to avoid menses) If ring expelled or removed During week 1-2: if > 3 hrs, rinse and reinsert + back up for 7 days During week 3: discard and use a new ring + back up for 7 days Store at room temperature for 4 months (in the fridge at the pharmacy)

Question 946

Annovera

Answer 946

Combined Hormonal Contraceptives (CHC) Vaginal ring Inserted once a month in the vagina (small flexible ring) Inserted 3 weeks and remove for 1 week (reusable for 1 year) Wash and store in case

Question 947

Xulane

Answer 947

Combined Hormonal Contraceptives (CHC) Patch Buttock, stomach, upper arm, upper torso (not breast) once a week for 21 days ( 3 patches by cycle) / 7 days off If patch loose or fall off for more than 24 hrs, use back up contraception method for 7 days (idem if you forget to apply new patch after 7 days) Start on Day 1 (no back up) or Sunday (back up for 7 days) Less effective when > 198 pounds Same CI, SE than pill with higher systemic estrogen exposure => do not use if clot risk factor or smoking or > 35 yo

Question 948

Amethyst

Answer 948

``` Continuous contraception (COC) Taken continuously, no period, no placebo ```

Question 949

Amethia

Answer 949

Combination Oral Contraception (COC) Extended Cycle = period very 3 months 84 days active pill + 7 low dose estrogen

Question 950

Camrese Lo

Answer 950

Combination Oral Contraception (COC) Extended Cycle = period very 3 months 84 days active pill + 7 low dose estrogen

Question 951

Camrese

Answer 951

Combination Oral Contraception (COC) Extended Cycle = period very 3 months 84 days active pill + 7 low dose estrogen

Question 952

Seasonique

Answer 952

Combination Oral Contraception (COC) Extended Cycle = period very 3 months 84 days active pill + 7 low dose estrogen

Question 953

Jolessa

Answer 953

Combination Oral Contraception (COC) Extended Cycle = period very 3 months 84 days active pill + 7 placebo

Question 954

Nora-Be

Answer 954

Norethindrone Pill Also called mini-pill, 28 days of progestin (no estrogens), Should be taken in a window of 3 hrs schedule to be efficient, Usually for women breastfeeding (estrogen inhibits lactation) Can be started 3-6 weeks after delivery (estrogen cannot be started so soon due to the increased risk of clot), Can also be used in women intolerant to estrogen or when estrogen CI

Question 955

Camilla

Answer 955

Norethindrone Pill Also called mini-pill, 28 days of progestin (no estrogens), Should be taken in a window of 3 hrs schedule to be efficient, Usually for women breastfeeding (estrogen inhibits lactation) Can be started 3-6 weeks after delivery (estrogen cannot be started so soon due to the increased risk of clot), Can also be used in women intolerant to estrogen or when estrogen CI

Question 956

Erin

Answer 956

Norethindrone Pill Also called mini-pill, 28 days of progestin (no estrogens), Should be taken in a window of 3 hrs schedule to be efficient, Usually for women breastfeeding (estrogen inhibits lactation) Can be started 3-6 weeks after delivery (estrogen cannot be started so soon due to the increased risk of clot), Can also be used in women intolerant to estrogen or when estrogen CI

Question 957

Mirena

Answer 957

IUD with hormone (lighter bleeding/no cramping) Up to 5 years For heavy menses

Question 958

Kyleena

Answer 958

IUD with hormone (lighter bleeding/no cramping) | Up to 5 years

Question 959

Skyla

Answer 959

IUD with hormone (lighter bleeding/no cramping) | Up to 3 years

Question 960

Liletta

Answer 960

IUD with hormone (lighter bleeding/no cramping) | Up to 3 years

Question 961

Paragard

Answer 961

Copper-T UID (non hormonal method) For EC or normal contraception Up to 10 years but heavy menses and cramping

Question 962

Nexplanon

Answer 962

``` Implant, Plastic rod placed subdermally Release progestin (etonogestrel) for 3 years ```

Question 963

Zestoretic

Answer 963

Lisinopril + HCTZ | blood pressure drug

Question 964

Hyzaar

Answer 964

Losartan + HCTZ | Blood pressure drugs

Question 965

Lotrel

Answer 965

Benazepril + amlodipine | Blood pressure drug

Question 966

Exforge

Answer 966

Valsartan + amlodipine | Blood pressure drug

Question 967

Tenoretic

Answer 967

Atenolol + chlorthalidone | Blood pressure drug

Question 968

Ziac

Answer 968

Bisoprolol + HCTZ | Blood pressure drug

Question 969

Maxzide

Answer 969

Triamterene + HCTZ | Blood pressure drug

Question 970

Diazide

Answer 970

Triamterene + HCTZ | Blood pressure drug

Question 971

Soma

Answer 971

Carisoprodol Myorelaxant (antispasmodic with sedative activity) C-IV 250-350 mg QID PRN Metabolize by 2C19 / active metabolite = meprobamate

Question 972

Zerbaxa

Answer 972

Ceftolozam/ tazobactam Cephalosporin 3rd generation group 2 1.5 g IV Q8H CI: Ceftriaxone: hyperbilirubinemic neonates (biliary sludging), concurrent use with Ca-containing IV products in neonates ≤ 28 days old Warnings: Anaphylaxis/hypersensitivity reaction, Some can ↑ INR with warfarin, Cross sensitivity with PNC allergy (<10%): do not use in patients with type 1 PCN allergy (angioedema, anaphylaxis, swelling), Cefotetan: side chain (N-Methylthiotetrazole, NMTT or 1-MTT) ↑ risk of bleeding and disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol SE: Seizures (accumulation), GI upset, diarrhea, rash/allergic/anaphylactic reaction, acute interstitial nephritis, myelosuppression with LT use, ↑ LFT, drug fever Monitoring: Renal fct, Sx anaphylaxy with 1st dose, LFT, CBC

Question 973

Westhroid

Answer 973

Thyroid desiccated USP

Question 974

Cytomel

Answer 974

Liothyronine

Question 975

Stribild

Answer 975

Elvitegravir + cobicistat + emtricitabine + tenofovir disoproxil fumarate

Question 976

Valtrex

Answer 976

Valacyclovir Antiviral agent used in Herpes labialis, genital herpes and shingles Safety: TTP/HUS in immunocompromised PTs Nephrotoxic (>acyclovir) Seizure, high LFTs, SCr, BUN, neutropenia

Question 977

Relenza

Answer 977

``` Zanamivir Influenza Tx and Px Neuraminidase inhibitor (Diskhaler) Tx from 7 yo: 10 mg BID for 5 days Px from 5 yo: 10 mg QD for 10 days (28 days community acquired) ```

Question 978

Zembrace Symtouch

Answer 978

Sumatriptan | Pen SC injection

Question 979

Amerge

Answer 979

Naratriptan Triptan used in migraine (5 HT1 agonist) Tablet 1-2.5 mg can be repeated after 4 hrs, Max 5 mg / day CI: cerebrovascular dx, uncontrolled hypertension, ischemic heart dx, within 24 hrs other Triptan or ergotamine product Warning: BP higher, serotonin syndrome SE: paresthesia, Triptan sensation

Question 980

Bevyxxa

Answer 980

Betrixaban OAC DVT PX (only one) inpatient only

Question 981

Sinemet

Answer 981

Carbidopa/ levodopa

Question 982

Pylera

Answer 982

Bismuth subcitrate potassium + metronidazole + tetracycline

Question 983

Aciphex

Answer 983

Rabeprazole PPI Tablet (Rx), Capsule sprinkle (Rx) 20 mg QD w/o regard a meal for tab, 30 minutes before meal for caps sprinkles Warnings: C.diff, osteoporosis, hypomagnesemia, vit B12 deficiency (LT), DILE SE: HA, N/D Beers criteria: Max 8 weeks in elderly unless clear indication (high risk due to chronic use of NSAIDs)

Question 984

Istalol

Answer 984

Timolol

Question 985

Trogarzo

Answer 985

Ibalizumab-ulyk HIV / CD4-directed post attachment HIV-1 inhibitor (Block entry of HIV into host cells by binding to CD4 without immunosuppression, last line therapy when everything else failed) Injection LD: 200 mg BID IV once, MD: 800 mg / 250 ml NS IV every 2 weeks Warning: Risk of immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS) SE: Infusion-related reactions, diarrhea, dizziness, nausea, rash Observed patient for infusion-related reaction for 1h after the 1st infusion

Question 986

Relpax

Answer 986

Eletriptan CI: cerebrovascular dx, uncontrolled hypertension, ischemic heart dx, within 24 hrs other Tristan or ergotamine product Warning: BP higher, serotonin syndrome SE: paresthesia, Triptan sensation

Question 987

Axert

Answer 987

Almotriptan 6.25-12.5 mg repeat after 2 hrs (Max 25 mg/day) >=12 yo CI: cerebrovascular dx, uncontrolled hypertension, ischemic heart dx, within 24 hrs other Tristan or ergotamine product Warning: BP higher, serotonin syndrome SE: paresthesia, Triptan sensation

Question 988

Atelvia

Answer 988

Risedronic acid BIisphosphonate used in osteoporosis DR tablet Px: 5 mg QD, 35 mg weekly, 75 mg 2x/month, 150 mg monthly / Tx: 35 mg weekly / steroid-induced: 5 mg QD 30 minutes after breakfast (need acidic pH for absorption => no stomach medication) CI: Inability to stand upright for 30 min, Abnormalities of esophagus, Difficulty swallowing, Hypocalcemia Warnings: Osteonecrosis of the Jaw (ONJ) (> Dental procedure, hygiene, cancer, chemotherapy, Steroids), Atypical femur fracture, Bone, joint, muscle pain, Esophagitis to esophageal perforation (instructions for administration), Hypocalcemia, Renal impairment (CrCl < 30 not recommended) SE: Hypocalcemia, hypophosphatemia, Dyspepsia, heartburn, N/V, abdominal pain, Muscle pain, rash, hypertension, HA, UTI, infection

Question 989

Actos

Answer 989

Pioglitazone TZD used in diabetes 15-30 mg QD (Max 45 mg QD) with or without meals Heart failure: 15 mg (NYHA class I/II) and CI (NYHA class III/IV) BB: Heart failure, Rosiglitazone: risk of MI CI: NYHA Class III/IV heart failure Warnings: Hepatic failure, edema, fracture, Unwanted pregnancy in premenopausal women => contraception recommended, Pioglitazone: bladder cancer risk SE: Peripheral edema, weight gain, URTI, myalgia Pioglitazone: ↑ HDL, ↓TG, ↓ total cholesterol Monitoring: BG, A1C, Sx of HF, LFT

Question 990

Alesse

Answer 990

levonorgestrel and ethinyl estradiol contracetpive hormone pink tablet 21 days / green tablets 7 days, start within the 5 first days of menses if not back-up for 7 days BB: Do not use > 35 yo smoking (serious cardiovascular events), Hx of VTE, STROKE, ACS, thrombosis, hypercoagulopathy, Breast, ovarian, liver cancer, Liver dx, Uncontrolled hypertension, Severe HA, migraine with aura, Diabetes with vascular dx, Idiopathic uterine bleeding Sx of blood clot (ACHES), contact your HCP Usually safe but some women at high risk for blood clot (coagulopathy dx, heart attack, stoke, angina, beast cancer, sexual organs cancer, liver dx) Do not smoke: efficacy and risk of blood clot in women ≥ 35 yo Sx of blood clot (ACHES), contact your HCP Bleeding out of period => contact HCP Common SE: nausea, weight gain, breast tenderness, spotting, usually improve after 3 months (take with meal or at night for nausea) Talk to your pharmacist if new medication even OTC Take at the same time every day (with your routine) Missed pills instructions Start as soon as remember More than 2 pills missed, back up contraception for 7 days If in the 3rd week of the cycle => start a new pack right away

Question 991

Allegra (Allegra D)

Answer 991

Fexofenadine + (pseudoephedrine) 180 mg (60 mg + 20 mg) allegra-D > 12 yo, one tablet twice daily administered on an empty stomach with water AH1 used in allergy treatment take with water, not juice (↓ absorption), do not take with antacids CI (pseudoephedrine): narrow-angle glaucoma or urinary retention, MAOI within 14 days, severe hypertension, or severe CAD, Warning:CNS depression / sedation (other drugs) !!! Elderly, renal, hepatic disorder (pseudoephedrine) hypertension, diabetes mellitus, ischemic heart disease, increased intraocular pressure, hyperthyroidism, renal impairment, or prostatic hypertrophy D/C ≥ 72 hrs before skin prick test

Question 992

Alphagan

Answer 992

Brimonidine Adrenergic alpha-2 agonist used in glaucoma 1 drop 3x per day (remove lens or 10 minutes before putting them), wait 5 minutes between drops if more than 1 drop) Warnings: CNS depression (caution when driving) SE: sedation, burning, stinging, itchy eyes, dry mouth, dry nose

Question 993

Amyl Nitrite

Answer 993

Vasodilator for inhalation used for angina Crushed a capsule between the fingers when seated and held under the patient nose who inhale 2 to 6 times (may be repeat every 3 to 5 minutes if necessary) CI: head injury, glaucoma, cerebral hemorrhage Warnings: dizziness do not use with alcohol Store in the fridge, protect from the light (flammable)