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ESA Revision > TOB and Embryology > Flashcards

TOB and Embryology Flashcards

1
Q

Define a gland

A

an aggregate of epithelial cells organised together to perform specific secretory functions.

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2
Q

What is the difference between exocrine and endocrine glands?

A

exocrine glands are glands with ducts so products secreted into ducts that open into the lumen of an organ or onto surface of skin. endocrine are ductless glands so hormones secreted directly into bloodstream or lymphatic systems.

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3
Q

Define a zygote

A

the fertilised oocyte

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4
Q

Define cleavage

A

the 1st few cellular divisions of a zygote, producing blastomeres.

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5
Q

What is the zona pellucida?

A

the glycoprotein shell that surrounds the zygote and then the morula, and prevents polyspermy.

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6
Q

Define the morula

A

a compact collection of cells formed as a result of cleavage of the zygote.

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7
Q

Define the ovary

A

the female reproductive organ which produces oocytes.

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8
Q

What is the ideal site for implantation of the conceptus in embryonic development?

A

the posterior uterine wall

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9
Q

What is the fallopian tube and where in this tube does fertilisation occur?

A

a tube the oocyte travels along to reach the uterus.

the ampulla

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10
Q

What is the uterus?

A

the female reproductive organ where implantation of the zygote and growth of the embryo occurs.

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11
Q

What is the pre-embryonic period?

A

the first 2 weeks of human development

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12
Q

What is the embryonic period?

A

weeks 3-8 post fertilisation where all structures of the body are built from cells.

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13
Q

What is the fetal period?

A

prenatal development that begins 8 wks after fertilisation and ends at birth. Largely nothing new is made.

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14
Q

What process occurs 30hrs after fertilisation and what does this produce?

A

Cleavage of the diploid zygote, forming 2 blastomeres of equal size, each half the size of the original zygote.

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15
Q

When and how is the morula formed?

A

Day 3 by successive mitoses of the zygote during its passive movement towards the uterus.

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16
Q

What type of the cells are those of the morula?

A

Totipotent- they have the capacity to become any cell type.

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17
Q

Name the 3 different types of secretion.

A

Merocrine, apocrine and holocrine.

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18
Q

Give 2 examples of compound tubuloalveolar glands.

A

Pancreas and salivary glands.

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19
Q

Example of a gland using holocrine secretion and describe this type of secretion.

A

Sebaceous glands. Disintegration of cell to release its contents.

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20
Q

Example of a gland using apocrine secretion.

A

Mammary glands.

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21
Q

Skeletal muscle structure

A

Muscle fascicles, comprised of muscle fibres/cells-multi-nucleated, which are comprised of myofibrils-the functional unit, and these are composed of myofilaments which are arranged into sarcomeres, forming the contractile unit, and these are composed primarily of actin and myosin- the contractile proteins.

22
Q

Differences between skeletal, cardiac and smooth muscle

A

Skeletal: striated, multi-nucleated cells, T-tubules in line with the A band I band junctions.
Cardiac: striated, 1 nucleus per cell, T-tubules in line with Z lines, presence of intercalated discs-high proportion of gap junctions present, allow electrical and mechanical coupling so that depolarisation can spread very quickly between adjacent myocytes.
Smooth: nonstriated as contractile proteins not arranged into sarcomeres, 1 nucleus per cell, similar histological appearance to fibroblasts, sustained contraction so less ATP consumed.

23
Q

Describe the ‘power-stroke’ in skeletal muscle contraction.

A

Relaxation of high-energy conformation of myosin as products of ATP hydrolysis released, during interaction with actin, which results in increased overlap of actin-myosin filaments and shortening of sarcomere.

24
Q

What can be measured as a marker of skeletal muscle damage?

A

Creatine kinase

25
Q

Describe the basic difference between endochondral and intramembranous ossification, giving an example of a bone in UL for each.

A

Endochondral: bone replaces a hyaline cartilage template in order to develop e.g. humerus. Most long bones develop this way. Intramembranous: bone develops from a sheet of mesenchyme or LCT, so beginning in a highly vascularised structure e.g. clavicle.

26
Q

Name the 3 types of bone cells and their functions.

A

Osteoblasts- produce osteoid (uncalcified bone matrix) and secrete collagen, bone foming cells.
Osteocytes- maintain bone, form tight junctions with each other across the matrix.
Osteoclasts- bone resorption.

27
Q

What metabolic changes accompany hypertrophy of skeletal muscle and describe how hypertrophy occurs.

A

Increase stored glycogen, increase no. mit., increase blood flow, increase enzyme activity for glycolysis.
Muscle mass increased from work performed against a load. More contractile proteins are produced, increasing the fibre diameter.

28
Q

Describe the components of the blood

A

Blood is a fluid CT derived from mesoderm. Blood plasma is a liquid EC material, which imparts fluid properties to the blood. >90% of plasma by weight is water, a solvent for many solutes. Plasma proteins consist primarily of albumin, globulins and fibrinogen. The serum= same as plasma but with clotting factors removed. Cells include leukocytes: neutrophils, monocytes, eosinophils, basophils and lymphocytes, and erythrocytes.

29
Q

Upper respiratory tract epithelium

A

Pseudostratified ciliated

30
Q

GI tract epithelium

A

Simple columnar

31
Q

Where are mucous membranes found?

A

Lining certain internal tubes that open to exterior e.g. GI tract, respiratory tract and urinary tract.

32
Q

Describe the 3 layers of the mucosa in the GI tract.

A

Epithelium lining lumen of tube, adjacent layer of loose CT=lamina propria, and 3rd layer of smooth muscle cells=muscularis mucosae-thin, inner circular layer and outer longitudinal layer.

33
Q

Where are serous membranes found and describe their composition.

A

Lining closed body cavities:pericardium, pleura and peritoneum.
Simple squamous epithelium=mesothelium-secretes lubricating fluid for friction free movement of structures they surround, and thin layer of CT attaching eptithelium to adjacent tissues, and carries blood vessels and nerves.

34
Q

Describe the lining of the oesophagus.

A

Stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium-protects from abrasion. LP=LCT, contains oesophageal cardiac glands that secrete mucus. MM-thin layer of smooth muscle cells. SM-DICT, with mucus-secreting glands. ME-SMCs, move food by peristalsis. Adventitia-glands-oesophageal glands proper, mucus secreted which lubricates and protects luminal wall.

35
Q

Describe stomach lining

A

SImple columnar epithelium for absorption, gastric mucosa-secretes acid, rugae=folds, allow stomach to distend once filled. MM,SM,ME-3 layers of smooth muscle, move partially digested contents into SI.

36
Q

Describe lining of jejunum and name the other 2 parts of the SI.

A

Duodenum and ileum.
Simple columnar epithelium with microvilli.
Plicae circulares= circular folds of mucosa and submucosa that project into gut lumen. Goblet cell produce mucus, which protects and lubricates lining of intestine.

37
Q

Describe lining of colon and state which out of Ulcerative colitis or Crohn’s disease is confined to the large intestine.

A

Simple columnar epithelium , epitheliumn of crypts provides much mucus and supplies cells tp surface. LP-rich in lymphoid cells-Peyer’s patch, protection given from abundant bacterial population.
Ulcerative colitis

38
Q

Name the cells of the adrenal medulla that produce adrenaline (epinephrine).

A

Chromaffin cells= specialised post-ganglionic sympathetic neurones,

39
Q

Name the layers of the adrenal cortex and what they secrete.

A

Zona glomerulosa-mineralocorticoids e.g. aldosterone.
Zona fasciculata-glucocorticoids e.g. cortisol
Zona reticularis-androgens e.g. testosterone.

40
Q

What do type 2 alveolar pneumocytes produce and why is this important?

A

Surfactant-reduces surface tension and has a role in lung immunity.

41
Q

Define eptithelia

A

sheets of contiguous cells, derived from varied embryonic origin, that cover the external surface of the body and line internal surfaces.

42
Q

What is the function of the basement membrane.

A

Acts as a barrier, separating epithelium from the subtending CT and acting as a cellular and molecular filter.
It is a strong, flexible layer to which epithelial cells adhere to.
It provides support and a pathway for cell migration.

43
Q

What does folding in embryonic development achieve?

A
  • 3D structure
  • heart placed into cardiogenic region
  • creates ventral body wall
  • suspended fully in amniotic sac
  • primordium of GI tract
44
Q

Which cell type produces platelets?

A

Megakaryocytes

45
Q

Why is hyaline cartilage of trachea C-shaped?

A

To prevent oesophageal collapse.

46
Q

Describe bone repair process.

A

1) Haematoma formation
2) Fibrocartilaginous callus formation
3) Bony callus formation- spongy, trabecular bone
4) Bone remodelling- compact, cortical bone formed.

47
Q

What is the function of the AER: apical ectodermal ridge?

A

Organises limb development from proximal to distal as produces inductive signals which ensure that adjacent mesenchyme remains a population of undifferentiated, rapidly proliferating cells, whereas cells further from ridge differentiate, as limb grows, forming cartilage and muscle. Limb outgrowth stimulated.

48
Q

How might the AER be disrupted?

A

Interference affecting the blood vessels of the AER e.g. thalidomide. May result in limb defects e.g. amelia.

49
Q

What name is given to the actual stain used in acid fast staining and what type of bacteria might this be used for?

A

Ziehl-Neelsen stain

Mycobacteria

50
Q

What name is given to the actual stain used in acid fast staining and what type of bacteria might this be used for?

A

Ziehl-Neelsen stain

Mycobacteria

51
Q

How is the actin-myosin binding site exposed in muscle contraction?

A

TnI binds to actin, TnT binds to tropomyosin and TnC binds to IC ca2+, this then causes a conformational change so tropomyosin is moved away from binding site, so myosin binding site is exposed

ESA Revision (15 decks)

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