Respiratory Flashcards

1
Q

Name the 4 pairs of paranasal sinuses.

A

Frontal, maxillary, ethmoid and spenoid

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2
Q

What drains into the speno-ethmoidal recess?

A

Spenoidal sinus

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3
Q

What drains into the superior meatus?

A

Posterior ethomoidal sinuses

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4
Q

What drains into the middle nasal meatus?

A

Most paranasal sinuses

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5
Q

What drains into the inferior meatus?

A

The naso lacrimal duct which drains tears from the eye.

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6
Q

Define URT

A

The part of the respiratory tract above the lower border of the cricoid cartilage= found at inferior part of larynx, C6 vertebral level, only complete ring of cartilage around trachea.

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7
Q

How do nasal turbinates help with respiratory functions of nasal cavity?

A

Increase SA for warming + humidification, and cause turbulence so slow air flow, increasing time available for air processes such as filtering to occur.

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8
Q

Name the component parts of the bony thorax and where in the thorax they are located

A

Anteriorly: sternum and costal cartilages
Laterally: ribs and intercostal spaces
Posteriorly: thoracic vertebrae

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9
Q

Why is rib 2 an atypical rib?

A

Poorly defined costal groove and presence of tuberosity on upper surface for serratus anterior.

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10
Q

Which ribs only have 1 articular facet in their heads?

A

ribs 1, 10, 11 and 12

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11
Q

Compare pulmonary circulation with systemic circulation

A

Pulmonary: much lower resistance, lower pressures. Vascular resistance more evenly distributed and pulmonary capillary flow remains pulsatile. Low oxygen results in hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction so blood flow to areas of lung which are well ventilated, improving gas exchange.
Lacks systemic autoregulation, so when CO increases, pulmonary vascular resistance falls, as vessels recruited and distended, and rise in pulmonary arterial pressure is small. In systemic, response to changes in perfusion pressure by constricting or dilating to hold blood flow fairly constant.

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12
Q

What is empyemea?

A

A collection of pus in the pleural cavity, most commonly due to pneumonia

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13
Q

What are the anatomical hazards of pleurocentesis?

A
  • Damage to intercostal veins, arteries and nerves
  • Damage to lung- air may enter pleural space (pneumothorax)
  • Liver injury
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14
Q

Why do people with COPD breathe through pursed lips?

A

This enables the mouth to be the area of highest resistance and extends the time during which airway pressure remains high and the airways patent. This is to partly compensate for mechanical support lost- loss of elastic recoil and airway collapse.

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15
Q

Describe the shape of a patient’s chest if narrowing of small airways increases their functional residual capacity.

A

Barrel shaped

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16
Q

What is the solubility coefficient of O2?

A

0.01mmol/L/kPa at 37 degrees C.

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17
Q

At normal partial pressure and temp, how much dissolved O2 does plasma contain?

A

0.13mmol/L

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18
Q

What is the normal alveolar pO2?

A

13.3kPa

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19
Q

What is the normal alveolar pCO2?

A

5.3kPa

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20
Q

What are the partial pressures of O2 and CO2 in mixed venous blood?

A

O2:5.3kPa
CO2: 6.6kPa

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21
Q

What O2 binding does Hb exhibit and what bidning curve shape does this create?

A

Cooperative binding

Sigmoidal binding curve

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22
Q

Describe the Bohr shift.

A

The affinity of Hb for O2 is reduced by lower pH in tissues, as T state of Hb promoted, so O2 is released to the tissues, necessary for highly metabolically active tissues which produce lots of CO2 and H+ which lowers pH. Same also happens with increase in temp.
So dissociation curve shifted to the right.
In the lungs- lots of O2, so binds to Hb- promotes high affinity R state, CO2 expired, so Hb can become saturated with O2 and transport it to the tissues requiring it.

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23
Q

Above what pO2 is Hb saturated?

A

8.5kPa

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24
Q

When is Hb half saturated with O2?

A

Between 3.5 and 4 kPa

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25
Q

Why do rises or modest falls in pO2 from 13kPa e.g. in hyperventilation or mild hypoventilation, causes little change in arterial O2 content?

A

As dissociation curve is flat in this region, so Hb is fully saturated with O2 from around a pO2 of 8.5kPa, so small changes in the pO2 still correspond with around 97% saturation with O2.

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26
Q

Describe effect of 2,3BPG on Hb saturation

A

By-product of glycolysis that promotes T state of Hb, so shifts dissociation curve to the right, decreasing affinity of Hb for O2 so O2 is more readily released to the tissues. 2,3BPG increased in anaemia and at high altitude.

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27
Q

Describe myoglobin

A

O2 store in tissues. Composed of a single haem group attached to a single globin chain, no cooperative binding so dissociation curve is hyperbolic and far to the left of HbA. High affinity for O2 means O2 store only released when local pO2 is severely reduced, e.g. in heavy exercise.

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28
Q

What is the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation and what does it represent?

A

pH=pKa+log([HCO3-]/(pCO2x0.23)) pKa=6.1

That pH of plasma and hence ECF depends on the ratio of pCO2 to [HCO3-].

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29
Q

How is the thoracic cavity separated?

A

By the mediastinum, extending from the vertebral bodies behind to the sternum in front?

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30
Q

What lies in the posterior mediastinum?

A

Azygos vein, thoracic aorta, oesophagus, vagus nerve, sympathetic trunks

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31
Q

What lies in the middle mediastinum?

A

Heart, pericardium, roots of great vessels, main bronchi

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32
Q

Describe obstructive and restrictive defecits, and give examples of each.

A

Restrictive: problem with inspiration. FEV1.0 proportion doesn’t change, still > or equal to 70% of FVC, but FVC much less as less air inspired in the first place. FEV1.0 less aswell but both affected to same proportion as all of expiration is affected to the same extent.

Obstructive: problem with expiration, e.g. airway narrowing, e.g. in asthma, COPD. FVC relatively normal, but FEV1.0 markedly reduced as increased resistance to air expiration, so air comes out more slowly.

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33
Q

What factors influence diffusion of gases across alveolar membrane?

A
  • diffusion resistance
  • SA for diffusion
  • Concentration gradient
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34
Q

What is the concentration of dissolved CO2 in the plasma determined by and why?

A

The pCO2 as the solubility is fixed (solubility constant of 0.23)

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35
Q

What is the pH of plasma determined by?

A

The ratio of [HCO3-] to pCO2. This is normally about 20:1

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36
Q

What is the O2 content of the blood determined by?

A

The arterial pO2 and the concentration of Hb.

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37
Q

What determines the supply of O2 to individual tissues?

A

Appropriate O2 content in arterial blood and an adequate CO and adequate local perfusion of tissues.

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38
Q

What name is given to the aperture between the 2 true vocal cords?

A

rima glottidis

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39
Q

What is the glottis?

A

The 2 true vocal cords and the aperture between them

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40
Q

Where is the oblique fissure of the lung?

A

Runs from spinous process of T2 to costal cartilage of 6th rib. Sepatates upper and lower lobes of lung.

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41
Q

Where is the horizontal fissure of the lung?

A

Found along the 4th rib, from the mid axillary line, on the right side.

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42
Q

Why is a perforating wound of lower intercostal spaces considered to be an abdominal as well as a thoracic wound?

A

Dome shape of diaphragm means periphery attached to inferior margin of thoracic cage but dome extends upwards in expiration to level of 5th rib on right side and level of 5th intercostal space on left side so organs in the upper abdomen e.g. liver, spleen, stomach and the kidneys, can be damaged in a perforating thoracic wound.

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43
Q

Define hyperventilation

A

breathing more than required for your metabolic state.

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44
Q

What does hyperventilation cause?

A

Hypocapnia- pCO2 decreases. This can cause lethal tetany.

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45
Q

Why can hyperventilation cause lethal tetany?

A

Expiring more so removing more CO2 from alveloi than produced, so pCO2 decreases, increasing the pH of the blood- respiratory alkalosis, and calcium is relatively insoluble in alkaline conditions so as calcium unable to dissolve in blood, it us uptaken by bone and binds to proteins, so its free ionised concentration is reduced to life-threateningly low levels. Muscles go into involuntary spasms, may cause airway obstruction.

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46
Q

Why can pO2 fall quite significantly before hypoxia?

A

As on flat part of dissociation curve, Hb remains 100% saturated with O2 from around 8 kPa so decreases in pO2 from 13.3kPa can be as much as 4-5kPa and Hb will still be 100% saturated.

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47
Q

What is compensation by the kidneys?

A

pH of blood is returned to normal by altering the other variable ( the concentration of HCO3-),rather than the variable which was disturbed (the pCO2), because pH depends on the ratio between the concentration of HCO3- and the pCO2. Important as ventilation can’t really change in certain problems e.g. respiratory infection.

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48
Q

Define metabolic acidosis

A

A fall in [HCO3-] in the blood

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49
Q

How are metabolic changes in pH of blood compensated for?

A

By breathing

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50
Q

What is arterial pO2 monitored by?

A

peripheral chemoreceptors

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51
Q

What do large falls in pO2 stimulate?

A
  • increase in breathing
  • changes in HR
  • diversion of b.flow to brain via changes in resistance vessels.
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52
Q

What do central chemoreceptors actually respond to?

A

Changes in pH of CSF.

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53
Q

What controls the CSF [HCO3-]?

A

Choroid plexus cells, so [HCO3-] is fixed in the short term, but in persisting changes in pH, choroid plexus cells correct this by changing [HCO3-].

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54
Q

What might happen if O2 is administered to a COPD patient?

A

They might stop breathing as they have type 2 respiratory failure, so their pCO2 is persistently highm meaning CSF acidity is corrected by choroid plexus cells increasing [HCO3-] to maintain normal pH, and so the central chemoreceptors ‘reset’ to higher CO2 level as they lose their stimulation due to pH correction, so reduced resp drive, and this is now driven by hypoxia so if O2 given, they’ll be no resp drive!

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55
Q

What is polycythaemia?

A

increase in haemoglobin in blood

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56
Q

Where are peripheral chemoreceptors located?

A

Carotid and aortic bodies

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57
Q

Where are central chemoreceptors located?

A

In the medulla

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58
Q

Why would the pCO2 be normal in a patient with pneumonia, but their pO2 would be reduced?

A

Type 1 respiratory failure: ventilation/perfusion mis-match: O2 poorly soluble in liquid in inflammatory exudate, hyperventilation will try and increase O2 but affected alveoil consolidated, and those unaffected by pneumonia won’t be able to increase O2 in blood as Hb already 100% saturated. But CO2 diffusion isn’t limited in those alveoli unaffected by consolidation, so it is able to diffuse easily from the blood into the alveoli unaffected by consolidation when hyperventilating.

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59
Q

Describe how Boyle’s law is associated with our ability to fill our lungs on inspiration.

A

Boyles law states that pressure is inversely proportional to volume. When we inspire, our diaphragm flattens, our ribs are pulled upwards and ourwards, so the vertical, transverse and AP diameters of our thoracic cavity are increased, hence volume is increased, so pressure is markedly reduced, allowing air to flow into the lungs down a pressure gradient.

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60
Q

Why is the partial pressure of gases inspired different to the alveolar partial pressures.

A

Mixing of inspired and expired air in trachea.

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61
Q

Describe the pleural cavity

A

a potential space between the parietal pleura adhering to the thoracic wall and the visceral pleura covering the lungs. The cavity is lined by a single layer of flat cells-mesothelium-simple squamous epithelium, and associated supporting CT, which together form the pleura. Cavity normally contains a thin film of serous fluid. Visceral pleura continuous with parietal at lung hilum.

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62
Q

What names are given to the different parts of the parietal pleura?

A

Cervical, costal, diaphragmatic and mediastinal

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63
Q

Describe parietal pleura innervation

A

Somatic afferent fibres. Costal part innervated by IC nerves, and diaphragmatic and mediastinal innervated by phrenic nerves- pain in these areas would be referred to C3, C4 and C5 dermatomes, so lateral neck and supraclavicular region of shoulder.

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64
Q

Describe the costodiaphragmatic recess

A

region between inferior part of lung and inferior part of pleural cavity. Occurs between costal and diaphragmatic pleura. Deepest after forced expiration and shallowest after forced inspiration.

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65
Q

What is the innervation of visceral pleura?

A

Autonomic innervation- visceral sensory afferents.

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66
Q

How does inflammation cause airway narrowing in asthma?

A
  • mucosal oedema
  • bronchial wall thickening as inflammatory cell infiltration
  • mucus over prod. and abnorma
  • smooth muscle contraction
  • shed epithelium- incorporated into thick mucus
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67
Q

What pharmacologic therapies are available for asthma?

A

Relievers and preventers.

  • Short and long-acting Beta 2 agonists
  • Inhaled corticosteroids
  • Oral steroids
  • Leukotriene receptor antagonsits
  • Xanthines
  • Muscarinic antagonists
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68
Q

List signs of acute severe asthma

A
pulse>110
RR>25
Can't complete sentences
No wheeze
PEFR 35-50% predicted
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69
Q

Main causative virus of pneumonia

A

Influenza

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70
Q

Describe microscopic evaluation of COPD

A

Bronchial inflammation, fibrosis, and mucus hypersecretion characteristic of obstructive bronchitis, and destruction of alveoli seen in emphysema.
Both implicated in progressive airflow obstruction.

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71
Q

Why is smoking cessation so important in COPD?

A

Cigarette smoke= primary RF for COPD related mortality. Among those with COPD, those who continue to smoke have more symptoms, a faster decline in lung function and a higher death rate than those who stop smoking.

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72
Q

What genetic disease can predispose to COPD?

A

Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency

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73
Q

Why is FEV1.0 not particularly useful in assessing patient important outcomes in COPD?

A

This tells you the max volume of air exhaled in first s of a forced expiration from a position from a full inspiration, but only weak correlation exists between objective measures of airflow obstruction and patient important outcomes such as mortality and risk of future exacerbations. Some patients are better able to cope with same degree of airway obstruction, so their QOL will be better, and they may be better able to carry out exercise and live for longer.

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74
Q

Describe flow volume loop of airway obstruction

A

Reduced PEFR with scooped-out (sharply concave) appearance of expiratory limb.

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75
Q

When should COPD diagnosis be considered?

A

Current or former smokers over age of 35 who have history of progressive and persistent exertional dyspnoea with or without chronic cough and sputum production. History of frequent episodes of winter bronchitis, wheezem and fatigue common.

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76
Q

How is airflow obstruction severity classified?

A

According to FEV1.0 as a percentage of the predicted normal value as adjusted for sex, age, height, and race.

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77
Q

How is airflow obstruction defined using spirometry?

A

post-bronchodilator FEV1.0/FVC ratio of less than 70%

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78
Q

List signs of life-threatening asthma

A
sat. O2 less than 92%
pCO2 rising or normal
Exhaustion
Altered state of consciousness
Silent chest
PEFR less than 33% predicted
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79
Q

What options are available for asthma management?

A
  • pharmacologic therapy
  • education of patient and their family
  • avoidance of triggers
  • dealing with environmental factors
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80
Q

How can COPD be differentiated from asthma?

A
  • pre- and post- bronchodilator spirometry, large response to bronchodilators suggestive of asthma e.g. >15% increase in FEV1.0.
  • serial peak flow measurements using a peak flow meter- asthma suggested when diurnal or day to day variability exceeds 20%.
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81
Q

Describe pulmonary rehabilitation

A

Programme normally lasting 6 wks involving exercise training, disease education, psychiatric counselling, and behavioural/nutritional instruction. It improves exercise capacity, reduced admissions to hospital, improves health-related QOL and symptomatic breathlessness.

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82
Q

What is the mainstay drug treatment for COPD?

A

Bronchodilators. Inhaled corticosteroids not given alone and should be used only in combination with ling acting bronchodilators in those with a FEV1.0 less than 60% predicted. Potential risk of pneumonia with use of inhaled corticosteroids- anti-inflammatory.

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83
Q

Why is a patient with COPD susceptible to R sided HF?

A

Airflow obstruction causes hypoxia, which leads to pulmonary hypertension as a result of hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction, AND pulmonary capillary destruction occurs with emphysema, so R heart must work harder to pump blood through a higher pressure pulmonary circulation as increased resistance, so impaired R heart function as filling pressure increased, which can then back up into the systemic circulation, with a raised CVP and *peripheral oedema, subsequently leading to cor pulmonale- fluid retention/HF secondary to lung disease.

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84
Q

How is chronic bronchitis defined?

A

A daily morning cough and excessive mucus production most days for 3 mnths in 2 successive yrs, in absence of airway tumour, acute/chronic infection or uncontrolled cardiac disease.
So based on clinical history

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85
Q

Describe how alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency can lead to emphysema.

A

Alpha 1 antitrypsin is an anti-protease which inhibits the action of proteases released from bacteria and neutrophils which degrade proteins e.g. elastin, so if deficiency, there is a predisposition to elastin disruption in airways.

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86
Q

What is COPD?

A

A chronic, slowly progressive disorder characterised by airflow obstruction which does not change markedly over several months. Encompasses chronic bronchitis and emphysema.

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87
Q

How do xanthines e.g. theophylline work in the treatment of asthma?

A

Bronchodilators as inhibit breakdown of cAMP so more around, and also anti-inflammatory.

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88
Q

Describe effects of acute hypoxia

A

-cardiac arrythmias
-CNS function impaired
-hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction
-central cyanosis
Peripheral chemoreceptors will increase ventilation.

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89
Q

Describe effects of chronic hypoxia

A
  • cor pulmonale
  • polycythaemia
  • increase 2,3-BPG
  • renal correction and increased ventilation
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90
Q

Describe effects of acute hypercapnia

A
  • breathlessness
  • impaired CNS function
  • cardiac arrythmias
  • cerebral vasodilatation
  • peripheral vasodilatation
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91
Q

Describe effects of chronic hypercapnia

A
  • CSF compensation, central chemoreceptors reset to higher pCO2, problem with administering O2 and may reduce patient’s breathing
  • renal compensation
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92
Q

What is tachypnoea

A

increased resp. rate e.g. where increased central drive in resp.failure

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93
Q

Describer resp. failure in acute asthma attack

A

Excessive bronchoconstriction reduces ventilation to particular alveoli, resulting in ventilation/perfusion mismatch and hypoxia. PaCO2 falls as attack worsens as peripheral chemoreceptor and pulmonary receptor stimualtion produce reflex increase in ventilation despite increased work of breathing.

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94
Q

How can arterial pH indicate proportions of acute and chronic hypercapnia?

A

Chronic- near-normal pH as compensation by choroid plexus cells of brain.
Acute- arterial pH decrease as renal adjustments slow

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95
Q

Other than reduced CO2 sensitivity, why might a COPD patient’s PaCO2 rise when given O2?

A

Lose hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction, increasing ventilation perfusion mismatch

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96
Q

How are patients with resp. failure managed?

A

All need arterial blood gas analysis as severity difficult to assess clinically.
Chest X-ray
Lung function tests
Airway maintenance, O2 therapy, mechanical ventilation, clearance of secretions
bronchodilators and antibiotics
Treat problems with CO, Hb conc and fluid balance

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97
Q

Why is chronic type 2 respiratory failure tolerated better than type 1?

A

Chronic develops gradually so time for compensatory mechanisms to occur- hypoxia and hypercapnia tolerated better

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98
Q

What is the primary complex in TB?

A

the primary (Ghon’s focus)- sub-pleural focus of tubercles, and the draining lymph (hilar) nodes together.

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99
Q

Would you want to carry out lung function tests on a patient with pneumonia?

A

Probably not as patient usually quite sick and information not particularly useful

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100
Q

Why is inspiration more painful in pneumonia?

A

During inspiration, inflamed pleura moves against the thoracic wall, causing pain.

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101
Q

How would you describe chest X-rays of pneumonia patients?

A

Opacities visible, may be one opacity-lobar pneumonia, or more patchy opacification-bronchopneumonia

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102
Q

Define pneumonia

A

infection of lung parenchyma with consoldation, involving distal airways and with resultant inflammatory exudation

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103
Q

Treatment for acute bacterial pneumonias

A

mild to moderate= amoxicillin

severe= co-amoxiclav

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104
Q

How is a wheeze caused?

A

Vibration of intra-thoracic airway wall at site of flow limitation. More pronounced in expiration as intrathoracic airways narrower than in inspiration, with increased pressure on very small airways, so become compressed, and narrowing worsened.

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105
Q

Give 3 non-specific triggers of asthma

A

smoke, cold air, exercise

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106
Q

Give 2 specific triggers of asthma in sensitised patients

A

pollen, HDM faeces

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107
Q

How can hyperresponsiveness of airways be determined in asthma?

A

Bronchial provocation tests- inhale increasing dosages of histmaine or methacholine until FEV1.0 reduces by 20%.

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108
Q

Why might asthma treatment with a Beta 2 agonist result in hypokalaemia?

A

Beta 2 adrenergic agonists acitvate Beta 2 receptors, resulting in stimulation of Na+ pump, increasing K+ uptake into cells.

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109
Q

Name 2 common bacterial causes of pneumonia assoicated with COPD exacerbations

A

H.influenzae

Moraxella catarralis

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110
Q

Why might a patient who has recently had a BM transplant be at a greater risk of pulmonary TB?

A

Patient will be on immunosuppressive medication to prevent rejection of transplant by her IS.

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111
Q

Describe mycobacterium TB

A

An acid-fast bacillus-requires ziehl neelsen staining e.g. of sputum sample- 3 samples taken. Bacilli slow-growing- 4 to 6 wks. BM or CSF culture may confirm diagnosis of miliary TB

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112
Q

Describe the Mantoux test

A

Diagnostic test of TB which is strongly +ve in post-primary TB and often -ve in military TB (reduced host response) and HIV- reduced cellular immunity.
Injection of tuberculin into skin, inflammatory reaction development

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113
Q

What is the concern with a patient with suspected TB if complaining of a headache?

A

May have been haematogenous spread of M.TB to the meninges, resulting in bacterial meninigits.

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114
Q

What are the clinical features of primary pulmonary TB?

A
often asymptomatic
mild fever
erythema nodosum
small pleural effusions
wheeze may result from bronchial compression by lymphadenopathy
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115
Q

What is drug regime for uncomplicated pulmonary TB?

A

Rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide and ethambutol for 2 mnths, followed by rifampicin and isoniazid for 4 mnths. ethambutol given if drug resistance suspected. Corticosteroids occasionally improve results in severe pulmonary TB.

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116
Q

Drug reaction of isoniazid

A

Peripheral neuropathy

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117
Q

Prevention of TB?

A

BCG vaccination of non-immune subjects

Adequate living space

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118
Q

RFs for lung cancer?

A

Cigarette smoking
Asbestos-mesothelioma*
Radon gas

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119
Q

What are the 2 pathological divisions of lung cancer?

A

Small cell and non-small cell- majority

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120
Q

Why might squamous cell carcinomas-arise from bronchial epithelium?, cause hypercalcaemia?

A

Release of PTH-related peptide- increases release of calcium from bone, reduces renal Ca2+ excretion and reduces renal phosphate reabsorption, BUT doesn’t increase renal 1 alpha-hydroxylase activity, so doesn’t increase calcitriol, unlike PTH.

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121
Q

How is non small cell cancer staged?

A

TNM staging

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122
Q

Treatments for lung cancer?

A

Surgical resection
Chemotherapy
Radiotherapy
Only palliative care suitable for stage 4 disease-incurable.

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123
Q

Why might a patient being treated for TB develop orange urine?

A

Side effect of rifampicin drug

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124
Q

When should ITU be informed in pneumonia?

A
  • Resp failure
  • rising pCO2
  • worsening metabolic acidosis
  • hypotension despite fluid resucitation
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125
Q

Early and later infections CF patient prone to

A

Early -staph. aureus, H.influenzae

Later- pseudomonas aeruginosa

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126
Q

Process of diagnosis and treatment of pneumocystis pneumonia

A

Opportunistic.
Pneumocystis jirovecii- fungus, produces spores which enter lungs and cause acute alveolitis. May not detect on specimens. Induced sputum, bronchoalveolar lavage, lung biopsy- silver stain?, PCR to detect fungus, DNA.
High dose cotrimoxazole

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127
Q

Describe features of chronic type 2 resp failure

A

polycythaemia
pulmomary hypertension with RHF (cor pulmonale)
CO2 retention- flapping tremors, warm hands, bounding pulse

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128
Q

If patient with COPD in chronic type 2 resp. failure and is given O2, and aBG check shows their hypercapnia is worsening, what should be done?

A

Give non-invasive ventilator support as well as O2.

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129
Q

Describe chronic bronchitis pathology

A
  • goblet cell hyperplasia in epithelium, so increased mucus prod.
  • reduced cilia as ciliated cells lost, preventing mucus sweep up
  • mucous gland hypertrophy in SM, resulting in mucus hypresecretion and bronchial wall swelling.
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130
Q

How does chronic bronchitis cause airway obstruction

A

Increased mucus and bronchial wall swelling narrow airways by reducing lumen calibre, causing airway obstruction.

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131
Q

Describe emphysema pathology

A

Progressive alveolar wall destruction with air space enlargement and reduction in capillary bed as pulmonary capillaries lost.

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132
Q

Define emphysema

A

Permanent destructive enlargement of airspaces distal to terminal bronchiole

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133
Q

What cell type produces proteases which may cause emphysema if alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency?

A

Neutrophil

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134
Q

LFTs for COPD?

A

Spirometry- VC, TV, FEV1.0 and FVC, and ratio, and flow volume loops.
Body plethysmography and/or helium dilution for lung vol measurements e.g. TLC, RV and FRC
TLCO- transfer factor of lung, to measure diffusion

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135
Q

CXR findings for COPD

A

Hyperinflated lungs- large, blunting of costophrenic angles and flattened hemidiaphragms
Elevated ribs and loss of rib curvature, >6 ribs seen anteriorly
Narrowed and elongated heart shadow
Low, flat diaphragm
Narrow mediastinum

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136
Q

Main factors involved in causing COPD

A
cigarette smoke
environmental pollutants
smoke from cooking fires where poor ventilation and no chimneys
coal mining
alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency
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137
Q

Cause of airway obstruction emphysema

A

loss of radial traction of lung so pressure collapsing airways greater than lung elastic recoil, airways can’t be held open on expiration
loss of lung elastic recoil
reduced SA for GE

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138
Q

Why might it be difficult to breath in if asthmatic?

A

Residual vol. of lung increased as air trapping, and FRC increased, so will be breathing close to total lung volume, and lung hyperinflated, so reduced compliance of lung as breathing in from a more expanded position, so larger change in intrathoracic pressure necessary to produce lung volume change.

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139
Q

Why might an asthmatic who is breathing faster than normal experience paraesthesia?

A

Low pCO2 results in vasoconstriction, which can cause blackouts, paraesthesia and chest pain.

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140
Q

What effects can LT steroid use have on an adult patient?

A
Oral candidiasis- immunosuppressive
Hypertension
Central obesity
Bruising
Skin thinning
Osteoporosis
Adrenal suppression
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141
Q

Why is M.TB an acid fast bacterium?

A

Requires Ziehl-Neelsen staining as lipid-rich cell wall retains some dyes, resisting decolourisation with acid.
Also resistant to gastric acid in stomach.

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142
Q

What viruses are resistant to gastric acid in stomach?

A

Coxsackie, polio, hepatits A

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143
Q

What happens when M.TB enters alveoli, typically those well ventilated and poorly perfused upper lung lobes subpleurally?

A

Phagocytosed by alveolar macrophages but resulting phagosome prevented from fusing with lysosome by cell wall lipids of bacterium, so MTB excapes into cytoplasm and multiplies.

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144
Q

Clinical features of primary pulmonary TB

A

Often asymtomatic, may cause mild febrile illness, erythema nodosum, small pleural effusions.

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145
Q

Who is at high risk of TB in the UK?

A

Immunocompromised people: DM, HIV, corticosteroid therapy, Vit D deficiency, chronic kidney disease
Lifestyle: alcohol/drug- IV-HIV abuse, homelessness
Contact: travelling to high incidence areas

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146
Q

Why is TB incidence highest in Sub-Saharan Africa?

A

Because of HIV prevalence

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147
Q

Why would alternate birth-control methods be used rather than OCP in people being treated for TB?

A

Rifampicin drug used in treatment induces liver enzymes, so oral contraception will not be effective

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148
Q

Frequent sites of spread of lung cancer?

A

Mediastinal, cervical, axillary and intra-abdominal nodes.

Metastases to liver, bone, adrenal glands and brain.

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149
Q

Most common symptom of lung cancer?

A

Cough

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150
Q

Why does LC cause breathlessness?

A

Central tumours occlude large airways resulting in lung collapse and breathlessness on exertion. Many patients have co-existent COPD-obstructive-airways resistance
Phrenic nerve involvement- diaphragm paralysis
pleural effusions

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151
Q

Breathlessness in COPD, why?

A

Airway occlusion- bronchial wall hypertrophy and excess mucus secretion.
Reduced SA for gas exchange
Small airway collapse as loss of elastic tissue in alveolar walls

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152
Q

Why might a LC patient present with a hoarse voice?

A

L recurrent laryngeal nerve compression by invading tumour into mediastinal lymph nodes or direct mediastinal invasion. Nerve innervates intrinsic laryngeal muscles controlling vocal cord movement?

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153
Q

Characterisitc feature of sarcoidosis?

A

Non-caseating granulomata

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154
Q

How can sarcoidosis be suppressed in stages I to III of the disease?

A

Steroids

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155
Q

Why poor prognosis in lung cancer- typically around 5% 5 yr survival?

A

Late stage presentation so few are operable, age of patient presenting and their co-morbidities e.g. IHD and COPD

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156
Q

What is a chylothorax?

A

Accumulation of triglyceride-rich lymph in pleural space, generally as result of damage to thoracic duct, causing leakage into pleural space e.g. as result of trauma or carcinoma.

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157
Q

What is a heamothorax?

A

Blood within pleural cavity

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158
Q

What may cause haemoptysis?

A
Infective- pneumonia, TB
Lunc cancer
Lung infarction-PE
Pulmonary hypertension- pulmonary oedema
Colagulopathies- thrombocytopenia
Trauma/foreign body
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159
Q

Transudative effusions?

A

imbalance in Starling’s forces, protein-poor fluid (<30g/L), often bilateral, not assoc. with fever, pleuritic pain or tenderness to palpation. Most common cause= congestive HF. May also be result of cirrhosis with ascites, hypoalbuminaemia, nephrotic syndrome, pericardial disease or peritoneal dialysis, sepsis increasing capillary permeability.

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160
Q

Exudative effusions?

A

imply disease of pleura or adjacent lung, protein-rich fluid (more than 30g per litre). May be result of infection e.g. TB, pneumonia, maliganancy e.g. of pleura, or secondary e.g. breast cancer, lung, AI disease- RA, SLE, maybe abdominal disease e.g. pancreatitis causing an inflamed diaphragm

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161
Q

How are pulmonary crackles or crepitations caused?

A

By re-opening of small airways , during inspiration, which have become occluded during expiration

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162
Q

Nuclei appearance in malignant cells?

A
High nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio
Hyperchromatic
Prominent nucleoli
Pleomorphic- irregular in shape
Frequent/abnormal mitoses
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163
Q

Architectural abnormalities of malignant cells?

A
Ulceration
Necrosis
Infiltrative margins
Vascular invasion
Poorly circumscribed
Reaction in surrounding tissue/stroma
Little resemblance to normal tissue= anaplastic
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164
Q

You know the FRC. How would you work out the ERV, if you know the RV?

A

ERV=FRC-RV

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165
Q

What is IC the sum of?

A

TV+IRV

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166
Q

How do you work out VC-vital capacity?

A

IC+ERV

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167
Q

What is your TLC?

A

FRC + IC

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168
Q

Where is the serous fluid lining the pleura produced?

A

By parietal pleura, and is absorbed from parietal lymphatic vessels

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169
Q

Why is intra pleural pressure increased during a forced expiration?

A

elastic recoil of lungs

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170
Q

What is the lingula?

A

A projection of superior lobe of left lung

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171
Q

What do the lung hila consist of?

A

Bronchi, pulmonary vessels and LNs

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172
Q

How is genuine widening on mediastinum caused on an X-ray?

A

Vascular abnormality or mediastinal mass

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173
Q

If a patient is unable to stand, and anterior-posterior CXR might be taken, what is the problem of this?

A

Heart magnification as heart located anteriorly, so if heart larger than normal, would be unable to say whether the heart was actually enlarged

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174
Q

Most important virulence factor of streptococcus pneumoniae?

A

polysaccharide capsule- anti-phagocytic

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175
Q

Problem with creating vaccine against streptococcus pneumoniae based on its capsule?

A

Many different capsule serotypes- different antigens

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176
Q

Why is infection with streptococcus pneumoniae more severe in a patient with sickle-cell disease compared to a patient without this autosomal recessive condition?

A

Sickle-cell disease patient will have functional asplenia as a result of multiple small infarcts, causing the spleen to function less efficiently, and the spleen is necessary for the removal of encapsulated bacteria e.g. S.pneumonia. RBC become sickled when low pO2 causes them to become insoluble and polymerise, and their shape is unable to be accomodated in small blood vessels, so they obstruct splenic vessels, resulting in tissue infarction.

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177
Q

How can bacterial pneumonia be prevented in patients who have sickle cell disease?

A

Prophylactic antibiotics- penicillin or erythromycin

Vaccination- pneumococcal 13 valent conjugate vaccine

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178
Q

Define cyanosis

A

A bluish discolouration seen when there is more than 5g/dl of desaturated Hb (which has a darker colour) in the capillary blood

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179
Q

What does the presence of cyanosis depend on?

A

The total amount of Hb in the blood, the extent of desaturation of Hb and state of capillary circulation

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180
Q

Difference between central and peripheral cyanosis

A

Central: discolouration of tongue or oral mucosa. Result of arterial hypoxia, detected when O2 sat. below 90% and hence pO2 of 8 kPa. May result from poor oxygenation in lungs or cyanotic heart disease
Peripheral: cyanosis is limited to the extremities (eg hands, feet,). It is usually due to poor peripheral circulation, as may happen in cold weather due to vasoconstriction of skin vessels; or poor arterial circulation (eg due to peripheral vascular disease or heart failure). In these circumstances the increase in tissue oxygen extraction → increased deoxygenated Hb in the capillaries→ cyanosis.

All patients with central will have peripheral

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181
Q

A patient is hypoxic because he is unable to ventilate his lungs efficiently. His pCO2 is increased as CO2 is retained causing a resp. acidosis, but why might he also have a met. acidosis?

A

Hypoxia resulting in lactic acidosis as tissues have insufficient O2 for aerobic respiration- pyruvate converted to lactate via lactate dehydrogenase

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182
Q

Important signs of lung cancer?

A
Clubbing of fingers
weight loss
anaemia
wheeze/stridor
pleural effusion
pneumonia
neurological
ACTH/ADH/PTH
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183
Q

Where does a lung cancer normally spread to locally?

A

Hilar LNs
Mediastinal LNs- occasionally causes oesophageal obstruction
Pericardium- causing effusion
Pleura- causing effusion
RLN- hoarseness of voice, doesn’t improve as with laryngitis
Phrenic nerve- diaphragm paralysed on affected side, sudden breathlessness as reduced capacity of lung to fully expand on inspiration
Bronchus- causing obstruction and lung collapse distal to obstruction

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184
Q

Why might a patient with small cell lung cancer have hyponatremia?

A

Paraneoplastic syndrome- syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion- stimulating AQP-2 insertion in apical membrane of CD cells, so increasing water reabsorption, reducing concentration of Na+ in blood

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185
Q

Key description of small cell carcinoma of lung?

A

Central, highly invasive and rapidly metastasises.

Very cellular, apoptotic bodies, nuclear moulding, often necrosis and lots of mitoses

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186
Q

Why might cavities appear on a CXR of TB patient?

A

Caseous necrosis occurs with granuloma formation. Inflammatory material may leak out into vessels, leaving a space behind where the material was- cavity.

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187
Q

What factors determine whether a patient with a non-small cell carcinoma of the lung is suitable for surgery?

A

o Is patient’ general health good?
o Is pulmonary function adequate to cope with major surgery and pulmonary resection?
o Is surgery technically feasible (depends on exact site of tumour)?
o Is there evidence of local spread?
o Is there evidence of distant metastases?

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188
Q

Why might a tyrosine kinase inhibitor be used in treatment of a patient with a non small cell lung carcinoma?

A

Some adenocarcinomas of lung show EGFR mutations- receptors work via tyrosine kinase

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189
Q

Difference in clinical signs between fibrosing alveolitis and extrinsic allergic alveolitis?

A

Finger clubbing in fibrosing alveolitis, never present in extrinsic allergic alveolitis

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190
Q

How could asthma in a farmer be distinguished from extrinsic allergic alveolitis?

A

LFTs- spirometry- restrictive pattern for alveolitis with small lung volumes, and obstructive for asthma with possible lung hyperinflation

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191
Q

Other than sarcoidosis, name another interstitial lung disease where a non-caseating granuloma is present?

A

Extrinsic allergic alveolitis

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192
Q

In what way might sarcoidosis present extra-pulmonarily in the same way as primary TB infection?

A

Erythema nodosum

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193
Q

What lies in the superior mediastinum?

A

Trachea, oesophagus, SVC, aortic arch, thymus, phrenic nerve, L recurrent laryngeal nerve, thoracic duct

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194
Q

What lies in the anterior mediastinum?

A

Fat, lymph vessels and nodes

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195
Q

3 structural components of gas exchange?

A

Lungs, pleura and chest wall

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196
Q

3 processes affecting oxygenation of our blood in inspiration?

A

Ventilation, diffusion and perfusion

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197
Q

Characteristic clinical features of interstitial lung disease?

A

Insidious onset- slow and progressive with no symptoms at 1st, tend to accomodate for changes and don’t realise anything is wrong, progressive dyspnoea- exertional dyspnoea and dry cough- non-productive, reduced exercise tolerance
Bilateral inspiratory crackles
May be clubbing (not in extrinsic allergic alveolitis)
Hypoxaemia and R sided HF in advanced disease
Tachypnoea, tachcardia, bilateral reduced chest movement, cyanosis

198
Q

How can bronchalveolar lavage be used to help diagnose interstitial lung disease?

A

Exclude other diseases e.g. malignancy, and increase in inflammatory cells indicates alveolitis and correlates with ground glass opacification

199
Q

Main function of type 1 pneumocyte?

A

Mechanical support of alveoli

200
Q

Functions of pleural fluid?

A

Lubricates, allows movement of lung and chest wall together as visceral and parietal pleura are able to move over one another
Chest wall and lung coupled, inward lung recoil and outward chest recoil, surface tension of fluid keeps lung in contact with chest wall so expansion of thoracic cavity allows expansion of lung aswell so it can fill with air

201
Q

Parietal pleura innvervation

A

Somatic, S+PNS nerves, phrenic and IC nerves

202
Q

Visceral pleura innervation

A

Devoid of somatic innervation

203
Q

Lymphatic drainage of pleura?

A

Parietal: IC and internal mammary lymph vessles
Visceral: pulmonary lymphatics

204
Q

Blood supply of pleura?

A

Parietal- costal- IC and internal mammary artery
Mediastinal- bronchial, upper diaphragmatic and internal mammary arteries
Pleural dome- subclavian artery
Venous drainage- peribrochial and vena cavae

Visceral- bronchial arteries and pulmonary circulation
Pulmonary venous circulation

205
Q

Pleural fluid production?

A

Parietal pleura- capillary filtration(Starling’s forces)

206
Q

Pleural fluid absorption?

A

Lymphatic drainage, parietal pleura lymphatics via stomata on parietal pleural surface (mainly mediastinal and diaphragmatic regions)

207
Q

Why might pleural fluid accumulate pathogenically in pleura?

A

Increased production- lung interstitial fluid increase, hydrostatic pressure increase e.g. HF, permeability increase e.g. inflammation, malignancy, oncotic pressure decrease e.g. LF, peritoneal fluid, thoracic duct disruption.
Decreased absorption- lymphatic blockage, elevated sytemic venous pressures

208
Q

Pleura comprise serosa, what is this?

A

Pleura are serous membranes with a single layer of mesothelium and thin layer of underlying CT= serosa (both epithelium and CT).

209
Q

What is a pleural effusion?

A

Any collection of extra fluid in the pleural space

210
Q

Sjogren’s syndrome is a CT disease that can cause interstitial lung disease, give 1 of its key symptoms that is not related to disease in the lung

A

Xerstomia- dry mouth as reduced saliva production. Saliva production altogether stops as destruction of salivary glands

211
Q

What is a simple pleural effusion?

A

Increased accumulation of serous fluid in the pleural cavity

212
Q

Complications of empyema?

A

Fistula, trapped lung, fibrothroax, functional restriction

213
Q

Where are metastatic pleural malignancies commonly spread from?

A

Lung, breast, kidneys, bowel

214
Q

Characteristics of mesothelioma

A

Primary pleural malignancy. Due to asbestos exposure 20-40 yrs before malignancy. Typically males ageed 50-70, insidious dyspnoea. Pain- aching chest, breathlessness. Effusion- exudate, mediastinal pleural enhancement
Chemotherapy, palliative and radical surgery
Poor prognosis- 12-24 mnths survival
CXR usually show unilateral pleural effusion

215
Q

What is pleurisy?

A

Sharp, localised pain arising from any disease of pleura. Made worse by deep inspiration and coughing.

216
Q

What might an unabsorbed pleural effusion lead to?

A

Pleural fibrosis- with restriction, decreasing lung volumes and reduced lung compliance

217
Q

CXR for TB?

A

Consolidation (opacification) of lung, with or without cavitation, pleural effusion, or thickening/widening of mediastinum as hilar or paratracheal adenopathy. Urgent case if miliary shadowing. Upper lobe shadowing suggestive.

218
Q

Drug reactions in TB?

A

Rifampicin- heptaitis, rash, flu-like syndromes, orange urine, shock, thrombocytopenic purpura
Isoniazid- peripheral neuropathy, hepatitis, rash
Pyrazinamide- rash, hepatitis, arthralgia
Ethambutol- optic neuritis

219
Q

Why liver function tests when treating TB?

A

Rifampicin and pyrazinamide can cause liver dysfunction

220
Q

How can the side effects of ethambutol be monitiored?

A

Monitor colour vision

221
Q

Why is non-compliance in TB a problem?

A

Long course of treatment and many drugs. If non-comply, multi-resistant strains of M.TB can develop, which are very difficult to eradicate

222
Q

What disease should pleural effusions and mediastinal nodes in ethnic minorities be regarded as until proven otherwise?

A

TB

223
Q

Describe the Mantoux test

A

Screening test for identifying TB. Strongly +ve in post-primary TB (>5mm skin induration with 10 units of intradermal tuberculin, read at 3 days). Also +ve in latent infection. Often -ve in miliary TB as reduced host response, and HIV as reduced cellular immunity.

224
Q

How can you distinguish between upper and lower airways obstruction on a flow volume loop?*

A

Upper: lower PEFR
Lower: scalloping of the curve

When exhaling, initially, the lungs and airways are stretched. Therefore, the diameter of the upper airways are the most limiting factor - they are splinted with cartilage and cannot dilate further. The small airways stretch, but ultimately all of the alveolar gas must pass through the trachea, which is the limiting factor. As expiration progresses, and the intrathoracic pressure increases, the small airways gradually collapse and become limiting. Therefore, abnormalities in early expiration are due to upper airways problems, those in late expiration are due to lower airways problems. Larger airway obstructions will often affect inspiration more than small airways obstruction.

225
Q

Describe the functions of the lungs

A

Gas Exchange: The lungs are adapted to perform gas exchange; they have a rich blood supply and large surface area across which gaseous exchange may occur.
Metabolism: A number of drugs are metabolised (ACE Inhibitors) and eliminated (anaesthetic vapours) via the lungs
Acid base regulation: The lungs do provide some regulation of acid-base - for example by compensation for a metabolic acidosis.
Filtration and immune presentation:The rich blood supply (supply driven) means that the entire cardiac output passes through the lungs.
Protection: The function of goblet cells in the secretion of mucus, cilia and macrophages in the removal of pathogens provides protection against infection

226
Q

What do PFTs examine?

A

The ventilation and GE of the lungs

227
Q

What does spirometry measure?

A

Measures the volume of gas passing into and out of the lungs in unit time

228
Q

Why do obstructive lung defecits affect expiration, rather than inspiration (generally)

A

On inspirtation, the airways expand, and so the obstruction is gotten rid of, whereas in expiration, the airways are compressed, and so become more obstructed and prone to collapse

229
Q

What SaO2 is aimed for in patients with COPD and why?

A

88-92% so that we don’t reduce the hypoxic drive to breathe

230
Q

What viruses may cause pneumonia?

A

Influenza
Parainfluenza
RSV
Adenovirus

231
Q

What investigations are used in TB?

A

3 spontaneous sputum samples- stain with Ziehl Neelsen
CXR
Blood test- HIV
Mantoux skin test
Blood test- interferon gamma assay- prod. by macrophages to contain the infection
Biopsy

232
Q

Why is an exudate seen in malignancies?

A

Body’s repsonse to malignancy= inflammation as a mechanism of protection, so increased vessel permeability, proteins move out, water follows as reduce oncotic pressure in blood.

233
Q

2 key features on a CXR of pleural effusion

A

Homogeneous dense opacity- uniformly white

Meniscus sign- top of white area concave

234
Q

Why is a might a trasudative pleural effusion occur with liver disease?

A

Hypoalbuminaemia- reduce oncotic pressure- fluid moves from capillaries into interstitium- increase ECF volume, fluid can then move into pleura. Proteins don’t move into interstitium as no inflammation, so no increase in vessel wall permeability.

235
Q

Why, in general, are the pulmonary vessels on a CXR smaller when branching upwards and larger when branching downwards?

A

Due to effects of gravity

236
Q

At what spinal level is the carina?

A

T5

237
Q

How do the primary bronchi divide in the lungs?

A

L main bronchi divides into L upper and lower lobe bronchi.
R main bronchi divides into R upper love bronchus, and an intermediate bronchus, which then divides into a middle lobe bronchus and a R lower lobe bronchus.

238
Q

What causes consolidation of the lung?

A

Replacement of alveolar air by fluid, cells, pus or other material e.g.in pneumonia

239
Q

If loss of R heart border, in which lobe of the R lung is consolidation present?

A

Middle lobe

240
Q

Where is L lung consolidation if loss of L heart border?

A

Lingula (part of upper lobe)

241
Q

What is stridor?

A

An inspiratory sound due to partial obstruction of upper airways e.g. foreign body, oedema, a goitre

242
Q

A patient has respiratory symptoms of dyspnoea, haemoptysis and a productive cough with sputum. They also have night sweats- what would you initially think was wrong?
How might this change if the patient has also been losing weight, in addition to night sweats?

A

TB

Malignancy e.g. lymphoma

243
Q

A patient presents with a cough. Why is it important to consider their drug history in making a diagnosis?

A

May be on ACE inhibitors- ACE breaks down bradykinin, so with ACEIs, there is more bradykinin around, which causes coughing.

244
Q

A patient presents with a cough. Why is it important to consider their drug history in making a diagnosis?

A

May be on ACE inhibitors- ACE breaks down bradykinin, so with ACEIs, there is more bradykinin around, which causes coughing.

245
Q

A patient has haemoptysis, but the blood is not associated with sputum. What are the differential diagnoses?

A

PE, trauma, or bleeding into a lung cavity

246
Q

What is anatomical dead space?

A

The volume of air in the conducting airways, into and including the terminal bronchiole.

247
Q

What is alveolar dead space?

A

The volume of air in alveoli which is not taking part in GE e.g. due to loss of alveolar perfusion-PE

248
Q

What is physiological dead space?

A

The sum of anatomical and alveolar dead space

249
Q

Why will a baby with respiratory distress syndrome ( a restrictive lung defect) have central cyanosis?

A
  • Lack of surfactant means increased surface tension, so the lungs are harder to inflate and fill with air as reduced lung compliance.
  • There will be many collapsed alveoli as smaller alveoli collapse into larger ones due to lack of surfactant meaning increased surface tension and hence pressure, especially in the smaller alveoli as they have a smaller radius so increased pressure, so many alveoli can’t take part in GE, there is ventilation/perfusion mismatch, resulting in arterial hypoxia.
250
Q

Importance of lung macrophages?

A

Phagocytose inhaled microbes and p[articles that have evaded innate defences proximal to the alveoli. Key to removing material as no cilia present on alveolar epithelium. Also clear surfactant proteins, and suppress uneccessary immune responses by producing anti-inflammatory cytokines e.g. IL-10. But, can initiate immune responses in more severe infections, release chemoattractents e.g. LKT-B4, so promote neutrophil infiltration from plasma

251
Q

2 functions of IgA, the principal Ig in airway secretions?

A
  • opsonises antigenic particles

- prevents adherence of microbes to mucosa

252
Q

2 risks of giving a COPD patient O2 therapy?

A
  • respiratory depression- stop breathing

- paCO2 increase further- potentially fatal

253
Q

Management of COPD?

A

Can’t reverse it. But want to ease symptoms, slow disease progression (airway decline) and prevent acute exacerbations.
Smoking cessation
Bronchodilators- Beta 2 agonists, and anticholinergics. Xanthines
Inhaled corticosteroids in severe disease
Pulmonary rehabilitation
O2 therapy
May give replacement therapy in alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency
Prevention of acute exacerbations- pneumococcal and influenza vaccination
Antibiotics

254
Q

What do COPD patients typically die from?

A

Infection
Acute respiratory failure
Pulmonary embolus
Cardiac arrhythmia

255
Q

Why can residual volumes not be measured with spirometry, and so what instead do we use?

A

Residual volumes refer to air that is never breathed out, and so can’t be measured with spirometry. Instead, we use helium dilution

256
Q

Give 2 reasons for a low pO2 in arterial blood

A

Low pO2 in alveolar gas

impaired transfer of O2 to arterial blood

257
Q

Why might pCO2 decrease in type 1 respiratory failure?

A

If peripheral chemoreceptors in carotid and aortic bodies stimulate increased ventilation

258
Q

One of the acute effects of type II respiratory failure is breathlessness (dyspnoea). How does this come about, and why does it result from the pCO2 initally?

A

pCO2 normally controls urge to breathe, rather than O2, as the pO2 can decrease by quite a large amount and Hb will still remain fully saturated as Hb exhibits positive cooperativity in terms of binding O2, producing a sigmoidal curve, where there is a large range of pO2 values contributing to the flat part of the curve, where Hb remains 97% saturated. So peripheral chemoreceptors only respond to O2 when it is less than 8kPa. Central chemoreceptors detect raised pCO2 as CSF acidity increased by CO2 diffusion across BB barrier, and subsequently stimulate an increase in ventilation to exhale more CO2, and so return the blood pH to normal.

259
Q

Importance of L supraclavicular node on respiratory exam?

A

‘Virchow’s node’ - if enlarged, indicative of GI malignancies e.g. gastric cancer

260
Q

What is the transfer coefficient (KCO)?

A

The transfer coefficient (KCO) is an expression of gas transfer standardised for the alveolar volume.

261
Q

Common sources of extrinsic allergic alveolitis?

A

Mouldy hay- farmer’s lung- microbial
Pigeon/Budgies/Parrot- bird fancier’s lung- animal
Paint- isocyanate alveolitis- chemical

262
Q

Why might a CT scan be more useful than a CXR in assessing interstital pulmonary changes?

A

CT scan can identify changes before they are apparent on a CXR

263
Q

How can haemoptysis be differentiated from haematemesis?

A

Haemoptysis- bright red coloured blood, may be frothy

Haematemesis- dark coloured blood as altered by gastric acid

264
Q

Which antibiotic is used to treat pneumonia caused by pneumocystis jirovecii?

A

Cotrimoxazole

265
Q

List 2 conditions that would cause mediastinal displacement away from affected side?

A

Tension pneumothorax with lung collapse

Large pleural effusion

266
Q

List 2 conditions that would cause mediastinal displacement towards affected side?

A

lung collapse from central airway obstruction

localised fibrosis

267
Q

Why can people cope with type 1 resp. failure for some time but type 2 harder to deal with?

A

Can increase ventilation with chronic hypoxia in type I as renal compensation means pH returned to normal so can breathe more CO2 out and therefore be allowed to breathe, but can’t increase ventilation in type II as ineffective resp. effort.

268
Q

Muscles of quiet inspiration?

A

Diaphragm- phrenic nerve-C3,C4,C5

External intercostals- IC nerves- A rami of nerves T1-T11

269
Q

Muscles of quite expiration?

A

passive process

270
Q

Muscles of forced inspiration?

A

Scalene, sternocleidomastoid, pec major-lateral and medial pectoral nerves, serratus anterior- long thoracic nerve

271
Q

Muscles of forced expiration?

A

Anterior abdominals- rectus abdominis, external and internal oblique- thoracoabdominal nerves*
Internal intercostals- IC nerves

272
Q

How can passive transport take place across alveolar membrane?

A

Down a partial pressure gradient, hence diffusion can occur passively

273
Q

Describe ability of O2 and CO2 to diffuse through gases and liquids?

A

Gases diffuse through gases at a rate inversely proportional to their molecular weight, so CO2 slower than O2, but gases diffuse through liquids at rate proportional to their solubility, so CO2 diffuses 21X as fast.

274
Q

Why is it important that atmospheric air is put in a space next to the alveoli, rather than into the alveoli themselves?

A

Because pCO2 of alveolar gas determines blood pH, so if atmo. air entered alveoli, blood would be alkaline on inspiration, and acidic on expiration.

275
Q

Does the residual vol. of lungs ever participate in ventilation?

A

NO
This is air which can never be breathed out, and though it doens’t participate in ventilation, it does communicate with ventilated space.
Measured using helium dilution

276
Q

Define the FRC

A

the vol. of air in the lungs at resting expiratory level (after expelling a tidal breath). =ERV + RV

277
Q

What is pulmonary ventilation rate?

A

Volume of air moved into and out of a space per min.
=TVxRR
8L/min at rest

278
Q

What is alveolar ventilation rate?

A

PVR- (RR x dead space volume= dead space ventilation rate)

279
Q

Why is lung compliance increased in emphysema?

A

Destruction of elastic tissue in alveolar walls reduces elastic recoil of lungs so easier to stretch

280
Q

Clinical sign of mediastinal shift to left

A

Tracheal deviation to left

heart shifted to left

281
Q

What is the cricothyroid muscle innervated by?*

A

superior laryngeal nerve

282
Q

why are adrenoceptor agonists preferred to muscarinic antagonists in treatment of asthma?

A

muscarinic antagonists only inhibit action of parasympathetic nerve stimulation, whereas B2 agonists cause bronchodilation irrespective of the factors causing the bronchoconstriction

283
Q

what do false vocal cords do?

A

involved with creating sound resonance

284
Q

how is air warmed in the nasal cavity?

A

rich vascular network of lamina propria, so inhaled air warmed by blood flowing through

285
Q

epithelium of true vocal cords and most of epiglottis, and importance of this?

A

stratified squamous

protects mucosa from abrasion caused by rapidly moving air stream

286
Q

function of extrinsic laryngeal muscles?

A

move larynx during swallowing

287
Q

where does trachea divide into 2 primary bronchi?

A

at sternal angle

288
Q

where in trachea are C shaped rings of hyaline cartilage found, and what is their function?

A

lamina propria

to maintain opening of lumen so prevent tracheal collapse, and prevent oesophageal collapse

289
Q

how is gap bridged between free cartilaginous ends of c shaped tracheal cartilage and posterior wall of trachea?

A

by firbroelastic CT and trachealis muscle

290
Q

why do foreign objects tend to lodge in R primary bronchus?

A

greater angle of bronchus as more vertical than left

291
Q

how does cartilage change from primary to secondary bronchi?

A

cartilage rings replaces by crescenteric cartilgae plates

292
Q

how are bronchi airway diameter regulated?

A

continuous layer of smooth muscles in musacularis externae

293
Q

how are bronchioles kept open?

A

by elastic tension of alveolar walls

294
Q

epithelium of bronchioles?

A

larger- pseudostratified ciliated columnar

smaller- simple ciliated columnar, then simple cuboidal in terminal bronchioles

295
Q

no muco-ciliary clearance in alveoli, why?

A

mucus would reduce effective GE, no mucus- no need for cilia, instead have alveolar macrophages

296
Q

describe clara cells

A

found in termianl brochioles and respiratory bronchioles. secrete a surfactant lipoprotein- prevents luminal adhesion, espec. on expiration. also secrete clara cell secretory protein- can be measured in bronch-alveolar lavage, if reduced indicates lung damage

297
Q

where are the paranasal sinuses

A

located in skull bones

298
Q

where are the nasal turbinates

A

in the nasal cavity

299
Q

how is the nasal cavity separated into 2

A

by the median nasal septum

300
Q

define the alveolar ducts

A

elongated airways, formed from the confluence openings to alveoli, have almost no walls

301
Q

define alveolar sacs

A

spaces surrounded by alveoli clusters

302
Q

define an alveolis

A

primary site of GE, terminal air space

303
Q

how many segmental bronchi?

A

8 in l lung, 10 in right

304
Q

what does a bronchiole serve?

A

pulmonary lobule

305
Q

what name is given to the thin CT layer containing blood capillaries which separate alveoli from one another?

A

alveolar septum

306
Q

what is partial pressure?

A

the same fraction of total pressure as the volume fraction of the gas in the mixture

307
Q

what is a bronchopulmonary segment?

A

an area of lung supplied by its own segmental bronchus and segmental branches of pulmonary artery and vein

308
Q

importance of costal cartilages being hyaline cartilage?

A

degree of elasticity to allow movement of chest in respiration

309
Q

describe how muscles of quiet inspiration contract to increase diameter of thoracic cavity?

A

diaphragm- responsible for 70% of chest expansion. As contracts, central tendon of diaphragm pulled down, increasing the vertical diameter/.
external intercostals contract- ribs are elevated in bucket handle type movement, increasing AP diameter and transverse diameter

310
Q

where does the R dome of the diaphragm extend up to?

A

the 5th rib as lies above the liver, whereas L dome extends to 5th IC space

311
Q

what would you do if an object stuck fast in the larynx?

A

heimlich manouver

312
Q

what is asphyxia?

A

severely deficient O2 supply to body as unable to breathe normally

313
Q

a patient appears unwell. She has a cough with sputum prodution and some blood, and has become irritated. Why might you want to do a lumbar puncture?

A

To assess for meningitis- may be TB meningitis, can look for bacteria in CSF e.g. Ziehl-Neelsen staining for M.TB

314
Q

why is the pressure inside the pleural cavity -ve at resting expiratory level?

A

opposing forces acting on the static lung

315
Q

when might the most effort required in quiet breathing not be due to needing to stretch the lungs?

A

when diaphrgam can’t be moved easily into the abdomen e.g. pregancy and obesity, so difficult to increase vertical diameter of thoracic cavity

316
Q

when does inspiration cease?

A

when alveolar pressure has increased to atmospheric pressure

317
Q

describe pleural pressure changes in quiet respirtation

A

remains -ve (subatmoshperic) throughout. At resting expiratory level, -ve as lungs and chest wall are recoiling in opposite directions. On inspiration, pressure becomes more -ve as chest wall expands outwards, and returns to its original -ve pressure as lung returns to resting expiratory level in quiet expiration- passiv process due to lung’s natural elastic recoil

318
Q

what is lung compliance goverened by?

A

surface tension and elastic properties of lungs and chest wall

319
Q

why do lungs become less compliant with age?

A

CT deposition

320
Q

describe elastin

A

*TOB

coiled protein

321
Q

what is specific compliance?

A

volume change per unit pressure change/ starting vol. of lung

322
Q

when does surfactant reduce the surface tension of the lungs?

A

when the lungs are deflated, not when fully inflated, so little breaths are easy

323
Q

describe surfactant

A

this is produced by type II pneumocytes of the alveoli. It is a mixture of phospholipids and proteins, with detergent properties- so it can get between the water molecules and reduce the forces between them. hydrophilic end sin fluid, and tails in alveolar gas, so float on the surface of the lining fluid

REDUCES SURFACE TENSION- LACK IN RESPIRTATORY DISTRESS SYNDROME OF NEWBORN SO LUNG COMPLIANCE REDUCED AND SMALL ALVEOLAR COLLAPSE

324
Q

Why is the force required to expand small alveoli less than that required to expand large alveoli?

A

as surfactant molecules are closer together in small alveoli, which reduces the surface tension more than if they are spread further apart as in larger alveoli

325
Q

how can the pressure be defined in alveoli using Laplace’s law?

A

= surface tension X 2 / radius, so larger alveoli would have a smaller pressure, and smaller alveoli and larger pressure, so as air flow from higher to lower pressure, small alveoli would collapse into larger ones but surfactant increases surface tension in large alveoli so the pressure remains high

326
Q

why can different sized alveoli have the same pressure within them?

A

as when an alveolus increases in size, both the radius and surface tension is increased

327
Q

4 functions of surfactant?

A

facilitates lung expansion at birth
increases lung compliance by reducing surface tension
stabilises the lungs by preventing small alveoli collapsing into larger ones
prevents surface tension in alveoli creating a suction force tending to cause transudation fluid from pulmonary capillaries

328
Q

what might small cell carcinomas release which can cause Cushing’s syndrome?

A

ACTH

329
Q

why is work done in breathing?

A

work done to stretch the lungs- as work must be done against elasticity of lungs and thorax, and surface tension of alveoli
and work is done against airways resistance

330
Q

why is no cartilage found in the alveoli?

A

cartilage would cause the diffusion resistance to be too high for GE necessary to provide O2 and remove CO2 at a rate appropriate for the metabolism of our tissues.
surface tension of alveoli reduced by surfactant, which therefore increases our lung compliance

331
Q

why is cartilage crescenteric shaped in trachea?

A

incomplete posteriorly where trachealis muscle bridges the incomplete ends, as this allows are small degree of tracheal collapse in swallowing to food to pass down the oseophagus

332
Q

what can we assess by examining the airstream at the mouth?

A

lung mechanical function, airways resistance and diffusion across alveolar membrane, in a non-invasive way

333
Q

what name is given to the trace generated by a spirometer?

A

vitalograph trace

334
Q

why is PEFR at the start of expiration?

A

this is when the airways are maximally expanded, and so at their least resistance, before the airways are subsequently compressed

335
Q

how can PEFR be measured?

A

can use a peak flow meter, but very insensitive, dependent of effort exerted by patient

336
Q

describe the process of calculating the CO transfer factor

A

The subject first fully exhales, then takes a rapid and full inspiratory vital capacity of a gas mixture composed of air, containing a tiny fraction of
CO and a fraction of an inert gas such as helium (helium is to make an
estimate of the total lung volume- allows correction for diluting effecr of RV when measurement begins).

The breath is held for 10 seconds. Gas is collected during mid-expiration, as
an alveolar sample, for analysis of the concentration of CO and of the inert gas.

CO=very high affinity for Hb, so almost all entering blood binds Hb, plasma CO taken as 0. so conc gradient between alveolar pCO and the capillary pCO is maintained for whole time blood in contact with alveolar gas, so amount of CO transferred not affected by factors like blood flow rate

From these measurements the The Carbon Monoxide Transfer factor is
calculated.

337
Q

why is the pO2 in the alveoli less than that in trachea

A

continuous O2 diffusion between alveoli and the blood

338
Q

how are pO2 and pCO2 in alveoli kept close to their normal values in steady state?

A

by ensuring that the rate at which ventilation bring O2 and removes CO2 from alveolar air in in equilibrium with rate at which O2 diffuses into the blood and CO2 diffuses out

339
Q

what happens to the pleural pressure in a forced expiration?

A

becomes +ve

340
Q

how can you treat a pneumothorax?

A

re-seal pleural cavity and remove air from lungs- aspirate using a needle and large syringe, or leave if minor, treat secondary symptoms- give painkillers

341
Q

what will happen to the chest wall movements of a baby with respiratory distress syndrome?

A

reduced lung compliance as lack of surfactant to reduce surface tension in alveoli
Normally as the chest wall expands during inspiration, the pleural pressure becomes more negative, and this causes the lungs to expand. When the lungs are stiffer due to reduced compliance, the lung resists expansion.

This leads to greater inspiratory effort and the greater negative intra pleural pressure tends to suck in the chest wall, giving rise to intercostal recession (indrawing of intercostal spaces during inspiration) as well as subcostal recession, suprasternal and supra clavicular recessions during inspiration.

342
Q

why do we breathe through our mouths in exercise?

A

to reduce resistance to air flow and to reduce anatomical dead space as gas here does not undergo GE

343
Q

branches of which nerve cause stimulate vasoconstriction of bronchioles?

A

vagus nerve

344
Q

which intrinsic muscle of the larynx is not supplied by the recurrent laryngeal nerves?

A

cricothyroid muscle

innervated by superior laryngeal nerve

345
Q

problems with spirometry?

A

effort dependent:
FEV1 and FVC can be underestimated
normally repeated at least three times to ensure
reproducibility.
spirometry can only be used on children old enough
to understand and follow the instructions given
not suitable for patients who are unconscious,
sedated, etc.
Other types of lung function tests must be used in
these circumstances

346
Q

5 defining characteristics of asthma?

A
reversibility
widespread, variable air flow obstruction
chronic inflammatory process
airways hyperresponsiveness
susceptibility
347
Q

what is the correlation between asthma and westernised lifestyles?

A

increased prevalence of astham in developed countries with westernised lifestyles- living conditions facilitate HDMs, and atmoshperic pollution

348
Q

how can smoking in pregnant woman affect predisposition of baby to asthma?

A

increased as lung architecture in utero is altered by pre-natal smoke exposure

349
Q

describe aspirin sensitive asthma

A

aspirin- NSAID, can be given after MI to inhibit thromboxane A2 prod. hence platelet aggregation. But also inhibits PG synthesis and shifts arachidonic acid met. towards lipoxygenase pathway and prod. of leukotriene C4 and D4- inflammatory mediators

350
Q

why might a more than 15% improvement in FEV1.0 or PEFR not be seen in a patient with asthma?

A

may be in remission, bronchi may become unresponsive

chronic, severe asthma- poorly reversible- airways remodelling

351
Q

why does residual volume increase in asthma attacks?

A

premature a.way closure so air trapping towards end of maximal expiration as increased smooth muscle tone, inflammation and oedema of airway walls, and abnormal secretions, some loos of elastic recoil, may increase FRC and TLC

352
Q

how can a skin prick test be used in diagnosis of asthma?

A

identify extrinsic factors, development of a wheal around prick site indicates allergen sensitivity, blood IgE levels to specific aeroallergens.

353
Q

why might a CXR be used in asthma?

A

usually normal, but used to exclude other diseases e.g. FB obstruction, or pneumothorax during severe acute exacerbations

354
Q

which a.ways are never affected by asthma?

A

alveoli

355
Q

what is the 2 phase response in a sensitised, atopic asthmatic to antigen exposure?

A

immediate- type 1 hypersensitivity, max. reached in 20 mins, allergen interaction with specific IgE, causing mast cell degranulation and mediator release e.g. histmaine and LKTs, causing bronchial SM contraction, bronchoconstriction and increased mucus prod. and vascular leak

late phase- 3-12 hrs later- type IV hypersensitivity- primarily result of inflammation- T helper 1 cells prod. IF gamma?, eosinophils recruited by TH2 cells- release LKTs, major basic proteins, eosinophilic cationic protein, and platelet-activating factor, MBP and ECP- epithelial cell damage- increased permeability to allergens, epithelial cells shredded. Also mast cells, lymphocytes and neutrophils.

356
Q

Corticosteroids can be given in asthma- anti-inflammatory, what key cell is very sensitive to steroid therapy?

A

eosinophils

357
Q

example of a corticosteroid used in asthma?

A

beclometasone

358
Q

effects of ST B2 agonists for asthma?

A

bronchodilation- relief of acute symptoms, also reduce mast cell activation

359
Q

effect of corticosteroids in asthma?

A

main preventors- reduce eosinophil no.s and macrophage and lymphocyte activity

360
Q

problem with using steroids for asthma in children?

A

SEs e.g. may inhibit growth

361
Q

corticosteroids can be given orally for asthma if can’t inhale, problem with this?

A

adverse effect danger is greater

362
Q

what do muscarinic antagonists do in asthma?

A

bronchodilate and reduce mucus secretion

363
Q

what society produce guideline for asthma tment?

A

british thoracic society

364
Q

how do ribs 11 and 12 end anteriorly?

A

in the abdominal muscles as floating ribs, do not attach to sternum anteriorly

365
Q

how are dissociation curves for Hb and O2 normally expressed?

A

% of amount of O2 bound at saturation, and are independent of pigment concentration

366
Q

at what partial pressures of O2 is the O2 dissociation curve for Hb steepest?

A

at those partial pressures found in the tissues, so small decreases in pO2 when metabolising tissues results in O2 being readily released to the tissues as each dissociation of O2 reduces affinity of remaining haeme groups for bound O2

367
Q

what can tissue pO2 not decrease below so as to be high enough to drive O2 out to the cells from the capillaries?

A

3.0 kPa

368
Q

how are the subunits in Hb linked?

A

2 dimeric subunits each with 1 alpha and 1 beta globin chain, the 2 subunits are linked weakly, and O2 binding state alters strength of association
T state- subunits held together rigidly

369
Q

how many O2 binding site on Hb are occupied at 75% saturation?

A

3 sites- in venous blood

370
Q

why does the CO only have to increase 5 fold and not 10 fold in exercise?

A

as extra O2 in blood not normally used, about 27% of O2 in blood normally given up to tissues, so in exercise can be used by skeletal muscle, so about 55% of O2 in blood taken off

371
Q

where is 2,3 BPG abundant?

A

rbc

372
Q

what does 2,3 BPG preferentially bind to?

A

deoxyHB and stabilises it- T state

373
Q

what chains are in place of the 2 beta chains in foeteal Hb?

A

2 gamma chains- these weakly bind 2,3BPG so deoxyHb not stabilised

374
Q

when will TLCO be reduced?

A

if lengthened diffusion pathway from alveolus to blood, or reduced SA available for diffusion

375
Q

why is there much more CO2 in arterial blood, both dissolved and reacted with water, than O2?

A

buffer function of CO2 controlling pH of ECF

376
Q

how much CO2 is dissolved in plasma at pCO2 of 5.3kPa?

A

1.2mmol/L

377
Q

where does HCO3- in plasma come from?

A

reaction in red cell

very small amount produced in plasma as little carbonic anhydrase

378
Q

what is the amount of CO2 dissolved in the blood directly proportional to?

A

the pCO2

379
Q

why is pH normally alkaline in body?

A

ratio of [HCO3-] to pCO2 is 20:1, so 20 times as much HCO3- dissolved in plasma as CO2

380
Q

factors influencing [HCO3-] in plasma?

A

buffering capacity of HB in red cell

variable HCO3- excretion by kidneys

381
Q

importacne of carbonic anhydrase in rbc?

A

dissolved CO2 reacts with H20 much more rapidly, so CO2 can be converted to H2CO3 as fast as it enters cells, so maintains strong aprtial pressure gradient between tissues and blood, driving CO2 diffusion. H+ binds to Hb, so 1 of products removed, lots of CO2 is reacting to form lots of HCO3-

382
Q

why does amount of HCO3- produced in rbc depend on buuffering capacity of Hb?

A

Hb binds H+ as amine groups of globin in Hb have -ve charge so bind H+, so CO2 and H20 reaction keeps trying to replace H+, so HCO3- amount made depends on how much H+ bound to Hb

383
Q

how does HCO3- enter plasma from rbc?

A

via Cl-HCO3- exchanger

384
Q

why does H+ not leave rbc as well as HCO3-?

A

rbc membrane relatively impermeable to H+, buffered by Hb as H+ accumulates with O2 release- Hb undergoes conformational change favouring H+ binding, so H+ and HCO3- in cell kept low favouring forward reaction

385
Q

why does plasma HCO3- not change much with pCO2?

A

as reactions of CO2 in red cell producing most of HCO3- in blood are determined by how much H+ binds to Hb

386
Q

how is the pH of the blood stopped from changing too much with acid production in metabolism?

A

H+ reacts with HCO3- in blood, pushing reaction frward with CO2 prod.- travels in venous blood to lungs where breathed out.

387
Q

how can CO2 bind directly to proteins?

A

reacts with amine groups, so can bind directly with protein part of
so when Hb binds H+= more favourable substrate for carbamino compound formation- haldane effect.

388
Q

why are more carbamino compunds formed in venous blood?

A

as pCO2 is higher- waste product of metabolism

389
Q

how is pH kept from not changing too much in venous blood?

A

Hb lost O2 so binds H+ more readily, so increase HCO3- prod., a little more CO2 dissolves in venous blood as waste prod. so both pCO2 and [HCO3-] increase.
when blood reached lungs, O2 binds, H+ given up, reacts with HCO3-, prod. CO2- exhaled.

390
Q

normal CO2 content of arterial blood?

A

21.5mmol/L

391
Q

normal CO2 content of venous blood?

A

23.5mmol/L

392
Q

what is the amount of CO2 transported by blood determined by?

A

difference between venous and arterial CO2 content

2mmol/L of CO2 carried to lungs in each L if venous blood, in addition to 21.5mmol/L

393
Q

what % of CO2 in plasma transported as carbamino compunds?

A

12%

394
Q

what % of CO2 in plasma transported as dissolved CO2?

A

8%

395
Q

what % of CO2 in plasma transported as HCO3-?

A

80%

396
Q

why can hyperventilation significantly reduce CO2 content in blood but not increase O2?

A

linear relationship between pCO2 and CO2 content in blood, but O2 curve reaches plateauy- Hb already 100% sat.

397
Q

how might a dramatic improvement be made in severe COPD?

A

lung transplant

398
Q

how would an inhaled Beta 2 agonist for asthma be administered to a child?

A

spacer

399
Q

why might an anxious patient be breathless?

A

hyperventilating, PCO2 low so removes chemical drive to breathing

400
Q

why should oral steroids not be given LT in COPD?

A

assoc. with increase in mortality, independent of disease severity

harmful effects:hypertension
osteoporosis
skin thinning
brusing
central obesity
glucose intolerance
adrenal suppression
401
Q

effect of a lung tumour at lung hilum?

A

main bronchus  airway obstruction,

  • (Monophonic wheeze)
  • Pneumonia in the lung distal to the obstruction can occur
  • If complete obstruction occurs, the lung collapses, as the air in the lung distal to the obstruction is gradually absorbed

Pulmonary vessels (artery and vein)

Bronchial vessels (artery and vein)

Lymph vessels and lymph node  enlarged lymph nodes

Nerves  compression of recurrent laryngeal nerve on the left side 
paralysis of intrinsic laryngeal muscles  hoarseness of voice

402
Q

effect of a lung tumour in superior mediastinum?

A

SVC obstruction
Left Recurrent laryngeal nerve – hoarseness
Phrenic nerve palsy – paralysis of affected hemi diaphragm 
breathlessness

403
Q

when might keratin pearls be seen under the microscope?

A

squamous cell carcinoma

404
Q

best treatment option for squamous cell carcinoma?

A

surgical resection if tumour can be accessed

405
Q

man previously had colon cancer, now a nodule can be seen in lung on a CXR, what might it be?

A

metastasis from previous cancer, micrometastases- malignant cells lodge at a site distant from origin and start off being unable to grow or only grow to a very small size, but may grow in future

406
Q

what might you want to do if pleural effusion visible on a CXR?

A

aspirate pleural fluid:

1) Protein estimation (transudate or exudate?)
(2) microscopy and culture.
(3) cytology – for malignant cells.

407
Q

what does the manubrium of the sternum articulate with?

A

1st and part of 2nd costal cartilages

408
Q

body of sternum articulation?

A

part of 2nd, and 3rd-7th costal cartilages

409
Q

junction between manubrium and body of sternum?

A

sternal angle

410
Q

4 features of a typical rib?

A

head-2 articular facets
neck
tubercle- 1 articular facet
shaft- costal groove- protect IC vessels and nerves in NVB

411
Q

at what joints do movements of the ribs during respiration take place?

A

costovertebral joints: joint of the rib head, costotransverse joint

412
Q

what do the intercostal arteries supply?

A

parietal pleura and overlying skin, intercostal muscles

413
Q

what arteries are present in the IC spaces?

A

each space has an anterior IC artery (except from last 2) which anastomoses with a posterior intercostal artery

414
Q

where do the anterior IC arteries arise from?

A

internal thoracic artery (branch of subclavian (R and L), and its continuation the musculophrenic artery

415
Q

where do the posterior IC arteries arise from?

A

aorta and the superior IC artery- from costo-cervical trunk, a branch of the subclavian

416
Q

veins in IC spaces?

A

2 anterior and 1 posterior IC vein
anterior drain via internal thoracic into subclavian
posterior drain via azygos on R and hemiazygos on L, into SVC

417
Q

describe the IC nerves?

A

A rami of thoracic spinal nerves (T1-T12), supply IC muscles, parietal pleura and overlying skin

418
Q

between which muscles does the neurovascular bundle lie?

A

internal and innermost IC muscles

419
Q

why can abdominal organs be damaged in a penetrating chest injury?

A

as dome of diaphragm means thoracic cavity much smaller than bony thorax would suggest and so abdominal organs e.g. liver, parts of stomach, spleen and upper kidneys in abdominal cavity are covered by the ribs and so can be damaged by a chest injury

R dome of diaphragm lies at level of 5th rib, L dome at 5th IC space

420
Q

what does the peripheral muscular part of the diaphragm comprise?

A

vertebral part: from crura and arcuate ligaments, crura= strong tendons attached to AL surfaces of the upper 3 L VBs, R crus from bodies and IV discs of L1,2,3, L from L1,2. arcuate ligaments= thickenings of fascia, media= thickening over psoas major muscle, lateral= over quadratus lumborum muscle

costal part: from inner aspects of 7-12 costal cartilages
sternal part: from deep surface of xiphisternum

421
Q

how are the 2 lateral pulmonary cavities separated?

A

by the mediastinum

422
Q

where does trachea divide into primary bronchi?

A

sternal angle

angle between these bronchi=carina-at T4/T5

423
Q

difference between R and L bronchi?

A

R= shorter, wider, and more vertical

L passes below arch of aorta, anterior to the descending aorta and oesophagus

424
Q

importance of bronchopulmonary segements?

A

can be isolated and removed without much bleeding or air leakage, or interfering with other bronchopulmonary segments

425
Q

what investigation can be used to visualise a bronchial carcinoma and to obtain a tissue sample for histology?

A

bronchoscopy

426
Q

describe the bronchial arteries

A

supply bronchi from carina up to the respiratory bronchioles, visceral pleura and CT

2 on L side from aorta, 1 on R from 3rd IC artery (branch of aorta)

427
Q

describe the bronchial veins

A

superficial group- drain visceral pleura and bronchi in hilar region to azygos vein on R and accessory hemiazygos on L

deep group- drain rest of bronchi deep in lung into main pulmonary vein or directly into L atrium.

428
Q

where does the apex of the lung extend above?

A

level of 1st rib into neck

429
Q

describe the borders and surfaces of the lungs?

A

convex costal surface separated from concave diaphragmatic surface by sharp inferior border
posterior border rounded to fit paravertebral gutter
thin anterior border, shows cardiac notch on L side
R an L mediastinum groove mediastinal surfaces

430
Q

what enters the hilum of each lung?

A

main bronchus, pulmonary artery, 2 pulmonary veins, bronchial vessels, nerves and lymphatics

431
Q

describe the nerve supply to the lung

A

fibres from vagi and sympathetic trunk via pulmonary plexuses situated at hilum

parasympathetic fibres from vagus motor to bronchial SM- bronchoconstriction, inhibitory to pulm vessels-vasodilator, and secretomotor to mucous glands

vagal afferent fibres for cough reflex and some subserving pain

sympathetic efferents bronchodilator and vasoconstrictior

432
Q

what do the pulmonary arteries eventually form?

A

the rich capillary network surrounding the alveoli

433
Q

what do the pulmonary arteries supply?

A

the alveoli
also, some anastomoses between bronchial and pulmonary arteries at pre capillary and capillary level which maintain blood supply to lung parenchyma after PE

434
Q

what do the pulmonary veins drain?

A

the alveoli

run in intersegmental septa and 2 leave each hilum, draining upper and lower lobes

435
Q

describe lung lymphatics

A

superficial subpleural plexus- lies deep to visceral pleura and drains lung parenchyma and visceral pleura, drain along surface to hilar LNs

deep bronchopulmonary lymphatic plexus- lies in submucosa of bronchi and peribronchial tissue, also drain eventually into hilar LN- bronchopulmonary nodes- in hilum of each lung. efferents from these nodes run to tracheobronchial nodes- enlargement of these can cause widening of angle of the carina

436
Q

where does apex of pleural cavity extend?

A

about 3cm above medial part of the clavicle

437
Q

cause for a harmless bulge in supra-clavicular fossa?

A

suprapleural membrane- fasica covering the apical pleura which sometimes deosn’t prevent the lung and pleura extending into the neck

438
Q

what might be damaged by cancer involvement of pleura apices?

A

subclavian vessels and BP

439
Q

what clinical procedures may cause a pneumothorax?

A

insertion of a chest drain
exposing kidney
liver biopsy
insertion of a sub-clavicular cannulation line into subclavian vein

440
Q

common microbial flora of URT?

A

neisseria
viridans streptococci
candida
anaerobes

441
Q

3 natural defences of RT against infections?

A

muco-ciliary clearance
cough and sneezing reflex
resp. mucosal IS- lymphid follicles of pharynx, tonsils-GALT*, alveolar macrophages, secretory IgA and IgG

442
Q

most common causes for URT infections?

A

RSV
rhinovirus
influenza/parainfluenza
coronavirus

443
Q

examples of URT infections?

A
pharyngtitis
rhinitis
epiglottitis
laryngitis- contrast with non-improvement in hoarse voice in lung cancer
sinusitis
otitis media
tracheitis
444
Q

causes of HA pneumonia?

A

staph aureus
pseudomonas
gram -ve enteric e.g. E coli
MRSA

445
Q

causes of pneumonia in IC host?

A
pneumocystis jirovecii- silver staining on lung biopsy
cytomegalovirus
candida
aspergillus- CGD
crytposporidium
varicella-zoster virus

opportunistic:SPUR

446
Q

aetiological clues for common resp. tract pathogens?

A

s.pneumoniae- elderly, co-morbidity, pleuritic pain, high fever
s.aureus- post-influenza
H.influenzae-COPD
legionella-recent travel
mycoplasma- prior antibiotics, extra-pul involv
chlamydia- bird contact
klebsiella-thrombocytopenia

447
Q

why are HA pneumonias caused by different organisms?

A

oropharyngeal colonisation with enteric gram -ves as immobile, loss of consciousness and instrumentation and gastric acid inhibition
subsequent aspiration of nasopharyngeal secretions

suspected when new infiltrates on CXR, with infection features- fever >38C purulent sputum, leucocytosis, hypoxaemia

448
Q

describe the pathogenesis of fibrosing alveolitis

A

repeated injury from exo.or endog. stimuli e.g. infection-EB virus, or pollutant. increases number of activated macrophages, so cytokine release, attract neutrophils and eosinphils, causing local lung damages with ROS and protease prod, causing tissue destruction and fibrosis, GFs recruit fibroblasts and are prod. by alveolar cells

449
Q

differential diagnoses of sarcoidosis?

A

lymphoma

TB- caseous granuloma- so distinguish by transbronchial biopsy

450
Q

4 stages of pulmonary involvement in sarcoidosis?

A

1: bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
2: BHL with pulmonary infiltrates
3: infiltrates but no BHL
4: irreversible fibrosis

451
Q

pathogenesis of asbestosis?

A

asbestos fibres penetrate to alveoli, cause alveolitis with macrophage influx coating fibres, producing asbestosis bodies, alveolitis progresses to fibrosis

452
Q

why is airways resistance not increased in interstitial lung diseases?

A

lung parenchyma involved, not airways
airways tend to be helped to be kept open as increased radial traction on airway as more fibrous tissue meaning the airway lumen is anchored to the lung interstitium more stongly

453
Q

what treatments can cause intertsitial lung disease?

A
radiation
methotrexate-RA
nitrofurantoin-UTIs
amiodarone-arrythmias
chemotherapy
454
Q

occupational causes of interstitial lung disease?

A

coal workers pneumoconiosis-coal dust and carbon
silicosis-mining and stone working
asbestosis

455
Q

what do people with chest wall deformities tend to die from and why?

A

pneumonia

as poor clearance of secretions by coughing so prone to infections

456
Q

O2 need of M TB?

A

obligate aerobe

457
Q

unit of infection in TB in terms of transmission?

A

droplet nucleus- formed from evaporation of droplets. disperses

458
Q

how is a cellular immune response created in TB infection?

A

macrophages- present TB antigen to T cells- CD4+ T cells?
T helper 1 cells release interferon gamma- enhances phagocytosis activity of macrophages
activated macrophaes emerge with an enhanced ability to kill M TB, takes about 6wks to develop

459
Q

how is M TB kept latent calcified nodules?

A

contained by IS- T cells- cell-mediated immunity, and hypoxic acidic environment of the granuloma

460
Q

what reaction takes place in latent TB if mantoux test?

A

type IV hypersensitivity reaction

461
Q

why is sputum rarely +ve in post-primary TB if HIV infection?

A

reduced cellular immunity, so less destructive element of TB in lung- CD4+ T cells infected by HIV, and these mediate inflammatory response to TB, with macrophage activation and granuloma formation

462
Q

when is a patient with TB infectious?

A

when the bacilli is detectable in sputum

463
Q

in which people is an exogenous reinfection likely to cause post-primary TB?

A

HIV

464
Q

what immune components produced in TB to cause granuloma formation?

A

macropahges and dendritic- IL-12

Interferon gamma and TNF alpha- NK and CD4+ T cells

465
Q

what is thought to predispose to reactivation of TB bacilli in upper lung lobes?

A

high V/P ratio relative to other parts of lung

466
Q

what is breathlessness indicative of in TB?

A

pleural effusion- bacilli seed in pleura, or hypersensitivity

467
Q

symptoms of post primary TB?

A
haemoptysis
persistent cough
unresolving pneumonia
fever
malaise
weight loss
night sweats
468
Q

signs of post-primary TB?

A
pallor-anaemia- haemoptysis?
fever
weight loss
clubbing
palpable cervical nodes
469
Q

4 ways of getting post primary TB disease?

A

primary infection to disease
reactivation
haematogenous spread with miliary TB
exogenous reinfection

470
Q

how can disease process of TB be prevented by identifying those who have been in contact with someone with TB?

A

contact screening

can reduce transmission and cure

471
Q

why must oragnsim be cultured in TB?

A

to determine susceptibility to drugs

472
Q

LNs most commonly affected in TB?

A

neck
painless enlargement of cervical or supraclavicular
no erythema

473
Q

descibe TB spondylitis (TB causing inflammation of vertebrae)

A

subchondral bone, spreads to VBs and joitn space, then follows A and P long. ligaments, so may be pus on both sides of spine- paravertebral abscesses
chronic back pain
ankylosing- spine takes a different course

474
Q

how do we exclude CNS involvement in miliary TB?

A

CT or lumbar puncture

475
Q

systemic symptoms of miliary TB?

A

fever
malaise
weight loss

476
Q

what is multi-drug resistant TB?

A

resistant to both rifampicin and isoniazid

477
Q

how can MTB become resistant to rifampicin?

A

single mutatgenic events cause aa substitutions in drug target proteins

478
Q

when should a neonate be given TB vaccine?

A

if FH of TB in past 5 yrs

479
Q

how would SVC obstruction be seen in patient with lung cancer?

A

dilated veins in upper chest and arms

480
Q

symptoms of lung cancer?

A
relatively non-specific
chest pain- pleuritic
dyspnoea
new and unresolving cough
weight loss
hoarse voice
dysphagia
haemoptysis
recurrent infections
lethargy and malaise
481
Q

why might infection occur in lung with lung cancer?

A

partial bronchus obstruction, secretions retained, so bacterial overgrowth

482
Q

what might be seen on CXR with LC?

A
rounded opacity- mass lesion
pleural effusion
slow resolving consolidation
collapse
hilar adenopathy
483
Q

imaging technique for LC that can be used for TNM staging?

A

CT scan

484
Q

imaging for LC?

A
CXR
CT
PET
isotope bone scan
ultrasonography
MRI
485
Q

how can tissue be extracted for small/non small cell diagnosis of LC?

A

bronchoscopy
needle biopsy
surgical biopsy

486
Q

what may an adenocarcinoma of lung produce?

A

mucin

487
Q

with what tment is small cell LC potentially curative?

A

chemotherapy

488
Q

2 benefits of PA CXR?

A

no heart magnification

scapulae moved out of the way

489
Q

CXR for pulmonary oedema due to HF?

A

bats wing apperance- opacities at hilum of lung due to pulm oedema

490
Q

4 possible causes for opaque lung?

A

consolidation
lung collapse
massive pleural effusion
pneumonectomy

491
Q

why is epiglottitis rarely seen now?

A

vaccination against H.influenzae

492
Q

how are S and I mediastinum divided?

A

by transverse thoracic plane