M and R Flashcards

1
Q

What is the length of a nerve axon AP?

A

0.5-1.0ms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Why is the equlibrium potential of sodium not reached during a nerve axon AP?

A

K+ is also being effluxed at the same time as Na+ is moving into the cell, so it’s because of the permeability of the membrane to K+.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Why does the membrane potential become driven towards the equlibrium potential for potassium during the downstroke of a nerve axon AP?

A

Na+ channels inactivate, and more K+ channels open, so the cell becomes repolarised.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When is the absolute refractory period?

A

Directly after the onset of an AP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is happening during the absolute refractory period?

A

Nearly all Na+ channels are in the inactivated state, and so the membrane cannot be further excited, so another AP cannot be produced during this time, limiting the rate of firing of APs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is happening during the relative refractory period?

A

Na+ channels are recovering, with the no. in their inactivated state decreasing, so an AP can be produced if stronger than normal stimulus as higher threshold. K+ channels maintained in open state.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Why do slowly increasing currents fail to fire nerve APs?

A

Adaptation occurs, as if membrane slowly depolarised, some Na+ channels open but not many, and one open, they inactivate, and an insufficient no. are open to cause an AP, so as depolarisation continues, the threshold for AP will never be reached as all sodium channels will end up in their inactivated state.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the equation for conduction velocity?

A

Distance/time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What happens if acute complete demyelination occurs?

A

Conduction fails as increased capacitance, so current leakage, which means that the nodes are not raised to threshold.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What happens if chronic complete demyelination occurs?

A

Slower than normal conduction can occur as new Na+ and K+ channels are synthesised, and inserted not just at the nodes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the relationship between conduction velocity and fibre diameter in a myelinated nerve?

A

CV is proportional to FD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the relationship between conduction velocity and fibre diameter in an unmyelinated nerve?

A

CV is proportional to the square root of FD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Would an AP be easier or harder to fire in acute hyperkalaemia?

A

Easier as a lesser change in ion conductance is required for depolarisation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Why might chronic hyperkalaemia cause arrhythmias?

A

The less -ve Vm due to less efflux of K+ ions will prevent the repriming of Na+ channels that have been inactivated, so electrically silent or ‘accomodated’ membrane, which can lead to arrhythmias.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Name 2 inhibitors of warfarin action and describe how they produce their inhibitory effect.

A

Barbiturates and rifampicin. These induce liver metabolising enzymes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How does alchol potentiate the action of warfarin?

A

It inhibits the metabolism of warfarin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Name some drugs which displace warfarin from plasma proteins

A

Aspirin, Sulphonamides, Phenytoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Why do broad spectrum antibiotics potentiate warfarin action?

A

They reduce Vit K synthesis by bacteria in gut.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Give an example of a drug that potentiates the action of warfarin by reducing platelet function.

A

Aspirin-cyclooxygenase inhibitor, the enzyme is required for the synthesis of thromboxane A2 which is involved in platelet aggregation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Define oral bioavailability

A

Proportion of a drug given orally, or by any other route that IV, that reaches the systemic circulation in an unchanged form.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the 1st pass effect?

A

It refers to the inactivation of a fraction of a drug by liver enzymes before the drug has exerted its effect in the body, e.g. if a drug is given orally.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How can the 1st pass effect be avoided?

A

By giving a drug parenterally e.g. IV, IM, SC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is oral bioavailability affected by?

A

Administration route, chemical form of drug and patient-specific factors e.g. GI and hepatic disorders, and enzymes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How is oral bioavailability measured?

A

Amount- dependent on 1st pass met. and gut absorption, and Rate of availability- dependent on form and administration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the therapeutic ratio?

A

LD50/ED50, so the dose of drug causing a toxic response in 50% of pop./ dose of drug that is therapeutically effective in 50% of pop.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What would a large therapeutic ratio indicate?

A

A large difference between therapeutic and toxic doses, so large therapeutic window.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Other than parenterally, how can a drug be administered to avoid the 1st pass effect?

A

Rectal- drains into both portal and systemic circulations, and sublingual e.g. use of GTN in angina.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the volume of distribution?

A

The theoretical vol. into which a drug has distributed assuming that this occurred instantaneously.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When are protein binding drug interactions important?

A

When the object drug (Class I):- is highly bound to albumin

  • has a small vol. of distribution
  • has a low therapeutic ratio
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

If warfarin (Class I), is administered with aspirin/pheytoin/sulfonamides (Class II), what will happen to the free levels of warfarin and so what is the patient at risk of?

A

Levels will increase as warfarin displaced from proteins so increased risk of bleeding. However, binding interactions are transient, elimination rate of warfarin will also increase as this depends on free drug levels.

31
Q

Describe 1st order kinetics

A

Rate of elimination of drug/ rate of decrease in plasma drug level, is proportional to drug level.

32
Q

Descrive 0 order kinetics

A

Rate of elimination of drug is constant e.g. alcohol, phenytoin, so only so much drug can be eliminated per time period.

33
Q

When are drug metabolism interactions likely to matter?

A

With drugs with low therapeutic ratios, drugs being used at minimum effective conc and if drug met. follows 0 order kinetics.

34
Q

Name an enzyme inducer which affects the OC pill, and what effect this can have.

A

Rifampicin, liver enzymes induced so increased metabolism of oestroge, so concentration in blood reduced and loss of therapeutic effect of OC pill.

35
Q

Name an enzyme inhibitor which affects warfarin and what effect this might have.

A

Cimetidine. Redcued met. of warfarin, so increased levels in blood, may cause unwanted bleeding.

36
Q

What is the pK of a drug?

A

The pH at which 1/2 of the drug is ionised, and 1/2 non-ionised. Only non-ionsied moiety is lipid-soluble and crosses membranes easily for reabsorption.

37
Q

With weak acids, does alkaline urine increase or decrease absorption and why?

A

Decreases absorption as drug ionised so less tubular absorption as charged drug stays in tubule lumen.

38
Q

Why would forced alkaline diuresis help in an aspirin overdose?

A

Aspirin is a weak acid, so by by making the urine more alkaline, you will increase the amount of ionised aspirin which is unable to be reabsorbed, and so will increase the elimination rate of aspirin.

39
Q

If a drug follows 1st order kinetics, what would the graph of plasma drug level against prescribed dosage look like?

A

straight line, diagonally upwards from left to right, as drug level in blood would increase in proportion to dosage.

40
Q

If a drug follows 1st order kinetics, what would the graph of plasma conc against time look like?

A

curve, with steep decline at the start and then less decline over time, as rate of elimination proportional to drug conc, so more eliminated at start when more drug, so rate in decrease in its conc will be faster at start.

41
Q

If a drug follows 0 order kinetics, what would the graph of plasma drug level against prescribed dosage look like?

A

curve, with gentle incline low dosage, then steeper incline with higher dosage as elimination mechanisms become saturated so a small increase in dose from an effective dose could quickly become a toxic dose.

42
Q

If a drug follows 0 order kinetics, what would the graph of plasma conc against time look like?

A

straight line, downwards on a diagonal from left to right as constant elimination rate.

43
Q

How does the cholera toxin affect G protein receptor-effector coupling?

A

The toxin causes ADP ribosylation of alpha subunits of G proteins, part. Gs. Modifies ability of Gs to break down GTP so inactivation step inhibited as GTPase activity affected, system can’t turn off. cAMP increased, H20 channels opened, H20 enters lumen of gut, causing diarrhoea.

44
Q

How does the pertussis toxin affect G protein receptor-effector coupling?

A

ADP ribosylation of Gi type G proteins, stopping GDP for GTP exchange so signalling pathway shut off as GTP doesn’t bind.

45
Q

Free Na+ distribution across membrane

A

Inside:12mM, Outside:145mM

46
Q

Free K+ distribution across membrane

A

Inside:155mM, Outside:4mM

47
Q

Free Ca2+ distribution across membrane

A

Inside:10^-7M, Outside:1.5mM

48
Q

Free Cl- distribution across membrane

A

Inside: 4.2mM, Outside:123mM

49
Q

How can enveloped viruses and some toxins e.g. diptheria and cholera, exploit endocytic pathways?

A

Can bind to cells, assoc. with receptors-adventitious binding, and then enter cell via clathrin-coated pits. In endosome, acidic pH favourable, so protein in capsid of virus unfolds- sticks out hydrophobic projections ao viral membrane fuses with endosomal, so release of viral RNA into cell where can be translated and replicated to form new viral particles. Host cell machinery used to replicate viral RNA.

50
Q

where are phospholipids synthesised?

A

ER

51
Q

head groups on phospholipid molecules?

A

choline, aa, amines, sugars

52
Q

how do xanthines work in asthma?

A

inhibit cAMP phosphodiesterase, so reduce its breakdown, so more CAMP around to result in bronchial smooth muscle cell relaxation

53
Q

give an example of a depolarising blocker and explain how it works

A

succinylcholine
mimics action of ACh at NMJ, depolarising motor end plate and maintaining this depolarisation as it is not broken down like ACh via ACh esterase, so Na+ channels inactivated, so that when ACh binds, it cannot cause further depolaritation and create an AP

54
Q

4 types of receptors?

A

GPCRs
intrinsic ion channels
integral enzyme activity
intracellular

55
Q

why do we need receptors?

A

specificity of response
amplification- enzymes activating more enzymes
cells need to be told they are doing the right job or they tend to apoptose

56
Q

importance of RME in hyperlipoproteinaemias?

A

familial hypercholesterolaemia- deficiency of functional LDL receptors
xanthelasma, tendon xanthoma and corneal arcus

57
Q

importance of pH in RME for Fe3+

A

acidic endosome- Fe3+ released but apotransferrin remains bound to receptor
after sorting in the CURL, returned to surface where neutral pH allows separation of apotransferrin and receptor

58
Q

what is the endosome also known as?

A

CURL

59
Q

importance of RME in terms of type 2 diabetes develpment?

A

both insulin and receptor are degraded
basal hyperglycaemia- beta cells will make insulin, so basal insulinaemia, causing downregulation of insulin receptors when it binds, so that cells become resistant to insulin so glucose remains in the blood, and hepatocytes have no insulin signal to switch off gluconeogenesis, so gluocse intolerance. Hyperglycaemia over many yrs means beta cells forced to prod glucose all the time, but cells designed for pulsatile release, so impaired prod and reduced insulin response, so both deficiency and resistance

60
Q

how does a GPCR interact with a G protein

A

when ligand binds to GPCR, GPCR then develops an affinity for the G protein and this heterotrimeric protein becomes activated with GDP/GTP exchange, and the subunits then separate

61
Q

how is heart rate reduced by PNS?

A

M2 receptors acted on by ACh- Gi- decrease cAMP, AND both alpha and beta-gamma subunits act on K+ channels to incerase their open probability causing hyperpolarisation which slows and can prevent the intrinsic firing rate

62
Q

how can neurotransmitter release be modulated by GPCRs?

A

Gi at pre-synaptic terminal, coupled to mu-opioid receptor that can be activated by morphine, and beta-gamma subunit interacts with VOCCs to inhibit Ca2+ influx, hence NT cannot be released adn calcium necessary to bind to synaptotagmin

63
Q

what do spare receptors achieve?

A

increased sensitivity- lower conc of drug required to produce maximal response, so changing receptor number influences agonist potency

64
Q

what does maximal response give an indicator of?

A

intrinsic activity of a drug- drug may be a partial agonist so can never elicit a max response, but if receptor number increased, it may become a full agonist, but it still has a lower intrinsic efficacy as not every binding event is converted into a response, but there are sufficient receptors for the combined activation to cause a full response

65
Q

how can partial agonsits have a higher potency than full agnoists?

A

may have a higher affinity despite the lower intrinsic efficacy

66
Q

what drug can be used as an antagonist of morphine as higher affinity?

A

buprenorphine

67
Q

-ve of parenteral drug administration?

A

risk of infection

but avoids 1st pass effect by liver

68
Q

importance of warfarin and aspirin drug interaction?

A

warfarin=class I, aspirin=class II, so if both used together, aspirin displaces warfarin from protein binding sites, so increased risk of bleeding

69
Q

how does cholesterol stabilise the membrane?

A

at high temepratures, reduces fluidity as rigid cholesterol ring is held close to the fatty acyl chains- cholesterol can form H bonds with ester of phospholipid, reducing intravibrational movements, but at low temps, cholesterol reduces phospholipid packing, spaced out, breaking bonds, so increases fluidity.

70
Q

from what membrane potential does a nerve AP begin?

A

-70mV

71
Q

name a Ca2+ buffer found in the DCT of the kidney

A

calbindin

72
Q

what channel is used to restore normal IC calcium levels via capacitative Ca2+ entry?

A

store-operated Ca2+ channel (SOC) activated when depleted signal

73
Q

what is a loading dose of a drug?

A

a higher drug dosage given before the maintenance dose due to a drug having a long 1/2 life or requiring the desired therapeutic effect straight away. drugs with a long 1/2 life take longer to reach desired therapeutic effect, so may give a really high dose straight away before then taking a smaller amount which is the same everyday from then on