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FT 5490 Trans Checkride GK > TO 1T-6A-1 T-6A Flight Manual > Flashcards

TO 1T-6A-1 T-6A Flight Manual Flashcards

1
Q

What are the reasons for manually aborting a start?

A

-ITT Rate of Increase appears likely to exceed 1000 °C (hot start)
-ITT Appears likely to remain between 871-1000 °C for >5 seconds
-Normal N1 Increase is halted (hung start)
-No rise of ITT is evident within 10 seconds after fuel flow indications (no start)
-BAT BUS annunciator illuminates during start sequence
-PCL is moved or the ST READY annunciator extinguishes during the start sequence

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2
Q

What is the procedure for manually aborting a start?

A

PCL - OFF or STARTER SWITCH - AUTO/RESET

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3
Q

What does the Red BAT BUS annunciator mean?

A

Battery bus inoperative

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4
Q

What does the Red GEN BUS annunciator mean?

A

Generator Bus Inoperative

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5
Q

What does the Red PMU FAIL annunciator mean?

A

PMU Failure

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6
Q

What does the red GEN annunciator mean?

A

Generator inoperative

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7
Q

What does the red CKPT PX annunciator mean?

A

Cockpit overpressurization, pressure exceeds 3.9 to 4.0 PSI

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8
Q

What does the red CANOPY annunciator mean?

A

Canopy unlocked/unsafe

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9
Q

What does the red FUEL PX annunciator mean?

A

Fuel Pressure below 10 PSI in the motive flow/return flow supply line

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10
Q

What does the red OIL PX annunciator mean?

A

Oil pressure at or below 15 PSI, or oil pressure 15-40 PSI for 5 seconds at idle, or oil pressure at or below 40 PSI above idle

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11
Q

What does the red CHIP annunciator mean?

A

Engine chip detector indicates oil contamination

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12
Q

What does the red OBOGS FAIL annunciator mean?

A

OBOGS system malfunction

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13
Q

What does the red OXY CRIT annunciator mean?

A

Combined OBOGS FAIL and BOS FAIL annunciators

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14
Q

What does the amber CKPT ALT annunciator mean?

A

Cockpit pressure altitude above 19,000 Feet

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15
Q

What does the amber DUCT TEMP annunciator mean?

A

Environmental duct or defog duct above 300 °F

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16
Q

What does the amber HYDR FL LO annunciator mean?

A

Hydraulic reservoir fluid level below 55 cubic inches (1 quart)

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17
Q

What does the amber BUS TIE annunciator mean?

A

BUS TIE switch open, or bus tie inoperative

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18
Q

What does the amber FUEL BAL annunciator mean?

A

Fuel imbalance exceeds 30 lbs for 2 minutes, or fuel probe fail, or EDM fail

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19
Q

What does the amber EHYD PX LO annunciator mean?

A

Emergency Hydraulic Pressure at or below 2400 ± 150 PSI

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20
Q

What does the amber OBOGS TEMP annunciator mean?

A

OBOGS Temperature above 200 °F

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21
Q

What does the amber BOS FAIL annunciator mean?

A

BOS bottle oxygen pressure drops below 500 psi or bottle regulator malfunction

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22
Q

What does the amber OBOGS FAIL annunciator mean?

A

OBOGS System Malfunction

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23
Q

What does the amber TAD FAIL annunciator mean?

A

Rudder trim aid device failure

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24
Q

What does the amber L FUEL LO annunciator mean?

A

Left wing tank below approximately 110 lbs usable fuel

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25
Q

What does the amber R FUEL LO annunciator mean?

A

Right wing tank below approximately 110 lbs usable fuel

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26
Q

What does the amber PMU STATUS annunciator mean?

A

PMU has detected and accomodated a fault in-flight or WOW switch failure

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27
Q

What does the amber OIL PX annunciator mean?

A

Oil pressure 15-40 PSI at idle, or Oil pressure 40-90 PSI for 10 seconds above idle

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28
Q

What does the green IGN SEL annunciator mean?

A

Ignition On

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29
Q

What does the green M FUEL BAL annunciator mean?

A

FUEL BAL switch in MANUAL position

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30
Q

What does the green BOOST PUMP annunciator mean?

A

BOOST PUMP selected by switch, starter relay, or low pressure switch

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30
Q

What does the green ST READY annunciator mean?

A

PCL positioned for auto start

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31
Q

What does the green ANTI ICE annunciator mean?

A

PROBES ANTI-ICE switch on

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32
Q

What does the green TAD OFF annunciator mean?

A

Rudder trim aid device selected off

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33
Q

What does the green TRIM OFF annunciator mean?

A

TRIM DISCONNECT switch activated

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34
Q

What does the green BOS PUSH MAN ON annunciator mean?

A

Activation of the ABOS system

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35
Q

On the FDR Maintenance Panel, what does the amber FAIL indicator mean?

A

IDARS has failed, notify maintenance

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36
Q

On the FDR Maintenance Panel, what does the green MAINT indicator mean?

A

IDARS memory is 80% full, or over-G may have occurred, notify maintenance

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37
Q

What is the definition of Land as Soon as Possible?

A

An emergency shall be declared and a landing accomplished at the nearest suitable landing area considering the severity of the emergency, weather conditions, field facilities, ambient lighting, and command guidance

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38
Q

What is the definition of Land as Soon as Practical?

A

Emergency conditions are less urgent and, although the mission is to be terminated, the degree of the emergency is such that an immediate landing may not be necessary

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39
Q

What is the definition of a Suitable Landing Area?

A

A suitable landing area is a hard surface runway, taxiway, or under/overrun. Landing on an unprepared surface or ditching is not recommended

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40
Q

How do you confirm a Battery Bus Failure?

A

BAT BUS indicator as well as multiple failures of items on the Battery Bus with associated CWS annunciatiors illuminated (TRIM OFF, OIL PX, HYDR FL LOW, PMU STATUS). The most noticable failures will be the EADI, GPS, AEDD, and power off flags in the standby ADI, standby turn and slip indicator, and pressurization.

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41
Q

If Bat Bus annuncator illuminates without actual loss of battery bus what should you do?

A

Check CWS circuit breaker (battery bus panel front cockpit). If CWS Circuit breaker is open, DO NOT RESET, battery bus is functioning normally, land as soon as practical.

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42
Q

If you confirm a Battery Bus failure what should you do?

A

Descent below 10,000 Feet MSL - Initiate (As required)
Composite Switch on Unaffected Display - Push
BUS TIE Switch - Open
AUX BAT Switch - ON
BACKUP UHF - ON
AUDIO Switch - select ALTN (BOTH)
LANDING GEAR EMERGENCY EXTENTION - Execute Prior to Landing
Land as soon as Practical

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43
Q

What is the effect on configuration that a confirmed Battery Bus failure will have?

A

Emergency Hydraulic System will need to be used to lower gear and flaps. OBOGS will fail, cockpit will depressurize

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44
Q

If the red GEN annunciator illuminates, what should you check first?

A

The Starter Switch, if the Starter switch is not in NORM, the generator will not function. If the starter switch is in Manual, the generator will not function and the starter will drain battery in less than 10 minutes if left on.

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45
Q

What should you do in the event of a red GEN annunciator?

A

STARTER SWITCH - NORM (BOTH)
GEN SWITCH - ON (front or back)
GEN RESET SWITCH - DEPRESS AND HOLD FOR 1 SECOND MINIMUM

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46
Q

How do you confirm an inoperative generator?

A

DC Voltmeter below 25 Volts and Ammeter Discharging

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47
Q

If generator remains inoperative after gen reset is depressed, what should you do?

A

Descent Below 10,000 Ft MSL - INITIATE (AS REQUIRED)
GEN SWITCH - OFF
BUS TIE switch - OPEN
BOS PUSH MAN switch - PRESS ON
Land as soon as practical

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48
Q

What does opening the bus tie switch do in the event of generator failure?

A

Reduces electrical load by shedding items on the generator bus, this will permit main battery operation for at least 30 minutes.

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49
Q

How do you confirm a generator bus inoperative?

A

GEN BUS annunciator illuminated along with CWS annunciators illuminated for items on generator bus (most prominent indicator EHSI failure)

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50
Q

If GEN BUS annunciator illuminates without associated indicators of actual generator bus failure, what should you do?

A

Check CWS circuit breaker on generator bus panel and if open, DO NOT RESET.
Land as soon as practical

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51
Q

If GEN BUS annunciator illuminates with associated indicators of an actual generator bus failure, what should you do?

A

BUS TIE switch - NORM
Land as soon as practical

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52
Q

What should be considered unavailable if you see the HYDR FL LO annunciator and confirm it?

A

Normal operation of the landing gear, flaps, speed brake, and nosewheel steering

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53
Q

If the hydraulic pressure transmitter fails, what should you see on the hydraulic pressure gauge?

A

0 PSI or some abnormal out of ops limits reading (all hydraulic systems should operate normally)

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54
Q

What should be considered inoperative when the EHYD PX LO annunciator is illuminated?

A

The emergency landing gear and flap extension system

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55
Q

How do you confirm a Hydraulic System Failure?

A

Hydraulic pressure below 1800 PSI or rapidly decreasing towards 0/at 0

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56
Q

What should you do in the event of an AOA Computer Fail?

A

AOA Circuit Breaker - PULL
Land as soon as practical
Fly known pitch, power, and airspeed settings to safely recover the aircraft.

57
Q

When the stick shaker activates unexpectedly, what should you do?

A

Cross check the AOA indicator and airspeed to determine actual stall condition (Stick shaker malfunctions do not necessarily indicate a problem with the AOA indicator)

58
Q

Study General EP Knowledge! (-1 Chapter 3)

A

Check

59
Q

Oil level must be serviced within how many minutes of engine shutdown?

A

30 minutes (prefer between 15-20 minutes)

60
Q

What is normal oil level on the dipstick?

A

Between ADD and MAX HOT

61
Q

If engine oil is below ADD on the Dipstick, where should you refil it to?

A

MAX HOT

62
Q

Do not attempt a battery powered ground start if the battery is below _____ Volts

A

23.5

63
Q

Do not connect external power if the battery voltage is below _____ Volts

A

22.0

64
Q

Starter duty cycle is limited to how many attempts?

A

4

65
Q

How many seconds should you motor in between starter duty cycles?

A

20 seconds

66
Q

What are the cooling periods in between each starter duty cycle?

A

30 sec, 2 min, 5 min, 30 min

67
Q

Study Engine Operating Limits

A

Page 5-8 on the Dash 1

68
Q

Sustained propeller operation on the ground between ____ and _____ Np is prohibited to prevent damage from ground resonance.

A

62% - 80%

69
Q

Propeller Overspeed Limit is _____ Np

A

110%

70
Q

Vmo (maximum operating airspeed) is _____ KIAS up to and including _______ MSL

A

316 KIAS, 18,769 MSL

71
Q

Mmo (maximum operating mach number) is _____ Mach

A

0.67

72
Q

Vg (Maximum airspeed for turbulence penetration)

A

195 (180 is recommended)

73
Q

Vo (Maneuvering Speed)

A

227 KIAS (Full rudder deflection above 150 KIAS will exceed the limits of the rudder control system)

74
Q

Zero G max time limit

A

5 seconds

75
Q

Negative G operation (including inverted) maximum time limit

A

60 seconds

76
Q

Study Prohibited Maneuvers

A

Check

77
Q

Study Acceleration (G) limits

A
78
Q

Maximum Ramp weight

A

6550 pounds

79
Q

Maximum Takeoff Weight

A

6500 pounds

80
Q

Maximum landing weight

A

6500 pounds

81
Q

Maximum zero fuel weight

A

5500 pounds

82
Q

Maximum weight in baggage compartment

A

80 pounds

83
Q

Maximum total weight of bags and publications on glareshield

A

8.5 pounds

84
Q

Nose wheel steering limitations

A

Do not use nose wheel steering for takeoff or landing

85
Q

Canopy defog limitations

A

Canopy defog must be off for takeoff and landing

86
Q

Maximum Rate of Descent at Touchdown when main tires are serviced to normal landing conditions pressure

A

600 FPM

87
Q

Maximum rate of descent at touchdown when main tires are serviced to maximum landing conditions pressure

A

780 FPM

88
Q

Study Crosswind Limits

A

Check

89
Q

When taxiing over raised arresting cables, taxi at ___________, steer to _______

A

as slow a speed as possible, avoid nose and main gear contact with cable support donuts

90
Q

Can you taxi over arresting cables with main gear doors open?

A

NO

91
Q

Taxiing over lowered net barriers should be _________

A

avoided if at all possible

92
Q

If contact with a lowered barrier is unavoidable ___________. _____________ after clearing the lowered barrier

A

Reduce power to idle and discontinue braking. Recommence braking

93
Q

In the unlikely event that webbing catches on the aircraft, aircrews _________.

A

may experience directional control problems.

94
Q

What should you do before the aircraft engages a raised web barrier?

A

Steer around the barrier or eject

95
Q

Aircraft approved for transit through a _______ band of ________ type icing

A

5,000, light rime

96
Q

At first indication of icing, aircrew should __________

A

-Ensure PROBES ANTI-ICE switch is on to prevent freezing of pitot tubes and AOA vane (if pitot tubes freeze, unreliable systems that rely on airspeed data, if AOA freezes, loss of artificial stall warning)
-Ascend or descent from the icing layer to melt or sublimate the ice

97
Q

Aerobatics after an icing encounter are ________

A

Prohibited until ice accumulations on the aircraft are melted or sublimated

98
Q

Maneuvers with ice accumulation are restricted to ______ degrees bank angle and ____ to ____ Gs normal acceleration, up until stall warning system activation

A

30, 0 to 2

99
Q

For icing conditions, in landing configuration and during the landing phase, approach speed must be increased by ____ KIAS

A

10

100
Q

Approved Fuels are

A

JP-4, JP-5, JP-8 +100 (USAF only), Jet A, Jet A +100 (USAF only), Jet A-1, Jet B, F-24, F-34, F-35, F-40, F-44, F-27 (USAF only). Commercial Jet A, Jet A-1, or Jet B may be used, providing it contains anti-ice/fungicide (PFAMB, MIL-DTL-85470 or equivalent)

101
Q

Aerobatics operation is prohibited with indicated fuel quantities below ____

A

150 pounds per side (yellow arc on gage)

102
Q

Maximum lateral fuel imbalance is _____

A

50 lbs

103
Q

Engine Operation using only the engine-driven high pressure fuel pump without both the electric boost pump and the engine-driven low pressure fuel pump is limited to ______ hours. All _______ must be recorded.

A

10, time in this category

104
Q

Maximum fuel flow

A

799 PPH

105
Q

Ground operation is limited to ambient temperatures of _____ to _____. Ground operations during ambient temperatures exceeding ______ is permitted for up to 15 minutes for the purpose of _________.

A

-23 to 43 °C, 43 °C, taxiing the aircraft to park.

106
Q

The aircraft is cleared to operate on _________ runways only.

A

hard surfaced (concrete, tarmac, or similar)

107
Q

Ejection seat pilot weight limits are a minimum weight with equipment and flight gear of ________ pounds, and maximum weight with equipment and flight gear of ______ pounds

A

121, 271

108
Q

When ejecting over mountainous terrain exceeding ______ feet MSL, the ______ should be used to manually separate from the seat and deploy the parachute

A

8,000, MOR Handle

109
Q

The aircraft exhibits ______ stability in all configurations throughout the flight envelope

A

Positive

110
Q

Best glide speed is _____ with a sink rate of ______ FPM

A

125 KIAS, 1350

111
Q

The artificial stall warning (Stick shaker) activates a minimum of ______ knots before the stall is reached but this can range from _____ to _____ knots

A

5, 5-10

112
Q

Natural stall warning (light aerodynamic buffet) occurs ____ knots before the stall

A

3

113
Q

A ______ together with increased buffet, is the defining characteristic of an upright, wings-level stall

A

roll-off, or wing drop

114
Q

With power off, lateral roll-off during a wings level stall is typically to the ______

A

Right

115
Q

During a wings-level, power-on stall, a _____ rolling tendency is induced at stall by engine torque before reaching full aft stick.

A

Left

116
Q

Above ____ torque, full _____ rudder and full _____ aileron may not prevent a _____ roll-off at stall

A

60%, right, right, left

117
Q

What element of configuration aggravates the roll-off tendency at stall?

A

flap extension (landing gear extension, speed brake extension, and fuel imbalance all have negligible effects on stall characteristics)

118
Q

Define Out-of-Control Flight (OCF)

A

A situation in which the aircraft does not respond immediately and in a normal sense to application of flight controls

119
Q

Define Poststall Gyrations

A

The motions of the aircraft about one or more axes immediately following a stall and prior to the incipient spin

120
Q

What is a spiral?

A

A spiral is a rolling and/or yawing motion of the aircraft that is often mistaken for a spin, but is not steady-state in that the airspeed is increasing through 160 KIAS and motions are oscillatory.

121
Q

What causes a spiral?

A

Misapplication of pro-spin controls (insufficient rudder or aft stick)

122
Q

What is the best response to a spiral?

A

OCF Boldface

123
Q

Why are spins prohibited below 10,000 Feet Pressure Altitude?

A

When you spin with the propeller RPM below 80%, this causes high stresses on the propeller. Above 10,000 Feet Pressure altitude, the PMU artificially maintains propeller RPM above 80%.

124
Q

During an erect spin, what will the AOA be?

A

18+

125
Q

During an erect spin, what will the airspeed stabilize at?

A

120-135 KIAS

126
Q

During an erect spin, how many seconds per turn and how many feet lost per turn?

A

2-3 seconds, 400-500 feet

127
Q

How much altitude is lost during the recovery from an erect spin?

A

1500-2000 feet (not accounting for the 500 feet lost per turn)

128
Q

How does RCR affect TOLD?

A

No effect on takeoff ground run distance, lower RCR (more slick conditions) increases landing distance.

129
Q

How does headwind affect TOLD?

A

Decreases takeoff ground run distance, decreases landing distance.

130
Q

How does temperature affect TOLD

A

Higher Temperatures Require longer takeoff and landing distances.

131
Q

How does pressure altitude affect TOLD?

A

Higher Pressure Altitudes require longer takeoff and landing distances.

132
Q

What is the RCR (Runway Condition Reading) for a dry, wet, and icy runway respectively?

A

23, 12, 05

133
Q

What is the definition of maximum braking speed?

A

Maximum speed from which the aircraft can be brought to a stop without exceeding the maximum design energy absorption capability of the brakes (3.96 million foot-pounds)

134
Q

What is the definition of maximum abort speed?

A

The maximum speed at which an abort may be started and the aircraft stopped within the remaining runway length.

135
Q

What are the assumptions made when calculating maximum abort speed?

A

-A 3 second reaction at maximum abort speed to recognize decision to abort and select idle power
-A 3 second period to apply the brakes after idle power is selected

136
Q

If the abort speed is greater than maximum braking speed minus 20 knots, what is your new abort speed?

A

Maximum braking speed minus 20 knots

137
Q

For TOLD, you should be able to calculate:

A

-Min torque at 60 knots (-1 figure A3-1)
-Max abort speed Flaps TO (figure A3-1)
-Takeoff distance Flaps TO (figure A3-8)
-Landing distance (flaps up) (Figure A8-1)

138
Q

What is the definition of maximum range?

A

The level flight speed which yields the maximum value of nautical air miles per pound of fuel.

139
Q

What is the definition of Max or Best endurance?

A

The speed for minimum fuel flow in level flight

140
Q

What is the definition of long range cruise speed?

A

The level flight speed above the maximum range speed which yields 99% of maximum range

141
Q

What are assumptions made when calculating landing distance?

A

-A 3 degree approach to the 50 foot obstacle height
-Idle power and threshold speed as determined by the chart at 50 feet
-A 2 second delay from touchdown to initiation of braking
-Maximum braking is obtained once the aircraft is firmly on the ground and continues to a full stop
-The braking friction coefficient for a dry asphalt or concrete runway corresponds to an RCR of 23

FT 5490 Trans Checkride GK (9 decks)

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