11-202V3 Flight Operations

Question 1

Do not depart IFR unless the weather conditions at the destination are __________

Answer 1

Forecast from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival (ETA) to be at or above the lowest compatible published approach minimums

Question 2

When must you file an alternate airfield?

Answer 2

-When a compatible instrument approach procedure is not available at the destination airfield
-When weather forecasts indicate that from 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, conditions are less than a ceiling of 2,000 feet and visibility of 3 statute miles, or if forecasted crosswinds are outside limitations.

Question 3

Do not depart IFR unless the prevailing weather at the alternate from 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, is forecasted at or above ______

Answer 3

-A ceiling of 1000 feet, or 500 feet above the lowest compatible approach minimums
-Visibility of 2 statute miles, or 1 statute mile above the lowest compatible approach minimums

Question 4

If there is not a compatible instrument procedure published or available at the alternate, what must the weather forecast at the alternate be for it to be a valid alternate?

Answer 4

From 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA
-Forecasted weather must permit a descent from the minimum en route altitude, approach, and landing under basic VFR.

Question 5

What are some conditions of an airfield itself that disqualify it as an alternate?

Answer 5

-All compatible approaches require an unmonitored navaid
-The airfield does not report weather observations
-Alternate Not Authorized printed on all compatible approaches
-Any note disqualifying the airfield or all compatible approaches in the Black A, IFR Alternate Minimums section.

Question 6

What are the 4 procedural steps to the control and performance method?

Answer 6

-Establish attitude and power setting for desired performance
-Trim control surfaces until control pressures are neutralized
-Cross-check performance instruments to determine if attitude/power setting are providing desired performance
-Adjust attitude, power setting, or both as necessary

Question 7

FAA criteria defines the standard service volume for a localizer as:

Answer 7

-Reduced Localizer Service of 18nm within 10 degree sector
-10nm for remainder of coverage

Question 8

Is a localizer that’s offset more than 3 degrees from runway centerline considered a localizer?

Answer 8

No, its a Localizer Type Directional Aid (LDA)

Question 9

What indicates station passage over a VOR and VOR/DME?

Answer 9

The first positive change of the To-From indicator to From

Question 10

When is the aircraft considered “established on track”?

Answer 10

-Within half-full-scale deflection
-Within +/- 5 degrees of the required bearing for NDB
-Within full-scale deflection for LOC
-Within 1X the required accuracy for RNAV or RNP segments flown

Question 11

How do you determine aircraft category?

Answer 11

The stall speed multiplied by 1.3 and compared to the category chart of airspeeds

Question 12

What is the Category A Speed range?

Answer 12

Less than 91 Knots

Question 13

What is the Category B Speed range?

Answer 13

91-120 Knots

Question 14

What is the Category C Speed range?

Answer 14

121-140 Knots

Question 15

What is the Category D Speed range?

Answer 15

141-165 knots

Question 16

What is the Category E Speed range?

Answer 16

166 Knots or more

Question 17

What is the Category H?

Answer 17

Helicopters

Question 18

Weather: Do not begin a descent or commence an approach when ______

Answer 18

The reported weather at the destination airfield is below the lowest compatible approach minimums

Question 19

What visibility should you use for straight in or sidestep approaches?

Answer 19

Prevailing visibility or RVR

Question 20

What ceiling and visibility should you use for a circling approach?

Answer 20

The ceiling and visibility in parentheses

Question 21

If the reported weather decreases below lowest compatible approach minimums after beginning a descent, receiving radar vectors for an approach, or established on any segment of an approach prior to the MAP, what can you do?

Answer 21

Continue the approach to the appropriate MAP and land as long as all criteria for landing are met

Question 22

What should you do before initial descent?

Answer 22

A-TIS
D-escent Check
R-eview Approach
W-eather mins
H-olding (if required)
O-BS
S-peed

Question 23

In addition to the required VFR CTAF calls, what other position reports should you make on the CTAF?

Answer 23

-Departing the FAF inbound
-Established on the final approach segment or immediately upon being released by ATC
-Completion or termination of the approach
-Executing missed approach procedure

Question 24

Since many VFR pilots operating near a NTA may be unfamiliar with fix names and locations, how should you address this in your NTA radio calls?

Answer 24

Use the simplest terms to refer to locations (i.e. “Five Miles East of KDRT” not “CRRTA”)

Question 25

What does a Slash (/) in the title of an instrument approach plate indicate?

Answer 25

More than one type of equipment may be necessary for the approach (LOC/DME indicates both localizer and DME equipment are required for this approach)

Question 26

All navigation equipment that is required for the execution of the approach procedure and not mentioned in the procedure identification should be identified where?

Answer 26

In the notes on the chart

Question 27

In general, a note charted on the plan view (e.g. RADAR REQUIRED) indicates equipment that is required to _________

Answer 27

Transition from the en route environment to the instrument procedure.

Question 28

What are some types of procedure turns?

Answer 28

-45/180
-80/260
-Teardrop
-Racetrack

Question 29

When should you not execute a procedure turn?

Answer 29

S-traight in approach
N-oPT printed on chart
E-stablished on Inbound course and cleared
R-adar Vectors to final approach
T-imed approach from holding fix

Question 30

What is the definition of Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA)?

Answer 30

The lowest altitude, expressed in feet MSL, to which descent is authorized on final approach or during circle-to-land maneuvering in execution of a standard instrument approach procedure where no electronic glideslope is provided.

Question 31

What is the definition of Decision Altitude (DA)?

Answer 31

A specified barometric altitude (MSL) on an instrument approach procedure (ILS, GLS, vertically guided RNAV) at which the pilot decides whether to continue the approach or to initiate an immediate missed approach if the pilot does not see the required visual references.

Question 32

What is the definition of a VDP?

Answer 32

A defined point on the final approach course of a non precision approach straight-in procedure from which a stabilized descent from the MDA to the runway touchdown point may be commenced.

Question 33

How do you calculate a VDP?

Answer 33

Height Above Touchdown (HAT)/Glide Slope (GS) * 100

HAT/GS*100=VDP in NM from RWY threshold

Question 34

What does the runway environment consist of?

Answer 34

-Runway or runway markings
-Runway end identifier lights
-Runway lights
-Visual Glideslope Indicator
-Threshold, threshold markings, or threshold lights
-Touchdown zone, touchdown zone markings, or touchdown zone lights
-Approach light system

Question 35

If only the approach lights are visible what can you do?

Answer 35

Descend no lower than 100 feet above the TDZE unless and/or until the red terminating bars or red side row bars also become visible.