11-2T-6V3 T-6 Operating Procedures Flashcards

1
Q

Maintain a minimum spacing of _____ feet when taxiing staggered.

A

75 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Maintain a minimum of ______ feet when taxiing in trail.

A

150 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When Ice and/or snow are present, aircrews will taxi on the ________ with a minimum ______ feet of spacing.

A

Centerline, 300 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When must your visor be down?

A

Any time the canopy is closed in accordance with T.O. 1T-6A-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What kind of visor must be worn at night and optionally worn during periods of low visibility?

A

Clear visor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Aircrews will don G-Suits when anticipating __________.

A

2 or more Gs during any portion of a sortie.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Aircrews will have a ___________ accessible in case of of ejection when G-suit is not worn.

A

Tethered aircrew flight equipment-approved hook blade knife

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Aircrews will wear flight gloves from _____ to ______

A

Engine Start, Engine Shutdown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

FOD Prevention: Do not ______ or allow others to do this to an operating engine

A

Approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

FOD Prevention: Avoid using excessive _____

A

Power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

FOD Prevention: Avoid _______ from other aircraft

A

Prop or Jet Blast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

FOD Prevention: Ensure ________ before opening canopy

A

Loose items are secure in the cockpit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

FOD Prevention: Do not place ______ on the _______ to avoid damaging or scratching it

A

objects, canopy transparency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is Joker Fuel?

A

The brevity term for a pre-briefed fuel quantity above bingo at which separation, bug out, or event termination should begin and proceed with the remainder of the mission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is Bingo Fuel?

A

The brevity term for a pre-briefed fuel quantity that allows the aircraft to return to the base of intended landing or alternate (if one is required) using preplanned recovery parameters and arriving with normal recovery fuel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Aircrews will declare minimum or emergency fuel when ________

A

It becomes apparent the fuel remaining at final touchdown will be less than the requirements for minimum (150 pounds) or emergency (100 pounds) fuel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When should the LDG flap setting be used?

A

For full stop landings when the heavy weight flaps up landing distance is greater than or equal to 80 percent of the actual field length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Aircrews will not ________ when cleared low approach

A

Allow the aircraft to touch the ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Aircrews will not _________ when cleared restricted low approach

A

Descent below 500 feet above ground level (AGL) or the altitude specified by the controller

20
Q

What is the minimum runway length for T-6 normal operations?

A

4,000 feet, or heavy weight flaps up landing ground roll plus 500 feet, whichever is greater.

21
Q

What is the minimum runway width for normal T-6 operations?

A

75 feet

22
Q

What is the minimum runway length and width for an emergency landing situation?

A

For actual emergency landing situations, pilots should consider all factors (winds, runway condition, and environment, aircraft energy state, emergency response availability, etc that could affect their ability to recover to an airfield less than the normal operations length and width requirements.

23
Q

To avoid entering IMC during OCF recovery training, a minimum of _____ feet of airspace, clear of clouds, must exist below entry altitude

A

7,000 feet

24
Q

For all planned OCF recoveries conducted over clouds, aircrews will complete the OCF recovery (to include dive recoveries) at least _________ feet above the clouds

A

3,000 feet

25
Q

Perform all parts of aerobatic maneuvers, unusual attitudes, abnormal flight recoveries, practice lost wingman, extended trail, stalls, and slow flight above ______ feet AGL

A

6,000 feet

26
Q

Do not begin OCF spin training below _______ feet MSL

A

13,500 feet

27
Q

Except while in the traffic pattern or during departure and recovery, the minimum enroute and area altitude for a solo-student syllabus is ______ feet AGL

A

5,000 feet

28
Q

The minimum altitude for VFR non-local, point-to-point navigation missions dictated by operational or training requirements is _____ feet AGL

A

3,000 feet

29
Q

The minimum altitude to complete configured aircraft slips for training is ______ feet AGL

A

300

30
Q

Solo students will not perform the following unless required during an emergency or to maintain safety of flight:

A

-Rolling Takeoffs
-Stalls
-Slow Flight
-Stability Demonstration
-Contact Recoveries from abnormal flight
-Intentional Spin Entry
-Simulated ELPs/Flaps Up landings
-Straight-In approaches
-Low-closed patterns
-Uncontrolled airfield operations

31
Q

Due to limitations of the KLN-900 GPS aircrews will only accomplish RNAV non precision approaches in _____________

A

Day VMC conditions.

32
Q

For the GPS, what should aircrew check prior to every flight in which the GPS will be used?

A

Jeppesen NAVDATA alerts, change notices, and NOTAMs. Aircrew will not use the GPS as a primary source of IFR navigation with an expired database.

33
Q

Aircrew will check _______ before using GPS as a primary source of IFR navigation. A loss of ________ constitutes an unacceptable degradation of system performance.

A

Fault Detection and Exclusion (FDE)

34
Q

Aircrews will NOT fly SIDs, STARs, and DPs with _______ in the title

A

RNAV

35
Q

Aircrews will not operate within an uncontrolled airfield pattern with more than ____ aircraft total present in the pattern at any time

A

4

36
Q

At NTAs, what kind of operations may be flown?

A

Instrument approaches, overheads, rectangular patterns (as depicted in FAA AIM), and ELPs

37
Q

At NTAs, which direction are all turns made unless the airport displays approved light signals, visual markings, or flight information publications indicating otherwise?

A

To the left

38
Q

If there are civilian aircraft in the pattern at a NTA, what kind of operation are you prohibited from doing?

A

Overhead patterns

39
Q

What is the max airspeed within 1500 feet AGL and 3 nm of a NTA?

A

200 KIAS

40
Q

Units/aircrew will not conduct flights over land within their training or operating areas when steady state surface winds exceed ______

A

35 knots

41
Q

Surface winds in the training or operating area exceeding _______ requires OG/CC approval

A

25 knots

42
Q

Over water flights with forecast or actual wave heights exceeding ______ requires OG/CC approval

A

10 feet

43
Q

With any sort of engine malfunction indication (engine still running), a solo student should ________________

A

Fly a precautionary emergency landing

44
Q

If a solo student experiences an engine failure (engine shutdown or not producing sufficient power to sustain level flight), serious consideration should be given to _____.

A

Ejection

45
Q

If a solo student experiences an engine failure (engine shutdown or not producing sufficient power to sustain level flight), the student may attempt a forced landing with a minimum landing distance available of ______ or heavy weight flaps up landing distance plus ______ whichever is greater.

A

4,000, 500