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MCD > Tissues > Flashcards

Tissues Flashcards

1
Q

What are glial cells and what is their function?

A

Glial cells are accessory cells to the neurones and provide support and insulation.
Examples: oligodendrocytes, astrocytes, schwann cells

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2
Q

Which are the three components of the cytoskeleton?

A

Microtubules, Microfilaments and Intermediate filaments

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3
Q

Name two main differences between the Smooth and Rough Endoplasmic reticulum

A

SER: No ribosomes on surface and network is tubular rather than the flattened stacks in the RER.

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4
Q

Name x3 functions of the Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum

A

Lipid metabolism, detoxification and Ca2+ storage

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5
Q

Where are microtubules found?

A

Microtubules are found in spindle fibres, the cilia and flagellae

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6
Q

Where are microfilaments found?

A

Microfilaments are used in contraction of muscle e.g. actin filament

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7
Q

Where are intermediate filaments found?

A

In the epithelia e.g. cytokeratin and muscle cells e.g. desmin.

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8
Q

What is the function of intermediate filaments?

A

Adds mechanical strength

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9
Q

Name the five cell types

A

Epithelial tissue, connective tissue, haemopoeitic tissue, neuronal and contractile tissue

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10
Q

What are the two types of cell-cell junctions?

A

Maculae adherens or Zonulae adherens

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11
Q

What is the Zonula Occludens?

A

Tight junctions on membrane which blocks the paracellular pathway. Tight junctions separate the apical and basolateral membranes.

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12
Q

What is Zonula Adherens?

A

A junction which controls other junctions and is made up of cadherins and cytoskeleton.

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13
Q

What is a desmosome?

A

Also known as macula adherens, it is linked to the intermediate filament and provides mechanical strength.

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14
Q

What is the diameter of a microtubule?

A

20nm

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15
Q

What is the diameter of an intermediate filament?

A

10-15nm

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16
Q

Define ECM

A

The extracellular matrix is a network of macromolecules including proteoglycans, glycoproteins and collagen

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17
Q

What can a mutation in Fibrillin 1 cause?

A

Marfan’s syndrome

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18
Q

What can a mutation in the a2 chain of Laminin 2 cause?

A

Muscular dystrophy/ Epidermolysis Bullosa

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19
Q

Too much extracellular matrix is seen in which conditions?

A

Lung fibrosis, kidney fibrosis

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20
Q

Where does osmotic pressure push fluid?

A

Osmotic pressures pushes fluid out to the blood and lymph

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21
Q

What causes Oedema?

A

An excess of interstitial fluid caused by hydrostatic > osmotic pressure
OR a decrease in osmotic pressure e.g. hypoproteinaemia

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22
Q

What is the total body weight of water in men compared with women?

A

Men = 60%, women = 50%

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23
Q

What are the three components of extracellular fluid?

A

Blood, Interstitial fluid and transcellular fluid

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24
Q

What does an increase in oncotic pressure cause?

A

An increase in oncotic pressure causes interstitial fluid to move into circulation.

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25
Q

What are the two factors that determine interstitial fluid movement?

A
  1. Hydrostatic and oncotic pressure

2. Endothelial permeability

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26
Q

What can cause an increase in hydrostatic pressure?

A

Heart failure

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27
Q

What can cause a decrease in osmotic pressure?

A

Loss of protein through Nephrotic syndrome, Inflammation,

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28
Q

What are the three features of virchow’s triad?

A

Hypercoagulability, Endothelial dysfunction, Statins

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29
Q

Name the clinical triad of signs in Abdominal aortic aneurysm

A

Back pain, hypotension and pulsatile mass

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30
Q

What are the five types of shock

A

Cardiogenic, neurological, septic, anaphylactic and hypovolaemic

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31
Q

What is the most important complication of thrombosis

A

Pulmonary Embolism

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32
Q

What are two clinical features of sepsis

A

High respiratory rate and tachycardia

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33
Q

What are thrombi made up of?

A

Fibrin, platelets and red blood cells (if red)

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34
Q

Name x5 risk factors for Deep Vein Thrombosis

A

Immobility, contraceptive pill, increased age, obesity, pregnancy

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35
Q

What is the difference between red and white infarcts?

A

Red infarcts occur as a result of venous occlusions and occur in organs with dual circulation.

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36
Q

Give x3 causes of an M.I.

A

Coronary artery occlusion, coronary artery vasospasm or emboli e.g. in AF.

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37
Q

Define haemorrhage

A

Extravasation of blood due to vessel rupture

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38
Q

What is the thickness of a usual tissue section?

A

Less than 5um

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39
Q

How would nuclei appear under a microscope when stained?

A

A darker purple colour when stained

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40
Q

What is simple epithelia?

A

When cells are lined up adjacently directly attached to the basal lamina.

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41
Q

What is a primary role for columnar cells?

A

Absorption

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42
Q

What are the names of the mucus secreting cells in columnar epithelium?

A

Goblet cells

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43
Q

Apical side of structure faces which surface?

A

The lumen

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44
Q

Which side of the structure are the microvilli?

A

The apical side.

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45
Q

What does polarisation mean in a cell?

A

To have two surfaces with different properties

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46
Q

What is the name of the epithelium lining the small intestine?

A

Simple Columnar (absorptive) epithelia

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47
Q

What is a crypt?

A

Simple tubular glands in the intestine.

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48
Q

What is mesentery?

A

Thin layer of tissue which attaches intestine to the rest of the body

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49
Q

What is the difference between a columnar and squamous cell?

A

Columnar = taller than they are wide, squamous = wider than they are tall

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50
Q

What is endothelium?

A

The epithelial layer lining blood vessels

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51
Q

What is the name given to epithelia which consists of multiple layers?

A

Stratified

52
Q

Why would the body need stratified squamous epithelia?

A

For protection; if cells closer to the lumen are damaged, the cells underneath can still maintain function.

53
Q

What is the function of the goblet cell?

A

To produce mucus which prevents the oesophagus from drying out.

54
Q

What is the function of cilia?

A

To move mucus back to the mouth to prevent it from accumulating

55
Q

What is the name of the cells which are approximately equal in height and width?

A

Cuboidal cells

56
Q

What is the structure of stem cells?

A

‘Simple’; attached to basal lamina

57
Q

What is the opposite of a ‘simple’ cell structure?

A

Stratified

58
Q

Why must cholesterol be transported in vesicles?

A

It is very insoluble.

59
Q

Name x3 post-translational modifications to the ER

A

Glycosylation, folding, addition of disulphide bonds.

60
Q

Name x1 disease where there is an error in the post-translational modifications but the protein cannot leave the ER as its exit is blocked.

A

Cystic Fibrosis where there is misfolding.

61
Q

What is the name of the molecule which pinches the clathrin-coated vesicle from the membrane?

A

Dynamin

62
Q

Which is the entry face of the GA (coming from the ER)?

A

Cis face

63
Q

Which is the protective type of epithelia?

A

Stratified squamous epithelium

64
Q

Where can we find keratinising epithelium and non keratinising epithelium?

A 
Keratinising = skin
Non-keratinising = oesophagus
65
Q

Where are psuedostratified epithelium found?

A

The lungs and bronchi

66
Q

Which is the ‘wet’ epithelia?

A

Non-keratinising epithelia

67
Q

Why is polarity of the epithelium important?

A

Helps in transport and secretion - directs chemicals to the right compartment.

68
Q

Is the mechanism of the Islet’s of Langerhans releasing hormones into the blood exocrine or endocrine?

A

Exocrine.

69
Q

What causes callus?

A

Cell proliferation overrides cell loss

70
Q

What does the basal lamina separate?

A

The epithelial tissue and connective tissue

71
Q

What condition can be caused be a loss of ECM?

A

Osteoarthritis

72
Q

Which protein is affected in Marfan’s syndrome?

A

Fibrillin

73
Q

Which protein is affected in Alport syndrome?

A

Type IV Collagen

74
Q

Which protein is affected in Osteogenesis Imperfecta?

A

Type I Collagen

75
Q

What is the issue with low Vitamin C?

A

Vitamin C is needed for hydroxylation of collagen which makes collagen stronger.

76
Q

Vitamin C deficiency can lead to what?

A

Scurvy

77
Q

Name x2 diseases associated with Laminin mutations

A

Muscular dystrophy and Epidermolysis Bullosa

78
Q

What is the structural change in muscular dystrophy?

A

Absence of alpha 2 chain in Laminin structure.

79
Q

Name x2 purposes of Proteoglycans.

A

GAGs within the proteoglycan structure hydrate joint. GAGs are also negatively charged and so attract cations such as Na+ and hence water, which help to absorb shock.

80
Q

Give x3 features of hyaluronan

A

Simple carbohydrate chain. No sulphates, but is carboxylated. No core protein.

81
Q

Name x3 main intracellular cations/anions

A

K+, H+, HPO3-

82
Q

Which cell provides myelin for PNS axons?

A

Schwann cells

83
Q

Which cell provides myelin for CNS axons?

A

The oligodendrocyte.

84
Q

Name two differences between oligodendrocytes and schwann cells

A

Oligodendrocytes provide myelin for the CNS whereas Schwann cells provide myelin for the PNS. Oligodendrocytes can provide myelin for many axons whereas schwann cells can only provide myelin for one axon each.

85
Q

Name x1 example of endocrine signalling

A

Secretion of glucagon into the blood from alpha cells of the islet of langerhans of the pancreas to the liver

86
Q

Name x1 example of paracrine signalling

A

Release of insulin from beta cells of the islet of langerhans of pancreas on glucagon.

87
Q

Name an example of autocrine signalling

A

When a T cell is activated the release of IL-2 and presentation of IL-2 on its surface. IL-2 released binds to IL-2 on surface.

88
Q

List one example of intercellular signalling and one example of intracellular signalling

A

Intercellular: Pancreas to liver to control glucose levels
Intracellular: Interaction between alpha and beta cells of the islet of langerhans.

89
Q

What are the four types of receptors which can be involved in cell signalling?

A

Inotropic receptors, G protein coupled receptors, enzyme linked receptors and intracellular receptors

90
Q

What type of receptor is B1 receptor?

A

GPCR

91
Q

How does B1 receptor signalling in the heart work?

A

The ligand - adrenaline, binds to the Gs portion of the B1 receptor = stimulates adenylyl cyclase = converts ATP to cAMP = activates protein kinase A.

92
Q

How many transmembranes does the GPCR have?

A

x7

93
Q

What does binding to the Gs subunit cause?

A

Stimulation of adenylyl cyclase which converts ATP to cAMP which activates PKA.

94
Q

What is an example of a Gs mechanism?

A

B1 receptors in the heart

95
Q

What is an example of a Gi mechanism?

A

M2 receptors in the heart

96
Q

What does binding to the Gq subunit cause?

A

Stimulation of Phospholipase C which converts PIP2 to IP3 and DAG. IP3 causes increase in Ca2+ release. DAG ACTIVATES PKC.

97
Q

What is an example of the Gq mechanism?

A

Angiotensin receptor in vasoconstriction

98
Q

Which is the slowest signalling mechanism?

A

Intracellular signalling

99
Q

Give some differences between benign and malignant tumours

A

Malignant: MIDG - Metastasis, invasion of local tissue, differentiation, growth patterns

100
Q

Define heterotopia

A

Normal tissue found where it is not normally found.

101
Q

Define hamartoma

A

Localised, benign tissue overgrowth.

102
Q

Define neoplasm

A

Autonomous overgrowth of tissue which has escaped the cell’s normal restrictions.

103
Q

Name x5 ways through which cancers may spread

A

Lymphatic, haematogenous, perineural, locally through connective tissue, transcoelomic (through body cavities)

104
Q

Define teratoma

A

Cancers derived from germ cells.

105
Q

What is the difference between a germ cell and a somatic cell

A

A germ cell contains only half the number of chromosomes from an individual whereas a somatic cell contains a diploid number.

106
Q

Define atrophy

A

Shrinking in cell size

107
Q

Define metaplasia

A

The REVERSIBLE change when one cell is replaced with another.

108
Q

What mechanism occurs in Barrett’s oesophagus and how does this mechanism work?

A

Metaplasia: Stratified cells turn to columnar cells.

109
Q

Name x2 differences between apoptosis and necrosis

A

Apoptosis does not involve inflammation whereas necrosis does. Apoptosis requires ATP whereas necrosis does not.

110
Q

Name the layers of the epidermis in descending order.

A

Stratum corneum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale.

111
Q

In which layer of the skin are langerhan cells found?

A

Stratum spinosum

112
Q

Eczema arises from defects in which cell layer?

A

Stratum corneum

113
Q

In which layer of the epidermis are melanocytes and keratinocytes found?

A

Stratum basale

114
Q

What is the name of the gene mutation found in eczema?

A

Filaggrin mutation

115
Q

Where are ribosomes made?

A

In the nucleolus. The nucleolus is made up of proteins and rRNA. Many rRNA as each ribosome requires x1 rRNA.

116
Q

Where is hyaluronan synthesised?

A

In the plasma membrane.

117
Q

Is hyaluronan sulphated?

A

NO. Only contains OH- and COOH-

118
Q

Is hyaluronan a proteoglycan or a glycoprotein?

A

Neither; does not contain a core protein. It is a GAG.

119
Q

Chondroitin sulphate, heparan sulphate, keratan sulphate and dermatan sulphate are all examples of what?

A

GAGs. (Glycosaminoglycans).

120
Q

Why is tonicity a better measure than osmolarity?

A

Tonicity measures solute + membrane permeability. Osmolarity does not consider membrane permeability.

121
Q

Name x3 hydrophobic molecules which can freely diffuse through the lipid membrane.

A

O2, CO2, and N2.

122
Q

How are proteins transported out of the capillary?

A

Exocytosis.

123
Q

How are Na+ and K+ transported in and out of the capillary?

A

Through small pores. No channels in the capillary wall.

124
Q

What is the job of the lymphatic circulation?

A

To return interstitial fluid to the blood circulation.

125
Q

Which are the two dendritic cells within the epidermis?

A

Melanocytes and Langerhans cells.

126
Q

Most epithelial cancers metastasise through which route?

A

Lymphatic system.

127
Q

What does ‘grade’ define in cancer?

A

How differentiated the tumour is.

MCD (8 decks)

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