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MCD > Immunology > Flashcards

Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

Where are lymphocytes produced?

A

In Primary lymphoid organs

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2
Q

What is a secondary lymphoid organ?

A

Where lymphocytes interact with antigens and other lymphocytes

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3
Q

Give three examples of secondary lymphoid organs

A

The spleen, lymph nodes and mucosal associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)

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4
Q

What is the name of the process of making B and T lymphocytes?

A

Lymphopoiesis

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5
Q

Where does haematopoiesis occur?

A

In the bone marrow

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6
Q

What is the number of litres of lymph returned to the blood each day?

A

2-3L

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7
Q

Name x4 key features of the lymph node

A

The medullary sinus, lymphoid follicle, germline centres, afferent/ efferent lymphatic vessels and artery/vein blood vessels

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8
Q

What is a germline centre?

A

Sites within secondary lymphoid organs where B cells proliferate and differentiate

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9
Q

Where are B cells located in the lymph node?

A

In the outer lymph node within the lymphoid follicle

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10
Q

How do B and T lymphocytes know where to go once in the lymph node?

A

They are directed by chemokines

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11
Q

What are Peyer’s patches?

A

Specialised tissue within the small intestine which contains aggregates of B lymphocytes

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12
Q

Name x2 immune cells within the skin

A

Langerhan’s cells and intraepidermal lymphocytes

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13
Q

How do lymphocytes get into secondary lymphoid tissue?

A

From the blood into the lymphoid tissue through HEVs

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14
Q

What is an epitope?

A

The site of the antigen where the lymphocyte receptor will bind

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15
Q

Name two sites where lymphocytes are found

A

Blood and Lymph node

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16
Q

What is the main difference between innate and adaptive immunity?

A

Innate: Recognises molecular patterns, whereas adaptive: recognises precise structures

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17
Q

What does PAMP stand for and give x1 example

A

Pathogen associated molecular patterns. Bacterial Flagella

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18
Q

Give an example of DAMP

A

Damage associated molecular patterns. Uric acid, ATP, heat shock proteins

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19
Q

Give the name for the agranular immune cell

A

Lymphocytes

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20
Q

How does diversity of B and T cells arise?

A

Random genetic recombination

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21
Q

What is clonal expansion?

A

The copying of B or T lymphocytes with specific receptors on their cell surface. Clonal expansion is activated once antigen binds to the B/T lymphocyte

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22
Q

Why do B/T lymphocytes need to get into lymph tissue?

A

To meet their antigens

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23
Q

What is the name of cell given to cover neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes?

A

Leukocytes

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24
Q

What causes the division in classification between lymphocytes+monocytes Vs. neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils?

A

Lymphocytes and monocytes are agranular whereas eosinophils, neutrophils and basophils are granular

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25
Q

Briefly explain the process of how the naive T cell moves from the blood to the lymphoid tissue.

A

Naive T cells roll along the endothelium at the HEV bound to low-affinity selectin. When they bind to chemokines this switches selectin low affinity binding to the high affinity binding of integrin. This binding stops the rolling and the T cell can migrate through the endothelium.

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26
Q

What two things does the binding of the chemokine to the rolling T cell at the endothelium do?

A
  1. Stops the naive T cell rolling along the endothelium

2. Changes low affinity selectin binding to high affinity integrin binding

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27
Q

What CD markers are found in all T cells?

A

CD3+

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28
Q

Which CD markers are found in B cells?

A

CD19+ and CD20+

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29
Q

What is an antibiotic?

A

An antibiotic is an antimicrobial agent produced by a microorganism which kills/ inhibits other microorganisms

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30
Q

What group of drugs does Penicillin fall under?

A

Beta-lactams

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31
Q

Name the three types of cells which can act as Antigen presenting cells

A

B lymphocytes, activated macrophages and dendritic cells

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32
Q

How does the T lymphocyte recognise an antigen?

A

The T cell receptor uses either CD4+ or CD8+ to recognise the antigen on the MHC molecule.

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33
Q

Which receptor on the T lymphocyte recognises MHC class I?

A

CD8+

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34
Q

Which receptor on the T lymphocyte recognises MHC class II?

A

CD4+

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35
Q

What makes each T lymphocyte unique from one another?

A

The T cell receptor

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36
Q

What is the complement system?

A

A group of proteins which cause opsonisation

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37
Q

Name x2 examples of opsonins

A

Complement and antibodies

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38
Q

What happens once macrophages or dendritic cells phagocytose cell?

A

Inflammatory mediators e.g. cytokines are released to recruit other cells

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39
Q

How would you recognise an activated mast cell?

A

It will be degranulated

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40
Q

What do Natural Killer cells secrete and how do they work?

A

Interferon gamma, phagocytose coated microbes upon activating receptor recognising ‘missing self’ molecules.

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41
Q

Name x5 cytokines

A

Interferon, interleukin, chemokines, cytotoxic cells and growth factors

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42
Q

Name the x3 ways which activate the complement system

A
  1. Classical - antibody binds to antigen, lectin pathway - complement binds to carbohydrates specific to bacteria and alternative pathway.
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43
Q

What is the final pathway of the complement system?

A

MAC - Membrane attack complex = attacks membrane of bacteria.

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44
Q

What is incomplete penetrance?

A

Symptoms are not always present in an individual who has the disease

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45
Q

What is variable expressivity?

A

Disease severity varies

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46
Q

What is a phenocopy?

A

Same disease, different cause

47
Q

What is epistasis?

A

Interaction between mutations affects phenotype. e.g. one gene masks another gene

48
Q

Which immune responses are more rapid - innate or adpative?

A

Innate; less specific

49
Q

Name the vascular change associated with septic shock

A

Vasodilatation

50
Q

Name the vascular change associated with neurogenic shock

A

Loss of vascular tone

51
Q

What is inflammation?

A

A protective response in viable, vasculerised tissue

52
Q

What can cause an increase in vascular endothelial permeability?

A

Endothelial cells contract

53
Q

What is resolution?

A

The regeneration of parenchymal cells with little structural damage.

54
Q

Name four roles of macrophages

A

Phagocytosis, release cytokines to recruit other immune cells, wound repair and anti-inflammation

55
Q

Name x3 acute phase proteins

A

Chemokines, C-reactive proteins, fibrinogen

56
Q

Which part of the antibodies changes between antibodies?

A

Heavy chain

57
Q

What is antibody affinity?

A

The strength of non-covalent bonds between an antigen and an antibody.

58
Q

What is antibody avidity?

A

The strength of non-covalent bonds between all antigen epitopes and antibody binding sites.

59
Q

Which is the most abundant Ig class?

A

IgG

60
Q

Which Ig activates B cells?

A

IgD

61
Q

Which Ig is a dimer shape?

A

IgA

62
Q

Which two Igs have different subclasses?

A

IgG and IgA

63
Q

Which part of the antibody reacts with the antigen?

A

The CDR within the hypervariable region.

64
Q

What is an monoclonal antibody?

A

An antibody which has specificity for one antigen only.

65
Q

What do T cells produce compared with B cells?

A

Cytokines. B cells = antibodies

66
Q

What are the three fates of B cells once bound to an antigen?

A
  • Produces antibodies
  • Undergoes maturation and differentiation
  • Turns into a plasma cell
67
Q

How does a B cell produce antibodies?

A

Once the B cell binds to the antigen, it requires accessory signals from the T cell. It then presents MHC Class II receptors on its surface which bind to CD4+ activating the B cell. The B cell then differentiates into either a plasma cell or a memory cell.

68
Q

How do T cells influence which antibodies are made?

A

T cells influence which cytokines B cells make which influences which Ig classes are made.

69
Q

What is Somatic hypermutation?

A

Shuffling of the variable region on antibodies to produce more high quality binding B cells.

70
Q

Does somatic hypermutation occur in T cells?

A

No.

71
Q

Where does somatic hypermutation occur?

A

In the germinal centre

72
Q

Describe the structure of the TCR.

A

The TCR is made up of an alpha and beta chain.

73
Q

Name the x3 subsets of T cells

A

CD4+ Th1, CD4+ Th2 and CD8+ cytotoxic cells.

74
Q

Name two differences between a naiive and effector T cell

A

Effector T cells proliferate faster than naiive T cells and secrete different cytokines.

75
Q

What are the three phases of T cell memory response?

A

Expose, expand and contract.

76
Q

What causes autoimmune disease?

A

Immune cells attacking self cells

77
Q

What causes allergy?

A

Immune cells attacking benign antigens

78
Q

Name x3 things that can occur when immune regulation fails.

A

Autoimmunity, allergy, hypercytokinaemia.

79
Q

What is hypercytokinaemia?

A

A positive feedback loop between cytokines and immune cells.

80
Q

What is the interleukin Treg cells secrete?

A

IL-10

81
Q

What effect do Treg cells have?

A

Suppress Th1 and Th2 action

82
Q

What is tolerance?

A

The unresponsiveness to self-antigens. Two types - Central and peripheral. Destroy/inhibit B/T cells.

83
Q

What is AIRE? Autoimmune regulator?

A

A specialised transcription factor which allows thymic expression of peripheral tissue genes = promotes self-tolerance.

84
Q

What are the mechanisms of Peripheral tolerance?

A

RAID - Regulation, anergy, ignorance and deletion.

85
Q

Describe the two types of Treg cells

A

nTreg (natural) and iTreg (inducible). nTreg develop in the thymus and are activated with recognition of self antigens. iTreg develop from CD4+ cells which recognise antigens in peripheral tissue - no thymus role.

86
Q

Name x1 enveloped virus

A

Ebola

87
Q

Name x1 non-enveloped virus

A

Adenovirus

88
Q

Name x2 differences between enveloped and non enveloped viruses

A

Enveloped = Has a lipid membrane and sensitive to heat

Non enveloped = no lipid membrane and heat resistant

89
Q

Is Herpes a DNA or an RNA virus?

A

A DNA virus

90
Q

Which enzyme converts viral RNA to viral DNA in the HIV mechanism?

A

Reverse transcriptase

91
Q

What is the typical size for a virus?

A

10nm to 1um.

92
Q

Define tropism

A

The specificity of a virus for a particular host cell.

93
Q

Name x3 things which determine tropism

A

Susceptibility, accessibility and permissivity.

94
Q

What is permissivity?

A

How the virus uses a host cell

95
Q

What is the tropism for HIV use?

A

Receptor use

96
Q

How can someone be resistant to HIV?

A

Mutations in the CD4+, CCR5 and CXCR4 means the HIV cannot bind to the receptors on the host cell.

97
Q

Which virus is associated with nosocomial infection?

A

Norovirus

98
Q

MHC molecules continuously present peptides even in the absence of infection. True or false.

A

True.

99
Q

Where are B cells and macrophages mainly found?

A

The lymphoid tissue.

100
Q

Endogenous antigens are recognised by which CD T cell class?

A

CD8+

101
Q

Exogenous antigens are recognised by which CD T cell class?

A

CD4+

102
Q

MHC genes are….

A

Polymorphic.

103
Q

Which have intracellular peptides - MHC I or MHC II?

A

MHC I.

104
Q

In humans, MHC is encoded by which genes?

A

HLA

105
Q

How do cytotoxic T cells (CD8+) induce apoptosis?

A

Changes the polarisation within cytotoxic vesicles to allow for granule release. Perforin is released into infected cell.

FasL binds to Fas receptor on infected cell.

106
Q

What is type 2 delayed hypersensitivity.

A

Eradicating intracellular pathogens.

107
Q

Name one difference between Influenza and RSV

A

Someone with influenza will not be reinfected by the same strain. RSV has recurrent reinfection.

Influenza= immediate symptoms. RSV = delay.

108
Q

Which cell is IFN-y associated with?

A

Th1 cell.

109
Q

Name two roles of interferon

A

Activates NK cells, upregulates MHC.

110
Q

Why is proliferation and differentiation of antibodies slow?

A

Each BCR on each B cell has specificity for one antigen only.

111
Q

What is the main method of immune defence against viruses?

A

Interferons.

112
Q

Define tolerance

A

The unresponsiveness to self-antigens

113
Q

MHC molecules are generated by gene segment rearrangement. True or false.

A

False.

MCD (8 decks)

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