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Stockham and Scott > Tidbits > Flashcards

Tidbits Flashcards

1
Q

Plasma composition (water vs solids)

A

92-95% water, 5-8% solids. Most solids are proteins, others are glucose, urea, electrolytes, other chemicals

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2
Q

CV % equation

A

CV% = (SD/mean)x100

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3
Q

Within-assay CV

A

random error that is expected when one sample is analyzed multiple times in one run of an assay.

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4
Q

Between-assay CV

A

random error within one run of the assay plus the error from additional runs of the assay by using the same sample

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5
Q

USD

A

Usual Standard Deviation (USD): an average of SD values from 3-6 consecutive months of quality assurance values. If a change in patient’s data is <2x USD, the change may be only analytical variation. If a change in patient data is >3x USD, the change is probably due to biologic variation

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6
Q

Diagnostic sensitivity definition

A

The frequency with which a test is positive in patients that have the disease of interest.
A test with high diagnostic sensitivity is good for screening for the presence of a disease because the test has very few FN. If the animal has the disease, there is a high probability the test will be positive

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7
Q

Diagnostic specificity definition

A

The frequency with which a test is negative in patients that do not have the disease of interest.
A test with high diagnostic specificity can be good for confirming that an animal has a disease because the test has very few FP. If the result is positive, there is a high probability the animal will have the disease

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8
Q

Diagnostic accuracy definition

A

The frequency with which a test correctly classifies an animal as having or not having the disease

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9
Q

Positive predictive value definition

A

The probability that a positive test result indicates that an animal has the disease.
A test with high PPV has very few FP compared to TP. Thus, a positive test strongly suggests the presence of the disease

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10
Q

Negative predictive value definition

A

The probability that a negative test result indicates that the animal does not have the disease.
A test with high NPV has very few FN compared to TN. Thus, a negative test result strongly suggests the absence of the disease

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11
Q

AML M0

A

Acute myeloblastic leukemia with minimal differentiation, granulocyte cell type

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12
Q

AML M1

A

Acute myeloblastic leukemia without maturation, granulocyte cell type

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13
Q

AML M2

A

Acute myeloblastic leukemia with maturation, granulocyte cell type

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14
Q

AML M3

A

Acute promyelocytic leukemia, granulocyte cell type

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15
Q

AML M4

A

Acute myelomonocytic leukemia, granulocyte and monocyte cell types

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16
Q

AML M5

A

Acute monocytic leukemia, monocyte cell type

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17
Q

AML M6

A

Acute erythroleukemia

cell types: erythrocyte, nonlymphoid leukocyte, megakaryocyte

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18
Q

AML M6-Er

A

Acute erythroleukemia with erythroid predominance

cell types: erythrocyte, nonlymphoid leukocyte, megakaryocyte

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19
Q

AML M7

A

Megakaryoblastic leukemia

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20
Q

Acute myeloblastic leukemia with minimal differentiation

A

AML M0

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21
Q

Acute myeloblastic leukemia without maturation

A

AML M1

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22
Q

Acute myeloblastic leukemia with maturation

A

AML M2

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23
Q

Acute promyelocytic leukemia

A

AML M3

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24
Q

Acute myelomonocytic leukemia

A

AML M4

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25
Q

Acute monocytic leukemia

A

AML M5

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26
Q

Acute erythroleukemia

A

AML M6

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27
Q

Acute erythroleukemia with erythroid predominance

A

AML M6-Er

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28
Q

Megakaryoblastic leukemia

A

AML M7

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29
Q

Expected cytochemical staining of neutrophils in dogs and cats

A 
Peroxidase (+)
Sudan black B (+)
CAE (chloroacetate esterase) (+)
leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (+)(immature)
NBE (α-naphthyl butyrate esterase) (-)
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30
Q

Expected cytochemical staining of lymphocytes in dogs and cats

A

Peroxidase (-)
Sudan black B (-)
CAE (chloroacetate esterase) (-)
leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (-)–+ reported
NBE (α-naphthyl butyrate esterase) (-/focal +)

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31
Q

Expected cytochemical staining of monocytes in dogs and cats

A

Peroxidase (+/-)
Sudan black B (+/-)
CAE (chloroacetate esterase) (-)
leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (-/ immature +)
NBE (α-naphthyl butyrate esterase) (+-diffuse)

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32
Q

Expected cytochemical staining of eosinophils in dogs and cats

A 
DOGS
Peroxidase (+)
Sudan black B (+)
CAE (chloroacetate esterase) (-)
leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (+/-)
NBE (α-naphthyl butyrate esterase) (-)
CATS
Peroxidase (-)
Sudan black B (-)
CAE (chloroacetate esterase) (-)
leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (+/-)
NBE (α-naphthyl butyrate esterase) (-)
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33
Q

Expected cytochemical staining of basophils in dogs and cats

A 
Peroxidase (-)
Sudan black B (-)
CAE (chloroacetate esterase) (+)
leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (+/-)
NBE (α-naphthyl butyrate esterase) (-)
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34
Q

Expected cytochemical staining of megakaryocytes in dogs and cats

A 
Peroxidase (-)
Sudan black B (-)
CAE (chloroacetate esterase) (+/-)
leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (-)
NBE (α-naphthyl butyrate esterase) (+/-)
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35
Q

CD1 function

A

antigen-presenting molecules

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36
Q

CD3 function

A

part of the TCR complex

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37
Q

CD4 function

A

protein that associates with TCR

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38
Q

CD8 function

A

dimeric protein associated with TCR

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39
Q

CD11 function

A

α-subunit of the leukocyte adhesion molecule family of β2-integrins

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40
Q

CD18 function

A

β2-subunit of the leukocyte adhesion molecule family of β2-integrins

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41
Q

CD21 function

A

complement receptor (CR2) associated with the B-cell receptor complex

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42
Q

CD34 function

A

surface glycoprotein that binds selectins

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43
Q

CD41 function

A

α2-integrin (GPIIb) of the fibrinogen receptor

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44
Q

CD45 function

A

membrane tyrosine phosphatase

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45
Q

CD61 function

A

β3-integrin (GPIIIa) of the fibrinogen receptor complex

46
Q

CD79a function

A

Part of the B-cell receptor complex

47
Q

Calprotectin (MAC387) function

A

cytoplasmic calcium binding protein

48
Q

MPO function

A

myeloperoxidase

49
Q

vWf function

A

von willebrand factor

50
Q

CD1 in dogs

A

cortical thymocytes, dendritic cells; CD1c is expressed on some monocytes and B-lymphocytes

useful to detect dendritic APCs; not expressed by mature T-lymphocytes

51
Q

CD3 in dogs

A

Mature T-lymphocytes, activated NK lymphocytes (cytoplasm)

Useful to identify T-lymphocyte leukemia/lymphoma; αβ- and γδ- T-lymphocytes not differentiated

52
Q

CD4 in dogs

A

MHC class II-restricted T-helper cells, neutrophils

Monocytes, macrophages, dendritic cells can express when activated

53
Q

CD8 in dogs

A

MHC class I-restricted cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (usually CD8αβ heterodimer)

A subset of NK-lymphocytes may express CD8αα homodimer

54
Q

CD11a in dogs

A

all leukocytes

useful as a panleukocyte marker

55
Q

CD11b in dogs

A

granulocytes, monocytes, some macrophages

Useful as a marker of nonlymphoid leukocytes

56
Q

CD11c in dogs

A

granulocytes, monocytes, dendritic APCs

Useful to recognize histiocytic neoplasms of APCs

57
Q

CD11d in dogs

A

macrophages and T-lymphocytes in splenic red pulp, granular lymphocytes including NK-lymphocytes

Useful to recognized hemophagocytic histiocytic sarcoma

58
Q

CD18 in dogs

A

all leukocytes but less expression in lymphocytes

Useful to confirm hemic origin of round cells in tissue; deficient in Irish Setters with LAD

59
Q

CD21 in dogs

A

mature B-lymphocytes, follicular dendritic cells of germinal centers

useful to identify B-cell lymphoma/leukemia

60
Q

CD34 in dogs

A

Lympho-hematopoietic stem cells and progenitor cells

helps differentiate ALL from lymphoma; CLL, lymphoma, myeloma cells are negative

61
Q

CD41 in dogs

A

megakaryocytes and platelets

by flow cytometry, cells may appear positive because of adherent platelets

62
Q

CD45 in dogs

A

all hemic cells but erythroid cells; cells express different isoforms

CD45RA isoform detected in fixed tissue but not expressed on all leukocytes (some T-lymphocytes)

63
Q

CD61 in dogs

A

megakaryocytes, platelets; other cells include endothelial cells

By flow cytometry, cells may appear positive because of adherent platelets

64
Q

CD79a in dogs

A

B-lymphocytes, plasma cells; megakaryocytes also positive

useful for B-cell leukemia/lymphoma

65
Q

Calprotectin (MAC387) in dogs

A

neutrophils, monocytes, macrophages

also expressed by some nonhemic cells (epithelial)

66
Q

MPO in dogs

A

granulocytic and monocytic cells

Helpful for identifying AML (nonlymphoid leukocytes)

67
Q

vWf in dogs

A

megakaryocytes, platelets

intracytoplasmic location, relatively low levels in dogs

68
Q

SPE: What composes the α1 fraction?

A

α1-lipoprotein, α1-antitrypsin, α1-antichymotrypsin

69
Q

SPE: What composes the α2 fraction?

A

α2 macroglobulin, haptoglobins

70
Q

SPE: What composes the β1 fraction?

A

transferrin

71
Q

SPE: What composes the β2 fraction?

A

β-lipoprotein, complement (C3a), IgM and IgA

72
Q

SPE: What composes the γ fraction?

A

IgG, C-reactive protein

73
Q

SPE: function of pre-albumin

A

Not recognized in routine SPE of animal sera; includes thyroxine-binding albumin and retinol-binding protein

74
Q

SPE: function of albumin

A

major contributor to oncotic pressure; transports Ca, Mg, unconjugated bilirubin, fatty acids, thyroxine, and many other substances

Negative APP

75
Q

SPE: function of α1-lipoprotein

A

transports lipids (especially cholesterol); also called HDL; relatively very low concentrations in domestic mammals when compared to people

76
Q

SPE: function of α1-antitrypsin

A

inactivates proteases, including trypsin, and thus is an anti-inflammatory protein

Positive APP

77
Q

SPE: function of α1-antichymotrypsin

A

inactivates proteases, including chymotrypsin, and thus is an anti-inflammatory protein

Positive APP

78
Q

SPE: function of α2-macroglobulin

A

inactivates proteases and thus is an anti-inflammatory protein

Positive APP

79
Q

SPE: function of haptoglobins

A

bind and transport free hemoglobin

Positive APP

80
Q

SPE: function of transferrin

A

binds and transports iron; measured as TIBC in chemical assays

Negative APP

81
Q

SPE: function of β-lipoprotein

A

transports lipids (cholesterol and triglyceride); also called LDL

82
Q

SPE: function of complement (C3a)

A

promotes inflammation; chemotactic substance

Positive APP

83
Q

SPE: function of IgM and IgA

A

bind to specific antigens; concentrations are too low in health to be seen via routine SPE

84
Q

SPE: function of IgG

A

binds to specific antigens; many different isotypes and idiotypes of IgG give a broad and usually indistinct gamma region

85
Q

SPE: function of C-reactive protein

A

positive acute phase protein; rarely seen in mammalian sera via routine SPE

86
Q

Major pathogenic mechanisms of polyuria in chronic renal failure

A

solute diuresis, ↓ tubular response to ADH, ↓ medullary tonicity

87
Q

Major pathogenic mechanisms of polyuria in acute renal failure

A

↓ tubular response to ADH

Initially, there may be oliguria. If the animal survives the acute illness, the surviving but damaged tubules may not be able to response to ADH adequately

88
Q

Major pathogenic mechanisms of polyuria in postobstructive diuresis

A

solute diuresis, ↓ tubular response to ADH

Initially, there may be oliguria. If the animal survives the acute illness, the surviving but damaged tubules may not be able to response to ADH adequately

89
Q

Major pathogenic mechanisms of polyuria in diabetes mellitus

A

solute diuresis

persistent diuresis may decrease medullary tonicity because of decreased tubular resorption of solutes

90
Q

Major pathogenic mechanisms of polyuria in hypercalcemia

A

↓ tubular response to ADH

persistent diuresis may decrease medullary tonicity because of decreased tubular resorption of solutes

91
Q

Major pathogenic mechanisms of polyuria in canine pyometra

A

↓ tubular response to ADH

persistent diuresis may decrease medullary tonicity because of decreased tubular resorption of solutes

92
Q

Major pathogenic mechanisms of polyuria in hypokalemia

A

↓ tubular response to ADH

persistent diuresis may decrease medullary tonicity because of decreased tubular resorption of solutes

93
Q

Major pathogenic mechanisms of polyuria in hypoadrenocorticism

A

↓ medullary tonicity (persistent hyponatremia and hypochloremia may result in loop of Henle failure)

+/- ↓ADH: hypoosmolality would decrease the stimulus for ADH release, but concurrent hypovolemia would stimulate ADH release

94
Q

Major pathogenic mechanisms of polyuria in liver failure

A

↓ medullary tonicity

Increased NH4+ concentration may interfere with tubular response to ADH

95
Q

Major pathogenic mechanisms of polyuria in central diabetes insipidus

A

↓ ADH

persistent diuresis may decrease medullary tonicity because of decreased tubular resorption of solutes

96
Q

Major pathogenic mechanisms of polyuria in hyperadrenocorticism

A

↓ ADH

persistent diuresis may decrease medullary tonicity because of decreased tubular resorption of solutes

97
Q

Major pathogenic mechanisms of polyuria in psychogenic polydipsia

A

↓ ADH (increased GFR may also contribute)

persistent diuresis may decrease medullary tonicity because of decreased tubular resorption of solutes

98
Q

Guidelines for interpretation of USG in a dog:

Dehydrated, USG >1.030

A

Reflects renal attempts to conserve H2O appropriately

99
Q

Guidelines for interpretation of USG in a dog:

Dehydrated, USG 1.014 - 1.030

A

Suggests impaired renal concentrating ability and possibly renal failure; could be seen with glucosuria, hyponatremia/hypochloremia, partial renal diabetes insipidus disorders, hypoadrenocorticism

100
Q

Guidelines for interpretation of USG in a dog:

Dehydrated, USG 1.007 - 1.013

A

Strongly indicates defective renal concentrating ability; if azotemic, then renal insufficiency or failure until proven otherwise

101
Q

Guidelines for interpretation of USG in a dog:

Dehydrated, USG <1.007

A

strongly indicates defective renal concentrating ability but not due to renal failure, as kidneys have ability to dilute ultrafiltrate; consider central or renal diabetes insipidus disorders

102
Q

Guidelines for interpretation of USG in a dog:

Polyuria, USG >1.020

A

Reflects renal attempts to conserve H2O and thus not in renal insufficiency/failure; could be seen with glucosuria, hyponatremia/hypochloremia, partial central or renal diabetes insipidus disorders

103
Q

Guidelines for interpretation of USG in a dog:

Polyuria, USG 1.007 - 1.013

A

strongly indicates defective renal concentrating ability; if azotemic, then renal insufficiency or failure until proven otherwise

104
Q

Guidelines for interpretation of USG in a dog:

Polyuria, USG <1.007

A

strongly indicates defective renal concentrating ability but not due to renal failure, as kidneys have ability to dilute ultrafiltrate; consider central or renal diabetes insipidus disorders

105
Q

Guidelines for interpretation of USG in a dog:

Oliguria, USG >1.030

A

Reflects renal attempts to conserve H2O appropriately

106
Q

Guidelines for interpretation of USG in a dog:

Oliguria, USG 1.014 - 1.030

A

Uncommon, suspect acute renal failure

107
Q

Guidelines for interpretation of USG in a dog:

Oliguria, USG 1.007 - 1.013

A

typical for oliguric renal failure; acute or chronic

108
Q

Guidelines for interpretation of USG in a dog:

Glucosuria, USG >1.020

A

Reflects renal concentrating ability but may be partially impaired by solute diuresis or decreased medullary hypertonicity (medullary washout)

USG may be falsely increased 0.004 - 0.005 for every 1 g/dL of glucose in urine

109
Q

Guidelines for interpretation of USG in a dog:

Glucosuria, USG 1.007 - 1.020

A

May reflect impaired concentrating ability caused by solute diuresis or medullary washout but could have concurrent renal insufficiency/failure

110
Q

Guidelines for interpretation of USG in a dog:

Hyponatremia and hypochloremia, USG >1.020

A

Relfects renal concentrating ability but may be impaired by loop of Henle failure as may occur with hypoadrenocorticism

111
Q

Guidelines for interpretation of USG in a dog:

Hyponatremia and hypochloremia, USG 1.007 - 1.013

A

May reflect greater impairment of concentrating ability because of the loop of Henle failure but also must consider renal insufficiency/failure

112
Q

Guidelines for interpretation of USG in a dog:

Hyponatremia and hypochloremia, USG <1.007

A

Reflect renal diluting ability and thus not renal insufficiency/failure; defective ADH secretion probably present

Stockham and Scott (9 decks)

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