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Medical Microbiology > Third Test > Flashcards

Third Test Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
0
Q

What is the drug of choice for Treponema?

A

Penicillin is still the drug of choice.

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1
Q

What is the causative agent of Syphillis?

A

Treponema pallidum

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2
Q

T or F: Treponema Pallidum cannot be grown on any conventional media in the laboratory?

A

T

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3
Q

What are the names of the Treponema pathogens that are unrelated to Syphillis?

A

Pinta, Bejel, and Yaws

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4
Q

What are the primary symptoms of Pinta, Bejel, and Yaws?

A

Skin lesions

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5
Q

T or F: If a person has had Pinta/Bejel/Yaws they will test positive for T. pallidum as if they had previously had syphillis?

A

T

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6
Q

Where are the non-pathogenic Treponemes found?

A

They are normal flora in oral cavity, genital regions, colon and rectum.

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7
Q

When I say Borrelia what do I need to think of?

A

I need to think of bugs, ticks, fleas, etc.

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8
Q

What is the name of the bacteria that causes Lyme disease?

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

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9
Q

What are the animal reservoirs of Lyme Disease (Borrelia burgdorferi)?

A

Deer and white-footed mice.

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10
Q

What do I need to know about Leptospira?

A

Symptoms range from mild “flu-like” symptoms to fatal renal failure. Reservoirs in many domestic and wild animals.

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11
Q

What causes “primary atypical pneumonia?”

A

Mycoplasma

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12
Q

What are the characteristics of Mycoplasma?

A

They are pleomorphic organisms that do not possess a cell wall. They are prokaryotic and not eukaryotic. They are resistant to antibiotics such as Penicillin and Cephalosporins. Cannot be gram stained.

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13
Q

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

A

It is an upper and lower respiratory pathogen. Epidemics are usually seen in young adults on college campuses. “Walking pneumonia” takes 2-3 weeks to develop.

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14
Q

Mycoplasma hominis

A

colonizes genital tract of 50% of healthy adults.

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15
Q

Ureaplasma species

A

Colonizes male and female genital tracts.

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16
Q

Chlamydiaciae

A

Resemble gram-negative rods, lack ability to generate own ATP, prefer columnar epithelial cells lining the mucous membranes.

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17
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis

A

Recognized for years as a cause of conjunctivitis in developing countries. It has been the leading cause of preventable blindness.

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18
Q

Which species is the one that has three distinct disease states?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

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19
Q

Chlamydophila psittaci

A

Psittacosis/parrot fever. Organism is found in most wild birds, some domestic birds, and some wild animals.

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20
Q

Chlamydophila pneumoniae

A

cause of 10% of pneumonias, and 5% of sinusitis/bronchitis.

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21
Q

Who observed that staphylococcus was inhibited by penicillin notatum?

A

Alexander Fleming

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22
Q

Who developed a “magic bullet” for the treatment of syphillis? When?

A

Paul Ehrlich in the early 1900s.

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23
Q

Define ‘Spectrum of Activity.’

A

Spectrum of activity is the range of antimicrobial activity of the antibiotic.

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24
Q

Define Bactericial:

A

Organism is killed

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25
Q

Define Bacteriostatic:

A

organism is inhibited.

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26
Q

What are the beta-lactam antimicrobics:

A

Penicillins, Cephalosporins, imipenem, astreonam.

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27
Q

What are the glycopeptide antimicrobics?

A

Vancomycin, Daptomycin.

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28
Q

Does Penicillin have a narrow or a broad spectrum?

A

Narrow spectrum.

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29
Q

When will you use Penicillins?

A

Gram positive bacteria, gram negative cocci, Spirochetes.

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30
Q

What would you use for Staphylococcus aureus?

A

Methicillin (not in the U.S.), Nafcillin, Oxacillin, Dicloxacillin.

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31
Q

When will you use ampicillin or amoxicillin?

A

some enteric gram negative rods, H. influenzae, Enterococcus (with aminogycoside), and gram positive cocci & bacilli.

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32
Q

When would you use Carbenicillin (not in the U.S.), Piperacillin, or Ticarcillin?

A

more enterics, pseudomonas, enterococcus when combined with aminoglycoside.

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33
Q

What are the first generation Cephalosporins?

A

Cephalothin, Cefazolin, Cephalexin

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34
Q

Are the cephalosporins broad or narrow spectrum?

A

They are broad spectrum similar to ampicillin and amoxicillin.

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35
Q

What are the second generation Cephalosporins? What are they used to treat?

A

Cefaclor, Cefprozil, Cefuroxime, Cefotetan, and Cefoxitin. These drugs are used to treat the same as the first generation Cephalosporins plus more enteric gram negative rods and some anaerobes.

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36
Q

What are the third generation cephalosporins? What are they used for?

A

Cefotaxime, Ceftazidime, CEFTRIAXONE, Cefixime. Pseudo aeruginosa, N. gonorrhoeae, S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae.

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37
Q

What is the fourth generation Cephalosporin? What is it used for?

A

Cefepime. It is used for enteric gram negative rods, and pseudomonas aeruginosa.

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38
Q

What is Carbapenem used for? What is the name of the sub-drug of Carbapenem?

A

Carbapenem is used for broad spectrum. It is used for Pseudomonas. ESBL (extended spectrum beta lactamases) that produced Klebsiella, and E. Coli.

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39
Q

What is monobactam used for? What is the sub-drug of monobactam?

A

Enteric gram negative rods. Pseudomonas. The sub drug is Aztreonam.

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40
Q

What are the glycopeptide drugs? What are they used for?

A

Vancomycin and Daptomycin (Cubicin.) S. aureus, MRSA, Enterococcus, and penicillin resistant S. pneumoniae.

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41
Q

What is the definition of a virus?

A

Any of a large group of submicroscopic infective agents that contain a protein coat surrounding DNA or RNA core of genetic material but no semi-permeable membrane. They are capable of growth only in living cells.

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42
Q

Current classification of viruses is based on:

A

Which nucleic acid (DNA vs. RNA, single stranded vs. double stranded.) Structure (shape and presence or absence of envelope) and size. Means of replication.

43
Q

Protein capsids come in three shapes. What are they?

A

Helix (cylindrical), Icosohedron (spherical or cubic symmetry), complex

44
Q

There are two different forms of virus packaging. What are they?

A

Naked (capsid protein is outer layer) and Enveloped (surrounded by a membrane containing lipids.)

45
Q

What are the steps of viral replication?

A

Recognition of target cell, attachment, penetration, uncoating, molecular synthesis, assembly, release.

46
Q

What is the most common virus identification method?

A

Nucleic Acid Amplification Techniques (PCR)

47
Q

Enteroviruses

A

Transmitted by fecal-oral route, Polio, Hepatitis A: food handlers and day care centers. Echo and Coxackie cause viral meningitis. Hand, foot, and mouth disease primarily coxackie viruses.

48
Q

What are rhinoviruses?

A

The common cold.

49
Q

Hepatitis C

A

This is the most common chronic blood-borne infection in the United States. Incubation of the virus can be up to 20 years. It is most efficiently transmitted through large or repeated percutaneous exposure to infected blood.

50
Q

Rotavirus

A

Major cause of gastroenteritis in children.

51
Q

Yellow Fever

A

Spread by an urban mosquito (Aedes Egypti). Still endemic in Africa.

52
Q

Dengue Fever

A

Spread by the same urban mosquito that spreads Yellow Fever, Endemic in tropics, unlike Yellow Fever there is not a vaccine.

53
Q

Rubella

A

“German Measles”. Vaccine available.

54
Q

Influenza

A

This is a respiratory virus! Periodic pandemics affect millions worldwide.

55
Q

Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)

A

Major cause of lower respiratory tract illness in young children (“viral pneumonia”)

56
Q

Hantavirus

A

Inhaled aerosols from infectious rodent feces and urine.

57
Q

Type 1 Herpes Simplex

A

associated with cold sores and fever blisters. Up to 15% of genital herpes by be caused by Type 1 Herpes Simplex.

58
Q

Type 2 Herpes Simplex

A

Genital Herpes

59
Q

Varicella

A

Chicken Pox, and Shingles (Zoster)

60
Q

Epstein-Barr Virus

A

Infectious mononucleosis.

61
Q

What is symbiosis?

A

Association of two species, primarily for food getting on the part of one or both members of the group. TEAMWORK.

62
Q

What is commensalism?

A

Association that is beneficial to one partner and is not harmful nor beneficial to the other. INDIFFERENCE.

63
Q

Mutualism

A

Type of association where both organisms benefit.

64
Q

Parasitism

A

Symbiotic relationship where the host is to some degree injured through the activities of the parasite. The parasite lives upon or in the host and is metabolically dependent.

65
Q

Helminthic parasites of humans

A

Wormlike invertebrates

66
Q

Which drugs are inhibitors of protein synthesis?

A

Quinupristin/Dalfopristin (Synercid), Linezolid, Aminoglycosides, Tetracycline, Chloramphenicol, Macrolides, Lincosamides.

67
Q

Quinupristin/Dalfopristin and Linezolid Drugs are used for:

A

Narrow spectrum, for mild drug resistant gram positive. MRSA and VRE.

68
Q

Aminoglycosides:

A

Streptomycin, Gentamycin, Tobramycin, Amikacen. These drugs are potentially neurotoxic and can affect hearing, balance, and kidneys.

69
Q

Which group of drugs has a high affinity for binding with Mg and Ca ions and impeding absorption?

A

The Tetracyclines.

70
Q

What drug would be used to treat Salmonella typhi?

A

Chloramphenicol

71
Q

What are the drugs within the Macrolides family?

A

Erythromycin, Azithromycin, Clarithromycin, Fidaxomycin.

72
Q

What are the macrolides used for?

A

They are broad spectrum antibiotics. They are not for enterics.

73
Q

Clindamycin is a part of what family of antibiotics?

A

The Lincosamides which take care of anaerobes and staph. Not MRSA.

74
Q

What are the newer generation drugs from the Quinolones family?

A

Fluoroquinolones such as Ciprofloxacin, Norfloxacin, Ofloxicin, Levofloxacin, Gemifloxicin, Moxifloxicin. These are used for broad spectrum: S. pneumoniae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, MRSA.

75
Q

How do anti-fungal agents work?

A

They bind to ergosterol in cytoplasmic membrane and interferes with transport of amino acids.

76
Q

What are the -conazoles used for?

A

Yeasts and Molds

77
Q

Which is nystatin used for?

A

Yeasts

78
Q

What are polymyxins used for?

A

They are broad spectrum and used for gram negative rods. It is used topically.

79
Q

What is metronidazole (Flagyl) used for?

A

It is used for some anaerobes like Clostridium difficile, ameba, giardia, trichomonas, Gardnerella.

80
Q

What are the antimycobacterial agents?

A

Recommendation is to treat with 3 of the following at the same time:
Rifampin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutal, and Streptomycin.

81
Q

What is the other name for Roundworm?

A

Nematode

82
Q

What is the other name for Tapeworm?

A

Cestode

83
Q

What is the other name for Fluke?

A

Trematode

84
Q

What are the distinctive characteristics of a roundworm?

A

It is spindle shaped, it exists in separate sexes.

85
Q

what are the distinctive characteristics of a tapeworm?

A

It has a head and a segmented body. It is hermaphroditic.

86
Q

What are the distinctive characteristics of a Fluke?

A

Leaf shaped with oral and ventral suckers, Most are hermaphroditic.

87
Q

Ascaris Lumbricoides

A

Largest and one of the most common intestinal helminths.

88
Q

Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm)

A

Most common helminth infection in the U.S. At night time the female goes to the colon and slips out onto perianal area to deposit eggs. Eggs are identified by performing scotch tape prep.

89
Q

Structure of the tapeworm

A

the Head or scolex contains sucking disks for attachment, and rostellum with hooks for better attachment to host.

90
Q

Taenia solium (pork tapeworm)

A

Worms can be up to 10 meters long and live for years in the human host causing abdominal discomfort, nausea, weight loss, and diarrhea.

91
Q

Giardia lamblia

A

Deals with contaminated water sources.

92
Q

What’s the name of the scientist that defined the life cycle of Malaria?

A

Ronald Ross

93
Q

What is the family, genus, and species of Malaria?

A

Protozoa (family), Plasmodium (genus), falciparum, vivax, ovale, malariae (knowlesi.)

94
Q

What type of mosquito is the definitive host of malaria?

A

The female anopheles mosquito

95
Q

What is a drug commonly used to treat Malaria?

A

Chloroquine.

96
Q

P. falciparum

A

Most likely to be fatal, no latent stages in the liver, disease of the tropics, some protection if you have the sickle-cell trait.

97
Q

What is the species of Plasmodium that used to be common in the U.S.?

A

P. vivax and P. ovale

98
Q

P. malariae

A

low grade chronic infection that can persist for more than 50 years.

99
Q

What are the prophylactic medicines for malaria?

A

Atovaquone/proguanil (Malarone), Mefloquine (Lariam), Doxycycline, Chloroquine + Proguanil, Chloroquine.

100
Q

What is the WHO’s drug of choice for Malaria?

A

Artemisinin

101
Q

Gram Positive Cocci

A

Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Enterococcus

102
Q

Gram Negative cocci

A

Neisseria and Moraxella

103
Q

Gram positive bacilli

A

Clostridium, nocardia, listeria, corynebacterium, gardnerella, bacillus, actinomyces, propionibacterium.

104
Q

Gram negative bacilli

A

campylobacter jejuni, helicobacter pylori, bacteriodes fragilis, fusobacterium nucleatum

Medical Microbiology (4 decks)

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