Therapeutics - HIV part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

name 4 types of entry inhibitors

A

fusion inhibitor
CCR5 antagonist
post attachment inhibitor
attachment inhibitor

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2
Q

name a fusion inhibitor

A

enfuviritide

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3
Q

name a CCR5 antagonist

A

maraviroc

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4
Q

name a post attachment inhibitor

A

ibalizumab

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5
Q

name an attachment inhibitor

A

fostemsavir

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6
Q

in general, what is the role in therapy for entry inhibitors

A

usually reserved for people who are failing the other classes of antiretrovirals, with the exception of maraviroc - may be used besides in failing therapy

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7
Q

***which HIV drug has a need for tropism testing? why? what class is it?

A

MARAVIROC

it’s a CCR5 antagonist - therefore, it will only work on a CCR5 tropic virus and we need to test for this

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8
Q

true or false

ALL of the entry inhibitors can be taken with or without food

A

true

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9
Q

true or false

there is no concern with CYP450 interactions with entry inhibitors

A

FALSE - there is for most of them

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10
Q

fostemsavir + ethinyl estradiol

what class is fostemsavir?

A

attachment inhibitor

levels of ethinyl estradiol will increase

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11
Q

true or false

several entry inhibitors are given by injection

A

true

enfuvirtide, ibalizumab

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12
Q

which entry inhibitor has a BBW of hepatotoxicity

A

maraviroc

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13
Q

name 5 integrase inhibitors

A

raltegravir
bictegravir
elvitegravir
dolutegravir
cabotegravir

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14
Q

true or false

integrase inhibitors are not used often

A

FALSE - they are

not a lot of side effects, they work well, and resistance is pretty rare

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15
Q

only integrase inhibitor that MUST be taken with food
(all others are with or without)

A

elvitegravir

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16
Q

which 2 integrase inhibitors undergo UGTA1A1 glucuronidation

A

cabotegravir and raltegravir

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17
Q

which integrase inhibitor’s use is restricted only to those whose creatinine clearance is over 70mL/min?

A

raltegravir

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18
Q

which 2 integrase inhibitors have CYP450 interaction concern?? which additionally has a binding interaction concern?

A

elvitegravir and dolutegravir

dolutegravir

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19
Q

which integrase inhibitor causes neural tube defects in utero?

A

dolutegravir

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20
Q

what class is considered last line therapy for HIV

A

capsid inhibitors - they’re new and not really used yet at all in practice – only for heavily experienced adults with multi-drug resistance HIV infection

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21
Q

name the only capsid inhibitor

A

lenacapavir

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22
Q

what is lenacapavir contraindicated with?

A

strong CYP3A4 inducers

it is a moderate CYP3A4 inhibitor

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23
Q

true or false

lenacapavir can be taken with or without food

A

true

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24
Q

HAART meaning

A

highly active antiretroviral therapy

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25
true or false if a patient is antiretroviral naive, they do not have a resistant strain
FALSE - they still can - even if they never took any HIV meds for example, the virus transmitted to you may have been resistant already
26
name some baseline labs that may be conducted before antiretroviral therapy is started
scr/cr cl hepatic function for abacavir - HLAB701 test for miraviroc - tropism test for CCR5
27
name 4 goals for treating HIV
-suppress viral load -restore immunologic function (increase CD4) -reduce morbidity/mortality and improve quality of life -prevent HIV transmission to others
28
CD4 and viral load test should be conducted at baseline, and how long for routine monitoring?
every 3-6 months
29
true or false after initiating ART (antiretroviral therapy), CD4 count should be assessed at 2-8 weeks following initiation of therapy
FALSE should asses VIRAL LOAD 2-8 weeks after initiating therapy we do NOT check the CD4 count this soon. viral load is more indicitive of how the patient is responding to therapy
30
when is HIV treatment started
ASAP and aggressively. there is zero reason to wait
31
ART is recommended for ALL persons with HIV to reduce morbidity and mortality AND....
to prevent transmitting HIV to others
32
based on the guidelines, name 3 therapies that are considered 1st line for STARTING PATIENTS on HIV medication who do NOT have a history of using long acting cabotegravir as PREP
-biktarvy: Bictegravir + TAF + Emtricitabine -Dolutegavir + TAF or TDF + Emtricitabine or Lamuvidine -DO NOT USE this regimen if patient's viral load is greater than 500,000, HBV coinfection, or have been started on therapy before the results of the resistance test: Dolutegravir + Lamuvidine (dovato) ALL HAVE AN INTEGRASE INHIBITORS!!!! GUIDELINES RECOMMEND THE USE OF AN INTEGRASE INHIBITOR
33
patient HAS a history of using long acting cabotegravir as PREP, and therapy is being started BEFORE the results of the INSTI genotype resistance testing what therapy should they be put on?
Darunavir or Darunavir + low dose ritonavir + TAF or TDF + Emtricitabine or Lamuvidine (pending the results of the genotype test)
34
physician is concerned about the renal or bone adverse effects associated with TAF/TDF what therapy is recommended by the guidelines
integrase inhibitor + 2 NRTIs (ie: dolutegravir + abacavir + lamuvidine) IF HLA-B*5701 IS NEGATIVE (abacavir concern) also avoid in CV disease bc of abacavir
35
give 2 general regimens that the guidelines recommend to avoid an integrase inhibitor based regimen
boosted protease inhibitor + 2 NRTIs NNRTI + 2 NRTIs
36
name 5 therapies that are NOT recommended as INITIAL antiretroviral treatments by the guidelines
raltegravir-based regimens elvitegravir/cobicistat-based regimens booster Atazanavir-based regimens Efavirenz-based regimens Rilpivirine + TDF + FTC
37
2 examples of when we should NOT use rilpivirine as initial therapy
CD4 count less than 200, viral load greater than 100,000 copies because higher rates of failure
38
HLAB5701 allele test is positive OR is unknown what drug should we NOT use
abacavir
39
viral load is higher than 500,000 what 2 therapies should NOT be used
rilpivirine + TAF + emtricitabine dolutegravir + lamuvidine
40
in general, if the patient has chronic kidney disease (CrCl <60mL/min), which drug should definitely be avoided
TDF - TAF has better renal and bone properties
41
patient has osteoporosis which particular drug should be avoided
TDF - TAF is better
42
2 drugs that should be avoided if patient has psychiatric illness
rilpivirine, efavirenz
43
after the initiation of appropriate antiretroviral therapy, how long should it be until the viral load should become UNDETECTABLE? (<50copies/mL) How long should it be just to see improvement in the viral load?
12-24 weeks -- or within 6 MONTHS should be around 4 weeks to see improvement in the viral load
44
1 of the reasons a patient may fail their initial antiretroviral treatment is if their is an alteration in the drugs' pharmacokinetics given an example of this
if the patient has bad diarrhea as a side effect of one of the drugs, the drug isn't being absorbed well and the patient will fail treatment
45
true or false therapeutic drug monitoring is not done for HIV drugs
true
46
define virologic suppression
confirmed viral load levels below LLOD (lower limit of detection) should occur within 24 weeks
47
explain what virologic failure is
inability to achieve OR MAINTAIN viral load less than 200 sometimes pt is on therapy and doing well, but it goes above 200 again
48
what is a virologic blip
after suppression, random test comes back as extremely high, even when the patient has been controlled consistently when you repeat the test, it comes back less than 200 we dont know why this happens
49
define an incomplete virologic response
2 consecutive viral load levels greater than 200 even after 6 months on therapy
50
low-level viremia
confirmed detectible viral load less than 200
51
true or false drug resistance is not considered cumulative
FALSE - it is meaning that prior history is very important -- all adds up
52
a patient is on a 3 drug regimen. they develop resistance to 1 or 2 of the drugs what should be done?
throw the entire regimen away and start over
53
PREP vs PEP
prep = pre exposure prophylaxis. HIV-negative patient takes combo drug on a daily basis (or cabotegravir XR injectable suspension bimonthly) BEFORE the potential exposure occurs PEP = post exposure prophylaxis HIV negative patient takes a full 3-drug HIV regimen for 28 days AFTER the potential exposure occurs
54
how can PEP be dividied
occupational and non occupational (ie - sexual, IV drug user)
55
as mentioned, PrEP is when an HIV negative patient takes either combo drug therapy daily, or cabotegravir XR injectable bimonthly BEFORE the potential exposure occurs name 2 of these possible combination drugs
TDF + emtricitabine TAF + emtricitabine
56
PEP should be started within how long after the exposure?
within 72 hours after the exposure
57
give an example of a PEP regimen how long is it taken?
for 28 days and started within 72 hours after exposure dolutegravir + TDF or emtricitabine
58
according to the CDC, prep is ONLY for......
people who are at ongoing, substantial risk of HIV infection
59
according to the CDC, PEP should be offered to who
people who present to dr after a single high risk event of potential HIV exposure
60
true or false PREP protects against HIV as well as other STI's
FALSE ONLY HIV
61
name the conditions that identify the patient as having a substantial risk of acquiring HIV infection
anal or vaginal sex in the past 6 months and ANY of the following: -HIV positive partner (esp if unknown or undetectable VL) -bacterial STI in the past 6 months -history of inconsistent or no condom use OR HIV positive injecting partner OR share injecting equipment
62
name 4 conditions in which ALL must be met to be considered CLINICALLY eligible to receive PREP
-documented negative HIV test result within 1 week after initially prescribing prep -no signs or symptoms of acute HIV -creatinine clearance greater than 30 -no contraindicated meds
63
what are common signs and symptoms of an acute HIV infection
flu like symptoms
64
true or false if a person tests (+) for HIV, they are not a candidate for prep
TRUE want to give full therapy immediately
65
name the med/duration for prep treatment
truvada (TDF + Emtricitabine) less than or equal to a 90 day supply oral, once daily dosing OR for men and trans women at risk for sexual acquisition - daily, continual dosing of descovy (TAF + emtricitabine) up to 90 day supply NO MORE THAN 3 MONTHS AND NO REFILLS!!!! want to test them and make sure it's working and they're not (+)
66
why is descovy (TAF + emtricitabine) not used in heterosexual women, and only used in men and trans women?
bc not studied in heterosexual women for prep truvada is used instead
67
when prep is being administered, what information should be collected every 3, 6, and 12 months?
3 months - HIV test, adherence 6 months - assess renal function if over 50 or have low cr cl at start 12 months - assess renal function of ALL patients. chlamydia screening for hetersexual women and men if on TAF + emtricitabine, assess weight, triglycerides, cholesterol
68
what is the only not oral prep
cabotegravir injection
69
only difference between determining if a patient is eligible for prep between truvada/descovy vs cabotegravir
all same requirements, except for cabotegravir there is no creatinine clearance cut off
70
dosage cabotegravir for prep
600mg IM 3mL single dose 4 weeks later - 2nd dose every 8 weeks thereafter they get another dose
71
differentiate between primary and secondary prophylaxis for opportunistic infections
primary - for patients who have NEVER HAD infection. to prevent the first episode of an opportunistic infection secondary - prophylaxis for patients who have had previous cases of the opportunistic infection
72
most common opportunistic infection in HIV patients
candidiasis fungus oral or esophageal
73
treatment for oral candidiasis (thrush) also what is duration
7-14 days most often - fluconazole 100mg PO QD ALTS are clotrimazole troche 5x a day, nystatin suspension, posaconazole
74
treatment for esophageal candidiasis also what is duration
14-21 days (longer than thrush) fluconazole 100mg QD or itraconazole solution 200mg QD alts = viriconazole, isavuconazole, caspfungin
75
true or false we normally do not give prophylaxis for thrush
TRUE only if they have it an absurd amount of times every year (which is rare)
76
name 4 opportunistic infections in HIV patients
candidiasis PCP (pneumocystis pneumonia) toxoplasma gondii MAC (mycobacterium avium complex)
77
when is primary prophlyaxis for PCP indicated
HIV + and CD4 count less than 200
78
primary prophylaxis regimen for PCP when is the therapy discontinued
bactrim (DS) QD -- can be on for years alts are tmp/smx SS QD, dapsone, atovaquone, pentamide discontinued when CD4 is greater than 200 for 3 or more months (can consider if between 100-200 and VL undetectable for 3-6 months tho)
79
when is secondary prophylaxis indicated for PCP
following a PCP episode treatment is same as primary prophylaxis. also stopped under same conditions
80
when is primary prophylaxis for toxoplasma gondii indicated? what is the treatment? when can it be stopped?
when CD4 count less than 100 and IgG antibody (+) to toxo treatment, like PCP, is bactrim DS QD stopped under same conditions - when CD4 greater than 200 for 3 or more months. (can consider when cd4 100-200 and VL undetectable for 3-6 months)
81
**patient has CD4 count 80 what opportunistic infections are they at risk for
PCP toxoplasma gondii
82
how does a patient with toxoplasma gondii present
stiff neck, altered mental status
83
when is secondary prophylaxis for toxoplasma gondii indicated? what is treatment? when can it be discontinued?
indicated following a toxo episode treatment is same can stop when CD4 greater than 200 for 6 or more months and have no signs or symptoms of toxo infection
84
when is primary prophylaxis for MAC (mycobacterium avium complex) indicated?
NOT recommended for adults/adolescents who immediately initiate antiretroviral therapy however, IS indicated if: -HIV (+) -not on fully suppressive therapy (this is not recommended therapy by guidelines - so not rly on prophylaxis usually) -CD4 count less than 50 after ruling out disseminated MAC
85
treatment for primary prophylaxis of mac
azithromycin 1200mg q weekly clarithromycin 500mg BID
86
when is primary prophylaxis for mac discontinued
the initiation of effective antiretroviral therapy (according to guidelines)
87
*CD4 of 30 what are they at risk for they are starting a new HIV regimen today. what prophylactic regimen should they be put on?
PCP toxoplasma MAC ONLY BACTRIM starting guideline therapy - do not need prophylaxis for MAC, if they were NOT starting HIV regimen today, would need clarithromycin or azithromycin
88
HIV patients who have AIDS (CD4 less than 200) should not receive which vaccines
live vaccines - whether bacterial or viral ALL OTHERS can be given
89
true or false TAF and TDF cannot be given together
true
90