Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

[FINALS] LU4 2018 > Ther 201 Exam 3 > Flashcards

Ther 201 Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

TRUE or FALSE
1) Having a previous hypersensitivity reaction to
penicillin G would also predispose the patient to
having a hypersensitivity reaction to another
penicillin like piperacillin.

A

TRUE. Penicillins exhibit cross-allergenicity, meaning
their structures are sufficiently similar to elicit similar
hypersensitivity reactions. From Katzung: “All penicillins
are cross-sensitizing and cross-reacting.” (12th edition, p.796).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

2) In treating bacterial infections in immunocompromised patients, such as those with leukemia, a bacteriostatic agent is insufficient.

A

TRUE. Bacteriostatic agents do not completely eliminate bacteria, they simply prevent bacteria from reproducing. These bacteria may then continue to grow in more favorable conditions, such as when host defenses go down or when the bacteriostat is removed. Thus, bacteriostatic agents work best in conjuction with intact host defenses. In immunocompromised patients, this would be detrimental as they are not able to mount a strong enough immune response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

3) Physicians may follow the typhoid treatment guidelines for India for treatment of patients with typhoid in the Philippines.

A

FALSE. Statistics where these guidelines are based will not be the same across countries. Parameters such as prevalence or antibiotic resistance, for example, will differ.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

4) Updating treatment guidelines for infectious diseases is not necessary.

A

FALSE. It is necessary because bacteria continuously evolve, drug research is a very active field, resistance patterns often change, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

5) Resistance patterns for Streptococcus pneumonia are similar all over the world.

A

FALSE. Resistance patterns depend on a variety of factors such as government control programs, sanitation, and health practices. These would differ across countries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

6) Physicians must have current knowledge on the epidemiology of infectious disease in their locality.

A

TRUE. Some infectious diseases are endemic to particular regions, prevalence rates may be higher for a certain region compared to another, and physicians must be aware of these in order to properly manage their patients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Matching type (MOA)

7) Erythromycin

A

Macrolides
Macrolides, tetracyclines: Inhibit protein synthesis by binding to rRNA subunits (30S for tetracylines and 50S for macrolides, also chloramphenicol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

8) Cotrimoxazole

A

B. CLASS: Sulfonamide-trimethoprim.
Sulfonamide-trimethoprim: Sulfonamides inhibit dihyropteroate synthase and trimethoprims inhibit dihyrofolate reductase. Endpoint is inhibition of folate synthesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

9) Ciprofloxacin

A

C. CLASS: Quinolones.
Quinolones: Inhibit DNA synthesis by binding to DNA gyrase, an enzyme required for producing properly-coiled DNA prior to replication.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

10) Tetracycline

A

A. CLASS: Tetracyclines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

11) Cefepime

A

D. CLASS: Cephalosporins (fourth-generation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

12) Ampicillin

A

D. CLASS: Aminopenicillins.
Penicillins: Inhibit cell wall synthesis by interfering with the transpeptidation reaction of bacterial cell wall synthesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

13) Vancomycin

A

D. CLASS: Glycopeptides. (also inhibit cell-wall biosynthesis by binding to D-alanyl-D-alanine moiety of cell wall precursor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

14) _________ is a semi-quantitative antibiotic susceptibility test using paper discs impregnated with an antibiotic and after incubation with the bacteria to be test, the zone of inhibition is measured.

A. Kirby-Bauer method
B. Broth dilution test

C. Minimum inhibitory concentration

D. Hudgen’s test

A

A. Intro to Antipathogens and Antimicrobials trans. Also known as the disc diffusion assay. A lawn of bacteria is cultured with antiobiotic-impregnated discs and zones of

clearing around the discs are measured. If the diameter of the zone is greater than a certain size, the bacteria is susceptible to the antibiotic in the disc, but if the diameter is below the defined size, the antibiotic will most likely not inhibit the bacteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

15) The following data is given for a disk diffusion test using N. gonorrhea and ceftriaxone:

Zone diameter breakpoint

Sensitive	Resistant

Ceftriaxone 35 34

The zone diameter seen for the isolate of N. gonorrhea from the penile discharge was 30 mm. Which of the following is a correct statement.

A. The patient will most likely have poor response to ceftriaxone
B. The patient most likely will be cured with ceftriaxone

C. It is safe to give the patient 10x the dose of ceftriaxone to ensure cure

A

A. The smaller the zone of clearing around the disc, the more the bacteria is resistant to the drug in the disc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

16) In comparison to the natural penicillins, the aminopenicillins have added activity against
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Listeria monocytogenes

C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Bacteroides fragilis

A

A. Ampicillins have extended activity against gram-negative microorganisms, such as P. aeruginosa.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

17) True of oxacillin EXCEPT
A. Has good activity against staphylococcus
B. May be given for Klebsiella pneumoniae

C. Has a short half-life

D. Has good activity against streptococcus

A

B. Oxacillin CLASS: Penicillins, anti-staphylococcal. Resistant to staphylococcal B-lactamases, but can also be used against streptococci. This cannot be used against gram-negative bacteria as well as enterococci and anaerobic bacteria. K. pneumoniae is gram-negative.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

18) The following statement is true of piperacillin EXCEPT

A. It is an extended spectrum penicillin

B. Has activity against anaerobes

C. May be used for methicillin-resistant S. aureus infections
D. Is effective against P. aeruginosa sepsis

A

C. Vancomycin is currently the drug of choice for MRSA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

19) Expected adverse effects of penicillins EXCEPT

A. Ototoxicity

B. Allergic reactions
C. Diarrhea

D. Intestinal nephritis (I think this is interstitial nephritis)

A

A. From Katzung: “The penicillins are generally well tolerated…Most of the serious adverse effects are due to hypersensitivity…Oral lesions, fever, interstitial nephritis (an autoimmune reaction to a penicillin-protein complex)…may also occur…Large doses of penicillins give orally may lead to gastrointestinal upset, particularly nausea, vomiting and diarrhea. (12th edition, p. 796.)

Also, ototoxicity is a known ADR of aminoglycosides such as streptomycin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

20) Rina is a 2 day old neonate born to a mother diagnosed with untreated syphilis. The penicillin of choice is:

A. Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid
B. Piperacillin-tazobactam

C. Oxacillin

D. Pen G

A

D. Penicillin G is the drug of choice for syphilis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

21) Cefuroxime is useful for treatment of infections caused by the following pathogens EXCEPT
A. Hemophilus influenza
B. E. coli

C. S. pneumonia
D. Legionella

A

D. Cefuroxime is a second-generation cephalosporin.

From Katzung: “In general, they [second-gen cephalosporins] are active against organisms inhibited by first-generation drugs (in pertaining to first generation drugs: these drugs are very active against gram-positive cocci, such as pneumococci, streptococci and staphylococci)…E. coli, K. pneumonia and P. mirabilis are often sensitive…Cefamandole, cefuroxime, cefmetazole, ceforanide, and cefaclor are active against H. influenzae.” Legionella is a gram-negative microorganism, which second-gen cephalosporins have poor activity against.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

22) Indications for the use of cotrimoxazole include the following EXCEPT
A. Prophylaxis of Pneumocystic jiroveci pneumonia
B. Treatment of susceptible Burkholderia cepacia sepsis

C. Treatment of Histoplasma

D. Treatment of H. influenzae otitis media

A

C. Histoplasma are fungi. Treat with either amphotericin B or itraconazole.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

23) True of tetracycline EXCEPT

A. Has good activity against intracellular bacteria such as legionella and chlamydia

B. Is safe for long term use in patients less than eight years old and pregnant women

C. Long acting preparations can be given once a day or every 12 hours

D. Side effect include photosensitivity, hepatotoxicity, and SLE

A

B. From Katzung: “Tetracyclines are readily bound to calcium deposited in newly formed bone or teeth in young children…during pregnancy, it can be deposited in the fetal teeth…Because of these effects, tetracyclines are generally avoided in pregnancy. If the drug is given for long periods to children younger than 8 years, similar changes can result.” (12th edition, p. 812)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

24) Erythromycin is used as an alternative drug for penicillin for many indications EXCEPT
A. S. pneumonia pneumonia

B. Mycoplasma pneumonia

C. Rheumatic fever prophylaxis

D. Syphilis

A

C. From the website of the American Association of

Family Physicians, the macrolides listed under “Primary

Prevention of Rheumatic Fever, for patients allergic to penicillin” are azithromycin, clarithromycin and clindamycin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
25) What is a correct indication for the usage of chloramphenicol? A. Malaria B. Typhoid fever C. Staphylococcal impetigo D. Otitis media
B. From Medscape: “For sensitive strains, still most widely used antibiotic to treat typhoid fever.”
26
26) True of ciprofloxacin A. It is the drug of choice for MRSA B. It has good activity for S. pneumonia C. It inhibits topoisomerase II and IV D. It is active against plasmodium
C. From Katzung: “Quinolones block bacterial DNA synthesis by inhibiting bacterial topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) and topoisomerase IV.” (12th edition, p. 835)
27
27) Antimicrobial agents that are avoided during pregnancy are the following EXCEPT A. Ciprofloxacin B. Cotrimoxazole C. Doxycycline D. Cefixime
D. From Medscape: “Pregnancy category B (may be acceptable. Either animal studies show no risk, but human studies not available or animal studies showed minor risks and human studies done and showed no risk.)” Ciprofloxacin causes arthopathy, doxycycline deposits in bones and teeth, and cotrimoxazole inhibits folate synthesis.
28
``` 28) Adverse effects of chloramphenicol include the following EXCEPT A. Gray baby syndrome B. Red man syndrome C. Idiosyncratic aplastic anemia D. Dose-related bone marrow depression ```
B. From Medscape, grey baby syndrome, aplastic anemia and bone marrow depression are all listed under adverse effects. Red man syndrome (so-called because of the erythematous rash that appears in the face and upper body) is more related to IV-infused vancomycin.
29
``` 29) The disadvantage of using erythromycin in comparison to newer macrolides for respiratory tract infections is that erythromycin has poor activity for A. S. pneumonia B. Legionella C. H. influenza D. Chlamydia ```
C. From Katzung: “Erythromycin is active against susceptible strains of gram-positive organisms, especially pneumococci, streptococci, staphylococci, and corynebacteria…Chlamydia trachomatis, Chlamydia pneumonia are susceptible…H. influenzae is somewhat less susceptible.
30
Antiparasitic 30) Which statement is FALSE about metronidazole? A. It is a luminal amoebicide only B. It has good activity for anaerobic bacteria C. It is used for the treatment of pseudomembranous colitis D. It is used as prophylaxis in colorectal surgery
A. From Antiparasitics trans: “Treatment of antibiotic-induced pseudomembranous colitis by C. difficile.”
31
31) Present first-line treatment of malaria includes the following EXCEPT A. Artemether-lumefantrine for plasmodium falciparum B. Chloroquine for plasmodium vivax C. Primaquine for 14 days for plasmodium vivax D. Quinine for plasmodium ovale
D. Antiparasitics trans.
32
32) True about quinine A. It is an alternative drug for Taenia saginata B. Therapeutic doses may cause hypoglycemia C. It may cause SJS D. It is derived from the bark of the quassia plant
B. Antiparasitics trans. Derived from the bark of the cinchona tree, causes hypoglycemia, sinus arrhythmia, ventricular tachycardia, etc. Mebendazole is used as the alternative drug for T. saginata infections.
33
33) True about coartem A. Is a combination of 2 antifolate drugs B. Is the current drug of choice for plasmodium falciparum C. Is a tissue schizonticide D. Is given IV only
B. Co-trimoxazole is the combination of 2 antifolate drugs (sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim), primaquine is the only tissue schizonticide and coartem can be given orally.
34
34) True of albendazole EXCEPT A. Is a narrow spectrum antihelmintic and can only be used to eradicate ascaris B. Inhibits microtubule synthesis thus impairing glucose uptake of the helminth C. May induce clearance of the parasite from the GIT several days after intake D. Is a benzimidazole carbamate
A. From Antiparasitics trans: Broad-spectrum antihelminthic, with activity against Ascaris, Trichuris, hookworm and pinworm infections. It is a benzimidazole carbamate, and as its MOA, inhibits microtubule synthesis, killing parasites slowly but effectively by paralyzing them. This is why it takes days for the parasites to be cleared from the GIT.
35
Matching type 35) Brugia malayi
C. B. malayi causes filariasis.
36
36) Taenia saginata
Praziquantel
37
37) Prophylaxis for malaria
Doxycycline
38
38) Capillaria philipinensis
Albendazole
39
39) Echinococcus granulosus
Albendazole
40
Antifungals 40) True of amphotericin B EXCEPT A. It is the most potent among all the anti-fungals B. It is a polyene antifungal C. It creates pores in the fungal membrane D. It can cause gynecomastia
D. Antifungals trans. Amphotericin B is a polyene macrolide (others are nystatin and natamycin) whose MOA is interaction with sterols in cell membranes to form channels or pores through the membrane (consequence is leakage of intracellular ions like K+). It is the gold standard and has the broadest spectrum for yeasts, and is reserved for treatment of life-threatening fungal infections.
41
41) True of ketoconazole A. Is a polyene antifungal B. Has good CNS penetration C. Inhibits ergosterol formation by inhibiting fungal cytochrome P450 enzymes D. Has no effect on testosterone synthesis
C. Antifungals trans. Azoles are fungistatic drugs, divided into 2 classes: imidazoles or triazoles (Ketoconazole is an imidazole.) Its MOA is reduction of ergosterol synthesis by inhibiting cytochrome P450 enzymes. It has poor CNS penetration and it interferes with synthesis of adrenal hormones (may cause Cushing’s; would also affect DHEAS production by the zona reticularis, and DHEAS is an intermediate in the synthesis of androgens)
42
42) True of fluconazole A. Has numerous infusion-related adverse effects B. is the most potent of all azoles C. Has poor CNS penetration D. May be used for the treatment of Cryptococcus neoformans and Candida infections
D. Antifungals trans. “Azole of choice in treatment and secondary prophylaxis of cryptococcal meningitis…IV fluconazole has equivalent efficacy to amphotericin B in treatment of candidemia in ICU patients…” (But B also seems correct, since the last statement says that it is equivalent to amphotericin B)
43
43) True about flucytosine A. May be used in monotherapy to treat candidemia B. May cause infertility and menstrual irregularities C. Causes SJS D. Used in combination with amphotericin B for Cryptococcus neoformans meningitis
D. Antifungals trans. “…not used alone due to development of resistance…demonstrates synergy with amphotericin B for C. neoformans…”
44
44) Itraconazole A. Inhibits DNA synthesis B. Treatment of histoplasmosis, aspergillosis, blastomycosis, cryptococcosis (not CNS) and coccidiomycosis C. Is a polyene antifungal D. May be used to treat Cryptococcus neoformans meningitis
B. Antifungals trans. MOA of azoles is interruption of ergosterol synthesis, and it cannot cross the BBB, thus, it cannot be used to treat C. neoformans meningitis.
45
45) Adverse effects of amphotericin B includes the following EXCEPT A. Azotemia B. Potassium loss C. Anemia D. SLE
D. Antifungals trans. “K+ loss due to pores in membranes…variable azotemia…anemia due to reduced erythropoietin production…”
46
46) Adverse effects of voriconazole include the following EXCEPT A. Visual disturbances C. Fever B. Nephrotoxicity D. Rash
B. From Katzung: “Observed toxicities include rash, elevated hepatic enzymes…Visual disturbances are common…Photosensitivity dermatitis is commonly observed in patients receiving chronic therapy…” No mention of fever or nephrotoxicity explicitly, but azoles are relatively safe drugs. Fever is a common ADR, but nephrotoxicity is a notable ADR, so it should have been stated if ever it were observed.
47
47) The mechanism of action of caspofungin is by A. Creation of pores in the fungal membrane B. Inhibits ergosterol synthesis C. Inhibits synthesis of beta glucan synthase D. Inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis
C. Caspofungin is an echinocandin. MOA: inhibit cell wall synthesis by inhibiting β-(1,3)-glucan synthase.
48
48) The appropriate treatment of Cryptococcus neoformans meningitis is A. Itraconazole B. Amphotericin B with flucytosine C. Voriconazole D. Ketoconazole
B. Antifungals trans. “Often used as initial induction regimen for serious fungal infections, then replaced by one of the newer azole drugs for chronic therapy or prevention of relapse (e.g. for cryptococcosis: amphotericin B = initial tx, flucystosine = adjuvant tx, fluconazole = completetion tx)
49
Antivirals ``` 49) The adverse effects of gancicyclovir include the following EXCEPT A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Seizures C. Embryotoxicity D. Bone marrow depression ```
A. Antivirals trans. Gancicylovir is VERY TOXIC! Used only in emergencies and with CMV retinitis.
50
50) True about nevirapine A. It is contraindicate in pregnant women B. Prevents maturation of the HIV viral proteins C. Has numerous drug interaction due to being metabolized by CYP3A3 D. Has poor bioavailability of
C. From Katzung: “It is extensively metabolized by the CYP3A isoform to hydroxylated metabolites…” “Oral bioavailability is excellent (>90%)…There is no evidence of human teratogenicity.” (12th edition, p.877) Nevirapine is classified as a nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor, so it affects HIV at the level of reverse transcription prior to replication. Maturation of viral proteins are inhibited by protease inhibitors such as lotanivir.
51
51) True of zidovudine A. Was initially synthesized as an anti-cancer agent B. Is not included in current anti-HIV regimens C. Inhibits reverse transcriptase D. It is a fusion inhibitor
C. Antivirals trans. Zidovudine is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI).
52
52) Which statement is FALSE about oseltamivir? A. Has topical action and is administered intranasally B. Is given as treatment for 5 days C. Has greatest benefit when given within 48 hours of onset of influenza D. Has a half-life of 2.5 hours
A. Antivirals trans and Medscape. Oseltamivir is a neuraminidase inhibitor, used in the treatment of viral influenza infections. Zanamivir is another neuraminidase inhibitor. B and C are generally true of anti-influenza drugs. Zanamivir is orally inhaled via a dry powder inhaler (Rotadisk), so A is doubly incorrect. D also seems incorrect if you look at the antivirals trans since it says the half-life is 6-10 hrs, but oseltamivir has a formulation (oseltamivir phosphate) that has a half-life of 1-3 hrs, so D is probably true. Argh question kasi ang nakalagay lang sa trans is 6-10 hrs :/
53
``` 53) True about acyclovir EXCEPT A. Inhibits DNA polymerase B. Has excellent activity against herpes C. Is generally well tolerated D. Is carcinogenic ```
D. Antivirals trans. Inhibits DNA polymerase by acting as a competitive inhibitor of dGTP, and by incorporation into the growing DNA strand, acts as a chain terminator. Used in herpes infections, and is safe (safe for pregnant women!)
54
54) True of valacyclovir EXCEPT A. Is a prodrug of ritonavir B. Produces serum levels 3-5 times that of acyclovir C. May be used to treat genital herpes D. Used as prophylaxis against CMV in organ transplant patients
A. Valacyclovir is a prodrug of acyclovir.
55
55) True of ganciclovir A. Is a protease inhibitor B. Has excellent activity against CMV C. May be given for treatment of varicella zoster D. Is used for herpes encephalitis
B. Same MOA as acyclovir, so does not act as protease inhibitor. Only has in vitro activity against VZV and HSV. More noted for use in CMV infections.
56
56) True of NRTIs A. Is an inhibitor of protease B. May cause lactic acidosis and hepatic steatosis C. May be used as monotherapy in patients with AIDS D. Has negligible side effects
B. Antivirals trans. Adverse effects of all NRTIs: lactic acidosis, hepatic steatosis, dyslipidemia.
57
57) True of protease inhibitors A. Has enhanced CNS penetration B. May cause lipodystrophy C. Has minimal drug interactions D. Prevents fusion of the HIV virus with the host cell
B. Listed under side effects: “Redistribution of body fat | (lipodystrophy) – Cushingoid)”
58
Chemotherapeutic Drugs Mrs. Souzoo 46/F has recently been diagnosed with papillary adenocarcinoma. ``` 58) The gene/s that are responsible for cell proliferation and cancer formation include/s A. p53 B. BRCA1 C. AOTA D. NOTA ```
C. When mutated, the function of p53 and BRCA1 as tumor suppressor genes is lost and cells proliferate unchecked, leading to cancer. It is not the genes per se, but their mutated versions, that are implicated in cancer. Mrs. Souzoo is already diagnosed with cancer, thus we can attribute her cancer to the dysfunctional p53 and BRCA1 genes.
59
59) Factors that affect response to treatment of cancer with chemotherapy would include A. Type and size of tumor B. Belief in complementary medicine C. AOTA D. NOTA
C
60
60) Basic principles of cancer chemotherapy include the following EXCEPT A. In cancer chemotherapy, intermittent dose schedules are generally followed to restore the drug-induced damage on bone marrow B. Cancers with shorter mass-doubling times are more susceptible than those with longer mass-doubling times C. Cancerous tissue possessing a small growth fraction is more susceptible than with a larger growth fraction D. In cancer chemotherapy, optimal dosages are based upon the maximal tolerated dose
B. Shorter mass-doubling times indicate fast growth, thus it would be harder to catch the cancer at an early enough stage that would be responsive to chemotherapy.
61
61) Which of the following statements is false? A. Paclitaxel causes disruption of mitosis B. Methotrexate is an inhibitor of the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase C. Cisplatin causes intra-strand cross-linking in the DNA helix D. 5-fluorouracil, after intracellular activation, inhibits the enzyme HGPRTase
D. 5-FU inhibits thymidilate synthetase.
62
62) A major side effect associated with the use of this drug is peripheral neuropathy A. Bleomycin B. Vincristine C. Cyclophosphamide D. Doxorubicin
B. Anticancer chemotherapy handout. Vincristine is a neurotoxin and causes polyneuropathies.
63
63) In cancer chemotherapy, alkylating agents are used in combination regimens with antimetabolites to treat patients with certain cancers because they A. Do not cause hair root toxicity B. Are selectively toxic to cancer cells C. Do not damage the bone marrow cells D. Are not cell cycle specific
D. Anticancer chemotherapy handout. In combination therapy, drugs with different MOA are usually administered together because: 1) Higher response rate due to both additive or potentiated cytotoxic effects, 2) Non-overlapping host toxicities, 3) Effective against broader range cell lines in the heterogenous tumor population, 4) May slow or prevent the development of resistance.
64
64) All of the following agents show cell cycle specific cytotoxicity EXCEPT A. Methotrexate B. Mechlorethamine C. Bleomycin D. Cytarabine
B. Anticancer chemotherapy handout.
65
65) Which of the following drugs produces ototoxicity with renal dysfunction A. Cisplatin B. Busulfan C. Hydroxyurea D. Cyclophosphamide
A. Anticancer chemotherapy handout.
66
66) The different modalities of treatment for cancer include the following EXCEPT A. Surgery B. Chemotherapy C. Gene therapy D. NOTA
D
67
67) Which of the following anticancer drugs does not produce covalent modification of DNA or breakage of strands? A. Bleomycin B. Cisplatin C. Cyclophosphamide D. Vinblastine
D. V Anticancer chemotherapy handout. Vinblastine just blocks mitosis.
68
68) Which of the following statements is false? A. Doxorubicin intercalates with DNA and is also an inhibitor of the enzyme topoisomerase II B. Methotrexate is an inhibitor of the enzyme DNA polymerase C. Cisplatin causes intra-strand cross-linking in the DNA helix D. 5-FU, after intracellular activation, inhibits the enzyme thymidylate synthetase E. Paclitaxel binds to tubulin dimers and microtubulin filaments and causes disruption of mitosis
B. Anticancer chemotherapy handout. Methotrexate is a competitive inhibitor of dihydrofolate reductase.
69
69) Cyclophosphamide A. Acts as an inhibitor of DNA polymerase after intracellular activation B. Acts as an alkylating agent after P450 mixed function oxidase-mediated activation C. Produces cardiac toxicity D. Does not cause alopecia
B. Anticancer chemotherapy handout. Cyclophosphamide is an alkylating agent (alkylates guanine at N7).
70
``` 70) A major side effect associated with the use of this drug is pulmonary fibrosis A. Bleomycin B. Vincristine C. Doxorubicin D. Cyclophosphamide ```
A. Anticancer chemotherapy handout.
71
71) When patients fail to respond to first-line chemotherapy, the likelihood of a response to a second-line regimen may be diminished because of: A. Tumor cell resistance caused by multidrug resistance gene B. Tumor cell resistance caused by selection of resistant clones C. Increased tumor burden D. AOTA
D
72
72) A 54 y.o. patient is being treated for leukemia. You would like to prevent the occurrence of myelosuppression which is the dose limiting toxicity for your anticancer drugs. Which among the following will you give as an adjunct to treatment? A. Metoclopramide B. Granisteron C. Granulocyte colony stimulating factor D. Interleukin
C. From Wiki. “GCSF receptor is present on precursor cells in the bone marrow, and in response to GCSF stimulation, initiates proliferation and differentiation into mature granulocytes… used with certain cancer patients to accelerate recovery from neutropenia after chemotherapy, allowing higher-intensity treatment regimens. Chemotherapy can cause myelosuppression and unacceptably low levels of white blood cells, making patients susceptible to infections and sepsis.” Metoclopramide and granisteron are antiemetics, and while palliative to patients undergoing chemo, they would not alleviate the neutropenia. “Interleukin” by itself is vague, as there are various types of interleukins that stimulate growth of different cell lineages.
73
Vaccines: A. Live vaccine B. Inactivated vaccine C. Passive immunization 73) BCG
Live Vaccine
74
74) Diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus combination vaccine
Inactivated Vaccine
75
Measles vaccine
Live Vaccine
76
Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine
Inactivated Vaccine
77
Hepatitis B immunoglobulin
Passive immunization
78
Hemophilus influenza Type B vaccine
Inactivated Vaccine
79
Tetanus immunoglobulin
Passive Immunization
80
80) Active immunization refers to A. Administration of preformed antibodies to an individual who is already exposed to the antigen B. Stimulation of an antigen to develop immunologic defenses against future exposure C. Exposure to disease D. Administering packed RBC
C. A is passive immunization, B is the general definition of immunization, D is just transfusion.
81
81) True of herd immunity A. May be accomplished by giving passive immunization B. A critical portion of the community is immunized, resulting in protection of most community members C. An outbreak occurs because only few members of the community is immunized
B. Pharmacology of immunization trans. ““When a critical portion of a community is immunized against a contagious disease, most members of the community are protected against that disease because there is little opportunity for an outbreak. Even those who are not eligible for certain vaccines – such as infants, pregnant women, or immunocompromised individuals – get some protection because disease is contained.”
82
82) Which statement does not apply to live vaccines? A. Severe reactions are possible B. May produce effective immunity with one dose C. Composed of fractional and subunit vaccines D. Vaccines are fragile and must be stored and handled carefully
C. Pharmacology of immunization trans. C refers to inactivated vaccines.
83
83) Contraindications to administration of live vaccines are the following EXCEPT A. Allergy to antigen in the vaccines B. Pregnancy C. Immunosuppression D. Cough and colds
D. Pharmacology of immunization trans. Contraindications to live vaccines are: allergy to component, pregnancy, immunosuppression. Precautions are severe illness and recent blood product.
84
84) Contraindications to administration of inactivated vaccines are the following EXCEPT A. Encephalopathy B. Anaphylaxis/allergy to the antigen C. Low grade fever
C. Pharmacology of immunization trans. Contraindications to inactivated vaccines are: allergy to component and encephalopathy. Precaution should be taken for those with severe illness. Vaccination is given only if indicated for pregnant women, immunosuppressed and those who recently received blood products.
85
85) Which statement is false about live attenuated vaccines? A. The protection from the vaccine is immediate within 1 day of giving the vaccine B. The live virus or bacteria must replicate in order to produce immunity C. Symptoms of the disease may occur but are mild
A. Pharmacology of immunization trans.
86
86) Which statement is false about immune globulins: A. Are used for active immunization B. Are derived from pooled plasma C. Are used when time of exposure does not allow for active immunization D. May be used for congenital immunodeficiency
A. Immunoglobulins are used in passive immunization.
87
87) The following vaccines are recommended for health care personnel EXCEPT A. Hepatitis B B. Influenza vaccine C. Tetanus, diphtheria, pertussis vaccine D. Rotavirus vaccine
D. Pharmacology of immunization trans. Routine adult immunization for Filipinos (2009): DPT, Hep B, varicella, MMR, pneumococcal vaccine, influenza. Additional vaccines for health care workers and trainees: typhoid, rabies.
88
Ethnopharmacology 88) The following mainstream medicines were used as poison in folklore EXCEPT A. Atropine B. Physostigmine C. Pilocarpine D. Tubocurarine
A
89
89) The following anticancer agents are derived from natural products EXCEPT ``` A. Etoposide B. Methotrexate C. Paciltaxel D. Vinblastine E. Vincristine ```
B. Etoposide: Podophyllum peltatum; paclitaxel: Pacific yew tree; vinblastine and vincristine: Catharanthus roseus.
90
90) The use of the following antimalarial agents are derived from traditional medicine EXCEPT A. Arthemeter B. Chloroquine C. Quinine
B. Artemether: Artemisia annua; quinine: Cinchona ledgeriana.
91
91) This medicinal plant is nephrotoxic A. Aristolochia B. Comfrey C. Kava D. Mahuang
A
92
``` 92) Which pair does not match, according to our Department of Health A. Niyog-niyogan – anthelmintic B. Bayabas – antiseptic C. Akapulko – antifungal D. Tsaang gubat – antidiarrheal E. Yerba buena – analgesic ```
D. Tsaang gubat is an antispasmodic.
93
93) Which medicinal plant is not endorsed for use by our Department of Health: A. Lagundi B. Sambong C. Tawatawa D. Tsaang gubat E. Yerba buena
C. Traditional Medicine, Complementary and Alternative Herbal Medicine trans. Herbal medicines developed by NIRPROMP: Lagundi, sambong, ampalaya, akapulko, yerba buena, tsaang gubat
94
94) Knowledge of ethnopharmacology is useful for A. Drug discovery and development B. Practical use of some herbs in primary care C. Advocacy for biodiversity and cultural diversity D. AOTA E. A and B only
D
95
Traditional and Alternative Medicine Matching type 95) Complementary medicine
D. Healthcare practices not currently considered integral part of conventional/western medicine
96
96) Traditional medicine
A. Medical practices indigenous to the culture to diagnose, treat, or prevent physical or mental illness
97
97) Herbal medicine
C. For registration with the PhilFDA, are required to have Phase 1, 2, and 3 clinical trials with good efficacy and safety
98
98) Traditionally used medicine
B. Registration with the PhilFDA must be supported by evidence of use for 50 years
99
Matching type | 99) Lagundi
A. Anti-leukotriene activity
100
100) Sambong
B. Anti-urolithiasis
101
101) Tsaang gubat
C. Anti-spasmodic
102
102) Akapulko
D. Antifungal

[FINALS] LU4 2018 (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions