Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

[FINALS] LU4 2018 > OS 214 Renal Exam 1 > Flashcards

OS 214 Renal Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. In which of the following conditions is cystatin c a better test to estimate GFR rather than GFR calculators such as the Cockcroft and Gault formula?

A. pediatric population
B. multiple myeloma
C. Thyroid Diseases
D. Colon cancer

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. Which condition results in an increase in plasma creatinine but no actual change in GFR?

A. Patient on chemotherapy using cisplatin
B. Patient with obstructive jaundice because of alcoholic cirrhosis
C. Medical student with abdominal pain, vomiting and diarrhea and a BP of 60 palpatory
D. 55 y/o diabetic female with Acute Coronary Syndrome with very faint pulses and BP of 80/30 mmHg

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

CASE (Nos. 3-5) 55 y/o 85 kg male will undergo surgery on his left knee because of possible infection. He was referred to you for evaluation of renal function. You ordered
Total Volume: 2200 cc
Urine Creatinine: 995 mg in 24 hr
Serum Creatinine: 1.4 mg%

  1. Based on your calculations his creatinine clearance (in ml/min) is:

A. 49.3 ml/min
B. 59.5 ml/min
C. 69.5 ml/min
D. 79.5 ml/min

  1. Based on the Cockcroft and Gault formula has eGFR (in ml/min) is:

A. 71.7 ml/min
B. 60.9 ml/min
C. 50.7 ml/min
D. 43.9 ml/min

  1. What can you say about the adequacy of his 24 hour urine collection?

A. It is adequate.
B. It is inadequate.
C. The data are insufficient to determine adequacy of the 24 hour urine collection.

A

A, A B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. In trying to detect proteinuria in the urine, choose the CORRECT statement.

A. The normal protein excretion is

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. The following conditions will produce a high BUN Creatinine ratio:

A. Low protein diet
B. Patient on dialysis
C. End Stage liver disease
D. Muscle wasting

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Of the following responses to changes in normal acid-base balance, the most delayed response is the:

A. Buffering mechanism
B. Respiratory compensation in metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory compensation in metabolic acidosis
D. Metabolic compensation in respiratory acidosis

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. Inhibition of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone axis can give rise to the acid-base problem:

A. High anion gap metabolic acidosis
B. Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Which of the following situations will cause a normal anion gap metabolic acidosis?

A. Diabetic ketoacidosis
B. Ethylene glycol poisoning
C. Accidental ingestion of ammonium chloride
D. Vomiting in the first trimester of pregnancy

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Clinical signs of hypocalcemia among patients with chronic kidney disease is not frequently seen because:

A. There is enhanced absorption of calcium from the gastrointestinal tract in exchange for potassium
B. The metabolic acidosis associated with chronic kidney disease increases the free or ionized calcium levels
C. The increased magnesium levels in the blood counteract the effects of a low serum calcium level
D. The development of hypocalcemia occurs slowly and the body adapts to the low calcium level

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. A 70-yr old male with glaucoma was given acetazolamide, a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor. What renal acidification mechanism will likely be affected?

A. Distal acidification
B. Proximal acidification
C. Both Distal and Proximal Acidification
D. Neither Distal nor Proximal Acidification

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. Which is a feature of postStrep glomerulonephritis?

A. Normal C3
B. Normal ASO titer
C. Hematuria after an upper respiratory tract infection
D. Complete resolution of hematuria within 3-6 weeks of onset of nephritis

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. This feature favors IgA nephropathy more than post infectious glomerulonephritis:

A. Anasarca
B. Arthritis
C. Normal C3
D. Complete resolution of hematuria

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. Microalbuminuria may be present in the urine assay:

A. 24 hr alb: 10 mg/ 24 hr
B. Alb/ crea ratio: 25 mg/G
C. 24 hr urine protein: 200 mg/ 24 hr
D. Dipstick protein: negative

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. Laboratory feature of Minimal Change disease:

A. ANCA +
B. Normal C3
C. 24 hr urine protein 100 gm/ day
D. Presence of glomerular lesion by light microscopy

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q 
17. Decreased colloid oncotic pressure can be a cause of edema in:
A. Malignancy
B. Allergic reactions
C. Nephrotic syndrome
D. Adult respiratory distress syndrome
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. A 27 year old female was admitted for edema. 2 months PTA she complained of on and off fever, general body malaise, rashes, and arthralgia. Labs revealed: urine +4 protein with RBC 20-30/ hpf, serum creatinine 150 umol/L, ANA (+). Renal biopsy will most likely show WHO Class:

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. Apple-green birefringence is produced when amyloid deposits are viewed under polarizing microscope using this stain

A. Congo red stain
B. Masson trichrome stain
C. Periodic acid Schiff stain
D. Periodic acid silver stain

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. The pole is where the parietal epithelial cells are continuous with the lining epithelium of the proximal convoluted tubule:

A. Vascular pole
B. Urinary pole
C. Hilum
D. Arteriolar pole

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. A 59 year old male with a history of glomerular disease presented at the ER with chest pain, dyspnea and dizziness. His BP was 80/50, HR 114, ABG showed hypoxia and hypocapnea. Emergency pulmonary CT angiography revealed pulmonary embolism. Most likely glomerular disease of this patient is:

A. Membranous Glomerulonephritis
B. Minimal Change Disease
C. IgA Nephropathy
D. SLE nephritis

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. The hallmark of chronic pyelonephritis is:

A. tubular atrophy and interstitial fibrosis
B. presence of globally sclerosed glomeruli
C. corticomedullary scar with deformed calyx
D. presence of lymphocytes in the interstitium

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, when compared with minimal change disease, shows:

A. better prognosis
B. all normal glomeruli
C. IgN and C3 in sclerotic segments
D. segmental foot processes effacement

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. Intramembranous electron-dense deposits are seen in:

A. stage I membranous glomerulopathy
B. stage II membranous glomerulopathy
C. stage III membranous glomerulopathy
D. stage IV membranous glomerulopathy

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. The supplement found in herbal remedies that causes chronic tubulointerstitial nephritis is:

A. Aristocholic acid
B. Acetaminophen
C. Phenacetin
D. Aspirin

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. Henoch-Schonlein purpura shows similar histologic features as:

A. lupus nephritis
B. IgA nephropathy
C. post-infectious glomerulonephritis
D. membranous glomerulopathy

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  1. The most significant risk factor for renal and bladder tumors is:

A. cigarette smoking
B. heavy metals
C. exposure to aryl amines
D. irradiation

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  1. This variant of renal cell carcinoma is rare and shows highly atypical epithelium with a hobnail pattern:

A. clear cell carcinoma
B. carcinomapapillary carcinoma
C. chromophobe renal cell
D. collecting duct carcinoma

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  1. This feature is seen in renal oncocytoma:

A. It is caused by loss-of-function mutations in TSC1 or TSC2 tumor suppressor genes
B. cells have numerous mitochondria on electron microscopy
C. it is the most common type of renal cell carcinoma
D. it is associated with tuberous sclerosis

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  1. These tumors of the urinary bladder arise from urachal remnants or in association with extensive intestinal metaplasia

A. transitional cell carcinoma
B. squamous cell carcinoma
C. adenocarcinoma
D. small cell carcinoma

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  1. Casts are formed in the:

A. kidney tubules
B. glomerular tuft
C. ureter
D. urinary bladder

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
  1. Eosinophils seen in the urine would indicate:

A. nephritic syndrome
B. nephrotic syndrome
C. pyelonephritis
D. drug-induced nephritis

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
  1. Test for glucose in the urine using the dipstick method:

A. esterase test
B. oxidase method
C. cupric sulfate test
D. nitroprusside reaction

A

B

32
Q
  1. Which of the following medications causes a false increase in serum creatinine by inhibiting the proximal tubule creatinine secretion?

A. Acyclovir
B. Cimetidine
C. Amphotericin B
D. Sulfamethoxazole

A

B

33
Q
  1. The most common cause of Intrinsic Renal Azotemia is:

A. Acute Interstitial Nephritis
B. Acute Glomerulonephritis
C. Acute Tubular Necrosis
D. Acute Intra-tubular obstruction

A

C

34
Q
  1. Which of the following urinary indices suggests Pre-renal azotemia?

A. Urine Sodium (UNa) = 25 mmol/L
B. BUN: Creatinine ration (BCR) = 10:1
C. Urine: Plasma Creatinine (U/P Crea) = 13
D. Fractional Excretion of Sodium (FENa) = 0.6%

A

D

35
Q
  1. A 70/M with diarrhea was noted to have rising creatinine from 1.2 mg/dl to 1.5 mg/dl and 2.1 mg/dl in 3 days despite hydration. What urine microscopic findings would suggest Acute Tubular necrosis?

A. Granular cast
B. WBC cast
C. Hyaline cast
D. Waxy cast

A

A

36
Q
  1. A 65/F, 50 kg was admitted due to Sepsis due from High risk Community Acquired Pneumonia. Her baseline creatinine was 0.8 mg/dl which increased to 2 mg/dl after 2 days. Her urine output is 10 ml/hr for 24 hrs. According to the RIFLE classification what is the stage of AKI is the patient in?

A. Risk
B. Injury
C. Failure
D. Loss

A

C

37
Q
  1. 45/M, 65 kg consulted due to right flank pain. Labs: Creatinine 2 mg/dl, urinalysis: 1.025/5.0/ albumin +1/ sugar negative/ rbc 15-20 per hpf/ wbc 5-8 per hpf/ (+) uric acid crystals. What is the recommended imaging study for this patient?

A. Plain abdominal radiograph
B. Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP)
C. Non Contrast CT scan
D. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)

A

C

38
Q
  1. A 34/F was admitted due to right flank pain. Urinalysis: wbc 60-70 per hpf/ rbc 10-15 per hpf. Creatinine 0.5 mg/dl. She was given Ceftriaxone with improvement. On the 5th hospital day, she developed fever and skin rash, Creatinine increased to 2.5 mg/dl, urinalysis: wbc 10-15 per hpf/ rbc 0-2 per hpf/ wbc cast 1-3 per hpf. What is the most likely cause of the AKI?

A. Acute Glomerulonephritis
B. Acute Interstitial Nephritis
C. Toxic Acute Tubular necrosis
D. Ischemic Acute Tubular necrosis

A

B

39
Q
  1. In the urinalysis, the most pathognomonic sign of end stage kidney disease is the presence of:

A. Protein
B. Albumin
C. RBC casts
D. Broad casts

A

D

40
Q
  1. The most common cause of End stage kidney disease worldwide is:

A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Glomerulonephritis
C. Hypertension
D. Urinary Tract Infection

A

A

41
Q
  1. A patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus has an estimated GFR of 40 ml/min/1.73m2 and albumin excretion of 330 mg/mmol. How would you diagnose his CKD by GFR and albuminuria?

A. G2A2
B. G2aA2
C. G3bA3
D. G4aA3

A

C

42
Q
  1. Which of the following functions of the kidney is most affected by chronic kidney disease?

A. Glomerulotubular balance
B. Myogenic reflex
C. Urinary acidification mechanism
D. Urinary concentration mechanism

A

D

43
Q
  1. In chronic kidney disease, the antihypertensive agent of choice is one that controls BP effectively and also gives renoprotection by:

A. Blocking renin
B. Optimizing potassium excretion
C. Causing preferential afferent arteriolar vasodilation
D. Causing preferential efferent arteriolar vasodilation

A

D

44
Q
  1. To prevent bone disease in chronic kidney disease, the first line management is to:

A. Give Calcitriol
B. correct the acid-base mechanism
C. give an oral phosphate binder with meals
D. give a calcimimetic to make the parathyroid cells sense that calcium level is not low

A

C

45
Q
  1. As an adaptation to decrease in nephron number, the kidney increases GFR by:

A. Afferent arteriolar vasodilation
B. Efferent arteriolar vasodilation
C. Afferent arteriolar vasoconstriction
D. Efferent arteriolar vasoconstriction

A

D

46
Q
  1. Which radiopharmaceutical can be used to determine effective renal plasma flow?

A. Tc99m MAG3
B. Tc99m DTPA
C. Tc99m DMSA
D. Tc99m glucoheptonate

A

A

47
Q
  1. ACE inhibitors given with renal scans are ordered to evaluate

A. obstructive neuropathy
B. renal hypertension
C. pyelonephritis
D. diabetic nephropathy

A

B

48
Q
  1. Which of the following is FALSE regarding glomerular filtration rate?

A. typically obtained through the use of Tc99m DTPA
B. can be determined only by taking blood or urine specimens
C. a measure of the ability of the kidneys to clear inulin from the plasma
D. usually becomes abnormal before serum creatinine levels become abnormal

A

B

49
Q
  1. Twenty minutes after injection of 8 mCi of Tc99m DTPA, significant activity remained in the renal pelvis. What will most likely follow?

A. patient will be asked to void before reimaging
B. imaging will be extended for 20 minutes
C. a diuretic will be administered
D. all of the above

A

Answer: D (but more so C)

50
Q
  1. Excretion of Tc99m MAG3 is by:

A. active transport
B. tubular secretion
C. glomerular filtration
D. none of the above

A

B

51
Q
  1. Excretion of Tc99m MAG3 is by:

A. active transport
B. tubular secretion
C. glomerular filtration
D. none of the above

A

B

52
Q
  1. Metformin has a half-life of 6 hrs. If David has a plasma concentration of 1mcg/mL at noon, when will his plasma concentration be 0.125 mcg/mL?

A. 6 hrs later
B. 12 hrs later
C. 15 hrs later
D. 18 hrs later

A

D

53
Q
  1. Drug Z is an active drug with a half-life of 12 hours. Its elimination is 100% renal excretion. How fast will it take for Drug Z to achieve steady state concentration? You can round off to the nearest whole number.

A. 1 day
B. 36 hours
C. 2 days
D. 5 days

A

C

54
Q
  1. The clearance of Drug X decreased by 50% in a patient with renal disease. Volume of distribution remained the same. If the usual daily maintenance dose is 20 mg once a day, how will your new regimen look like? Choose the safest regimen.

A. 5 mg daily
B. 10 mg daily
C. 15 mg daily
D. 20 mg daily

A

B

55
Q
  1. What happens to the loading dose if the volume of distribution is increased by 50%?

A. higher by 50%
B. same as that of a normal person
C. lower by 50%

A

A

56
Q
  1. Penicillin G is cleared 90% through renal tubular secretion and 10% through glomerular filtration. Assume that reabsorption is negligible. Probenecid is a competitive inhibitor of penicillin renal tubular secretion. If you give enough probenecid to inhibit 50% of renal tubular secretion, what happens to the half-life of penicillin? There is no change in the volume of distribution.

A. Half-life will be 1.5 times the baseline
B. Half-life will be 1.8 times the baseline
C. Half-life will be 2.3 times the baseline
D. Half-life will not change

A

B

57
Q
  1. What happens to the half-life of a drug when renal clearance is diminished by 50%?

A. It becomes half as long as the normal person
B. It becomes twice as long as the normal person
C. There is no change in half-life

A

B

58
Q
  1. Which diuretic inhibits the Na-K-2Cl transporter in the thinck ascending limb of Henle?

A. Acetazolamide
B. Furosemide
C. Spironolactone
D. Metolazone

A

B

59
Q
  1. This potassium sparing diuretic which inhibits aldosterone is used for the management of congestive heart failure and portal hypertension:

A. Amiloride
B. Spironolactone
C. Methozalone
D. Chlorthalodine

A

B

60
Q
  1. This diuretic used as monotherapy for the treatment of hypertension is also beneficial in reducing hypercalciuria among calcium oxalate stone formers.

A. Furosemide
B. Acetazolamide
C. Hydrochlorothiazide
D. Triamterene

A

C

61
Q
  1. This diuretic used for the management of glaucoma may cause metabolic acidosis because of its effect on carbonic anhydrase in the proximal tubule:

A. Acetazolamide
B. Triamterene
C. Furosemide
D. Spironolactone

A

A

62
Q
  1. This diuretic can potentially lessen digitalis toxicity when given to patients with congestive heart failure?

A. Bumetanide
B. Dopamine
C. Furosemide
D. Spironolactone

A

D

63
Q

Case (Nos. 64-67): EB, 65/F, diagnosed case of endometrial cancer, stage IV was admitted for marked weakness. She has just finished her 4th cycle of Cisplatinum – Paclitaxel 2 weeks prior to this admission.
BP 80/60 T 37 C Wt 50kg
Labs – Hgb- 100 WBC-2.9 platelets-40
BUN-21.4mmol/L Creat-200umol/L B/C ratio-2.6 FBS-6.1mmol/L
U/A: SG-1.020 pH 8.0 Alb: +1 rbc/wbc-0-1
ABG: pH-7.25 pCO2-20 HCO3-8.0 meq/L
Urine Na-80 meq/day Urine K-60 meq/day Urine Cl-50 meq/day
Urine osmolality – 400

  1. What could possibly be causing the hyponatremia?
A. Platinum-induced salt-losing nephritis
B. Advanced acute renal failure
C. Urine Anion Loss (RTA II)
D. Pseudohyponatremia
E. Increased ADH
  1. Which of the following is TRUE regarding this patient?
	Serum Anion Gap	Urine Anion Gap	RTA type
A.	Normal	(-)	II
B.	Normal	(+)	I
C.	Normal	(+)	IV
D.	Normal	(-)	I
  1. What could be causing the patient’s hypokalemia?

A. Platinum-induced salt losing nephritis
B. Renal tubular acidosis
C. Gitelman’s syndrome
D. Poor oral intake

  1. What could be causing the isolated hypercalcemia (when all the other cations are low)?

A. pseudohypercalcemia from metabolic acidosis
B. Metastasis to the parathyroid gland
C. Paclitaxel is calcium-based
D. Humoral hypercalcemia

A

Answer: A or E (both accepted during feedback)
B
Answer: A or B (both accepted during feedback)
D

64
Q
  1. The following are TRUE for hypernatremia EXCEPT:

A. There are no entities of pseudo-hypernatremia
B. Hypernatremia is almost always due to water deficit
C. Hypernatremia cannot occur in an alert individual with free access to water
d. Rapid correction (to normal values) may lead to Central Pontine Myelinosis/ Osmotic Demyelination Syndrome

A

D

65
Q
  1. Hypokalemia associated with metabolic acidosis may occur in the following conditions EXCEPT:

A. DKA (diabetic ketoacidosis)
B. Acetazolamide intake
C. Diarrhea
D. Bartter’s syndrome

A

D

66
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions does not cause Hypokalemia?

A. Insulin administration
B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Digitalis intake
D. Thyrotoxicosis

A

B (or C)

67
Q
  1. Which does NOT cause pseudo-hyperkalemia?

A. RBC hemolysis (small needle used during blood extraction)
B. Treatment of pernicious anemia with folate
C. Severe thrombocytosis
D. Severe leukocytosis
E. none of the above

A

B

68
Q
  1. Which statements regarding the treatment of hyperkalemia is INCORRECT?

A. Dextrose-insulin infusions drive potassium intracellularly
B. Kayexelate is a cation-exchange resin, exchanging [K] with [Na]
C. Calcium gluconate is the fastest acting intervention to lower serum [K]
D. Sodium bicarbonate is no longer used as it may lead to rebound hyperkalemia after a few hours
E. None of the above

A

Answer: C (it does not lower serum potassium, it only protects the myocardium by stabilizing the electric gradient across

69
Q
  1. Which of the following condition/s leads to increased active renal phosphorus reabsorption?

A. Increased PTH
B. Increased Vit D3
C. Chronic renal failure
D. Liddle’s syndrome

A

B

70
Q
  1. Which is/are CORRECT regarding magnesium?

A. Oral preparations are poorly absorbed
B. Small buffer space to prevent hyper/hypo magnesium
C. Hypermagnesemia is most commonly seen in OB conditions
D. Intimately associated with calcium and [K]. Cannot correct one without correcting the other
E. All are correct

A

E

71
Q
  1. Hypermagnesemia can occur in the following conditions, except:

A. Renal failure
B. Adrenal insufficiency
C. Gitelman’s syndrome
D. Pre-eclampsia treatment

A

C

72
Q
  1. Hypomagnesemia may be seen in the following conditions, except:

A. Cisplatinum use
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Alcohol intake
D. Ketoacidosis

A

B

73
Q
  1. A 60 year old non-diabetic male painter presents to you with laboratory findings showing hyperuricemia. Urinalysis shows glycosuria in spite of normal fasting blood sugars. Further evaluation also shows aminoaciduria, hyperphosphaturia and hyperuricosuria. These findings are found in this syndrome:

A. Fanconi’s syndrome
B. Gitelman’s syndrome
C. nephrotic syndrome
D. Bartter’s syndrome

A

A

74
Q

B. Matching Type

COLUMN A
  1. Low [K], Low [Mg], low urine [Ca]
  2. Low [K], (+) growth retardation, (+) good response to indomethacin
  3. Inappropriate [Na] reabsorption, low-renin hypertension
COLUMN B
A.	Bartter’s syndrome
B. Gitelman’s syndrome
C. Liddle’s syndrome
D. Pseudohypoaldosteronism
A
  1. B
  2. A
  3. C
75
Q 
Column A: Interpretation
Column B: Clinical	
Column C: pH 
Column D: pCO2 (mmHg)	
Column E: HCO3 (mmol/L)	
Column F: Na (mmol/L)
Column G: K (mmol/L)	
Column H: Cl (mmol/L)
A      B      C     D      E      F     G       H
81 	86 	7.54	37.8	32.7	130	2.3	103
82 	87 	7.21	47.4	18.2	139	5.4	109
83   88 	7.10	39.4	11.6	138	5.9	102
84 	89   7.38	32.8	19.1	145	4.5	103
85 	90 	7.25	28.0	15.0	136	5.5	100
Column A (Interpretation of the ABG)
A. Pure high anion gap metabolic acidosis
B. Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis with respiratory acidosis
C. Metabolic alkalosis with respiratory alkalosis
D. High anion gap metabolic acidosis with respiratory acidosis
E. High anion gap metabolic acidosis with metabolic alkalosis
Column B (Clinical scenario)
A.  A 54-year old female diagnosed to have chronic kidney disease from hypertensive nephrosclerosis being followed up at the general medicine clinic. Creatinine is 300 umol/L. Medicines include Amlodipine 10 mh once a day and sodium bicarbonate 650 mg 2 x a day

B. This is a 26 year old male who was pulled out from the ruins of an apartment building 5 days after the earthquake in Nepal. He was noted to be hypotensive from severe dehydration.

C. 72-year old male admitted for vomiting. He was diagnosed to have partial gut obstruction and a nasogastric tube was placed which was draining to a bedside bottle. He was also intubated and placed on mechanical ventilation because of poor respiratory effort.

D. An 80-year old male complaining of epigastric pain and was diagnosed to have acute pancreatitis. He was noted to have no urine output for more than 12 hours. He was also complaining of respiratory difficulty because of the restrictions of his tense abdomen.

E. This is a 54-year old male with 10-year history of hypertension. His antihypertensive medicine is Enalapril, an angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor. He was admitted for sensorial changes and right sided weakness and was diagnosed to have a stroke. On admission, he was noted to have shallow breathing and a serum creatinine level of 300 umol/L.

A 
81 C	   86 C
82 B	   87 E
83 D	   88 D
84 E	   89 A
85 A	   90 B

[FINALS] LU4 2018 (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions