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[FINALS] LU4 2018 > OS 214 Digestive Exam 1 > Flashcards

OS 214 Digestive Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q 
Parasitology
1) A food-borne helminth that is capable of causing autoinfection
A. Capillaria
B. Echinostoma
C. Paragonimus
D. Strongyloides
A

A

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2
Q

2) True about Paragonimus westermani EXCEPT
A. The egg is unoperculated
B. The species is endemic in Sorsogon, Basilan, and Davao
C. Larvae are capable of penetrating the diaphragm of humans
D. The drug of choice is praziquantel

A

A

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3
Q 
3) Stage of Fasciola that serves as the infective stage for humans
A. Adult worms
B. Cercariae
C. Eggs
D. Metacercariae
A

D

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4
Q

4) Preventive measure against Echinostoma infection
A. Eating properly cooked fish
B. Inspection of meat in markets
C. Preventing the practice of open defecation
D. Avoiding contact with water infected by cercariae

A

Answer: C – You get echinostoma from eating snails infected with the parasite, so A doesn’t have anything to do with it (unless the fish eat the snails haha).

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5
Q 
5) Serves as the intermediate host of T. saginata
A. Boar
B. Cow
C. Human
D. Pig
A

B

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6
Q

6) True about Taenia infection
A. The habit of eating undercooked pork is a major risk factor for neurocysticercosis
B. The habit of eating undercooked beef is a major risk factor for neurocysticercosis
C. Accidental inhalation or ingestion of eggs in the lab may lead to taeniasis
D. Taeniasis and cysticercosis are conditions that can both be present in a single patient

A

D

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7
Q 
7) The pathologic lesion caused by amebic lysis of the bowels is called
A. Wide-neck ulcer
B. Amebic abscess
C. Flask-shaped ulcer
D. Ameboma
A

C

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8
Q 
8) The finding of fatty or steatorrheic stool by macroscopic examination is consistent with the following infection
A. Giardia intestinalis
B. Cryptosporidium parvum
C. Entamoeba histolytica
D. Entamoeba dispar
A

A

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9
Q 
9) E. histolytica can be differentiated from E. dispar by the following method
A. PCR
B. Microscopy
C. Stool culture
D. Serology or antibody detection
A

A

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10
Q 
10) The most common site of amebic liver abscess is
A. Left lobe
B. Right lobe
C. Middle lobe
D. Inferior lobe
A

B

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11
Q

11) The following statements are true about food-borne trematodes EXCEPT
A. There are two intermediate hosts in their respective life cycles
B. The infective stage is the cercaria
C. They can be acquired through ingestion of raw or insufficiently cooked fish
D. The natural habitat is not only in the human intestine

A

Answer: B – the infective stage is the metacercaria.

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12
Q

12) Which is false regarding intestinal capillariasis and heterophydiasis?
A. They are both acquired through ingestion of raw fish
B. They are both infected by the larval stage
C. They are both treated by praziquantel

A

Answer: C – capillariasis is treated using albendazole or mebendazole.

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13
Q

13) Outbreaks of capillariasis and heterophydiasis in the Philippines have been due to the following factors EXCEPT
A. Lack of capacity for accurate microscopic diagnosis in peripheral laboratories
B. Lack of sanitary toilets in endemic areas
C. Poor personal hygiene of people living in endemic areas
D. Lack of awareness of these conditions among local health personnel

A

C

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14
Q 
14) Which of the following causes cerebral cystericercosis? 
A. Taenia asiatica
B. Taenia solium
C. Taenia philippinensis
D. Taenia saginata
A

B

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15
Q

15) Which of the following is NOT a true statement regarding taeniasis?
A. The infective stage for the beef tapeworm is cysticercus cellulosae
B. Eggs of Taenia solium are infective to humans
C. The passage of scolex after treatment is an indicator of success
D. The scolex of Taenia saginata is not armed

A

C

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16
Q 
16) Praziquantel is the drug of choice for the following EXCEPT
A. Capillariasis
B. Heterophydiasis
C. Taeniasis
D. Schistosomiasis
A

A

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17
Q 
17) Albendazole is the drug of choice for
A. Schistosomiasis
B. Heterophydiasis
C. Taeniasis
D. Capillariasis
A

D

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18
Q 
18) The following are snail-transmitted parasites EXCEPT
A. Angiostrongylus
B. Echinostoma
C. Schistosoma
D. Capillaria
A

D

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19
Q 
19) The following are fish-transmitted parasites EXCEPT
A. Heterophyes
B. Taenia
C. Clonorchis
D. Capillaria
A

Answer: B – Taenia solium is pig-borne, Taenia sagnita is cow-borne

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20
Q

20) The following are TRUE about schistosomiasis control in the Philippines
A. Animals don’t play any role in transmission of schistosomiasis
B. Vaccines are already available for schistosomiasis
C. Repeated mass treatment is a main part of the control program
D. Snail control is easily achieved through the use of niclosamide

A

C

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21
Q

21) The following statements are TRUE of Entameba histolytica infections EXCEPT
A. Pathology can include flask-shaped intestinal ulcers
B. The right lobe of the liver is the most common extra-intestinal site
C. E. histolytica infections can be asymptomatic
D. E. histolytica infections can be distinguished from E. dispar infections

A

D

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22
Q 
22) Albendazole is the drug of choice for
A. Schistosomiasis
B. Heterophydiasis
C. Taeniasis
D. Capillariasis
A

D

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23
Q 
23) The following are snail-transmitted parasites EXCEPT
A. Angiostrongylus
B. Echinostoma
C. Schistosoma
D. Capillaria
A

D

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24
Q 
24) The following are fish-transmitted parasites EXCEPT
A. Heterophyes
B. Taenia
C. Clonorchis
D. Capillaria
A

Answer: B – Taenia solium is pig-borne, Taenia sagnita is cow-borne

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25
Q

25) A feasible preventive measure for paragonimiasis
A. Avoiding consumption of raw or undercooked freshwater crabs
B. Chest x-ray
C. Mass administration of praziquantel once a year
D. Mass administration of mebendazole or albendazole every 6 months

A

A

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26
Q

Embryology and Developmental Anomalies
26) The clinical condition omphalocoele is a result of the following
A. Persistence of the vitelline duct
B. Failure of complete ventral body folding
C. Intestinal loops do not return to the abdominal cavity
D. Anal agenesis

A

C

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27
Q 
27) Intraembryonic coelom develops from the following
A. Paraxial mesoderm
B. Intermediate mesoderm
C. Lateral plate mesoderm
D. Extra-embryonic mesoder
A

C

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28
Q 
28) The duodenum arises from the
A. Foregut
B. Midgut
C. Hindgut
D. Foregut and midgut
A

D

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29
Q 
29) The following arises as diverticula from the foregut EXCEPT
A. Pancreas
B. Respiratory system
C. Liver
D. Spleen
A

D

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30
Q 
30) The dorsal bud of the pancreas forms the following EXCEPT
A. Head of pancreas
B. Body of pancreas
C. Tail of pancreas
D. Uncinate process
A

D. The ventral bud gives rise to the uncinate process and head

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31
Q 
31) The primitive gut arises from the following embryonic structure
A. Amniotic cavity
B. Chorionic cavity
C. Primary yolk sac
D. Secondary yolk sac
A

D

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32
Q 
32) Derivative of the hindgut
A. Jejenum
B. Cecum
C. Descending colon
D. Appendix
A

C

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33
Q 
33) The gallbladder arises as a bud from the
A. Hepatic duct
B. Bile duct
C. Duodenum
D. Liver
A

B

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34
Q 
34) The foregut is supplied by branches of the
A. Celiac trunk
B. Splenic
C. Superior mesenteric
D. Inferior mesenteric
A

A. Foregut – celiac, midgut – SMA, hindgut - IMA

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35
Q 
35) The development of the following organ divides the ventral mesentery
A. Stomach
B. Esophagus
C. Jejenum
D. Liver
A

D

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36
Q 
36) The development of the following organ divides the ventral mesentery
A. Stomach
B. Esophagus
C. Jejenum
D. Liver
A

D

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37
Q

37) During development of the gut
A. The pancreas is initially intraperitoneal but becomes secondarily retroperitoneal
B. The liver arises as ventral and dorsal endodermal buds that then fuse into a single organ
C. The foregut is supplied by the SMA
D. The entire lumen of the GIT remains open throughout development

A

Answer: A
B describes the pancreas. C is false. D is false because recanalization occurs and hence the lumen is not open throughout development as at some point it is filled with cells.

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38
Q 
38) Meckel’s diverticula, vitelline cysts, or vitelline fistulas are most commonly found in association with
A. The bladder
B. The duodenum
C. The jejenum
D. The ileum
A

D

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39
Q 
39) Failure of the cloacal membrane to break down can result in a/an
A. Imperforate anus
B. Hirschsprung’s disease
C. Omphalocoele
D. Gastroschisis
A

A. B occurs when neural crest cells fail to form the necessary plexi to innervate the colon. C occurs when the intestines do not return to the abdomen following physiologic herniation. D occurs when the ventral body wall does not close completely.

40
Q

40) The greater omentum is derived from the
A. Dorsal mesentery of the colon
B. Dorsal mesentery of the small intestine
C. Ventral mesentery of the liver
D. Dorsal mesentery of the stomach

A

D

41
Q

Pathology
41) The histologic diagnosis of Barrett’s esophagus is based on
A. Replacement of squamous mucosa by glandular mucosa
B. Glandular hyperplasia with active inflammation
C. Intestinal goblet cells in the glandular mucosa
D. Presence of glandular dysplasia

A

C

42
Q

42) Endoscopic appearance of gastric ulcer that strongly suggests it is non-neoplastic in nature
A. Ulcer is less than 4 cm in diameter
B. Sharply punched out defect with straight walls
C. Mucosal overhang is present
D. NOTA

A

D

43
Q 
43) Meckel’s diverticulum may cause/be
A. Peptic ulcer disease of the ileum
B. Intussuception
C. Asymptomatic
D. AOTA
A

D

44
Q 
44) The most common primary neoplasm of the appendix is
A. Mucinous cystadenoma
B. Carcinoid
C. Mucoceole
D. Lymphoma
A

B

45
Q 
45) In the western world, the most common cause of cirrhosis is
A. Alcoholic liver disease
B. Viral hepatitis
C. Biliary disease
D. Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency
A

Answer: A

In the Philippines, B is the most common followed by A. Other causes are primary hemochromatosis and Wilson’s disease.

46
Q

46) The clinical course of Rotor syndrome (complete name Rotor-Manahan-Florentin syndrome) is
A. Demise during childhood
B. Demise in early adulthood
C. Intermittent episodes of hepatic failure
D. Innocuous

A

D

47
Q

47) In chronic hepatitis, the hallmark of irreversible liver damage is
A. Hepatocyte necrosis involving 70% of liver mass
B. The deposition of fibrous tissue
C. Predominantly conjugated hyperbilirubinemia
D. Predominantly unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia

A

B

48
Q 
48) Mallory bodies may be seen in
A. Alcoholic liver disease
B. Wilson’s disease
C. Hepatocytes with denaturated cytokeratin intermediate filament
D. AOTA
A

D

49
Q

49) The so-called “bile duct proliferation” in the liver is
A. A pre-neoplastic phenomenon
B. A direct effect of cirrhosis
C. The biliary system’s attempt at reducing increased intraductal bile pressure
D. An histologic evidence of unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia

A

Answer: C
This occurs when the bile duct is obstructed for whatever reason, causing bile to accumulate in it. The duct then becomes tortuous, resulting in seemingly multiple ducts upon cross-section.

50
Q

50) A histologic differential diagnosis of cholangiocarcinoma
A. Klatskin tumor
B. Metastatic pancreatic duct CA to the liver
C. Hepatic adenoma
D. Metastatic alveolar cells CA of the pancreas

A

B

51
Q 
51) The more common type of gallbladder stone in Asia is
A. Predominantly cholesterol
B. Predominantly pigment
C. Predominantly fat
D. All occur in equal frequency
A

B

52
Q 
52) The clinical manifestation of early carcinoma of the gallbladder at the fundus or middle third is/are
A. Obstruction-like pain
B. Jaundice
C. Both A and B
D. NOTA
A

n/a. D perhaps?
Gallbladder cancer is difficult to detect and diagnose. Signs and symptoms are not usually seen in the early stages of disease and often overlap with the symptoms of gallstones and biliary colic. (http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/278641-overview)

53
Q 
53) Most common primary site of carcinoid tumor
A. Esophageal stomach
B. Small intestine
C. Appendix
D. Colon and rectum
A

C

54
Q

54) The etiopathogenesis behind classic pancreatitis is
A. Oversecretion of pancreatic enzymes
B. Premature activation of pancreatic enzymes
C. Obstruction of pancreatic duct
D. Underdigestion due to undersecretion of pancreatic enzymes

A

B

55
Q 
55) Most common location of squamous cell CA of the esophagus
A. Proximal third
B. Middle third
C. Distal third
D. Equal distribution
A

B

56
Q

56) The definitive liver biopsy feature of extrahepatic biliary atresia is
A. Bile duct proliferation
B. Bile duct destruction
C. Parenchymal hepatocellular cholestasis
D. Portal tract edema and fibrosis

A

A

57
Q

57) True of Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumor (GIST) EXCEPT
A. Arises from the Cajal cell
B. Typically an intramural tumor
C. Is CD 117 positive all the time
D. CD 117 positive tumors will usually respond to therapy (“Gleevec”)

A

C

58
Q

58) The histologic basis for the diagnosis of acute appendicitis is
A. Considerable neutrophils in the mucosa
B. Considerably neutrophils in the muscularis propria
C. Luminal distension
D. Considerable serosal neutrophils

A

B

59
Q

59) About Crohn’s disease (CD) and ulcerative colitis (UC), which is true?
A. Both CD and UC feature characteristic transmural inflammation
B. Both CD and UC have malignant potential
C. Both CD and UC develop fistulas/sinuses
D. Both CD and UC feature characteristic skip lesions

A

Answer: B – All the others pertain to Crohn’s only.

60
Q 
60) Disease associated with H. pylori infection EXCEPT
A. Stress gastritis
B. Peptic ulcer disease
C. Gastric carcinoma
D. Lymphoma
A

A

61
Q

61) The most common cause of esophageal varices in the Philippines
A. Alcoholic cirrhosis
B. Hepatic schistosomiasis
C. Hepatocellular carcinoma
D. Diffuse fibrosing granulomatous disease of the liver

A

B

62
Q

62) Hepatic failure in cirrhosis
A. Deposition of collagen in the space of Disse
B. Reorganization (“short-circuiting”) of the vascular microarchitecture of the liver
C. Loss of hepatocyte mass
D. AOTA

A

D

63
Q

63) Which of the following is not a “popular” causative pathway of acute pancreatitis?
A. Defective pancreatic acinar intracellular transport
B. Pancreatic acinar cell injury
C. Pancreatic duct obstruction
D. Native molecular hyperactivity of pancreatic enzyme

A

D

64
Q

64) Pancreatic carcinomas of the head usually offer a better “outcome” than carcinomas of the body or tail because
A. Head carcinomas are inherently less aggressive
B. Body and tail carcinomas grow faster and metastasize earlier
C. Head carcinomas obstruct earlier and are therefore discovered earlier
D. Body and tail carcinomas invade the lymphatics earlier

A

C

65
Q 
65) The more aggressive ductal carcinoma of the pancreas arises from the
A. Head
B. Body
C. Tail
D. All are equally aggressive
A

D

66
Q 
66) The histologic feature(s) of chronic cholecystitis with cholecystolithiasis
A. Lymphocyte infiltration in the wall
B. Fibrosis
C. Muscularis wall thickening
D. AOTA
A

D

67
Q

67) The degree of elevation of liver enzymes in the blood is
A. Due to increased secretion by liver cells
B. A result of release from destroyed or damaged hepatocytes
C. Correlated with the type of causative agent
D. Not a good indicator of hepatic damage

A

B

68
Q

68) The most common type of pancreatic carcinoma
A. Can not present as diarrhea
B. Has a morphology very similar to bile duct carcinoma of the biliary tree
C. Reminds the viewer of pancreatic acini morphology
D. Secretes digestive enzymes

A

B

69
Q

69) Bad prognosis of esophageal carcinoma is/are due to
A. Early metastasis
B. Technical difficulties
C. Esophageal tumors are especially aggressive
D. A and B only

A

D

70
Q 
70) Manifestation of linitis plastica
A. Bleeding
B. Early satiety
C. Diarrhea
D. Small caliber stools
A

Answer: B – Type of tumor that grows along the gastric mucosa, limiting its ability to stretch, and hence manifesting as early satiety.

71
Q

Laboratory Diagnosis
For 71 to 72, refer to the following case:
88/M developed severe abdominal pain primarily in the epigastric to right upper quadrant. An ultrasound revealed dilated common bile duct. The attending physician’s first impression was obstruction.

71) Of the following lab tests, which is expected to be most elevated?
A. ALT
B. AST
C. Alkaline phosphatase
D. CEA
72) After several hours in the ER, the physician wanted to rule out acute pancreatitis. What group of test would be most useful to help with the decision-making?
A. Amylase and lipase
B. ALT, AST, and alkaline phosphatase
C. CEA and CA19-9
D. Core needle biopsy
A

C

Answer: A – since these are enzymes produced by the exocrine pancreas, although between the two lipase is the most specific as amylase is also produced by the salivary glands

72
Q

Answer: A – since these are enzymes produced by the exocrine pancreas, although between the two lipase is the most specific as amylase is also produced by the salivary glands

A

Answer: B (fluid specimen)

73
Q 
74) Atypical cells were seen in the specimen from No. 48. To rule out mesothelial origin of these cells the following immunohistochemistry stain may be used
A. Calretenin
B. S100
C. Synaptophysin
D. Ca 19-9
A

A

74
Q 
75) The IHC pattern for the specimen above is CK7-, CK20+, CEA+, TTF1-, LCA-, CK+. Which of the following is probably true?
A. The carcinoma was from the lung
B. The carcinoma was from the liver
C. The carcinoma was from the colon
D. The lesion is a lymphoma
A

C

75
Q 
Microbiology
76) AJ, a 7 year old healthy boy, was brought to the OPD due to bloody stools. The condition started 3 days ago when he developed watery stools occurring 5-6 times/day. This was associated with abdominal pain and low grade fever. A few hours prior to consult, there was note of passage of bloody stools. Work-up of his stool revealed a gram-negative rod with fermentation of lactose and glucose. What is the most probable organism?
A. Helicobacter pylori
B. Shigella 
C. E. coli
D. Salmonella
A

C

76
Q

77) A 30 year old tourist returned from a trip to the Philippines and abruptly began having cramps and diarrhea. There was frequent watery bowel movements that contained particles of grayish white stool. The man was sweaty and nauseated. Upon admission to the hospital, 2 L of fluid was administered IV, which was supplemented by oral fluid. The patient was discharged 48 hours after admission. Clinically, the patient was diagnosed to have cholera. Which of the following is TRUE for the organism?
A. Skirrow’s agar improves the isolation of the organism
B. It is a gram (-) oxidase positive rod.
C. It survives well in acidic environment
D. The most important biotypes are Ogawa and Inaba

A

B

77
Q

78) Toxins play an important role in the pathogenesis of bacterial gastroenteritis. Which of the following is CORRECT?
A. The cholera toxin is similar to the heat stable toxin of ETC in terms of the stimulation of cAMP
B. All Shigella dysenteraie produce a potent enterotoxin called shiga toxin
C. The EPEC exotoxin is a verotoxin that produces copious, bloody diarrhea
D. The Salmonella enterotoxin bears a limited relatedness to cholera toxin both structurally and antigenically

A

Answer: D?

78
Q 
79) Some bacterial pathogens of the digestive tract need specific oxygen requirements for their growth. Which of the following organisms is microaerophilic?
A. Salmonella typhi
B. Helicobacter pylori
C. Bacillus cereus
D. Shigella flexneri
A

B

79
Q 
80) The TSI contains various reagents to demonstrate fermentation of specific sugars and subsequent decarboxylation of proteins. What are the sugar components of this test?
A. Glucose, lactose, mannitol
B. Glucose, lactose, sucrose
C. Glucose, citrate, mannose
D. Glucose, indole, iron
A

B

80
Q 
81) What is the group of organisms associated with fecal contamination of water?
A. Coliforms
B. Bacteroides
C. Enteric pathogens
D. Bacillus group
A

A

81
Q

82) Rotavirus belongs to the family Reoviridae. Members of this group usually develop respiratory symptoms. What is the typical clinical syndrome associated with rotavirus infection?
A. Systemic viral infection of young adults
B. Bloody diarrhea and bronchiolitis of infants
C. Crampy abdominal pain, watery diarrhea and colds in infants
D. Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea in young children

A

C

82
Q

83) Which of the following is TRUE about rotavirus infection?
A. The different strains are designated by the G and P serotypes
B. Diagnosis is routinely made by electron microscopy of suitably treated stool samples
C. The uncoating of the first layer or capsid leads to the infectious particle
D. Rotavirus causes infection exclusively in man

A

A

83
Q 
84) Some evidence suggests that a Rotavirus protein may behave as an enterotoxin in a manner similar to the heat-labile toxin of E. coli. What is this protein?
A. Protease sensitive VP4
B. NSP6
C. Glycoprotein VP7
D. NSP4
A

D

84
Q 
85) Which of the following associations is CORRECT?
A. Rotavirus: single stranded RNA
B. Norovirus: single stranded RNA
C. E. coli: gram (+) bacilli
D. Helicobacter pylori: gram (-) cocci
A

Answer: B

A is a dsRNA virus, C is a gram (-) bacilli, D is a gram (-) rod

85
Q 
86) Enterobacteriaceae have a complex antigenic structure. Which of the following is the CORRECT relationship between antigen and cell structure?
A. Flagella: F antigen
B. Cell wall: K antigen
C. LPS: O antigen
D. Capsule: H antigen
A

C

86
Q 
87) The different antigens of enteric pathogens are used for identification of the strain. What antibody agglutinates the somatic or O antigen?
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgE
D. IgD
A

B

87
Q

88) E coli indicates fecal contamination. It is the most abundant bacteria found in the gut. Which of the following describes this bacterial gut infection?
A. The EHEC infection is commonly seen in resource-limited countries
B. Patients with E coli gut infection usually present with watery, bloody diarrhea
C. It contains a specific O antigen that differentiates it from other members of the Enterobacteriaceae
D. There is no reliable specific test to identify pathogenic from non-pathogenic E. coli

A

D

88
Q

89) Shigella closely resembles E. coli. Which of the following characteristics differentiates Shigella?
A. The organism is non-motile and lacks the H antigen
B. The O antigen defines the different species
C. The organism is a glucose fermenter
D. The presence of toxins contribute to their virulence

A

A

89
Q 
90) S. enterica gastroenteritis is predominantly a disease of industrialized societies and improper food handling which allows the transmission from the animal reservoir to humans. What is the species that infects strictly humans? 
A. Salmonella enteritidis
B. Salmonella typhi
C. Salmonella typhimurium
D. Salmonella cholerasuis
A

B

90
Q

91) Vibrio cholera produces massive diarrhea resulting in severe dehydration. Which of the following describes this organism?
A. The organism tolerates the acidic environment
B. The cholera toxin is found in all strains of the organism that induces the production of excessive amounts of cAMP
C. The single flagellum allows them to be highly motile
D. Cholera is limited to the O1 and non-O1 serotypes

A

C

91
Q

92) Helicobacter pylori is a gram (-) curved rod that produces urease essential for its survival. Which of the following is TRUE?
A. It grows in a wide range of pH (3.0-7.5)
B. It is part of the normal flora of the stomach
C. It is associated with acute gastritis
D. The urease test is a confirmatory test for the presence of H pylori

A

Answer: B – A should read pH of 6 to 7.5, for C it is more associated with chronic gastritis, for D the urease test is not confirmatory

92
Q 
93) A 10 month old infant is brought to the ER because of diarrhea and vomiting for the past 2 days. He was not able to keep anything by mouth and has had profuse watery stools. On examination, his temperature is 38C and he has tachycardia. He is irritable, mucous membranes are dry, and eyes appear sunken. What is the most common cause of severe gastroenteritis in this age group?
A. Norovirus
B. Rotavirus
C. Poliovirus
D. Astrovirus
A

B

93
Q 
94) What is the most commonly associated group in Rotavirus gastroenteritis?
A. Group A
B. Group B
C. Group C
D. Group D
A

A

94
Q 
95) Diarrhea and vomiting are the most common symptoms of rotavirus gastroenteritis. What is the symptom that completes this triad?
A. Fever
B. Coryza
C. Dehydration
D. Abdominal pain
A

A

95
Q 
96) Most outbreaks due to this Hepatitis virus is associated with fecally contaminated drinking water
A. Hepa A
B. Hepa B
C. Hepa E
D. Both Hepa A and E
A

C

96
Q

97) In the natural course of Hepa B infection, Hepa B virus acquired during childhood has _____ of being a chronic carrier as opposed to that acquired during adulthood which leads to ______ of being chronic carrier.
A. 80%, 20%
B. 90%, 10%
C. 95%, 5%
D. 100%, adults who harbor the virus do not develop into chronic carrier state

A

Answer: C (although sa trans ng viral hepatitis, 90-10)

97
Q 
98-100. Choose among the following proper interpretation of the Hepa B serologic test results.
A. Acutely infected
B. Chronically infected
C. Resolved infection
D. Immune due to natural infection
E. Immune due to Hepa B infection

98) HbsAg positive, antiHBc positive, anti-HBs negative
99) HbsAg negative, antiHBc positive, anti-HBs negative
100) HbsAg negative, antiHBc positive, anti-HBs positive

A

A
C
E (although dapat vaccination)

[FINALS] LU4 2018 (9 decks)

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