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PATH 200 > THEORY TEST #1 > Flashcards

THEORY TEST #1 Flashcards

1
Q 
Which Endocrine Gland is located in the Pelvic Cavity?
A) Pituitary
B) Adrenal
C) Thyroid
D) Ovary
A

D) Ovary

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2
Q

What is NOT a characteristic of Endocrine system function?
A) Stimulation is usually local and short-lived
B) Affects body systems through hormone action
C) Affects protein synthesis and temperature change
D) Usually has a prolonged response to change in the environment

A

A) Stimulation is usually local and short-lived

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3
Q
  1. Which statement is TRUE of Endocrine glands, but NOT Exocrine glands?
    A) They produce and secrete specific substances
    B) Glands vary in size, shape, and location
    C) Secretions are carried in the blood stream
    D) They are important in maintaining homeostasis
A

C) Secretions are carried in the blood stream

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4
Q 
4. Which Hormone is NOT secreted by the Pituitary Gland?
A) Growth Hormone
B) Thyroid Releasing Hormone
C) Anti-Diuretic Hormone
D) Follicle stimulating Hormone
A

B) Thyroid Releasing Hormone

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5
Q
  1. Which statement about the Pituitary Gland is TRUE?
    A) The Pituitary gland only secretes Tropic Hormones
    B) The Anterior Pituitary is known as the Neuropophysis
    C) The Posterior Pituitary is known as the Adenohypophysis
    D) They are produced in small quantities
A

D) They are produced in small quantities

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6
Q
  1. Which statement about Hormones is FALSE?
    A) They are secreted to their target organs via ducts
    B) They are released into the systemic circulation
    C) They bind to receptors on target cells
    D) They are produced in small quantities
A

A) They are secreted to their target organs via ducts

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7
Q
  1. Which statement about Hormones is TRUE?
    A) Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH) stimulates secretion of Hormones from the Adrenal Cortex
    B) Prolactin triggers menstruation and milk letdown
    C) Thyroid stimulating hormone stimulates the thyroid gland to secrete calcitonin
    D) Antidiuretic hormone stimulates kidney tubule cells to excrete water
A

A) Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH) stimulates secretion of Hormones from the Adrenal Cortex

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8
Q 
8. What is the Male sex Hormone?
A) Estrogen
B) Aldosterone
C) Testosterone
D) Progesterone
A

C) Testosterone

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9
Q 
9. A person has elevated thyroid stimulating hormone levels. Which sign/symptom are they least likely to experience?
A) Increased metabolic rate
B) Increased sweating
C) Heat intolerance
D) Cold intolerance
A

D) Cold intolerance

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10
Q
  1. Which statement about hypothalamic hormones is TRUE?
    A) They stimulate the Posterior Pituitary gland
    B) They govern the Anterior Pituitary gland
    C) They convert into oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone
    D) They are classified as somatic hormones
A

B) They govern the Anterior Pituitary gland

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11
Q
  1. What is a humeral trigger of Endocrine gland secretion?
    A) Stimulation by post-ganglionic sympathetic nerve fibres
    B) Increased secretion of thyroid stimulating hormone
    C) Increased secretion of tropic hormones
    D) Decreased calcium blood levels
A

D) Decreased calcium blood levels

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12
Q 
12. The body’s response of increasing the number of hormone receptors on a target cell best describes which process?
A) Up-regulation
B) Down-regulation
C) Direct gene activation
D) 2nd messenger system
A

A) Up-regulation

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13
Q
  1. Which statement about changes in endocrine function is TRUE?
    A) Pathologies are due to excesses or deficits in hormone secretion
    B) Hypofunction is primarily a secondary endocrine disorder
    C) Hypofunction is usually due to hyperplasia or neoplasia
    D) Most pathologies are due to nutritional imbalances
A

A) Pathologies are due to excesses or deficits in hormone secretion

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14
Q 
14. Diabetes insipidus is a pathology associated with which organ?
A) Pancreas
B) Stomach
C) Kidney
D) Liver
A

C) Kidney

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15
Q
  1. What is a manifestation of Cushing’s disease?
    A) Deficit in glucocorticoid production
    B) Deficit in the production of ACTH
    C) Bilateral atrophy of the Adrenal glands
    D) Hypercortisolism due to excess ACTH secretion
A

D) Hypercortisolism due to excess ACTH secretion

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16
Q 
16. What is NOT a typical cause of Endocrine gland Hyperfunction?
A) Neoplams
B) Defective cell receptors
C) Hyperplasia of the gland
D) Excessive glandular secretion
A

B) Defective cell receptors

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17
Q 
17. What is NOT a primary target organ of growth hormone in adults?
A) Liver
B) Muscle
C) Bone
D) Glands
A

D) Glands

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18
Q 
18. What is NOT a function of Thyroid Hormone?
A) Decreased glucose catabolism
B) Fatty acid mobilization
C) Body heat production
D) Regulation of basal metabolic rate
A

A) Decreased glucose catabolism

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19
Q
  1. Which statement about goiters is TRUE?
    A) All goiters compress the trachea and esophagus, causing dysphagia
    B) Toxic goiter is severe hypothyroidism with little thyroxine secretion
    C) They are caused by thyroid hypertrophy forming a prominent bulge in the neck
    D) They are large thyroid growths always affecting the entire gland
A

C) They are caused by thyroid hypertrophy forming a prominent bulge in the neck

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20
Q 
20. What is a hypersecretion disorder of the thyroid gland?
A) Graves Disease
B) Cretinism
C) Myxedema
D) Hashimoto’s Disease
A

A) Graves Disease

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21
Q
  1. Which signs/symptoms are typical of Graves’ disease?
    A) Cold intolerance, Lethargy, Weight Gain
    B) Decreased appetite, bradycardia, dyspnea
    C) Increased appetite, weight loss, irritability
    D) Excessive sweating, bradycardia, lethargy
A

C) Increased appetite, weight loss, irritability

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22
Q 
22. Which state is common to Graves’ disease, Addison’s Disease and Cushing’s syndrome?
A) Glandular dysfunction
B) Hormone hyposecretion
C) Hormone hypersecretion
D) Excessive hormone production
A

A) Glandular dysfunction

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23
Q 
23. Which mechanism is NOT stimulated by calcium ions?
A) Hemostasis
B) Inflammation
C) Neural function
D) Muscle contraction
A

B) Inflammation

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24
Q
  1. Which mechanism does NOT increase blood calcium levels?
    A) Increased reabsorbtion from the kidney tubules
    B) Increased secretion of parathyroid hormone
    C) Increased reabsorbtion from the intestine
    D) Increased secretion of calcitonin
A

D) Increased secretion of calcitonin

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25
Q
  1. Which statement about calcium metabolism is TRUE?
    A) Changes in calcium plasma levels do not impact bone mass throughout life
    B) The human body contains approximately 4 kg of elemental calcium
    C) Calcium and sodium are the primary contributor to bone salts
    D) Parathyroid hormone regulates blood calcium levels
A

D) Parathyroid hormone regulates blood calcium levels

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26
Q 
26. Which sign/symptom is typical of hypoparathyroidism?
A) Hypo-excitable neurons
B) Kidney stones
C) Muscle tetany
D) Inflammatory myopathies
A

C) Muscle tetany

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27
Q
  1. Which statement about the adrenal glands is TRUE?
    A) The adrenal glands are located in the anterior neck
    B) The adrenal cortex produces and secretes aldosterone
    C) The adrenal cortex produces and secretes epinephrine
    D) The adrenal Medulla produces and produces sex hormones
A

B) The adrenal cortex produces and secretes aldosterone

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28
Q 
28. Which disorder is associated with hyperaldosteronism?
A) Conn’s disease
B) Addison’s disease
C) Hashimoto’s disease
D) Cushing’s syndrome
A

A) Conn’s disease

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29
Q
  1. Which statement about hyperaldosteronism is FALSE?
    A) It increases renin-angiotenisn activity
    B) It can lead to headaches and muscle weakness
    C) It causes sodium retention and excess potassium secretion
    D) It results in increased blood volume and hypertension
A

A) It increases renin-angiotenisn activity

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30
Q 
30. What is NOT an effect of cortisol in the body?
A) Immune system depression
B) Emotional stability
C) Anti-inflammatory
D) Decreased blood glucose levels
A

D) Decreased blood glucose levels

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31
Q 
31. What is NOT an effect of cortisol hypersecretion
A) Increased protein breakdown
B) Decreased blood glucose levels
C) Suppressed immune response
D) Possible emotional fluctuations
A

B) Decreased blood glucose levels

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32
Q 
32. What is an exogenous cause of Cushing’s syndrome?
A) Adrenal Tumor’s
B) Bronchogenic carcinoma
C) Anterior Pituitary gland Tumour
D) Excessive use of steroid therapy
A

D) Excessive use of steroid therapy

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33
Q
  1. Which statement about adaptation is FALSE?
    A) The body is constantly responding to changes in the environment
    B) Adaptations are changes that threaten the integrity of body systems
    C) Body systems increase or decrease activity to compensate for changes
    D) Psychological or behavioural changes help withstand the stress of living
A

B) Adaptations are changes that threaten the integrity of body systems

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34
Q
  1. Which statement about stress is TRUE?
    A) There are various physiological responses to psychological stressors
    B) Stress always contributes to balanced physiological function
    C) The stress humans can withstand without pathological consequences is universal
    D) Most physiological responses are controlled by positive feedback mechanism
A

A) There are various physiological responses to psychological stressors

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35
Q 
35. Which system is key in providing responses to stress?
A) Digestive
B) Urinary
C) Reproductive
D) Endocrine
A

D) Endocrine

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36
Q
  1. Which statement about the stress response is TRUE?
    A) Conditioning of the person exposed to stress plays a role in their response
    B) The age and sex of the individual are most important in determining the response
    C) The only factor that determines the stress response is the type of stressor
    D) Only humans can respond effectively to stressors
A

A) Conditioning of the person exposed to stress plays a role in their response

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37
Q 
37. What is NOT a defined stage of the general adaptation syndrome?
A) Alarm
B) Tolerance
C) Resistance
D) Exhaustion
A

B) Tolerance

38
Q 
38. Which autonomic response would be typical during a stress response?
A) Enhanced Parasympathetic activity
B) Decreased heart and respiratory rates
C) Increased Gastrointestinal activity 
D) Increased systemic blood pressure
A

D) Increased systemic blood pressure

39
Q
  1. Which statement about the connection between stress and the immune response is FALSE?
    A) Stress may cause immune-related disease, and visa versa
    B) Immune cells can cross the blood-brain barrier and influence the stress response
    C) Feelings of hopelessness with some diseases may be due to immune cell secretion
    D) The relationship between stress and immune disorders is thoroughly understood
A

D) The relationship between stress and immune disorders is thoroughly understood

40
Q
  1. Which statement about homeostasis is FALSE?
    A) Homeostatic balance requires constant energy input
    B) Changes in the environment are met with adaptation
    C) Positive feedback mechanisms maintain homeostasis
    D) Adaptation is both physiological and psychological
A

C) Positive feedback mechanisms maintain homeostasis

41
Q 
41. Adaptations such as increased melanin in populations from regions near the equator are due to:
A) Physiological reserve
B) Anatomical reserve
C) Genetic endowment
D) Previous experience
A

C) Genetic endowment

42
Q 
42. What is an uncommon response to stress?
A) Dry mouth
B) Tachycardia
C) Pernicious anemia
D) Sweaty hands and feet
A

C) Pernicious anemia

43
Q 
43. Which parts of the CNS are very involved in fear responses?
A) Amygdale & Hippocampus
B) Optic bulb & Spinal cord
C) Medulla Oblongata & Cerebellum
D) Corpus callosum & pons
A

A) Amygdale & Hippocampus

44
Q 
44. Which of the following is a possible cause of tension headaches?
A) Sustained muscle tension
B) Cold or flu symptom
C) Head trauma
D) Changes in neuroexcitability
A

A) Sustained muscle tension

45
Q 
45. What is the most common type of headache?
A) Tension
B) Migraine
C) Cluster
D) Sinus
A

A) Tension

46
Q
  1. Which description is typical of migraine headaches?
    A) Brief episodes of nocturnal head pain of unknown origin
    B) Headaches due to sustained neck and scalp muscle contractions
    C) A transient and acute headache due to sinus infections and fever
    D) Headaches that manifest as sudden attacks of severe head pain
A

D) Headaches that manifest as sudden attacks of severe head pain

47
Q 
47. Having people around to provide support during times of stress is an example of
A) Anatomical reserve
B) Psychosocial factors
C) Sleep-wake cycles
D) Physiological reserve
A

B) Psychosocial reserve

48
Q
  1. Which statement about psychosocial factors and withstanding stress is FALSE?
    A) Strong social supports improve health and immunity
    B) Individuals with social networks are more inclined to experience loneliness
    C) People with ample social networks are less likely to be homeless
    D) People with social supports live longer and have fewer illnesses
A

B) Individuals with social networks are more inclined to experience loneliness

49
Q
  1. Which statement about blood pressure is FALSE?
    A) Blood Pressure is affected by daily stressors
    B) Gynoid fat distribution predisposes to hypertension more than android
    C) Daily fluctuations in blood pressure are normal
    D) Relaxation returns blood pressure to normal
A

B) Gynoid fat distribution predisposes to hypertension more than android

50
Q 
50. Which is not a typical symptom of PTSD?
A) Memory problems
B) Survivor’s guilt
C) Sound sleep patterns
D) Exaggerated startle reflex
A

C) Sound sleep patterns

51
Q 
1) Which process is the primary process by which sperm production occurs?
A) Meiosis
B) Mitosis
C) Oogenesis
D) Polar body development
A

A) Meiosis

52
Q 
2) Who generally gets testicular cancer?
A) Infants
B) Adolescents
C) Men 65+
D) Men 15-35
A

D) Men 15-35

53
Q 
3) The release of a secondary oocyte from an ovarian follicle is known as what?
A) Menstruation
B) Ovulation
C) Lactation
D) Proliferation
A

B) Ovulation

54
Q 
4) What is the most common disease of the breast?
A) Breast cancer
B) Fibrocystic disease
C) Mastistis
D) Mastalgia
A

B) Fibrocystic disease

55
Q

5) Which statement is TRUE about breast massage?
A) It is an absolute contraindication
B) It can enhance circulation and lymph drainage
C) The focus are of treatment is the nipple
D) Hydrotherapy is to be avoided

A

B) It can enhance circulation and lymph drainage

56
Q 
6) Which symptoms is NOT typical of premenstrual syndrome?
A) Tender breasts
B) Cheerful disposition
C) Bloating and edema
D) Weight gain and headaches
A

B) Cheerful disposition

57
Q 
8) “Functional endometrial tissue is found outside the Uterus” describes which condition
A) Endometriosis
B) Unterine Fibroids
C) Dysmenorrhea
D) Mennorhagia
A

A) Endometriosis

58
Q 
9) What is the most common form of pelvic tumour in women?
A) Cervical polyp
B) Ovarian cyst
C) Uterine Fibroid
D) Fallopian neoplasia
A

C) Uterine Fibroid

59
Q 
10) What is a fertilized egg implanted in a site other than the uterus known as?
A) Ectopic pregnancy
B) Amennorhea
C) Preclampsia
D) Endometriosis
A

A) Ectopic pregnancy

60
Q 
11) What is the consequence of preclampsia to the fetus?
A) Decrease in oxygen supply
B) Implantation in a Fallopian tube
C) Transient hypertension
D) Spontaneous abortion
A

A) Decrease in oxygen supply

61
Q

12) How does Diastasis Recti present?
A) Separation of the 4 sections of the rectus abdominis
B) Separation of the left and right sides of the rectus abdominis
C) An indentation along the linea alba
D) Ossification of the linea alba

A

B) Separation of the left and right sides of the rectus abdominis

62
Q 
13) What is the process in which sperm membranes become fragile so enzymes can be released?
A) Polyspermy
B) Ejaculation
C) Capacitation
D) Penetration
A

C) Capacitation

63
Q 
14) Which is NOT a stage of labour?
A) Dilation stage
B) Expulsion stage
C) Placental stage
D) Parturition stage
A

D) Parturition stage

64
Q 
15) Which of the following is NOT a hormone whose levels increase during pregnancy?
A) Follicle stimulating
B) Thyroid
C) Progesterone
D) Parathyroid
A

A) Follicle stimulating

65
Q

16) If people develop a disease for which they have been vaccinated, what is usually the outcome?
A) The symptoms are far more severe
B) The symptoms are often less severe
C) The vaccine becomes toxic
D) People cannot develop a disease if they’ve been vaccinated for it

A

B) The symptoms are often less severe

66
Q 
17) What are conditions that immune compromised individuals are prone to be called?
A) Opportunistic infections
B) Kaposi’s diseases
C) Necrotic immunity
D) G.R.I.D
A

A) Opportunistic infections

67
Q 
18) Which hormone is NOT involved in lactation?
A) Estrogen
B) Prolactin
C) Lutenizing
D) Oxytocin
A

C) Lutenizing

68
Q

19) Which statement about the reproductive system is FALSE?
A) The system is composed of primary and accessory sex organs
B) It is responsible for the synthesis and secretion of tropic hormones
C) The reproductive system enables the propagation of the species
D) The gonads produce haploid gametes (sex cells)

A

B) It is responsible for the synthesis and secretion of tropic hormones

69
Q 
20) What is NOT a male reproductive system structure?
A) Cowper’s gland
B) Fallopian tubes
C) Vas deferens
D) Epididymis
A

B) Fallopian tubes

70
Q

21) Which statement about the duct system is TRUE?
A) The urethra is a large sac like structure storing semen and urine
B) The epididymis is a short, broad and straight tube carrying mature sperm
C) The vas deferens loops over the prostate gland carrying urine to the penis
D) The ejaculatory duct links the vas deferens and accessory gland to the penis

A

D) The ejaculatory duct links the vas deferens and accessory gland to the penis

71
Q 
22) The greater pelvis is also referred to as the
A) True pelvis
B) False pelvis
C) Pelvic inlet
D) Pelvic outlet
A

B) False pelvis

72
Q 
23) Which one of the following systems is NOT associated with the process of male erection?
A) Nervous
B) Immune
C) Endocrine
D) Circulatory
A

B) Immune

73
Q

24) Which statement about sex cells is FALSE?
A) Male sex cells contain a Y chromosome
B) Female sex cells contain two X chromosomes
C) Spermatogenesis involves the process of Meiosis
D) Oogenesis produces 3 polar bodies and one ovum

A

B) Female sex cells contain two X chromosomes

74
Q 
25) Which hormone stimulates testosterone production?
A) Vasopressin
B) Lutenizing
C) Androgen
D) Estrogen
A

B) Lutenizing

75
Q 
26) What is NOT a symptom of begnin prostatic hyperplasia
A) Frequency
B) Urgency
C) Nocturia
D) Metastasis
A

D) Metastasis

76
Q 
27) What is a likely secondary site of metastatic prostate cancer?
A) Kidneys
B) Brain
C) Bone
D) Liver
A

C) Bone

77
Q 
28) Which structure is part of the female reproductive system?
A) Follicle
B) Prostate gland
C) Vas deferens
D) Epididymis
A

A) Follicle

78
Q 
29) In which structure does fertilization normally occur?
A) Uterus
B) Ovaries
C) Labia major
D) Fallopian tubes
A

D) Fallopian tubes

79
Q

31) Which one of the following statements regarding the female breast is FALSE?
A) The female breast consists of adipose tissue and functional lobes
B) The areola surrounding the nipple contains the opening of milk ducts
C) The mammary glands develop and enlarge during pregnancy
D) Autonomic nervous control is responsible for nipple erection

A

B) The areola surrounding the nipple contains the opening of milk ducts

80
Q 
33) What is NOT a reproductive hormone?
A) Estrogen
B) Androgen
C) Aldosterone
D) Progesterone
A

C) Aldosterone

81
Q 
34) Which phase or processes is NOT part of the ovarian cycle?
A) Menstruation
B) Ovulation
C) Follicular
D) Luteal
A

A) Menstruation

82
Q 
35) Which one of the following events marks the approximate mid-point of the ovarian cycle?
A) Proliferation
B) Menstruation
C) Secretion
D) Ovulation
A

D) Ovulation

83
Q

36) Which statement about the female reproductive system is TRUE?
A) The maturation of follicles and ova is stimulated by progesterone
B) The uterine cycle has 3 phases - follicular, menstrual, and secretory
C) Production of egg cells in females occurs in utero
D) At birth there are approximately 1,000 primary follicles in both ovaries

A

C) Production of egg cells in females occurs in utero

84
Q 
37) Days 15-28 of the ovarian cycle mark which stage?
A) Proliferate phase
B) Ovulation period
C) Follicular phase
D) Luteal phase
A

D) Luteal phase

85
Q 
38) Which one of the following is a likely cause of Mastitis?
A) Nursing
B) Young age
C) Bone infection
D) Nutritional imbalances
A

A) Nursing

86
Q 
39) Which cancer is the leading cause of cancer deaths in North American women?
A) Breast
B) Uterine
C) Ovarian
D) Cervical
A

A) Breast

87
Q 
40) Which term is an absence of abnormal cessation of menstruation?
A) Menorrhagia
B) Amenorrhea
C) Dysmenorrhea
D) Oligomenorrhea
A

B) Amenorrhea

88
Q 
41) What is NOT a likely cause of secondary dysmenorrhea?
A) Endometriosis
B) Uterine fibroid
C) Anorexia nervosa
D) Intrauterine device
A

C) Anorexia nervosa

89
Q

42) Which one of the following statements regarding ovarian cancer is TRUE?
A) An aggressive and difficult to detect form of cancer
B) Ovarian cancer is highly symptomatic
C) Most common in young female adults ages 20-35
D) Early detection of the disease is quite common

A

A) An aggressive and difficult to detect form of cancer

90
Q 
43) Which one of the following cancers can be detected with a Pap smear?
A) Breast
B) Uterine
C) Ovarian
D) Cervical
A

D) Cervical

91
Q 
44) What is NOT a potential cause of Candidaisis?
A) Antobiotics
B) Diabetes mellitus
C) Herpes simplex virus
D) Pregnancy
A

C) Herpes simplex virus

PATH 200 (5 decks)

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