PATH FINAL Flashcards
Which statement about the nervous system is false?
A) It is a system highly resistant to change
B) It responds and adapts to changes in the environment
C) It forms a continuous and dynamic tissue
D) It integrates information and responds to changes
A) It is a system highly resistant to change
Which one of the following is NOT a major function of the nervous system?
A) Monitor changes in the internal and external environment
B) Interpret neural signals and produce motor output
C) Process and interpret sensory input and respond accordingly
D) Control and regulate the function of endocrine glands
D) Control and regulate the function of endocrine glands
Neurophysiology studies which area of the nervous system? A) Function B) Structure C) Histology D) Dysfunction
A) Function
Which connective tissue layer encases a nerve? A) Ectoneurium B) Endoneurium C) Perineurium D) Epineurium
D) Epineurium
Which one of the following statements regarding the peripheral nervous system is TRUE?
A) The PNS has two major structural divisions - upper and lower
B) Lower motor neurons emerge from the dorsal horns of the spinal cord
C) Upper motor neurons emerge from the ventral horns of the spinal cord
D) Lower motor neurons emerge from the ventral horns of the spinal cord
D) Lower motor neurons emerge from the ventral horns of the spinal cord
Which statement about the central nervous system is TRUE?
A) It encompasses all structures in the brain and spinal cord
B) It has two major structural divisions - sensory and motor
C) The parasympathetic division is an integral component of the CNS
D) The autonomic system functions independently of the CNS
A) It encompasses all structures in the brain and spinal cord
Which of the following structures is part of the peripheral nervous system? A) Upper Motor neurons B) Spinothalamic tracts C) Pyramidal tracts D) Proprioceptors
D) Proprioceptors
Which one of the following statements describes the function of the autonomic nervous system?
A) Coordinates sensory input from the internal organs
B) Responsible for integrating peripheral nerve signals
C) Coordinates voluntary functions of the internal environment
D) Responsible for maintaining the stability of the internal environment
D) Responsible for maintaining the stability of the internal environment
Which one of the following nervous system divisions is responsible for maintaining homeostasis during periods of little activity? A) Motor B) Somatic C) Sympathetic D) Parasympathetic
D) Parasympathetic
Which brain area is the main integration centre for autonomic activity? A) Medulla Oblongata B) Hypothalamus C) Epithalamus D) Thalamus
B) Hypothalamus
Which type of cell controls the chemical environment of neurons? A) Astrocytes B) Schwann cells C) Ependymal cells D) Oligodendrocytes
A) Astrocytes
Which cell is associated with myelination in the PNS? A) Astrocytes B) Schwann cells C) Oligodendrocytes D) Ependymal cells
B) Schwann cells
Which one of the following is NOT a supporting nerve cell? A) Astrocytes B) Schwann C) Ependymal D) Neurons
D) Neurons
Which ion is crucial for the release of neurotransmitter molecules at the pre-synaptic membrane? A) Na+ B) K+ C) Ca++ D) Cl-
A) Na+
An increase in membrane permeability to which one of the following ions is responsible for the depolarization phase of an action potential? A) Known as receptor potentials B) Propagate and act over long distances C) Known as generator potentials D) Local, and act over a short distance
B) Propagate and act over long distances
What is the state of a cell membrane when its potential temporarily becomes more negative? A) Hypopolarized B) Hyperpolarized C) Facilitated D) Depolarized
B) Hyperpolarized
Which one of the following states characterizes repolarization?
A) Change in resting membrane potential
B) Return to the resting membrane potential
C) Increased membrane permeability to Na+
D) Decreased membrane permeability to K+
B) Return to the resting membrane potential
Which statement about myelinated axons is TRUE?
A) Action potentials are initiated along the entire length of the neuron
B) Voltage-gated channels are found only at axon terminals
C) Myelination decreases the rate of Saltatory conduction
D) Myelination allows for the rapid transmission of nerve impulses
D) Myelination allows for the rapid transmission of nerve impulses
Which one of the following statements regarding neurotransmission is FALSE?
A) Neurotransmitters are released into the synapse by exocytosis
B) Neurotransmitters travel across the synapse by simple diffusion
C) Neurotransmitters travel across the synapse by active transport
D) Ca+2 promotes fusion of synaptic vesicles and the cell membrane
C) Neurotransmitters travel across the synapse by active transport
Which one of the following events leads to the generation of inhibitory post-synaptic potentials A) Opening of Ca+2 channels B) Closing of K+ channels C) Opening of Cl- channel D) Opening of Na+ channels
C) Opening of Cl- channel
Which statement describes adaptation in sensory receptors?
A) Does not generate action potentials when a stimulus is initially applied
B) Keeps generating action potentials despite removal of the stimulus
C) Stops generating action potentials once the stimulus
D) Stops generating action potentials despite continued presence of the stimulus
D) Stops generating action potentials despite continued presence of the stimulus
Which of the following is NOT an effect of a neuromodulator?
A) Release of neurotransmitters from the pre-synaptic membrane
B) Enhanced NT receptor sensitivity on the post-synaptic membrane
C) Synthesis of neurotransmitter molecules in the post-synaptic membrane
D) Degradation of neurotransmitter molecules on the post-synaptic membrane
C) Synthesis of neurotransmitter molecules on the post-synaptic membrane
Which state does NOT contribute to synaptic delay?
A) Neurotransmitter exocytosis at the pre-synaptic terminal
B) Binding of neurotransmitter molecules to receptors on post-synaptic membranes
C) Increased release of neurotransmitter molecules at the pre-synaptic terminal
D) Diffusion of neurotransmitter molecules across the synaptic cleft
C) Increased release of neurotransmitter molecules at the pre-synaptic terminal
Voltage-gated channels respond to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ A) Neurotransmitters B) Membrane distortions C) Hormonal stimuli D) Electrical signals
D) Electrical signals
Which statement describes a converging neuronal circuit?
A) It is one pre-synaptic neuron synapses on several postsynaptic neurons
B) It is several pre-synaptic neurons synapse on one post-synaptic neuron
C) It is common in reflexive pathways and allows for repetitious movement
D) It is associated with controlling activities such as the sleep-wake cycle
B) It is several pre-synaptic neurons synapse on one post-synaptic neuron
Which one of the following types of neuronal circuits is an example of a positive feedback mechanism? A) Parallel-after discharge B) Reverberating C) Converging D) Diverging
B) Reverberating
Ruffini’s corpuscles in the skin provide information regarding which one of the following sensory modalities? A) Tendon stretch B) Pain and temperature C) Deep pressure and stretch D) Balance and body position
C) Deep pressure and stretch
Joint kinesthetic receptors provide information regarding which sensory modality?
A) Tendon stretch
B) Pain and temperature
C) Light pressure and discriminative touch
D) Balance and body position
D) Balance and body position
Proprioceptors are receptors classified by which one of the following? A) Stimulus B) Location C) Structure D) Adaptation
B) Location
Which one of the following statements regarding 1st order neurons is TRUE?
A) Transmit information from the cerebral cortex to the spinal cord
B) Transmit signals from sensory receptors to the thalamus
C) The neuronal cell bodies are located in the primary motor cortex
D) The neuronal cell bodies are located in the dorsal root ganglia
D) The neuronal cell bodies are located in the dorsal root ganglia
Which one of the following brain centres does NOT receive signals directly from 2nd order neurons? A) Thalamic nuclei B) Cerebral cortex C) Cerebellar nuclei D) Reticular activating system
B) Cerebral cortex
Which type of signal is transmitted along 3rd order neurons? A) Sensory to the spinal cord B) Motor to pyramidal cells C) Sensory to the brain D) Motor to muscles
C) Sensory to the brain
Which one of the following types of neurons decussates across the midline of spinal cord segments of the medulla oblongata? A) 1st order B) 2nd order C) 3rd order D) Association
B) 2nd order
Which tract does not decussate at the medulla oblongata? A) Fasciculus cuneatus B) Lateral corticospinal C) Lateral spinothalamic D) Fasciculus Gracilis
C) Lateral spinothalamic
Which statement about ascending nerve tracts in the spinal cord is TRUE?
A) Originate in the dorsal horns of the spinal cord
B) Transmit sensory input to cardiac muscles
C) Transmit motor output to skeletal muscles
D) Consist of nerve fibres composed of gray matter
A) Originate in the dorsal horns of the spinal cord
Which term describes a lack of sensation? A) Anaesthesia B) Somesthesia C) Kinaesthesia D) Bradykinesia
A) Anaesthesia
Dysmetria is a condition manifested by which one of the following?
A) Impaired initiation of movement
B) Intention, or resting tremors
C) A loss of motor coordination resulting in ‘overshooting’
D) A loss of vasomotor control
C) A loss of motor coordination resulting in ‘overshooting’
With which sensory modality are lateral spinothalamic tract signals associated? A) Pain sensation B) Discriminative touch C) Crude touch and pressure D) Subconscious Proprioception
A) Pain sensation
The fasciculi Gracilis and cuneatus transmit nerve signals associated with which sensory modality? A) Discriminative touch B) Pain and temperature C) Gross motor coordination D) Regulation of vital signs
A) Discriminative touch
Damage to which sensory area of the cerebral cortex results in functional blindness? A) Vestibular cortex B) Primary visual area C) Gustatory cortex D) Wernicke’s area
B) Primary visual area
Which one of the following statements describes spatial discrimination?
A) Communication of signals between the hemispheres
B) The ability to identify the body region being stimulated
C) Functional specialization of hemispheric activity
D) Cerebral dominance in reflexive behaviours
B) The ability to identify the body region being stimulated
Which one of the following components of the neuromuscular system is responsible for initiating voluntary skeletal muscle contraction? A) Cerebellum B) Motor cortex C) Myofibres D) Basil Nuclei
B) Motor cortex
Damage to the motor cortex results in which one of the following disorders? A) Parkinson’s disease B) Hemiplegia C) Cerebral palsy D) Huntington’s chorea
B) Hemiplegia
Which of the following is a level of motor integration? A) Circuit B) Receptor C) Perceptual D) Projection
D) Projection
Which one of the following statements regarding motor control is FALSE?
A) The motor cortices in the cerebral hemispheres initiate voluntary movement
B) The alpha motor system provides direct Innervation to skeletal muscles
C) The gamma motor system allows for reflexive muscle contraction
D) Muscle tone is affected primarily through alpha control of the IFFs
D) Muscle tone is affected primarily through alpha control of the IFFs
The cerebellum integrates sensory information regarding which one of the following? A) Pain discrimination B) Balance and muscle tone C) Gross motor coordination D) Regulation of vital signs
B) Balance and muscle tone
Which one of the following statements about the effects of hypoxia and ischemia on the brain is TRUE?
A) Hypoxia severely reduces cellular metabolism, but ischemia does not
B) Hypoxia is fairly well tolerated, but ischemia leads to neuronal damage
C) Hypoxia and ischemia both cause severe damage due to reduced tissue perfusion
D) Hypoxia and ischemia can be compensated to a large extent by auto-regulation
B) Hypoxia is fairly well tolerated, but ischemia leads to neuronal damage
Which of the following statements about the brain is TRUE?
A) The brain uses about 20% of available oxygen
B) The brain is not a metabolically active organ
C) The brain uses about 2% of available oxygen
D) The brain is an avascular organ
A) The brain uses about 20% of available oxygen
Which area is part of the ventricular system? A) Cerebral aqueduct B) Medial ventricle C) Circle of Willis D) Nasal sinuses
A) Cerebral aqueduct
Which substance is NOT transported through the blood brain barrier via simple diffusion? A) Water B) Oxygen C) Glucose D) Carbon dioxide
C) Glucose
Which one of the following conditions decreases blood flow to and within the brain? A) Hyperthyroidism B) Arteriosclerosis C) Hypoglycemia D) Vasodilation
B) Arteriosclerosis
Which set names the meninges from superficial to deep? A) Dura mater/arachnoid mater/Pia mater B) Dura mater/Pia mater/arachnoid mater C) Pia mater/arachnoid mater/dura mater D) Arachnoid mater/dura mater/Pia mater
A) Dura mater/arachnoid mater/Pia mater
Which one of the following components does NOT affect intracranial pressure? A) Blood flow B) Mass of the brain C) Cranial ligaments D) Cerebrospinal fluid
C) Cranial ligaments
Which one of the following factors is NOT a known risk factor predisposing a person to cerebrovascular accident? A) Moderate alcohol intake B) Hyperlipidemia C) Diabetes D) Smoking
A) Moderate alcohol intake
Which of the following statements regarding bacteria is TRUE?
A) Cause damage by controlling the host cell nucleus
B) Cause damage, in part, by releasing toxins
C) All bacteria are pathogenic to humans
D) Organisms incapable of independent living
B) Cause damage, in part, by releasing toxins
Which statement about pathogens is TRUE?
A) Viruses are living organisms
B) Viruses are obligate intracellular pathogens
C) Viruses secrete toxins once they infect a host
D) All bacteria exist in symbiotic relationships with hosts
B) Viruses are obligate intracellualr pathogens
Which one of the following is NOT considered an infectious brain disorder? A) Encephalomyelitis B) Meningitis C) Poliomyelitis D) Encephalitis
C) Poliomyelitis
Which statement about meningitis is TRUE?
A) A condition in which viral particles attack and destroy neurons
B) An infective brain disease caused by bacterial or viral agents
C) A common complication of measles and mumps vaccination
D) The target population for the disease is mature adults
B) An infective brain disease caused by bacterial or viral agents
The degeneration of which one of the following brain structures is the ultimate cause of the onset of Parkinson’s disease? A) Nasal nuclei B) Substantia Nigra C) Red Nucleus D) Pineal gland
B) Substantia nigra
Which condition is a result of demyelination of neurons in the CNS? A) Parkinson’s disease B) Alzheimer’s disease C) Multiple sclerosis D) Cerebral palsy
C) Multiple sclerosis
Which brain injury is least likely to be a result of trauma? A) Contusion B) Concussion C) Epidural hematoma D) Transient ischemic attacks
D) Transient ischemic attacks
Which one of the following states is NOT a result of increased neurological activity? A) Spasticity B) Plasticity C) Areflexia D) Seizures
C) Areflexia
Which one of the following statements regarding cerebrovascular accidents is FALSE?
A) Cognitive deficits may result
B) Results in infarction and focal ischemia
C) There is rarely any associated sensorimotor loss
D) Can be due to blood vessel obstruction, or aneurysm
C) There is rarely any associated sensorimotor loss
Which one of the following manifestations is typical of autonomic dysfunction due to spinal shock? A) Hypertonia B) Tachycardia C) Spastic paralysis D) Vasovagal response
D) Vasovagal response
Which risk factor for cerebrovascular accidents cannot be readily controlled by life style changes? A) Obesity B) Hypertension C) Hyperlipidemia D) Age
D) Age
What is NOT a site of upper motor neuron lesions? A) Brain stem B) Corticospinal tracts C) Cerebral cortex D) Dorsal horn
D) Dorsal horn
Upper motor neuron lesions may result in which one of the following states? A) Flaccid paralysis B) Increased muscle tone C) A loss of spinal reflexes D) Decreased deep tendon reflexes
B) Increased muscle tone
Which one of the following conclusions can a clinician reach when they elicit abnormal deep tendon reflexes?
A) There is an upper motor neuron lesion
B) Further neurological tests are in order
C) The exact location of a nerve lesion
D) There is no need for further testing
B) Further neurological tests are in order
Manifestations of flaccid paralysis include which one of the following? A) Increased muscle tone B) Increased deep tendon reflexes C) Loss of voluntary muscle control D) Inflammation of affected muscles
C) Loss of voluntary muscle control
Which one of the following statements regarding autonomic dysreflexia is TRUE?
A) Rarely constitutes a medical emergency
B) Occurs with lower lumbar and sacral injuries
C) Occurs in degenerative conditions such as cerebral palsy
D) Systemic manifestations include headaches, nasal congestion and anxiety
D) Systemic manifestations include headaches, nasal congestion and anxiety
What is the least likely manifestation of a spinal cord injury? A) Diminished reflexes B) Impaired breathing C) Sensory and motor deficits D) Impaired cognitive function
D) Impaired cognitive function
Spinal cord injury at which segmental level is most likely to be fatal? A) C1-C2 B) C3-C4 C) C5-C6 D) C6-C7
A) C1-C2
Spinal cord injuries occurring at T8 may result in which state? A) Lower limb paralysis B) Upper limb dysfunction C) Serious autonomic dysfunction D) Full loss of respiratory function
A) Lower limb paralysis
Which pattern of paralysis describes quadriplegia A) Just lower limbs B) Just upper limbs C) Arms and legs D) One side of the body
C) Arms and legs
Which one of the following is NOT a stage of disc herniation? A) Sequestration B) Protrusion C) Prolapse D) Prelapse
D) Prelapse
Which one of the following SCI conditions is associated with changes to the annulus fibrosis? A) Compression fracture B) Disc herniation C) Central stenosis D) Spondylosis
B) Disc Herniation
Which condition is a direct cause of a compression syndrome? A) Necrosis B) Demyelination C) Axon degeneration D) Ischemia
D) Ischemia
Which statement describes the nucleus pulposus of the vertebral discs?
A) It is the outer layer consisting of articular cartilage
B) It is the outer layer consisting of fibrocartilage
C) It is the inner layer with a high water content
D) It is the inner layer with a high collagenous content
C) It is the inner layer with a high water content
What is NOT a sing/symptom of osteoarthritis? A) Sudden onset B) Stiffness after rest C) Joint enlargement D) Pain and crepitus
A) Sudden onset
Which conditions name two demyelination disorders? A) Poliomyelitis and Guillain-Barre B) Cerebral palsy and multiple sclerosis C) Multiple sclerosis and Guillain-Barre D) Parkinson’s and Huntington’s Disease
C) Multiple sclerosis and Guillain-Barre
Which one of the following pairs names two conditions most likely linked to viral infections? A) Poliomyelitis and Guillain-Barre B) Cerebral palsy and multiple sclerosis C) Multiple sclerosis and Guillain-Barre D) Parkinson’s and Huntington’s Disease
A) Poliomyelitis and Guillain-Barre
Which one of the following conditions is likely to leads to systemic peripheral neuropathies? A) Diabetes B) Constipation C) Fracture D) Compression
A) Diabetes
Which statement about compression syndromes is FALSE? A) Cause ischemia and hypoxia B) A major class of CNS lesions C) Compromise neurotransmission D) Loss of function may be permanent
B) A major class of CNS Lesions
In which thoracic outlet syndrome is the Axillary artery compressed? A) Posterior scalene B) Pectoralis minor C) Anterior Scalene D) Costoclavicular
B) Pectoralis Minor
Which muscle is unaffected in anterior compartment syndrome? A) Soleus B) Tibialis Anterior C) Fibularis longus D) Extensor digitorum longus
A) Soleus
Which set of structures forms the proximal boundary of the carpal tunnel? A) Flexor retinaculum B) Pisiform and scaphoid bones C) Hook of hamate and trapezium D) Radial and Ulnar styloid processes
B) Pisiform and scaphoid bones
Which one of the following terms is pain perceived at a site different than the site of origin? A) Referred B) Radiating C) Radicular D) Cutaneous
A) Referred
Which one of the following statements regarding chronic pain is TRUE?
A) Presents with increased sympathetic responses
B) May be associated with depression and insomnia
C) Typically involves sharp, piercing pain sensations
D) Onset is rapid and pain is typically of short duration
B) May be associated with depression and insomnia
Which one of the following terms is pain resulting from a normally innocuous stimulus? A) Analgesia B) Anesthesia C) Allodynia D) Causalgia
C) Allodynia
Which statement describes the Gate-Control Theory of pain?
A) Differentiating various types of sensations depends on spatial patterns of activity
B) Pain experience can be modulated by the inhibition of transmitted pain signals
C) Pain is regarded as a separate sensory modality with its own specific receptors
D) A pattern of high frequency stimulation is perceived as pain rather than touch
B) Pain experience can be modulated by the inhibition of transmitted pain signals
Which statement about the Gate Control Theory is FALSE?
A) Massage and hydrotherapy may reduce pain
B) Pain signals ascend the spinothalamic tract
C) Inhibitory neurons affect pain transmission
D) Activity of C-fibres has an inhibitory effect
D) Activity of C-fibres has an inhibitory effect
Which one of the following statements regarding chronic pain is TRUE? A) Serves no physiological purpose B) Increases heart rate C) Is unlikely to lead to depression D) Signals immediate danger
A) Serves no physiological purpose
Which statement about pain is FALSE?
A) Cutaneous pain can be sharp and cutting
B) Visceral pain can be difficult to localize
C) Pain is carried on A-beta fibres
D) Pain is carried on C fibres
C) Pain is carried on A-beta fibres
Which one of the following substances is an endogenous analgesic? A) Aspirin B) Substance P C) Enkephalin D) Histamine
C) Enkaphalin
Which substance is an exogenous analgesic? A) Endorphin B) Aspirin C) Substance P D) Enkephalin
B) Aspirin
Which one of the following statements regarding the transmission of pain signals is TRUE?
A) All signals are sensed at the same intensity
B) Action potentials are different from other sensations
C) Commonly transmitted along A-delta fibres
D) Pain receptors adapt very quickly to stimuli
C) Commonly transmitted along A-delta fibres
Which one of the following statements regarding neurotransmission along C-fibres is TRUE?
A) Saltatory conduction is the mode of transmission
B) Neuronal input does not produce a sensation
C) Signal transmission is relatively fast
D) Signals transmitted include pain and temperature
D) Signals transmitted include pain and temperature
Which one of the following describes nerve impulses transmitted along A-delta fibres? A) Unlikely to produce pain sensation B) Poorly localized C) Transmit fast pain D) Travel slowly up ascending tracts
C) Transmit fast pain
Which statement about pain tolerance is FALSE?
A) Cultural norms affect pain tolerance levels
B) Everyone’s pain tolerance is the same
C) Endopgenous analgesics affect pain tolerance levels
D) Pain is a multi-factorial phenomenon
B) Everyone’s pain tolerance is the same
Which one of the following manifestations is an autonomic response to pain? A) Decreased heart rate B) Decreased muscle tension C) Increased blood pressure D) Increased irritability
C) Increased blood pressure
Which statement about the function of the limbic system is TRUE?
A) It is associated pain with endocrine and autonomic function
B) It provides the emotional responses to painful stimuli
C) It generates reflex responses to painful stimuli
D) It increases alertness when impulses reach the brain
B) It provides the emotional responses to painful stimuli
Which term means an increased sensitivity to pain? A) Hyperalgesia B) Allodynia C) Paresthesia D) Hyperesthesia
A) Hyperalgesia
True or False: Synaptic potentiation can occur in pain pathways
True
Which lobe of the brain is largely responsible for impulse control? A) Frontal B) Parietal C) Occipital D) Temporal
D) Temporal
Which hormone is ultimately secreted because of the HPA axis? A) Adrenaline B) Epinepherine C) Noepinephrine D) Cortisol
D) Cortisol
Which part of the brain keeps track of where information has been put in long-term memory? A) Prefrontal associative cortex B) Parietal lobe C) HPA axis D) Amygdala
A) Prefrontal associative cortex
Which statement about depression is true?
A) Bipolar depression is three times as common in men as in women
B) 20% of people have unipolar depression
C) Unipolar depression is twice as common in women as in men
D) Bipolar depression is more common in lower socioeconomic groups
C) Unipolar depression is twice as common in women as in men
Which two chemicals are most strongly implicated in depression? A) Lithium and monamine oxidase B) The two thyroid hormones C) Serotonin and noepinepherine D) Cortisol and adrenaline
C) Serotonin and noepinepherine
What is common to all the anxiety disorders? A) Activation of the HPA axis B) Reduced thyroid hormone secretion C) Auditory hallucinations D) Bradycardia
A) Activation of the HPA axis
Which one of the following terms describes black, tarry and malodorous stool? A) Hematogenic B) Melena C) Hemaemesis D) Melanoma
B) Melena
Which term means a gurgling sound heard in the large intestine due to the passage of gas? A) Borborygmus B) Fecal impaction C) Diarrhea D) Constipation
A) Borborygmus
Which mineral is involved with blood clotting? A) Chloride B) Iodine C) Calcium D) Iron
C) Calcium
Which set correctly pairs a blood vessel and its characteristics?
A) Gastric artery - well oxygenated blood; carries nutrients to the liver
B) Hepatic vein - well oxygenated blood; carries nutrients to the liver
C) Hepatic artery - poorly oxygenated blood; carries nutrients to the liver
D) Portal vein - poorly oxygenated blood; carries nutrients to the liver
D) Portal vein - poorly oxygenated blood; carries nutrients to the liver
Which manifestation is unique to Crohn’s disease? A) Skip lesions of the intestine wall B) Patient experiences diarrhea C) Ulceration of the intestinal mucosa D) Malabsorption of Nutrients
A) Skip lesions of the intestine wall
Which fat is naturally solid at room temperature? A) Polyunsaturated B) Monounsaturated C) Hydrogenated D) Saturated
D) Saturated
Which factor is the major contributor to the development of esophageal cancer? A) A diet low in saturated fat B) Persistent achalasia C) A low fibre diet D) Moderate alcohol intake
B) Persistent achalasia
Which statement best describes cholelithiasis?
A) Accumulation of cholesterol in the gallbladder
B) Inflammation of the hepatic canaliculi
C) Calcification of bile and gallstone formation
D) Stone formation and obstruction of the portal vein
C) Calcification of bile and gallstone formation
What is NOT a role of bacteria in the large intestine?
A) Protect against colonization by pathogenic bacteria
B) Assist in the production of vitamin E
C) Produce gas as a by-product of metabolism
D) Help breakdown indigestible carbohydrates
B) Assist in the production of vitamin E
Which statement about the digestive system is true?
A) One of the only systems involved in maintaining homeostasis
B) Digestion occurs throughout the entire gastrointestinal tract
C) Supports homeostasis by supplying nutrients and removing wastes
D) Chemical digestion is the only function of the system
C) Supports homeostasis by supplying nutrients and removing wastes
Which statement describes intrinsic control of digestive processes?
A) It is the activation by nerve plexuses and enteroendrocrine glands
B) It is long reflexes responding to stimuli outside the GI tract
C) It is random, reflexive local stimulation of the GI tract
D) It is the activation of reflexes by the CNS and autonomic nerves
A) It is the activation by nerve plexuses and enteroendocrine glands
What is considered the universal fuel for the kreb’s cycle? A) Pyruvic acid B) Fatty acids C) Acetyl-CoA D) Glycogen
C) Acetyl-CoA
Which pathology is associated with a lack of intrinsic factor? A) Ulcerative colitis B) Pernicious anemia C) Celiac disease D) Crohn’s disease
B) Pernicious anemia
Which statement is unique to Type 1 diabetes mellitus?
A) Development of ketoacidosis is a risk
B) Persons experience hyperglycaemia
C) The development of ‘diabesity’ is common
D) Excess glucose is excreted in the urine
A) Developement of ketoacidosis is a risk
Which one of the following is NOT a component of saliva? A) Pepsin B) Lysozyme C) IgA (antibodies) D) Amylase
A) Pepsin
Which one of the following is considered a hypoglycaemic hormone? A) Growth hormone B) Glucagon C) Insulin D) Cortisol
C) Insulin
Which organ is NOT part of the lower gastrointestinal tract? A) Stomach B) Small intestine C) Large intestine D) Cecum
A) Stomach
Which process is an example of chemical digestion? A) Propulsion B) Lipolysis C) Ingestion D) Assimilation
B) Lipolysis
Which statement describes segmentation?
A) It is movement of food along the alimentary canal
B) It is rhythmic contractions along the alimentary canal
C) It is nonadjacent intestinal sections alternately contracting
D) It is elimination of indigestible substances from the body
C) It is nonadjacent intestinal sections alternately contracting
Which type of cell in the pancreas synthesizes and secretes insulin? A) B-beta B) A-alpha C) Zymogen D) Acinar
A) B-beta
Which one of the following statements regarding alcohol is TRUE?
A) Carbonated beverages enhance absorption of alcohol
B) Alcohol does not breach the blood brain barrier
C) Alcoholism does not usually lead to liver dysfunction
D) Alcohol stimulates nervous system function
A) Carbonated beverages enhance absorption of alcohol
Which one of the following structural modifications is NOT seen in the small intestine? A) Villi B) Microvilli C) Brush border D) Haustra
D) Haustra
Which state is NOT a chronic complication of diabetes mellitus? A) Anaphylactic shock B) Nephropathies C) Peripheral neuropathies D) Ulcerated wounds
A) Anaphylactic shock
Which one of the following is NOT a phase controlling gastric secretion? A) Intestinal B) Cephalic C) Pancreatic D) Gastric
C) Pancreatic
Alterations in liver function resulting from cirrhosis are due to which one of the following factors?
A) Obstruction of bile canalculi and ducts
B) Excessive fat accumulation in the bile ducts
C) Fibrosis and replacement of normal cells with nodules
D) Abnormal storage of fatty substances in hepatocytes
C) Fibrosis and replacement of normal cells with nodules
Which disorder is least likely to be associated with malabsorption? A) Lactose intolerance B) Pernicious anemia C) Peptic ulcers D) Celiac disease
C) Peptic ulcers
Which statement about absorption of nutrients in the small intestine is FALSE?
A) Micelles are fatty elements that facilitate absorption of lipids
B) Amino acids are absorbed mostly through diffusion
C) Absorption of vitamins A, D, E and K depends on lipid absorption
D) Glucose moves into the cells of the small intestine by secondary active transport
B) Amino acids are absorbed mostly through diffusion
Post-necrotic cirrhosis is often the result of which condition? A) Obstructed biliary ducts B) Alcohol abuse C) Gall stones D) Hepatitis B
D) Hepatitis B
Which substance is NOT absorbed from the lumen by secondary active transport? A) Chloride B) Amino acids C) Potassium ions D) Glucose
C) Potassium ions
Which of the following is an accessory organ of the digestive tract? A) Mouth B) Duodenum C) Stomach D) Liver
D) Liver
What is NOT a sign/symptom of diabetic ketoacidosis? A) Fruity breath smell B) Fatigue C) Bradycardia D) Vomiting
C) Bradycardia
Vitamin D deficiency may result in which one of the following dysfunctions? A) Night blindness B) Bone destruction C) Nervous disorders D) Slow wound healing
B) Bone destruction
Which statement about gestational diabetes is FALSE?
A) The condition is associated with a total insulin dependency
B) Mild hyperglycaemia can cause harm to the fetus
C) This type of diabetes mellitus occurs during pregnancy
D) Family history of diabetes mellitus is a high risk factor
A) The condition is associated with a total insulin dependency
Which statement about liver functions is TRUE?
A) In the event of liver failure, the gall bladder can produce bile
B) Hepatocytes are responsible for producing cholecystokinin
C) Hepatocytes perform metabolic conversion of nutrients
D) Hepatocytes store and concentrate bile
C) Hepatocytes perform metabolic conversion of nutrients
Which substance is NOT a breakdown product of lipids? A) Cholesterol B) Glycerol C) Fatty acids D) Amino acids
D) Amino acids
Protrusion of a segment of the stomach, including the esophagogastric junction, above the diaphragm describes \_\_\_\_\_\_ A) Diverticulosis B) Sliding hiatal hernia C) Diverticulitis D) Rolling hiatal hernia
B) Sliding hiatal hernia
The exocrine function of the pancreas is the production and secretion of \_\_\_\_\_ A) Cholecystokinin B) Gastric juice C) Insulin and glucagon D) Pancreatic juice
D) Pancreatic juice
Which layer of the alimentary canal is responsible for segmentation and peristalsis? A) Adventitia B) Submucosa C) Mucosa D) Muscularis
D) Muscularis
Which one of the following disorders can be detected by pressing down on McBurney’s point? A) Peritonitis B) Appendicitis C) Enteritis D) Diverticultis
B) Appendicitis
Which hormone is secreted by the pancreas? A) Cortisol B) Epinephrine C) Growth hormone D) Glucagon
D) Glucagon
What is NOT a condition associated with liver dysfunction? A) Jaundice B) Cirrhosis C) Renal colic D) Hepatitis
C) Renal colic
Which one of the following terms is the synthesis of glucose in the liver? A) Glycogenesis B) Glycolysis C) Gluconeogenesis D) Glycogenolysis
C) Gluconeogenesis
Which statement about the role of hydrochloric acid is FALSE?
A) It converts pepsinogen to pepsin in the stomach
B) It facilitates the destruction of ingested bacteria
C) It is primarily responsible for digesting fats
D) It may cause harm to the mucosal lining of the stomach
C) It is primarily responsible for digesting fats
Which statement about the conversion of inactive digestive enzymes to the active form is TRUE?
A) Activation produces a digestible enzyme with lower potency
B) Presence of inactive enzymes in the stomach may cause ulcers
C) The active form is less specific than the inactive form
D) A protective mechanism designed to prevent cell degradation
D) A protective mechanism designed to prevent cell degradation
What is the digestive function of bile? A) Micelle formation B) Production of lipoproteins C) Mechanical digestion of lipids D) Digestion of proteins
A) Micelle formation
Which of the following incorrectly pairs an enzyme and its action site? A) Maltese - small intestine B) Nuclease - small intestine C) Pepsin - stomach D) Lipase - pancreas
D) Lipase - pancreas
What is NOT an effect of alcohol on the nervous system? A) Decreased reaction time B) Decreased inhibitions C) Decreased balance D) Decreased motor performance
A) Decreased reaction time
Which factor will likely increase stomach motility? A) Sympathetic stimulation B) Stomach distension C) Depression D) Duodenal distension
B) Stomach distension
Which of the following is a component of the upper respiratory tract? A) Bronchi B) Trachea C) Bronchioles D) Alveoli
B) Trachea
Which term is the differential pressure on the two sides of the respiratory membrane? A) Inverse correlation B) Pressure gradient C) Intra-pleural pressure D) Ventilation-perfusion
B) Pressure gradient
Which structure produces and secretes surfactant that reduces the surface tension of alveolar fluid? A) Basal lamina B) Type I cells C) Alveoli D) Type II cells
D) Type II cells
Which term describes the affinity of CO2 to hemoglobin as a function of P-O2? A) Haldane effect B) Hypoxemia C) CO poisoning D) Perfusion
A) Haldane effect
Which condition will increase gas exchange in the lungs?
A) Chronic bronchitis
B) Thickened respiratory membrane
C) Low pressure differential of gases across the respiratory membrane
D) High pressure differential of gases across the respiratory membrane
D) High pressure differential of gases across the respiratory membrane
Which one of the following terms describes maintaining proportional air and blood flow in the alveoli? A) Ventilation B) Perfusion C) Coupling D) Pressure gradient
C) Coupling
Which area of the brain is NOT directly associated with controlling respiration? A) Pons B) Medulla Oblongata C) Midbrain D) Motor cortex
C) Midbrain
Which term refers to the ease with which the lungs expand? A) Lung compliance B) Histoplasticity C) Thoracic mobility D) Surface tension
A) Lung compliance
What is NOT a cardinal sign of respiratory disorders? A) Dyspnea B) Hypocapnia C) Rales D) Coughing
B) Hypocapnia
Which statement about dyspnea is FALSE?
A) It is also known as ‘Shortness of breath’
B) A major cause of dyspnea is Bronchodilation
C) Dyspnea occurs with many respiratory conditions
D) Dyspnea is a response to low oxygen levels in the blood
B) A major cause of dyspnea is bronchodilation
What is NOT an effect of air pollution?
A) Decreased movement of the cilia of the epithelial cells
B) Irritation of the lungs, causing inflammation
C) Potential Damage to an unborn fetus
D) Increase in gas exchange
D) Increase in gas exchange
Which statement about non-productive coughs is TRUE?
A) Involves removal of blood-stained sputum from air passageways
B) Non-productive coughs are phlegm-laden
C) Chronic non-productive coughs may indicate a bronchial tumour
D) They are due to mucus accumulation in air passageways
C) Chronic non-productive coughs may indicate a bronchial tumour
Which lung disease is least likely to be infectious? A) Acute Bronchitis B) Viral pneumonia C) Tuberculosis D) Chronic bronchitis
D) Chronic bronchitis
What is NOT a chronic pulmonary condition? A) Chronic bronchitis B) Cystic fibrosis C) Emphysema D) Pleuritis
D) Pleuritis
Which one of the following is NOT a sign of asthma? A) Wheezing B) Rales C) Coughing D) Chest tightness
B) Rales
In general, chronic lung diseases are a group of disorders that manifest with which state?
A) Pulmonary edema and lung collapse
B) Infection, abscesses and granuloma formation
C) Inflammation and fibrotic changes in lung tissue
D) Recurrent obstruction of air flow in pulmonary airways
D) Recurrent obstruction of air flow in pulmonary airways
What is NOT a sign of emphysema? A) Dyspnea B) Cyanosis C) Hyperventilation D) Weight loss
B) Cyanosis
Which statement about pulmonary embolisms is FALSE?
A) It is usually due to thrombi dislodged from deep veins in the legs
B) Obstruction leads to pulmonary blood flow obstruction
C) Smokers are not susceptible to this type of obstruction
D) It may cause tachypnea, dyspnea and chest pain
C) Smokers are not susceptible to this type of obstruction
Which one of the following statements regarding primary pneumothorax is TRUE?
A) A condition associated with smoking and small airway disorders
B) A complication of emphysema and pulmonary tumours
C) Most often due to rib fractures and dislocations
D) Commonly associated with pulmonary tuberculosis
A) A condition associated with smoking and small airway disorders
Which statement about lung cancer is FALSE?
A) Most lung cancer cases are attributed to cigarette smoking
B) It is a leading cause of death in industrialized countries
C) It affects more males than females
D) Eating fruits and vegetables speeds the metastasis of lung cancer
D) Eating fruits and vegetables speeds the metastasis of lung cancer
What is disorder of lung inflation? A) Tuberculosis B) Pleuritis C) Silicosis D) Atelectasis
D) Atelectasis
Which waste product is removed primarily by the urinary system? A) Lactic acid B) Stercobilin C) Carbon dioxide D) Nitrogenous
D) Nitrogenous
The kidneys are located just lateral to the spinal column at which spinal segement? A) T12-L3 B) T1-T6 C) L3-S2 D) Sacrum
A) T12-L3
Which structural renal elements are structures extending from Bowman’s capsule and carrying filtrate to the collecting ducts? A) Interstitium B) Tubules C) Renal hilus D) Medullary pyramids
B) Tubules
Which function of the kidney affects homeostasis directly? A) Initiating Gluconeogenesis B) Regulation of water volume C) Stimulation of RBC production D) Activation of vitamin D
B) Regulation of water volume
Which one of the following volumes represents the approximate amount of blood flowing through the kidney in a minute? A) 1-1.5L B) 2-2.5L C) 4-4.5L D) 6-6.5L
C) 4-4.5L
Which process does NOT occur in the collecting ducts of the nephron? A) Reabsorption of water B) Transport of ions C) Secretion of excess ions D) Reabsorption of glucose
D) Reabsorption of glucose
Which statement about glomeruler filtration is FALSE?
A) A passive process driven by relatively high hydrostatic pressure
B) A process facilitated by high glomeruler blood pressure
C) Changes in the glomeruler membrane have little effect on filtration
D) Blood osmotic pressure slows the rate of filtration
C) Changes in the glomeruler membrane have little effect on filtration
Which statement about the regulation of blood pressure is TRUE?
A) Renal autoregulation maintains GFR in spite of changing systemic BP
B) Parasympathetic stimulation regulates blood pressure during emergencies
C) A decrease in systemic BP leads to vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles
D) The renal artery responds to changes in systemic blood pressure
A) Renal autoregulation maintains GFR in spite of changing systemic BP
Which one of the following substances is NOT normally found in urine? A) Sodium ions B) Chloride ions C) Urea D) Albumin
D) Albumin
Which mechanism does NOT have a role in regulating renal blood flow?
A) Intrinsic renal autoregulation
B) Renin-angiotensin mechanism
C) Sympathetic nervous system controls
D) Parasympathetic nervous system controls
D) Parasympathetic nervous system controls
Which statement about glomeruler filtration is TRUE?
A) For filtration to occur, the capsular hydrostatic pressure has to be higher then the glomeruler HP
B) Relatively High membrane permeability and relatively high glomeruler blood pressure drive filtration
C) The lower the net filtration pressure, the more fluid passes through the glomeruler membrane
D) Blood osmotic pressure ‘pushes’ water from the glomerulus into Bowman’s capsule
B) Relatively High Membrane permeability and relatively high glomeruler blood pressure drive filtration
Which statement about the net filtration pressure is FALSE?
A) It is the difference between pressures moving fluid out of and into the glomerulus
B) It needs to be a negative value for the kidneys to work properly
C) NFP= Glomeruler HP - (glomeruler OP + capsular HP)
D) The higher the value of NFP, the higher the filtration rate
B) It needs to be a negative value for the kidneys to work properly
Which state is NOT a cause of severe dehydration A) Extensive blood loss B) Water intoxication C) Abuse of diuretics D) Prolonged diarrhea
B) Water intoxication
Systemic manifestations of uremia include which of the following? A) Loss of appetite, weakness, gastritis B) Weakness, anemia, hypertension C) Weakness, fatigue, anemia D) Weight loss, hypertension, depression
C) Weakness, fatigue, anemia
Infection of the urinary tract due to E. coli is known as which one of the following? A) Pyelonephritis B) Glomerulonephritis C) Arteriosclerosis D) Renal calculi
A) Pyelonephritis
In which set is a disorder incorrectly matched with its etiology?
A) Glomerulonephritis - injury to the glomeruler filter
B) Hypertension - vascular disease
C) Pyelonephritis - damage to the interstitium
D) Arteriosclerosis - urinary bladder dysfunction
D) Arteriosclerosis - urinary bladder dysfunction
Renal failure is least likely to affect which one of the following homeostatic functions? A) Maintenance of plasma volume B) Plasma electrolyte concentrations C) Control of systemic blood pressure D) Excretion of carbon dioxide
D) Excretion of carbon dioxide
Which statement about kidney pathologies is TRUE?
A) Nephroblastoma is a benign renal tumour seen most often in young children
B) Diabetic nephropathy involves a thinning out of the glomeruler membrane
C) The origin of many cases of glomerulernephritis is bacterial infection
D) Urinary tract and kidney infections predispose to gall bladder stones
C) The origin of many cases of glomerulernephritis is bacterial infection
Which one of the following is NOT a systemic manifestation of uremia? A) Weakness B) Fatigue C) Anemia D) Oliguria
D) Oliguria
Which clinical manifestation is characteristic of the nephritic syndrome? A) Hyperlipidemia B) Hypertension C) Anascara D) Arteriosclerosis
B) Hypertension
Which clinical manifestation if NOT characteristic of Nephrotic syndrome? A) Hyperlipidemia B) Hypertension C) Anasarca D) Proteinuria
B) Hypertension
Which cause of hypertension is NOT associated with renal dysfunction? A) Endocrine Dysfunction B) Nephrosclerosis C) Arteriosclerosis D) Idiopathic
D) Idiopathic
What is a neoplasm affecting the kidney? A) Adenocarcinoma B) Nephroblastoma C) Small cell carcinoma D) Malignant melanoma
B) Nephroblastoma
The incidence of which condition is NOT typically decreased by regular exercise? A) Colon cancer B) Diverticulosis C) Heartburn D) Inflammatory bowel disease
C) Heartburn
What does NOT characterize fast glycolytic muscle fibres? A) Poor blood supply B) Large Glycogen reserve C) Few mitochondria D) High endurance
D) High endurance
Which one of the statements regarding calcium metabolism is FALSE?
A) Changes in calcium plasma levels impact on bone mass throughout life
B) The human body contains approximately 1.5 kg of the elemental calcium
C) Much of the ionic calcium in the body is found in the cytoplasm
D) Parathyroid hormone is a regulator of serum calcium levels
D) Parathyroid hormone is a regulator of serum calcium levels
Which one of the following systems is least likely to reflect a nonspecific response to stress? A) Musculoskeletal B) Autonomic NS C) Lymphatic D) Endocrine
C) Lymphatic
Which one of the following diseases will respond well to hormone replacement therapy? A) Hashimotos B) Acromegaly C) Addisons D) Graves
C) Addisons
Which one of the following manifestations is NOT usually seen with large goiters? A) Choking sensation B) Distention of veins C) Inspiratory strider D) Excessive swelling
D) Excessive swelling
Which one of the following manifestations indicates low extracellular Ca2+? A) Hyperpolarized neuron membranes B) Flaccidity of skeletal muscles C) Spasticity of skeletal muscles D) Increased bone deposition
C) Spasticity of skeletal muscles
Hypersecretion of aldosterone resulting in generalized muscle weakness and hypertension is typical of which one of the following disorders? A) Conn’s syndrome B) Addison’s disease C) Hashimotos disease D) Cushing’s syndrome
A) Conns syndrome
Which one of the following statements regarding stress and adaptation is TRUE?
A) The nonspecific stress response alerts a person to the presence of a stressor
B) Conditioning of the person exposed to stress plays a role in their response
C) The only factor that determines the stress response is the type of stressor
D) The specific stress response enables the body to maintain homeostasis
B) Conditioning of the person exposed to stress plays a role in their response
Which one of the following is an unlikely response to excess stress? A) Increased photosensitivity B) Exacerbation of psoriasis C) Gingivitis or gum disease D) Eruption of herpes simplex
A) Increased photosensitivity
Which one of the following factors does NOT affect secretion go hormones? A) Changes in 2nd messenger systems B) Stress and environmental changes C) Levels of circulating hormones D) Histological changes in glands
A) Changes in 2nd messenger systems
Circulation levels of calcium ions \_\_\_\_\_ as phosphate ion levels \_\_\_\_\_\_ A) Increase - Increase B) Decrease - Increase C) Decrease - Decrease D) Do not change - Increase
B) Decrease - Increase
Which one for the following is characteristic of endocrine function?
A) Respond quickly to changes in the environment
B) Affects body systems through hormone action
C) Forms a wide spread structural network
D) Stimulation is local and short lived
B) Affects body systems through hormone action
Which one of the following hormones is NOT secreted by the pituitary gland? A) Anti-diuretic hormone B) Adrenocorticotropic C) Growth hormone D) Glucocorticoids
D) Glucocorticoids
By definition, tropic hormones
A) Activate other endocrine glands
B) Are secreted by the posterior pituitary gland
C) Are secreted by secondary endocrine organs
D) Stimulate physiological functions of target organs
A) Activate other endocrine glands
Which one of the following statements regarding hormones is TRUE?
A) All hormones are classified chemically as steroids
B) Hormones are secreted directly into the blood stream
C) All hormones are tropic and stimulate endocrine glands
D) Deficits in specific hormones do not result in dysfunction
B) Hormones are secreted directly into the blood stream
A person has depressed thyroid stimulation hormone levels. Which one of the following signs/symptoms are they likely to experience A) Increased metabolic rate B) Increased swelling C) Heat intolerance D) Cold intolerance
D) Cold intolerance
In negative feedback systems \_\_\_\_\_ hormone levels result in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ hormone synthesis and release A) Increased/Decreased B) Increased/Increased C) Decreased/Decreased D) Decreased/Unchanged
A) Increased/Decreased
Which one of the following statements regarding the hypothalmus is FALSE?
A) There is no structural link between the hypothalamus and pituitary gland
B) The neural function of the gland is integration of autonomic functions
C) The endocrine function is the regulation of pituitary secretion
D) The hypothalamus is an integral part of the diencephalon
A) There is no structural link between the hypothalamus and pituitary gland
Which of the following is a possible cause of endocrine hyperfunction? A) Congenital glandular defects B) Defective receptors C) Impaired cellular response D) Glandular hyperplasia
D) Glandular hyperplasia
