PATH FINAL Flashcards
Which statement about the nervous system is false?
A) It is a system highly resistant to change
B) It responds and adapts to changes in the environment
C) It forms a continuous and dynamic tissue
D) It integrates information and responds to changes
A) It is a system highly resistant to change
Which one of the following is NOT a major function of the nervous system?
A) Monitor changes in the internal and external environment
B) Interpret neural signals and produce motor output
C) Process and interpret sensory input and respond accordingly
D) Control and regulate the function of endocrine glands
D) Control and regulate the function of endocrine glands
Neurophysiology studies which area of the nervous system? A) Function B) Structure C) Histology D) Dysfunction
A) Function
Which connective tissue layer encases a nerve? A) Ectoneurium B) Endoneurium C) Perineurium D) Epineurium
D) Epineurium
Which one of the following statements regarding the peripheral nervous system is TRUE?
A) The PNS has two major structural divisions - upper and lower
B) Lower motor neurons emerge from the dorsal horns of the spinal cord
C) Upper motor neurons emerge from the ventral horns of the spinal cord
D) Lower motor neurons emerge from the ventral horns of the spinal cord
D) Lower motor neurons emerge from the ventral horns of the spinal cord
Which statement about the central nervous system is TRUE?
A) It encompasses all structures in the brain and spinal cord
B) It has two major structural divisions - sensory and motor
C) The parasympathetic division is an integral component of the CNS
D) The autonomic system functions independently of the CNS
A) It encompasses all structures in the brain and spinal cord
Which of the following structures is part of the peripheral nervous system? A) Upper Motor neurons B) Spinothalamic tracts C) Pyramidal tracts D) Proprioceptors
D) Proprioceptors
Which one of the following statements describes the function of the autonomic nervous system?
A) Coordinates sensory input from the internal organs
B) Responsible for integrating peripheral nerve signals
C) Coordinates voluntary functions of the internal environment
D) Responsible for maintaining the stability of the internal environment
D) Responsible for maintaining the stability of the internal environment
Which one of the following nervous system divisions is responsible for maintaining homeostasis during periods of little activity? A) Motor B) Somatic C) Sympathetic D) Parasympathetic
D) Parasympathetic
Which brain area is the main integration centre for autonomic activity? A) Medulla Oblongata B) Hypothalamus C) Epithalamus D) Thalamus
B) Hypothalamus
Which type of cell controls the chemical environment of neurons? A) Astrocytes B) Schwann cells C) Ependymal cells D) Oligodendrocytes
A) Astrocytes
Which cell is associated with myelination in the PNS? A) Astrocytes B) Schwann cells C) Oligodendrocytes D) Ependymal cells
B) Schwann cells
Which one of the following is NOT a supporting nerve cell? A) Astrocytes B) Schwann C) Ependymal D) Neurons
D) Neurons
Which ion is crucial for the release of neurotransmitter molecules at the pre-synaptic membrane? A) Na+ B) K+ C) Ca++ D) Cl-
A) Na+
An increase in membrane permeability to which one of the following ions is responsible for the depolarization phase of an action potential? A) Known as receptor potentials B) Propagate and act over long distances C) Known as generator potentials D) Local, and act over a short distance
B) Propagate and act over long distances
What is the state of a cell membrane when its potential temporarily becomes more negative? A) Hypopolarized B) Hyperpolarized C) Facilitated D) Depolarized
B) Hyperpolarized
Which one of the following states characterizes repolarization?
A) Change in resting membrane potential
B) Return to the resting membrane potential
C) Increased membrane permeability to Na+
D) Decreased membrane permeability to K+
B) Return to the resting membrane potential
Which statement about myelinated axons is TRUE?
A) Action potentials are initiated along the entire length of the neuron
B) Voltage-gated channels are found only at axon terminals
C) Myelination decreases the rate of Saltatory conduction
D) Myelination allows for the rapid transmission of nerve impulses
D) Myelination allows for the rapid transmission of nerve impulses
Which one of the following statements regarding neurotransmission is FALSE?
A) Neurotransmitters are released into the synapse by exocytosis
B) Neurotransmitters travel across the synapse by simple diffusion
C) Neurotransmitters travel across the synapse by active transport
D) Ca+2 promotes fusion of synaptic vesicles and the cell membrane
C) Neurotransmitters travel across the synapse by active transport
Which one of the following events leads to the generation of inhibitory post-synaptic potentials A) Opening of Ca+2 channels B) Closing of K+ channels C) Opening of Cl- channel D) Opening of Na+ channels
C) Opening of Cl- channel
Which statement describes adaptation in sensory receptors?
A) Does not generate action potentials when a stimulus is initially applied
B) Keeps generating action potentials despite removal of the stimulus
C) Stops generating action potentials once the stimulus
D) Stops generating action potentials despite continued presence of the stimulus
D) Stops generating action potentials despite continued presence of the stimulus
Which of the following is NOT an effect of a neuromodulator?
A) Release of neurotransmitters from the pre-synaptic membrane
B) Enhanced NT receptor sensitivity on the post-synaptic membrane
C) Synthesis of neurotransmitter molecules in the post-synaptic membrane
D) Degradation of neurotransmitter molecules on the post-synaptic membrane
C) Synthesis of neurotransmitter molecules on the post-synaptic membrane
Which state does NOT contribute to synaptic delay?
A) Neurotransmitter exocytosis at the pre-synaptic terminal
B) Binding of neurotransmitter molecules to receptors on post-synaptic membranes
C) Increased release of neurotransmitter molecules at the pre-synaptic terminal
D) Diffusion of neurotransmitter molecules across the synaptic cleft
C) Increased release of neurotransmitter molecules at the pre-synaptic terminal
Voltage-gated channels respond to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ A) Neurotransmitters B) Membrane distortions C) Hormonal stimuli D) Electrical signals
D) Electrical signals
Which statement describes a converging neuronal circuit?
A) It is one pre-synaptic neuron synapses on several postsynaptic neurons
B) It is several pre-synaptic neurons synapse on one post-synaptic neuron
C) It is common in reflexive pathways and allows for repetitious movement
D) It is associated with controlling activities such as the sleep-wake cycle
B) It is several pre-synaptic neurons synapse on one post-synaptic neuron
Which one of the following types of neuronal circuits is an example of a positive feedback mechanism? A) Parallel-after discharge B) Reverberating C) Converging D) Diverging
B) Reverberating
Ruffini’s corpuscles in the skin provide information regarding which one of the following sensory modalities? A) Tendon stretch B) Pain and temperature C) Deep pressure and stretch D) Balance and body position
C) Deep pressure and stretch
Joint kinesthetic receptors provide information regarding which sensory modality?
A) Tendon stretch
B) Pain and temperature
C) Light pressure and discriminative touch
D) Balance and body position
D) Balance and body position
Proprioceptors are receptors classified by which one of the following? A) Stimulus B) Location C) Structure D) Adaptation
B) Location
Which one of the following statements regarding 1st order neurons is TRUE?
A) Transmit information from the cerebral cortex to the spinal cord
B) Transmit signals from sensory receptors to the thalamus
C) The neuronal cell bodies are located in the primary motor cortex
D) The neuronal cell bodies are located in the dorsal root ganglia
D) The neuronal cell bodies are located in the dorsal root ganglia
Which one of the following brain centres does NOT receive signals directly from 2nd order neurons? A) Thalamic nuclei B) Cerebral cortex C) Cerebellar nuclei D) Reticular activating system
B) Cerebral cortex
Which type of signal is transmitted along 3rd order neurons? A) Sensory to the spinal cord B) Motor to pyramidal cells C) Sensory to the brain D) Motor to muscles
C) Sensory to the brain
Which one of the following types of neurons decussates across the midline of spinal cord segments of the medulla oblongata? A) 1st order B) 2nd order C) 3rd order D) Association
B) 2nd order
Which tract does not decussate at the medulla oblongata? A) Fasciculus cuneatus B) Lateral corticospinal C) Lateral spinothalamic D) Fasciculus Gracilis
C) Lateral spinothalamic
Which statement about ascending nerve tracts in the spinal cord is TRUE?
A) Originate in the dorsal horns of the spinal cord
B) Transmit sensory input to cardiac muscles
C) Transmit motor output to skeletal muscles
D) Consist of nerve fibres composed of gray matter
A) Originate in the dorsal horns of the spinal cord
Which term describes a lack of sensation? A) Anaesthesia B) Somesthesia C) Kinaesthesia D) Bradykinesia
A) Anaesthesia
Dysmetria is a condition manifested by which one of the following?
A) Impaired initiation of movement
B) Intention, or resting tremors
C) A loss of motor coordination resulting in ‘overshooting’
D) A loss of vasomotor control
C) A loss of motor coordination resulting in ‘overshooting’
With which sensory modality are lateral spinothalamic tract signals associated? A) Pain sensation B) Discriminative touch C) Crude touch and pressure D) Subconscious Proprioception
A) Pain sensation
The fasciculi Gracilis and cuneatus transmit nerve signals associated with which sensory modality? A) Discriminative touch B) Pain and temperature C) Gross motor coordination D) Regulation of vital signs
A) Discriminative touch
Damage to which sensory area of the cerebral cortex results in functional blindness? A) Vestibular cortex B) Primary visual area C) Gustatory cortex D) Wernicke’s area
B) Primary visual area
Which one of the following statements describes spatial discrimination?
A) Communication of signals between the hemispheres
B) The ability to identify the body region being stimulated
C) Functional specialization of hemispheric activity
D) Cerebral dominance in reflexive behaviours
B) The ability to identify the body region being stimulated
Which one of the following components of the neuromuscular system is responsible for initiating voluntary skeletal muscle contraction? A) Cerebellum B) Motor cortex C) Myofibres D) Basil Nuclei
B) Motor cortex
Damage to the motor cortex results in which one of the following disorders? A) Parkinson’s disease B) Hemiplegia C) Cerebral palsy D) Huntington’s chorea
B) Hemiplegia
Which of the following is a level of motor integration? A) Circuit B) Receptor C) Perceptual D) Projection
D) Projection
Which one of the following statements regarding motor control is FALSE?
A) The motor cortices in the cerebral hemispheres initiate voluntary movement
B) The alpha motor system provides direct Innervation to skeletal muscles
C) The gamma motor system allows for reflexive muscle contraction
D) Muscle tone is affected primarily through alpha control of the IFFs
D) Muscle tone is affected primarily through alpha control of the IFFs
The cerebellum integrates sensory information regarding which one of the following? A) Pain discrimination B) Balance and muscle tone C) Gross motor coordination D) Regulation of vital signs
B) Balance and muscle tone
Which one of the following statements about the effects of hypoxia and ischemia on the brain is TRUE?
A) Hypoxia severely reduces cellular metabolism, but ischemia does not
B) Hypoxia is fairly well tolerated, but ischemia leads to neuronal damage
C) Hypoxia and ischemia both cause severe damage due to reduced tissue perfusion
D) Hypoxia and ischemia can be compensated to a large extent by auto-regulation
B) Hypoxia is fairly well tolerated, but ischemia leads to neuronal damage
Which of the following statements about the brain is TRUE?
A) The brain uses about 20% of available oxygen
B) The brain is not a metabolically active organ
C) The brain uses about 2% of available oxygen
D) The brain is an avascular organ
A) The brain uses about 20% of available oxygen
Which area is part of the ventricular system? A) Cerebral aqueduct B) Medial ventricle C) Circle of Willis D) Nasal sinuses
A) Cerebral aqueduct
Which substance is NOT transported through the blood brain barrier via simple diffusion? A) Water B) Oxygen C) Glucose D) Carbon dioxide
C) Glucose
Which one of the following conditions decreases blood flow to and within the brain? A) Hyperthyroidism B) Arteriosclerosis C) Hypoglycemia D) Vasodilation
B) Arteriosclerosis
Which set names the meninges from superficial to deep? A) Dura mater/arachnoid mater/Pia mater B) Dura mater/Pia mater/arachnoid mater C) Pia mater/arachnoid mater/dura mater D) Arachnoid mater/dura mater/Pia mater
A) Dura mater/arachnoid mater/Pia mater
Which one of the following components does NOT affect intracranial pressure? A) Blood flow B) Mass of the brain C) Cranial ligaments D) Cerebrospinal fluid
C) Cranial ligaments
Which one of the following factors is NOT a known risk factor predisposing a person to cerebrovascular accident? A) Moderate alcohol intake B) Hyperlipidemia C) Diabetes D) Smoking
A) Moderate alcohol intake
Which of the following statements regarding bacteria is TRUE?
A) Cause damage by controlling the host cell nucleus
B) Cause damage, in part, by releasing toxins
C) All bacteria are pathogenic to humans
D) Organisms incapable of independent living
B) Cause damage, in part, by releasing toxins
Which statement about pathogens is TRUE?
A) Viruses are living organisms
B) Viruses are obligate intracellular pathogens
C) Viruses secrete toxins once they infect a host
D) All bacteria exist in symbiotic relationships with hosts
B) Viruses are obligate intracellualr pathogens
Which one of the following is NOT considered an infectious brain disorder? A) Encephalomyelitis B) Meningitis C) Poliomyelitis D) Encephalitis
C) Poliomyelitis
Which statement about meningitis is TRUE?
A) A condition in which viral particles attack and destroy neurons
B) An infective brain disease caused by bacterial or viral agents
C) A common complication of measles and mumps vaccination
D) The target population for the disease is mature adults
B) An infective brain disease caused by bacterial or viral agents
The degeneration of which one of the following brain structures is the ultimate cause of the onset of Parkinson’s disease? A) Nasal nuclei B) Substantia Nigra C) Red Nucleus D) Pineal gland
B) Substantia nigra
Which condition is a result of demyelination of neurons in the CNS? A) Parkinson’s disease B) Alzheimer’s disease C) Multiple sclerosis D) Cerebral palsy
C) Multiple sclerosis
Which brain injury is least likely to be a result of trauma? A) Contusion B) Concussion C) Epidural hematoma D) Transient ischemic attacks
D) Transient ischemic attacks
Which one of the following states is NOT a result of increased neurological activity? A) Spasticity B) Plasticity C) Areflexia D) Seizures
C) Areflexia
Which one of the following statements regarding cerebrovascular accidents is FALSE?
A) Cognitive deficits may result
B) Results in infarction and focal ischemia
C) There is rarely any associated sensorimotor loss
D) Can be due to blood vessel obstruction, or aneurysm
C) There is rarely any associated sensorimotor loss
Which one of the following manifestations is typical of autonomic dysfunction due to spinal shock? A) Hypertonia B) Tachycardia C) Spastic paralysis D) Vasovagal response
D) Vasovagal response
Which risk factor for cerebrovascular accidents cannot be readily controlled by life style changes? A) Obesity B) Hypertension C) Hyperlipidemia D) Age
D) Age
What is NOT a site of upper motor neuron lesions? A) Brain stem B) Corticospinal tracts C) Cerebral cortex D) Dorsal horn
D) Dorsal horn
Upper motor neuron lesions may result in which one of the following states? A) Flaccid paralysis B) Increased muscle tone C) A loss of spinal reflexes D) Decreased deep tendon reflexes
B) Increased muscle tone
Which one of the following conclusions can a clinician reach when they elicit abnormal deep tendon reflexes?
A) There is an upper motor neuron lesion
B) Further neurological tests are in order
C) The exact location of a nerve lesion
D) There is no need for further testing
B) Further neurological tests are in order
Manifestations of flaccid paralysis include which one of the following? A) Increased muscle tone B) Increased deep tendon reflexes C) Loss of voluntary muscle control D) Inflammation of affected muscles
C) Loss of voluntary muscle control
Which one of the following statements regarding autonomic dysreflexia is TRUE?
A) Rarely constitutes a medical emergency
B) Occurs with lower lumbar and sacral injuries
C) Occurs in degenerative conditions such as cerebral palsy
D) Systemic manifestations include headaches, nasal congestion and anxiety
D) Systemic manifestations include headaches, nasal congestion and anxiety
What is the least likely manifestation of a spinal cord injury? A) Diminished reflexes B) Impaired breathing C) Sensory and motor deficits D) Impaired cognitive function
D) Impaired cognitive function
Spinal cord injury at which segmental level is most likely to be fatal? A) C1-C2 B) C3-C4 C) C5-C6 D) C6-C7
A) C1-C2
Spinal cord injuries occurring at T8 may result in which state? A) Lower limb paralysis B) Upper limb dysfunction C) Serious autonomic dysfunction D) Full loss of respiratory function
A) Lower limb paralysis
Which pattern of paralysis describes quadriplegia A) Just lower limbs B) Just upper limbs C) Arms and legs D) One side of the body
C) Arms and legs
Which one of the following is NOT a stage of disc herniation? A) Sequestration B) Protrusion C) Prolapse D) Prelapse
D) Prelapse
Which one of the following SCI conditions is associated with changes to the annulus fibrosis? A) Compression fracture B) Disc herniation C) Central stenosis D) Spondylosis
B) Disc Herniation
Which condition is a direct cause of a compression syndrome? A) Necrosis B) Demyelination C) Axon degeneration D) Ischemia
D) Ischemia
Which statement describes the nucleus pulposus of the vertebral discs?
A) It is the outer layer consisting of articular cartilage
B) It is the outer layer consisting of fibrocartilage
C) It is the inner layer with a high water content
D) It is the inner layer with a high collagenous content
C) It is the inner layer with a high water content
What is NOT a sing/symptom of osteoarthritis? A) Sudden onset B) Stiffness after rest C) Joint enlargement D) Pain and crepitus
A) Sudden onset
Which conditions name two demyelination disorders? A) Poliomyelitis and Guillain-Barre B) Cerebral palsy and multiple sclerosis C) Multiple sclerosis and Guillain-Barre D) Parkinson’s and Huntington’s Disease
C) Multiple sclerosis and Guillain-Barre
Which one of the following pairs names two conditions most likely linked to viral infections? A) Poliomyelitis and Guillain-Barre B) Cerebral palsy and multiple sclerosis C) Multiple sclerosis and Guillain-Barre D) Parkinson’s and Huntington’s Disease
A) Poliomyelitis and Guillain-Barre
Which one of the following conditions is likely to leads to systemic peripheral neuropathies? A) Diabetes B) Constipation C) Fracture D) Compression
A) Diabetes
Which statement about compression syndromes is FALSE? A) Cause ischemia and hypoxia B) A major class of CNS lesions C) Compromise neurotransmission D) Loss of function may be permanent
B) A major class of CNS Lesions
In which thoracic outlet syndrome is the Axillary artery compressed? A) Posterior scalene B) Pectoralis minor C) Anterior Scalene D) Costoclavicular
B) Pectoralis Minor
Which muscle is unaffected in anterior compartment syndrome? A) Soleus B) Tibialis Anterior C) Fibularis longus D) Extensor digitorum longus
A) Soleus
Which set of structures forms the proximal boundary of the carpal tunnel? A) Flexor retinaculum B) Pisiform and scaphoid bones C) Hook of hamate and trapezium D) Radial and Ulnar styloid processes
B) Pisiform and scaphoid bones
Which one of the following terms is pain perceived at a site different than the site of origin? A) Referred B) Radiating C) Radicular D) Cutaneous
A) Referred
Which one of the following statements regarding chronic pain is TRUE?
A) Presents with increased sympathetic responses
B) May be associated with depression and insomnia
C) Typically involves sharp, piercing pain sensations
D) Onset is rapid and pain is typically of short duration
B) May be associated with depression and insomnia
Which one of the following terms is pain resulting from a normally innocuous stimulus? A) Analgesia B) Anesthesia C) Allodynia D) Causalgia
C) Allodynia
Which statement describes the Gate-Control Theory of pain?
A) Differentiating various types of sensations depends on spatial patterns of activity
B) Pain experience can be modulated by the inhibition of transmitted pain signals
C) Pain is regarded as a separate sensory modality with its own specific receptors
D) A pattern of high frequency stimulation is perceived as pain rather than touch
B) Pain experience can be modulated by the inhibition of transmitted pain signals
Which statement about the Gate Control Theory is FALSE?
A) Massage and hydrotherapy may reduce pain
B) Pain signals ascend the spinothalamic tract
C) Inhibitory neurons affect pain transmission
D) Activity of C-fibres has an inhibitory effect
D) Activity of C-fibres has an inhibitory effect
Which one of the following statements regarding chronic pain is TRUE? A) Serves no physiological purpose B) Increases heart rate C) Is unlikely to lead to depression D) Signals immediate danger
A) Serves no physiological purpose
Which statement about pain is FALSE?
A) Cutaneous pain can be sharp and cutting
B) Visceral pain can be difficult to localize
C) Pain is carried on A-beta fibres
D) Pain is carried on C fibres
C) Pain is carried on A-beta fibres
Which one of the following substances is an endogenous analgesic? A) Aspirin B) Substance P C) Enkephalin D) Histamine
C) Enkaphalin
Which substance is an exogenous analgesic? A) Endorphin B) Aspirin C) Substance P D) Enkephalin
B) Aspirin
Which one of the following statements regarding the transmission of pain signals is TRUE?
A) All signals are sensed at the same intensity
B) Action potentials are different from other sensations
C) Commonly transmitted along A-delta fibres
D) Pain receptors adapt very quickly to stimuli
C) Commonly transmitted along A-delta fibres
Which one of the following statements regarding neurotransmission along C-fibres is TRUE?
A) Saltatory conduction is the mode of transmission
B) Neuronal input does not produce a sensation
C) Signal transmission is relatively fast
D) Signals transmitted include pain and temperature
D) Signals transmitted include pain and temperature
Which one of the following describes nerve impulses transmitted along A-delta fibres? A) Unlikely to produce pain sensation B) Poorly localized C) Transmit fast pain D) Travel slowly up ascending tracts
C) Transmit fast pain
Which statement about pain tolerance is FALSE?
A) Cultural norms affect pain tolerance levels
B) Everyone’s pain tolerance is the same
C) Endopgenous analgesics affect pain tolerance levels
D) Pain is a multi-factorial phenomenon
B) Everyone’s pain tolerance is the same
Which one of the following manifestations is an autonomic response to pain? A) Decreased heart rate B) Decreased muscle tension C) Increased blood pressure D) Increased irritability
C) Increased blood pressure
Which statement about the function of the limbic system is TRUE?
A) It is associated pain with endocrine and autonomic function
B) It provides the emotional responses to painful stimuli
C) It generates reflex responses to painful stimuli
D) It increases alertness when impulses reach the brain
B) It provides the emotional responses to painful stimuli
Which term means an increased sensitivity to pain? A) Hyperalgesia B) Allodynia C) Paresthesia D) Hyperesthesia
A) Hyperalgesia
True or False: Synaptic potentiation can occur in pain pathways
True
Which lobe of the brain is largely responsible for impulse control? A) Frontal B) Parietal C) Occipital D) Temporal
D) Temporal
Which hormone is ultimately secreted because of the HPA axis? A) Adrenaline B) Epinepherine C) Noepinephrine D) Cortisol
D) Cortisol
Which part of the brain keeps track of where information has been put in long-term memory? A) Prefrontal associative cortex B) Parietal lobe C) HPA axis D) Amygdala
A) Prefrontal associative cortex
Which statement about depression is true?
A) Bipolar depression is three times as common in men as in women
B) 20% of people have unipolar depression
C) Unipolar depression is twice as common in women as in men
D) Bipolar depression is more common in lower socioeconomic groups
C) Unipolar depression is twice as common in women as in men
Which two chemicals are most strongly implicated in depression? A) Lithium and monamine oxidase B) The two thyroid hormones C) Serotonin and noepinepherine D) Cortisol and adrenaline
C) Serotonin and noepinepherine
What is common to all the anxiety disorders? A) Activation of the HPA axis B) Reduced thyroid hormone secretion C) Auditory hallucinations D) Bradycardia
A) Activation of the HPA axis
Which one of the following terms describes black, tarry and malodorous stool? A) Hematogenic B) Melena C) Hemaemesis D) Melanoma
B) Melena
Which term means a gurgling sound heard in the large intestine due to the passage of gas? A) Borborygmus B) Fecal impaction C) Diarrhea D) Constipation
A) Borborygmus
Which mineral is involved with blood clotting? A) Chloride B) Iodine C) Calcium D) Iron
C) Calcium
Which set correctly pairs a blood vessel and its characteristics?
A) Gastric artery - well oxygenated blood; carries nutrients to the liver
B) Hepatic vein - well oxygenated blood; carries nutrients to the liver
C) Hepatic artery - poorly oxygenated blood; carries nutrients to the liver
D) Portal vein - poorly oxygenated blood; carries nutrients to the liver
D) Portal vein - poorly oxygenated blood; carries nutrients to the liver
Which manifestation is unique to Crohn’s disease? A) Skip lesions of the intestine wall B) Patient experiences diarrhea C) Ulceration of the intestinal mucosa D) Malabsorption of Nutrients
A) Skip lesions of the intestine wall
Which fat is naturally solid at room temperature? A) Polyunsaturated B) Monounsaturated C) Hydrogenated D) Saturated
D) Saturated
Which factor is the major contributor to the development of esophageal cancer? A) A diet low in saturated fat B) Persistent achalasia C) A low fibre diet D) Moderate alcohol intake
B) Persistent achalasia
Which statement best describes cholelithiasis?
A) Accumulation of cholesterol in the gallbladder
B) Inflammation of the hepatic canaliculi
C) Calcification of bile and gallstone formation
D) Stone formation and obstruction of the portal vein
C) Calcification of bile and gallstone formation
What is NOT a role of bacteria in the large intestine?
A) Protect against colonization by pathogenic bacteria
B) Assist in the production of vitamin E
C) Produce gas as a by-product of metabolism
D) Help breakdown indigestible carbohydrates
B) Assist in the production of vitamin E
Which statement about the digestive system is true?
A) One of the only systems involved in maintaining homeostasis
B) Digestion occurs throughout the entire gastrointestinal tract
C) Supports homeostasis by supplying nutrients and removing wastes
D) Chemical digestion is the only function of the system
C) Supports homeostasis by supplying nutrients and removing wastes
Which statement describes intrinsic control of digestive processes?
A) It is the activation by nerve plexuses and enteroendrocrine glands
B) It is long reflexes responding to stimuli outside the GI tract
C) It is random, reflexive local stimulation of the GI tract
D) It is the activation of reflexes by the CNS and autonomic nerves
A) It is the activation by nerve plexuses and enteroendocrine glands
What is considered the universal fuel for the kreb’s cycle? A) Pyruvic acid B) Fatty acids C) Acetyl-CoA D) Glycogen
C) Acetyl-CoA
Which pathology is associated with a lack of intrinsic factor? A) Ulcerative colitis B) Pernicious anemia C) Celiac disease D) Crohn’s disease
B) Pernicious anemia
Which statement is unique to Type 1 diabetes mellitus?
A) Development of ketoacidosis is a risk
B) Persons experience hyperglycaemia
C) The development of ‘diabesity’ is common
D) Excess glucose is excreted in the urine
A) Developement of ketoacidosis is a risk
Which one of the following is NOT a component of saliva? A) Pepsin B) Lysozyme C) IgA (antibodies) D) Amylase
A) Pepsin
Which one of the following is considered a hypoglycaemic hormone? A) Growth hormone B) Glucagon C) Insulin D) Cortisol
C) Insulin
Which organ is NOT part of the lower gastrointestinal tract? A) Stomach B) Small intestine C) Large intestine D) Cecum
A) Stomach
Which process is an example of chemical digestion? A) Propulsion B) Lipolysis C) Ingestion D) Assimilation
B) Lipolysis
Which statement describes segmentation?
A) It is movement of food along the alimentary canal
B) It is rhythmic contractions along the alimentary canal
C) It is nonadjacent intestinal sections alternately contracting
D) It is elimination of indigestible substances from the body
C) It is nonadjacent intestinal sections alternately contracting
Which type of cell in the pancreas synthesizes and secretes insulin? A) B-beta B) A-alpha C) Zymogen D) Acinar
A) B-beta
Which one of the following statements regarding alcohol is TRUE?
A) Carbonated beverages enhance absorption of alcohol
B) Alcohol does not breach the blood brain barrier
C) Alcoholism does not usually lead to liver dysfunction
D) Alcohol stimulates nervous system function
A) Carbonated beverages enhance absorption of alcohol
Which one of the following structural modifications is NOT seen in the small intestine? A) Villi B) Microvilli C) Brush border D) Haustra
D) Haustra
Which state is NOT a chronic complication of diabetes mellitus? A) Anaphylactic shock B) Nephropathies C) Peripheral neuropathies D) Ulcerated wounds
A) Anaphylactic shock
Which one of the following is NOT a phase controlling gastric secretion? A) Intestinal B) Cephalic C) Pancreatic D) Gastric
C) Pancreatic
Alterations in liver function resulting from cirrhosis are due to which one of the following factors?
A) Obstruction of bile canalculi and ducts
B) Excessive fat accumulation in the bile ducts
C) Fibrosis and replacement of normal cells with nodules
D) Abnormal storage of fatty substances in hepatocytes
C) Fibrosis and replacement of normal cells with nodules
Which disorder is least likely to be associated with malabsorption? A) Lactose intolerance B) Pernicious anemia C) Peptic ulcers D) Celiac disease
C) Peptic ulcers
Which statement about absorption of nutrients in the small intestine is FALSE?
A) Micelles are fatty elements that facilitate absorption of lipids
B) Amino acids are absorbed mostly through diffusion
C) Absorption of vitamins A, D, E and K depends on lipid absorption
D) Glucose moves into the cells of the small intestine by secondary active transport
B) Amino acids are absorbed mostly through diffusion
Post-necrotic cirrhosis is often the result of which condition? A) Obstructed biliary ducts B) Alcohol abuse C) Gall stones D) Hepatitis B
D) Hepatitis B
Which substance is NOT absorbed from the lumen by secondary active transport? A) Chloride B) Amino acids C) Potassium ions D) Glucose
C) Potassium ions
Which of the following is an accessory organ of the digestive tract? A) Mouth B) Duodenum C) Stomach D) Liver
D) Liver
What is NOT a sign/symptom of diabetic ketoacidosis? A) Fruity breath smell B) Fatigue C) Bradycardia D) Vomiting
C) Bradycardia
Vitamin D deficiency may result in which one of the following dysfunctions? A) Night blindness B) Bone destruction C) Nervous disorders D) Slow wound healing
B) Bone destruction
Which statement about gestational diabetes is FALSE?
A) The condition is associated with a total insulin dependency
B) Mild hyperglycaemia can cause harm to the fetus
C) This type of diabetes mellitus occurs during pregnancy
D) Family history of diabetes mellitus is a high risk factor
A) The condition is associated with a total insulin dependency
Which statement about liver functions is TRUE?
A) In the event of liver failure, the gall bladder can produce bile
B) Hepatocytes are responsible for producing cholecystokinin
C) Hepatocytes perform metabolic conversion of nutrients
D) Hepatocytes store and concentrate bile
C) Hepatocytes perform metabolic conversion of nutrients
Which substance is NOT a breakdown product of lipids? A) Cholesterol B) Glycerol C) Fatty acids D) Amino acids
D) Amino acids
Protrusion of a segment of the stomach, including the esophagogastric junction, above the diaphragm describes \_\_\_\_\_\_ A) Diverticulosis B) Sliding hiatal hernia C) Diverticulitis D) Rolling hiatal hernia
B) Sliding hiatal hernia
The exocrine function of the pancreas is the production and secretion of \_\_\_\_\_ A) Cholecystokinin B) Gastric juice C) Insulin and glucagon D) Pancreatic juice
D) Pancreatic juice
Which layer of the alimentary canal is responsible for segmentation and peristalsis? A) Adventitia B) Submucosa C) Mucosa D) Muscularis
D) Muscularis
Which one of the following disorders can be detected by pressing down on McBurney’s point? A) Peritonitis B) Appendicitis C) Enteritis D) Diverticultis
B) Appendicitis
Which hormone is secreted by the pancreas? A) Cortisol B) Epinephrine C) Growth hormone D) Glucagon
D) Glucagon
What is NOT a condition associated with liver dysfunction? A) Jaundice B) Cirrhosis C) Renal colic D) Hepatitis
C) Renal colic
Which one of the following terms is the synthesis of glucose in the liver? A) Glycogenesis B) Glycolysis C) Gluconeogenesis D) Glycogenolysis
C) Gluconeogenesis
Which statement about the role of hydrochloric acid is FALSE?
A) It converts pepsinogen to pepsin in the stomach
B) It facilitates the destruction of ingested bacteria
C) It is primarily responsible for digesting fats
D) It may cause harm to the mucosal lining of the stomach
C) It is primarily responsible for digesting fats
Which statement about the conversion of inactive digestive enzymes to the active form is TRUE?
A) Activation produces a digestible enzyme with lower potency
B) Presence of inactive enzymes in the stomach may cause ulcers
C) The active form is less specific than the inactive form
D) A protective mechanism designed to prevent cell degradation
D) A protective mechanism designed to prevent cell degradation
What is the digestive function of bile? A) Micelle formation B) Production of lipoproteins C) Mechanical digestion of lipids D) Digestion of proteins
A) Micelle formation
Which of the following incorrectly pairs an enzyme and its action site? A) Maltese - small intestine B) Nuclease - small intestine C) Pepsin - stomach D) Lipase - pancreas
D) Lipase - pancreas
What is NOT an effect of alcohol on the nervous system? A) Decreased reaction time B) Decreased inhibitions C) Decreased balance D) Decreased motor performance
A) Decreased reaction time
Which factor will likely increase stomach motility? A) Sympathetic stimulation B) Stomach distension C) Depression D) Duodenal distension
B) Stomach distension
Which of the following is a component of the upper respiratory tract? A) Bronchi B) Trachea C) Bronchioles D) Alveoli
B) Trachea
Which term is the differential pressure on the two sides of the respiratory membrane? A) Inverse correlation B) Pressure gradient C) Intra-pleural pressure D) Ventilation-perfusion
B) Pressure gradient
Which structure produces and secretes surfactant that reduces the surface tension of alveolar fluid? A) Basal lamina B) Type I cells C) Alveoli D) Type II cells
D) Type II cells
Which term describes the affinity of CO2 to hemoglobin as a function of P-O2? A) Haldane effect B) Hypoxemia C) CO poisoning D) Perfusion
A) Haldane effect
Which condition will increase gas exchange in the lungs?
A) Chronic bronchitis
B) Thickened respiratory membrane
C) Low pressure differential of gases across the respiratory membrane
D) High pressure differential of gases across the respiratory membrane
D) High pressure differential of gases across the respiratory membrane
Which one of the following terms describes maintaining proportional air and blood flow in the alveoli? A) Ventilation B) Perfusion C) Coupling D) Pressure gradient
C) Coupling
Which area of the brain is NOT directly associated with controlling respiration? A) Pons B) Medulla Oblongata C) Midbrain D) Motor cortex
C) Midbrain
Which term refers to the ease with which the lungs expand? A) Lung compliance B) Histoplasticity C) Thoracic mobility D) Surface tension
A) Lung compliance
What is NOT a cardinal sign of respiratory disorders? A) Dyspnea B) Hypocapnia C) Rales D) Coughing
B) Hypocapnia
Which statement about dyspnea is FALSE?
A) It is also known as ‘Shortness of breath’
B) A major cause of dyspnea is Bronchodilation
C) Dyspnea occurs with many respiratory conditions
D) Dyspnea is a response to low oxygen levels in the blood
B) A major cause of dyspnea is bronchodilation
What is NOT an effect of air pollution?
A) Decreased movement of the cilia of the epithelial cells
B) Irritation of the lungs, causing inflammation
C) Potential Damage to an unborn fetus
D) Increase in gas exchange
D) Increase in gas exchange
Which statement about non-productive coughs is TRUE?
A) Involves removal of blood-stained sputum from air passageways
B) Non-productive coughs are phlegm-laden
C) Chronic non-productive coughs may indicate a bronchial tumour
D) They are due to mucus accumulation in air passageways
C) Chronic non-productive coughs may indicate a bronchial tumour
Which lung disease is least likely to be infectious? A) Acute Bronchitis B) Viral pneumonia C) Tuberculosis D) Chronic bronchitis
D) Chronic bronchitis
What is NOT a chronic pulmonary condition? A) Chronic bronchitis B) Cystic fibrosis C) Emphysema D) Pleuritis
D) Pleuritis
Which one of the following is NOT a sign of asthma? A) Wheezing B) Rales C) Coughing D) Chest tightness
B) Rales
In general, chronic lung diseases are a group of disorders that manifest with which state?
A) Pulmonary edema and lung collapse
B) Infection, abscesses and granuloma formation
C) Inflammation and fibrotic changes in lung tissue
D) Recurrent obstruction of air flow in pulmonary airways
D) Recurrent obstruction of air flow in pulmonary airways
What is NOT a sign of emphysema? A) Dyspnea B) Cyanosis C) Hyperventilation D) Weight loss
B) Cyanosis
Which statement about pulmonary embolisms is FALSE?
A) It is usually due to thrombi dislodged from deep veins in the legs
B) Obstruction leads to pulmonary blood flow obstruction
C) Smokers are not susceptible to this type of obstruction
D) It may cause tachypnea, dyspnea and chest pain
C) Smokers are not susceptible to this type of obstruction
Which one of the following statements regarding primary pneumothorax is TRUE?
A) A condition associated with smoking and small airway disorders
B) A complication of emphysema and pulmonary tumours
C) Most often due to rib fractures and dislocations
D) Commonly associated with pulmonary tuberculosis
A) A condition associated with smoking and small airway disorders
Which statement about lung cancer is FALSE?
A) Most lung cancer cases are attributed to cigarette smoking
B) It is a leading cause of death in industrialized countries
C) It affects more males than females
D) Eating fruits and vegetables speeds the metastasis of lung cancer
D) Eating fruits and vegetables speeds the metastasis of lung cancer
What is disorder of lung inflation? A) Tuberculosis B) Pleuritis C) Silicosis D) Atelectasis
D) Atelectasis
Which waste product is removed primarily by the urinary system? A) Lactic acid B) Stercobilin C) Carbon dioxide D) Nitrogenous
D) Nitrogenous
The kidneys are located just lateral to the spinal column at which spinal segement? A) T12-L3 B) T1-T6 C) L3-S2 D) Sacrum
A) T12-L3
Which structural renal elements are structures extending from Bowman’s capsule and carrying filtrate to the collecting ducts? A) Interstitium B) Tubules C) Renal hilus D) Medullary pyramids
B) Tubules
Which function of the kidney affects homeostasis directly? A) Initiating Gluconeogenesis B) Regulation of water volume C) Stimulation of RBC production D) Activation of vitamin D
B) Regulation of water volume
Which one of the following volumes represents the approximate amount of blood flowing through the kidney in a minute? A) 1-1.5L B) 2-2.5L C) 4-4.5L D) 6-6.5L
C) 4-4.5L
Which process does NOT occur in the collecting ducts of the nephron? A) Reabsorption of water B) Transport of ions C) Secretion of excess ions D) Reabsorption of glucose
D) Reabsorption of glucose
Which statement about glomeruler filtration is FALSE?
A) A passive process driven by relatively high hydrostatic pressure
B) A process facilitated by high glomeruler blood pressure
C) Changes in the glomeruler membrane have little effect on filtration
D) Blood osmotic pressure slows the rate of filtration
C) Changes in the glomeruler membrane have little effect on filtration
Which statement about the regulation of blood pressure is TRUE?
A) Renal autoregulation maintains GFR in spite of changing systemic BP
B) Parasympathetic stimulation regulates blood pressure during emergencies
C) A decrease in systemic BP leads to vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles
D) The renal artery responds to changes in systemic blood pressure
A) Renal autoregulation maintains GFR in spite of changing systemic BP
Which one of the following substances is NOT normally found in urine? A) Sodium ions B) Chloride ions C) Urea D) Albumin
D) Albumin
Which mechanism does NOT have a role in regulating renal blood flow?
A) Intrinsic renal autoregulation
B) Renin-angiotensin mechanism
C) Sympathetic nervous system controls
D) Parasympathetic nervous system controls
D) Parasympathetic nervous system controls
Which statement about glomeruler filtration is TRUE?
A) For filtration to occur, the capsular hydrostatic pressure has to be higher then the glomeruler HP
B) Relatively High membrane permeability and relatively high glomeruler blood pressure drive filtration
C) The lower the net filtration pressure, the more fluid passes through the glomeruler membrane
D) Blood osmotic pressure ‘pushes’ water from the glomerulus into Bowman’s capsule
B) Relatively High Membrane permeability and relatively high glomeruler blood pressure drive filtration
Which statement about the net filtration pressure is FALSE?
A) It is the difference between pressures moving fluid out of and into the glomerulus
B) It needs to be a negative value for the kidneys to work properly
C) NFP= Glomeruler HP - (glomeruler OP + capsular HP)
D) The higher the value of NFP, the higher the filtration rate
B) It needs to be a negative value for the kidneys to work properly
Which state is NOT a cause of severe dehydration A) Extensive blood loss B) Water intoxication C) Abuse of diuretics D) Prolonged diarrhea
B) Water intoxication
Systemic manifestations of uremia include which of the following? A) Loss of appetite, weakness, gastritis B) Weakness, anemia, hypertension C) Weakness, fatigue, anemia D) Weight loss, hypertension, depression
C) Weakness, fatigue, anemia
Infection of the urinary tract due to E. coli is known as which one of the following? A) Pyelonephritis B) Glomerulonephritis C) Arteriosclerosis D) Renal calculi
A) Pyelonephritis
In which set is a disorder incorrectly matched with its etiology?
A) Glomerulonephritis - injury to the glomeruler filter
B) Hypertension - vascular disease
C) Pyelonephritis - damage to the interstitium
D) Arteriosclerosis - urinary bladder dysfunction
D) Arteriosclerosis - urinary bladder dysfunction
Renal failure is least likely to affect which one of the following homeostatic functions? A) Maintenance of plasma volume B) Plasma electrolyte concentrations C) Control of systemic blood pressure D) Excretion of carbon dioxide
D) Excretion of carbon dioxide
Which statement about kidney pathologies is TRUE?
A) Nephroblastoma is a benign renal tumour seen most often in young children
B) Diabetic nephropathy involves a thinning out of the glomeruler membrane
C) The origin of many cases of glomerulernephritis is bacterial infection
D) Urinary tract and kidney infections predispose to gall bladder stones
C) The origin of many cases of glomerulernephritis is bacterial infection
Which one of the following is NOT a systemic manifestation of uremia? A) Weakness B) Fatigue C) Anemia D) Oliguria
D) Oliguria
Which clinical manifestation is characteristic of the nephritic syndrome? A) Hyperlipidemia B) Hypertension C) Anascara D) Arteriosclerosis
B) Hypertension
Which clinical manifestation if NOT characteristic of Nephrotic syndrome? A) Hyperlipidemia B) Hypertension C) Anasarca D) Proteinuria
B) Hypertension
Which cause of hypertension is NOT associated with renal dysfunction? A) Endocrine Dysfunction B) Nephrosclerosis C) Arteriosclerosis D) Idiopathic
D) Idiopathic
What is a neoplasm affecting the kidney? A) Adenocarcinoma B) Nephroblastoma C) Small cell carcinoma D) Malignant melanoma
B) Nephroblastoma
The incidence of which condition is NOT typically decreased by regular exercise? A) Colon cancer B) Diverticulosis C) Heartburn D) Inflammatory bowel disease
C) Heartburn
What does NOT characterize fast glycolytic muscle fibres? A) Poor blood supply B) Large Glycogen reserve C) Few mitochondria D) High endurance
D) High endurance
Which one of the statements regarding calcium metabolism is FALSE?
A) Changes in calcium plasma levels impact on bone mass throughout life
B) The human body contains approximately 1.5 kg of the elemental calcium
C) Much of the ionic calcium in the body is found in the cytoplasm
D) Parathyroid hormone is a regulator of serum calcium levels
D) Parathyroid hormone is a regulator of serum calcium levels
Which one of the following systems is least likely to reflect a nonspecific response to stress? A) Musculoskeletal B) Autonomic NS C) Lymphatic D) Endocrine
C) Lymphatic
Which one of the following diseases will respond well to hormone replacement therapy? A) Hashimotos B) Acromegaly C) Addisons D) Graves
C) Addisons
Which one of the following manifestations is NOT usually seen with large goiters? A) Choking sensation B) Distention of veins C) Inspiratory strider D) Excessive swelling
D) Excessive swelling
Which one of the following manifestations indicates low extracellular Ca2+? A) Hyperpolarized neuron membranes B) Flaccidity of skeletal muscles C) Spasticity of skeletal muscles D) Increased bone deposition
C) Spasticity of skeletal muscles
Hypersecretion of aldosterone resulting in generalized muscle weakness and hypertension is typical of which one of the following disorders? A) Conn’s syndrome B) Addison’s disease C) Hashimotos disease D) Cushing’s syndrome
A) Conns syndrome
Which one of the following statements regarding stress and adaptation is TRUE?
A) The nonspecific stress response alerts a person to the presence of a stressor
B) Conditioning of the person exposed to stress plays a role in their response
C) The only factor that determines the stress response is the type of stressor
D) The specific stress response enables the body to maintain homeostasis
B) Conditioning of the person exposed to stress plays a role in their response
Which one of the following is an unlikely response to excess stress? A) Increased photosensitivity B) Exacerbation of psoriasis C) Gingivitis or gum disease D) Eruption of herpes simplex
A) Increased photosensitivity
Which one of the following factors does NOT affect secretion go hormones? A) Changes in 2nd messenger systems B) Stress and environmental changes C) Levels of circulating hormones D) Histological changes in glands
A) Changes in 2nd messenger systems
Circulation levels of calcium ions \_\_\_\_\_ as phosphate ion levels \_\_\_\_\_\_ A) Increase - Increase B) Decrease - Increase C) Decrease - Decrease D) Do not change - Increase
B) Decrease - Increase
Which one for the following is characteristic of endocrine function?
A) Respond quickly to changes in the environment
B) Affects body systems through hormone action
C) Forms a wide spread structural network
D) Stimulation is local and short lived
B) Affects body systems through hormone action
Which one of the following hormones is NOT secreted by the pituitary gland? A) Anti-diuretic hormone B) Adrenocorticotropic C) Growth hormone D) Glucocorticoids
D) Glucocorticoids
By definition, tropic hormones
A) Activate other endocrine glands
B) Are secreted by the posterior pituitary gland
C) Are secreted by secondary endocrine organs
D) Stimulate physiological functions of target organs
A) Activate other endocrine glands
Which one of the following statements regarding hormones is TRUE?
A) All hormones are classified chemically as steroids
B) Hormones are secreted directly into the blood stream
C) All hormones are tropic and stimulate endocrine glands
D) Deficits in specific hormones do not result in dysfunction
B) Hormones are secreted directly into the blood stream
A person has depressed thyroid stimulation hormone levels. Which one of the following signs/symptoms are they likely to experience A) Increased metabolic rate B) Increased swelling C) Heat intolerance D) Cold intolerance
D) Cold intolerance
In negative feedback systems \_\_\_\_\_ hormone levels result in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ hormone synthesis and release A) Increased/Decreased B) Increased/Increased C) Decreased/Decreased D) Decreased/Unchanged
A) Increased/Decreased
Which one of the following statements regarding the hypothalmus is FALSE?
A) There is no structural link between the hypothalamus and pituitary gland
B) The neural function of the gland is integration of autonomic functions
C) The endocrine function is the regulation of pituitary secretion
D) The hypothalamus is an integral part of the diencephalon
A) There is no structural link between the hypothalamus and pituitary gland
Which of the following is a possible cause of endocrine hyperfunction? A) Congenital glandular defects B) Defective receptors C) Impaired cellular response D) Glandular hyperplasia
D) Glandular hyperplasia
Which one of the following is not a sign of diabetes insipidus? A) Inability to concentrate urine B) Hypotonic hydration C) Polydipsia D) Polyuria
B) Hypotonic hydration
Growth hormone does not affect which one of the following metabolic changes? A) Enchanced beta oxidation B) Mobilization of fatty acids C) Increased protein synthesis D) Decreased blood glucose levels
D) Decreased blood glucose levels
Which one of the following statements regarding Cushing’s disease is FALSE?
A) Affects mostly young women between the ages of 20-40
B) Hypercortisolism is a typical manifestation of the disease
C) Accounts for the majority (80%) of clinical case of Hypercortisolism
D) Characterized by adrenal atrophy and decreased glucocortisol secretion
D) Characterized by adrenal atrophy and decreased glucocortisol secretion
Which one of the following is a typical symptom of both Hashimotos and Graves’ disease? A) Fatigue B) Loss of appetite C) Heat intolerance D) High energy levels
A) Fatigue
Which one of the following signs/symptoms is due to hypoaldosteronism? A) High blood levels of Na B) Low blood levels of K C) Excessive sweating D) Dehydration
D) Dehydration
General properties of Hormones
- Small molecules
- Influence specific target cells
- Produced and secreted by epithelial cells
Attributes of Hormones
- Secreted into blood
- Activate cells at a removed site
- Regulate body functions
- Highly specific
- Very small concentrations
Tropic vs. Somatic Hormones
- Tropic: Hormones trigger release of somatic hormones from other endocrine glands
- Somatic: Hormones act on specific target organs
Hormones - 2nd messenger systems
- Activation of enzymes
3 factors affect hormone binding
- Blood levels of hormone
- Number of receptors on/in cell
- Affinity of receptor for hormone
Down-regulation
Hormones
- Decrease number of receptors on cell surface
- Reduces sensitivity to hormone
Up-regulation
Hormones
- Increase production of receptors
- Target cell becomes more sensitive
Gigantism vs. Acromegaly
Gigantism: Increased secretion of GH before puberty- increases bone elongation
Acromegaly: Increased GH secretion in adulthood
Hypothyroidism disease
- Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
Hyperthyroidism disease
Graves’ disease
1st order neurons
conduct impulses from receptors of the skin and from proprioceptors (receptors located in a join, muscle or tendon) to the spinal cord or brain stem, where they synapse with second-order neurons. First-order neuron’s cell bodes reside in ganglion (dorsal root or cranial).
2nd order neurons
2nd neuron to carry an order. The order could be a sensory stimulus or a motor stimulus. axon of the 1st order neuron will synapse with the 2nd order neuron at the level of the brain stem, which commonly decussate (crosses over) to the opposite side.
2nd messenger
Second messengers are intracellular signaling molecules released by the cell in response to exposure to extracellular signaling molecules—the first messengers. Second messengers trigger physiological changes such as proliferation, differentiation, migration, survival, and apoptosis
3rd order neurons
carry signals from the thalamus to the primary sensory cortex.
Acetylcholine
is the neurotransmitter used at the neuromuscular junction—in other words, it is the chemical that motor neurons of the nervous system release in order to activate muscles. This property means that drugs that affect cholinergic systems can have very dangerous effects ranging from paralysis to convulsions.
Action potential
the change in electrical potential associated with the passage of an impulse along the membrane of a muscle cell or nerve cell
Allodynia
Allodynia is a clinical feature of many painful conditions, such as neuropathies, complex regional pain syndrome, postherpetic neuralgia, fibromyalgia, and migraine. Allodynia may also be caused by some populations of stem cells used to treat nerve damage including spinal cord injury.
Alpha (a) motor neuron
Alpha motor neuron. … Alpha (α) motor neurons (also called alpha motoneurons), are large, multipolar lower motor neurons of the brainstem and spinal cord. They innervate extrafusal muscle fibers of skeletal muscle and are directly responsible for initiating their contraction.
Amitotic
relating to or denoting the division of a cell nucleus into two parts by constriction without the involvement of a mitotic apparatus.
Amygdala
The amygdala (Latin, corpus amygdaloideum) is an almond-shape set of neurons located deep in the brain’s medial temporal lobe. Shown to play a key role in the processsing of emotions, the amygdala forms part of the limbic system.
Anterior spinothalamic tract
The anterior spinothalamic tract, also known as the ventral spinothalamic fasciculus, is an ascending pathway located anteriorly within the spinal cord, primarily responsible for transmitting coarse touch and pressure.
Arteriosclerosis
the thickening and hardening of the walls of the arteries, occurring typically in old age.
Association neuron
These association neurons are found throughout the central nervous system. They are much more numerous than motor neurons; the ratio between the two types of cells is 30:1. The main function of the association neurons in the spinal cord is that of inhibitory control. They also interconnect other cells with one another.
Autoregulation
Autoregulation is a manifestation of local blood flow regulation. It is defined as the intrinsic ability of an organ to maintain a constant blood flow despite changes in perfusion pressure.
Axon Hillock
The axon hillock is a specialized part of the cell body (or soma) of a neuron that connects to the axon. It can be identified using light microscopy from its appearance and location in a neuron and from its sparse distribution of Nissl substance.
Basal Nuclei
The basal ganglia (or basal nuclei) are a group of subcortical nuclei, of varied origin, in the brains of vertebrates, including humans, which are situated at the base of the forebrain and top of the midbrain. There are some differences in the basal ganglia of primates.
Blood brain barrier
a filtering mechanism of the capillaries that carry blood to the brain and spinal cord tissue, blocking the passage of certain substances.
Cerebellum
The cerebellum receives information from the sensory systems, the spinal cord, and other parts of the brain and then regulates motor movements. The cerebellum coordinates voluntary movements such as posture, balance, coordination, and speech, resulting in smooth and balanced muscular activity
Choroid plexus
The choroid plexus is a plexus of cells that produces the cerebrospinal fluid in the ventricles of the brain. The choroid plexus consists of modified ependymal cells.
Decussation
the action of crossing (as of nerve fibers) especially in the form of an X. 2 : a crossed tract of nerve fibers passing between centers on opposite sides of the nervous system.
Ectoderm
Ectoderm is one of the three primary germ layers in the very early embryo. The other two layers are the mesoderm (middle layer) and endoderm (most proximal layer), with the ectoderm as the most exterior (or distal) layer. It emerges and originates from the outer layer of germ cells.
Ependymal
Ependymal cells. The ependyma is made up of ependymal cells called ependymocytes, a type of glial cell. These cells line the CSF-filled ventricles in the brain and the central canal of the spinal cord. These are nervous tissue cells with a ciliated simple columnar shape much like that of some mucosal epithelial cells.
Exocytosis
Exocytosis is a form of active transport and bulk transport in which a cell transports molecules out of the cell by secreting them through an energy-dependent process
Extra-pyramidal tract
the extrapyramidal system is a part of the motor system network causing involuntary actions. The system is called extrapyramidal to distinguish it from the tracts of the motor cortex that reach their targets by traveling through the pyramids of the medulla.
Gamma (y) motor neurons
Gamma motor neurons are the efferent (sending signals away from the central nervous system) part of the fusimotor system, whereas muscle spindles are the afferent part, as they send signals relaying information from muscles toward the spinal cord and brain.
Graded potential
Graded potentials are changes in membrane potential that vary in size, as opposed to being all-or-none.
Glial cells
The glial cells surround neurons and provide support for and insulation between them. Glial cells are the most abundant cell types in the central nervous system. Types of glial cells include oligodendrocytes, astrocytes, ependymal cells, Schwann cells, microglia, and satellite cells.
Hinting response
The hunting reaction or hunting response is a process of alternating vasoconstriction and vasodilation in extremities exposed to cold
Hyperpolarization
Hyperpolarization is a change in a cell’s membrane potential that makes it more negative. It is the opposite of a depolarization. It inhibits action potentials by increasing the stimulus required to move the membrane potential to the action potential threshold.
Hypertension
also known as high blood pressure (HBP), is a long-term medical condition in which the blood pressure in the arteries is persistently elevated. High blood pressure typically does not cause symptoms.
Hypothalamus
The hypothalamus is a small region of the brain. It’s located at the base of the brain, near the pituitary gland. While it’s very small, the hypothalamus plays a crucial role in many important functions, including: releasing hormones. regulating body temperature
Interferons
Interferons (IFNs) are a group of signaling proteins made and released by host cells in response to the presence of several viruses. In a typical scenario, a virus-infected cell will release interferons causing nearby cells to heighten their anti-viral defenses.
Interneuron
a neuron which transmits impulses between other neurons, especially as part of a reflex arc.
Intrafusal muscle fibre
Intrafusal muscle fibers are skeletal muscle fibers that serve as specialized sensory organs (proprioceptors) that detect the amount and rate of change in length of a muscle. They constitute the muscle spindle and are innervated by two axons, one sensory and one motor.
Ischemic Hypoxia
Ischemic hypoxia ( or “stagnant hypoxia”) – Reduced brain oxygen is caused by inadequate blood flow to the brain.
K+ channels
Potassium channels are the most widely distributed type of ion channel and are found in virtually all living organisms. They form potassium-selective pores that span cell membranes. Potassium channels are found in most cell types and control a wide variety of cell functions
Lemniscal system
The dorsal column–medial lemniscus pathway (DCML) (also known as the posterior column-medial lemniscus pathway (PCML)) is a sensory pathway of the central nervous system that conveys sensations of fine touch, vibration, two-point discrimination, and proprioception (position) from the skin and joints.
Limbic system
The structures and interacting areas of the limbic system are involved in motivation, emotion, learning, and memory. The limbic system is where the subcortical structures meet the cerebral cortex. The limbic system operates by influencing the endocrine system and the autonomic nervous system.
Lipolysis
metabolic pathway through which lipid triglycerides are hydrolyzed into a glycerol and three fatty acids. It is used to mobilize stored energy during fasting or exercise, and usually occurs in fat adipocytes.
Mononeuropathy
Mononeuropathy is a type of damage to a nerve outside the brain and spinal cord (peripheral neuropathy). Mononeuropathy is most often caused by injury. Diseases affecting the entire body (systemic disorders) can also cause isolated nerve damage.
Na+ channel
Sodium channels are integral membrane proteins that form ion channels, conducting sodium ions through a cell’s plasma membrane
Neospinalthalamic tract
The spinothalamic tract (also known as anterolateral system or the ventrolateral system) is a sensory pathway from the skin to the thalamus. From the ventral posterolateral nucleus in the thalamus, sensory information is relayed upward to the somatosensory cortex of the postcentral gyrus.
Nerve root
A nerve root (Latin: radix nervi) is the initial segment of a nerve leaving the central nervous system. Types include: A cranial nerve root is the initial or proximal segment of one of the twelve pairs of cranial nerves leaving the central nervous system from the brain stem or the highest levels of the spinal cord.
Neuromodulation
Neuromodulation is “the alteration of nerve activity through targeted delivery of a stimulus, such as electrical stimulation or chemical agents, to specific neurological sites in the body”. It is carried out to normalize – or modulate – nervous tissue function
Neuroma
A neuroma is a painful condition, also referred to as a “pinched nerve” or a nerve tumor. It is a benign growth of nerve tissue frequently found between the third and fourth toes. It brings on pain, a burning sensation, tingling, or numbness between the toes and in the ball of the foot.
Neuromuscular Junction
A neuromuscular junction (or myoneural junction) is a chemical synapse formed by the contact between a motor neuron and a muscle fiber. It is at the neuromuscular junction that a motor neuron is able to transmit a signal to the muscle fiber, causing muscle contraction.
Neuron
A neuron (also called neurone or nerve cell) is a cell that carries electrical impulses. Neurons are the basic units of the nervous system. Every neuron is made of a cell body (also called soma), dendrites and an axon. Dendrites and axons are nerve fibers.
Neuronal cell body
The Cell Body. The cell body, also called the soma, is the spherical part of the neuron that contains the nucleus. The cell body connects to the dendrites, which bring information to the neuron, and the axon, which sends information to other neurons.
Neuronal Pool
Such a circuit allows one motor neuron of the brain, for example, to ultimately stimulate thousands of muscle fibers. A converging circuit is the opposite of a diverging circuit—input from many different nerve fibers is funneled to one neuron or neuronal pool
Neurotransmission
the transmission of nerve impulses between neurons or between a neuron and a muscle fiber or other structure.
Nociception
Nociception is the sensory nervous system’s response to certain harmful or potentially harmful stimuli. In nociception, intense chemical, mechanical, or thermal stimulation of sensory nerve cells called nociceptors produces a signal that travels along a chain of nerve fibers via the spinal cord to the brain
Nuclei
Nucleus (pl: nuclei) is a Latin word for the seed inside a fruit. It most often refers to: Atomic nucleus, the very dense central region of an atom. Cell nucleus, a central organelle of a eukaryotic cell, containing most of the cell’s DNA
Oligodendrocytes
a glial cell similar to an astrocyte but with fewer protuberances, concerned with the production of myelin in the central nervous system.
Osteopenia
Osteopenia is a condition in which bone mineral density is lower than normal. It is considered by many doctors to be a precursor to osteoporosis. However, not every person diagnosed with osteopenia will develop osteoporosis.
Osteophytes
An osteophyte is a smooth bony growth or deposit, also referred to as a bone spur. They grow slowly over time and often have no symptoms. They can cause pain if they impinge on other structures or grow so large as to restrict movement in a joint.
Pacinian corpuscles
Lamellar corpuscles (or Pacinian corpuscles; discovered by Italian anatomist Filippo Pacini) are one of the four major types of mechanoreceptor cell in glabrous (hairless) mammalian skin. They are nerve endings in the skin responsible for sensitivity to vibration and pressure.
Paresthesia
Paresthesia (or paraesthesia) is an abnormal dermal sensation (e.g., a tingling, pricking, chilling, burning, or numb sensation on the skin) with no apparent physical cause. The manifestation of a paresthesia may be transient or chronic, and may have any of dozens of possible underlying causes.
Parasympathetic
relating to the part of the automatic nervous system that counterbalances the action of the sympathetic nerves. It consists of nerves arising from the brain and the lower end of the spinal cord and supplying the internal organs, blood vessels, and glands.
Parietal Lobe
The parietal lobe is at the back of the brain and is divided into two hemispheres. It functions in processing sensory information regarding the location of parts of the body as well as interpreting visual information and processing language and mathematics
Perception
the ability to see, hear, or become aware of something through the senses.
Perfusion
Perfusion is the passage of fluid through the circulatory system or lymphatic system to an organ or a tissue, usually referring to the delivery of blood to a capillary bed in tissue. Perfusion is measured as the rate at which blood is delivered to tissue, or volume of blood per unit time per unit tissue mass
Permeability
the state or quality of a material or membrane that causes it to allow liquids or gases to pass through it.
Plasma membrane
The primary function of the plasma membrane is to protect the cell from its surroundings. Composed of a phospholipid bilayer with embedded proteins, the plasma membrane is selectively permeable to ions and organic molecules and regulates the movement of substances in and out of cells.
Polyneuritis
any disorder that affects the peripheral nerves collectively.
Postsynaptic potential
They are caused by the presynaptic neuron releasing neurotransmitters from the terminal bouton at the end of an axon into the synaptic cleft. The neurotransmitters bind to receptors on the postsynaptic terminal, which may be a neuron or a muscle cell in the case of a neuromuscular junction.
Prefrontal cortex
The prefrontal cortex (PFC) is the cerebral cortex covering the front part of the frontal lobe. This brain region has been implicated in planning complex cognitive behavior, personality expression, decision making, and moderating social behaviour.
Premotor cortex
The premotor cortex is an area of motor cortex lying within the frontal lobe of the brain just anterior to the primary motor cortex. It occupies part of Brodmann’s area 6. It has been studied mainly in primates, including monkeys and humans. The functions of the premotor cortex are diverse and not fully understood.
Primary somatosensory cortex
The somatosensory cortex receives all sensory input from the body. Cells that are part of the brain or nerves that extend into the body are called neurons. Neurons that sense feelings in our skin, pain, visual, or auditory stimuli, all send their information to the somatosensory cortex for processing
Pyramidal cells
Pyramidal cells, or pyramidal neurons, are a type of multipolar neuron found in areas of the brain including the cerebral cortex, the hippocampus, and the amygdala. Pyramidal neurons are the primary excitation units of the mammalian prefrontal cortex and the corticospinal tract.
Pyramidal tracts
The term pyramidal tracts refers to upper motor neurons that originate in the cerebral cortex and terminate in the spinal cord (corticospinal) or brainstem (corticobulbar).
Resting membrane potential
The resting membrane potential (RMP) is due to changes in membrane permeability for potassium, sodium, calcium, and chloride, which results from the movement of these ions across it. Once the membrane is polarized, it acquires a voltage, which is the difference of potentials between intra and extracellular spaces.
Ruffini corpuscles
The Bulbous corpuscle or Ruffini ending or Ruffini corpuscle is a slowly adapting mechanoreceptor located in the cutaneous tissue between the dermal papillae and the hypodermis.
Saltatory conduction
Saltatory conduction (from the Latin saltare, to hop or leap) is the propagation of action potentials along myelinated axons from one node of Ranvier to the next node, increasing the conduction velocity of action potentials.
Sarcoplasmic reticulum
The sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) is a membrane-bound structure found within muscle cells that is similar to the endoplasmic reticulum in other cells. The main function of the SR is to store calcium ions (Ca2+).
Satellite cell
Satellite cells are precursors to skeletal muscle cells, able to give rise to satellite cells or differentiated skeletal muscle cells. They have the potential to provide additional myonuclei to their parent muscle fiber, or return to a quiescent state.
Schwann cell
Schwann cell, also called neurilemma cell, any of the cells in the peripheral nervous system that produce the myelin sheath around neuronal axons.
Sensorimotor
of nerves or their actions) having or involving both sensory and motor functions or pathways.
Serotonin
Serotonin or 5-hydroxytryptamine is a monoamine neurotransmitter. It has a popular image as a contributor to feelings of well-being and happiness, though its actual biological function is complex and multifaceted, modulating cognition, reward, learning, memory, and numerous physiological processes
Somatosensory association area
Association cortex is the cerebral cortex outside the primary areas. It is essential for mental functions that are more complex than detecting basic dimensions of sensory stimulation, for which primary sensory areas appear to be necessary.
Subarachnoid space
The subarachnoid space is the interval between the arachnoid membrane and the pia mater. It is occupied by delicate connective tissue trabeculae and intercommunicating channels containing cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). The cavity is small in the normal brain
Substance P
Substance P is an undecapeptide member of the tachykinin neuropeptide family. It is a neuropeptide, acting as a neurotransmitter and as a neuromodulator. Substance P and its closely related neurokinin A are produced from a polyprotein precursor after differential splicing of the preprotachykinin A gene
Synapse
In the nervous system, a synapse is a structure that permits a neuron (or nerve cell) to pass an electrical or chemical signal to another neuron or to the target effector cell.
Synaptic cleft
At a chemical synapse, one neuron releases neurotransmitter molecules into a small space (the synaptic cleft) that is adjacent to another neuron. The neurotransmitters are contained within small sacs called synaptic vesicles, and are released into the synaptic cleft by exocytosis.
Synaptic delay
Synaptic delay is defined as the time interval between peak of inward current through the presynaptic membrane and commencement of inward current through the postsynaptic membrane.
Temporal lobe
The temporal lobe is involved in primary auditory perception, such as hearing, and holds the primary auditory cortex.
Thalamus
The thalamus is a small structure within the brain located just above the brain stem between the cerebral cortex and the midbrain and has extensive nerve connections to both. The main function of the thalamus is to relay motor and sensory signals to the cerebral cortex.
Transduction
the action or process of converting something and especially energy or a message into another form. 2 : the transfer of genetic material from one organism (as a bacterium) to another by a genetic vector and especially a bacteriophage
Vasomotor
denoting a region in the medulla of the brain (the vasomotor center ) that regulates blood pressure by controlling reflex alterations in the heart rate and the diameter of the blood vessels, in response to stimuli from receptors in the circulatory system or from other parts of the brain.
Wernicke’s area
Wernicke’s area is the region of the brain that is important for language development. It is located in the temporal lobe on the left side of the brain and is responsible for the comprehension of speech, while Broca’s area is related to the production of speech.
Amino acids
Amino acids are organic compounds containing amine and carboxyl functional groups, along with a side chain specific to each amino acid. The key elements of an amino acid are carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen, although other elements are found in the side chains of certain amino acids
Amylase
Amylase is an enzyme that catalyses the hydrolysis of starch into sugars. Amylase is present in the saliva of humans and some other mammals, where it begins the chemical process of digestion
Anemia
Anemia is a condition that develops when your blood lacks enough healthy red blood cells or hemoglobin. Hemoglobin is a main part of red blood cells and binds oxygen. If you have too few or abnormal red blood cells, or your hemoglobin is abnormal or low, the cells in your body will not get enough oxygen
Beta cells
The primary function of a beta cell is to produce and release insulin and amylin. Both are hormones which reduce blood glucose levels by different mechanisms. Beta cells can respond quickly to spikes in blood glucose concentrations by secreting some of their stored insulin and amylin while simultaneously producing more
Cellular respiration
Cellular respiration is a set of metabolic reactions and processes that take place in the cells of organisms to convert biochemical energy from nutrients into adenosine triphosphate (ATP), and then release waste products.
Cholecystokinin
a hormone which is secreted by cells in the duodenum and stimulates the release of bile into the intestine and the secretion of enzymes by the pancreas.
Cholelithiasis
the formation of gallstones.
Cholesterol
Cholesterol is an organic molecule. It is a sterol, a type of lipid. Cholesterol is biosynthesized by all animal cells and is an essential structural component of animal cell membranes.
Diabetes Mellitus
Diabetes mellitus (DM), commonly known as diabetes, is a group of metabolic disorders characterized by high blood sugar levels over a prolonged period. Symptoms of high blood sugar include frequent urination, increased thirst, and increased hunger. If left untreated, diabetes can cause many complications.
Endocrine gland
Endocrine glands are glands of the endocrine system that secrete their products, hormones, directly into the blood rather than through a duct. The major glands of the endocrine system include the pineal gland, pituitary gland, pancreas, ovaries, testes, thyroid gland, parathyroid gland, hypothalamus and adrenal glands. The hypothalamus and pituitary gland are neuroendocrine organs.
Epinepherine
Epinephrine, also called adrenaline, hormone that is secreted mainly by the medulla of the adrenal glands and that functions primarily to increase cardiac output and to raise glucose levels in the blood.
Exocrine gland
Exocrine glands are glands that produce and secrete substances onto an epithelial surface by way of a duct. Examples of exocrine glands include sweat, salivary, mammary, ceruminous, lacrimal, sebaceous, and mucous.
Ferritin
a protein produced in mammalian metabolism which serves to store iron in the tissues.
Gallbladder
The gallbladder is a small pouch that sits just under the liver. The gallbladder stores bile produced by the liver. After meals, the gallbladder is empty and flat, like a deflated balloon. Before a meal, the gallbladder may be full of bile and about the size of a small pear.
Fibrinogen
Fibrinogen (factor I) is a glycoprotein that circulates in the blood of vertebrates. During tissue and vascular injury it is converted enzymatically by thrombin to fibrin and subsequently to a fibrin-based blood clot. Fibrinogen functions primarily to occlude blood vessels and thereby stop excessive bleeding.
Gluconeogenesis
Gluconeogenesis is a metabolic pathway that results in the generation of glucose from certain non-carbohydrate carbon substrates.
Glycogen
Glycogen is a multibranched polysaccharide of glucose that serves as a form of energy storage in animals, fungi, and bacteria. The polysaccharide structure represents the main storage form of glucose in the body.
Goblet cells
a column-shaped cell found in the respiratory and intestinal tracts, which secretes the main component of mucus.
Growth hormone
Growth hormone (GH) or somatotropin, also known as human growth hormone (hGH or HGH) in its human form, is a peptide hormone that stimulates growth, cell reproduction, and cell regeneration in humans and other animals. It is thus important in human development.
Instrinsic factor
a substance secreted by the stomach which enables the body to absorb vitamin B12. It is a glycoprotein.
Islets of Langerhan’s
The pancreatic islets or islets of Langerhans are the regions of the pancreas that contain its endocrine (hormone-producing) cells, discovered in 1869 by German pathological anatomist Paul Langerhans. The pancreatic islets constitute 1 to 2% of the pancreas volume and receive 10–15% of its blood flow.
Ketoacidosis
Diabetic ketoacidosis is a serious complication of diabetes that occurs when your body produces high levels of blood acids called ketones. The condition develops when your body can’t produce enough insulin
Lipolysis
Lipolysis /lɪˈpɒlɪsɪs/ is the metabolic pathway through which lipid triglycerides are hydrolyzed into a glycerol and three fatty acids. It is used to mobilize stored energy during fasting or exercise, and usually occurs in fat adipocytes.
Lysozyme
Lysozyme is capable of breaking the chemical bonds in the outer cell wall of the bacteria. Bacterial cell walls contain a layer of peptidoglycan, which is the specific site that lysozyme targets. The peptidoglycan layer contains alternating molecules called N-acetylglucosamine and N-acetylmuramic acid.
Malabsorption
Malabsorption is a condition caused by the decreased ability to digest and/or absorb nutrients from food.
Micelles
A micelle or micella is an aggregate of surfactant molecules dispersed in a liquid colloid. A typical micelle in aqueous solution forms an aggregate with the hydrophilic “head” regions in contact with surrounding solvent, sequestering the hydrophobic single-tail regions in the micelle centre.
Microvilli
Cells may have slender extensions of the cell membrane to form cilia or the smaller extensions called microvilli. The microscopic microvilli effectively increase the surface area of the cell and are useful for absorption and secretion functions. A dramatic example is the human small intestine.
Mucosa
A mucous membrane or mucosa is a membrane that lines various cavities in the body and covers the surface of internal organs. It consists of one or more layers of epithelial cells overlying a layer of loose connective tissue.
Myenteric plexus
The myenteric plexus is the major nerve supply to the gastrointestinal tract and controls GI tract motility. According to preclinical studies, 30% of myenteric plexus’ neurons are enteric sensory neurons, thus Auerbach’s plexus has also a sensory component.
Nephropathy
Nephropathy means kidney disease or damage. Diabetic nephropathy is damage to your kidneys caused by diabetes. In severe cases it can lead to kidney failure. But not everyone with diabetes has kidney damage.
Parietal cells
Parietal cells (also known as oxyntic or delomorphous cells) are the epithelial cells that secrete hydrochloric acid (HCl) and intrinsic factor. These cells are located in the gastric glands found in the lining of the fundus and in the cardia of the stomach.
Pepsin
Pepsin is an endopeptidase that breaks down proteins into smaller peptides (that is, a protease). It is produced in the stomach and is one of the main digestive enzymes in the digestive systems of humans and many other animals, where it helps digest the proteins in food.
Secondary transport
Secondary active transport, is transport of molecules across the cell membrane utilizing energy in other forms than ATP. This energy comes from the electrochemical gradient created by pumping ions out of the cell. This Co-Transport can be either via antiport or symport
Sublingual glands
The sublingual glands lie directly under the mucous membrane covering the floor of the mouth beneath the tongue. In human digestive system: The floor of the mouth. …a slight fold called a sublingual papilla, from which the ducts of the submandibular salivary glands open.
Alveoli
Alveoli are tiny sacs within our lungs that allow oxygen and carbon dioxide to move between the lungs and bloodstream. Learn more about how they function and quiz your knowledge at the end
Anemic Hypoxia
Hypoxic hypoxia can be caused by inadequate breathing as well as other causes. Anemic hypoxia: In the setting of anemia, low hemoglobin levels result in a reduced ability of the blood to carry oxygen that is breathed in, and hence, a diminished supply of oxygen available to the tissues
Apneustic area
The apneustic center (or apneustic area) of the lower pons appears to promote inspiration by stimulation of the I neurons in the medulla oblongata providing a constant stimulus. … However, it gives positive impulses to the inspiratory (I) neurons.
Atelectasis
Atelectasis is the collapse or closure of a lung resulting in reduced or absent gas exchange. It may affect part or all of a lung. It is usually unilateral. It is a condition where the alveoli are deflated down to little or no volume, as distinct from pulmonary consolidation, in which they are filled with liquid.
Bohr Effect
a decrease in the amount of oxygen associated with hemoglobin and other respiratory compounds in response to a lowered blood pH resulting from an increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the blood.
Bronchi
A bronchus is a passage of airway in the respiratory system that conducts air into the lungs. The first bronchi to branch from the trachea are the right main bronchus and the left main bronchus.
Bronchiectasis
Bronchiectasis is a disease in which there is permanent enlargement of parts of the airways of the lung. Symptoms typically include a chronic cough with mucus production. Other symptoms include shortness of breath, coughing up blood, and chest pain.
Bronchioles
The bronchioles or bronchioli are the passageways by which air passes through the nose or mouth to the alveoli (air sacs) of the lungs, in which branches no longer contain cartilage or glands in their submucosa. They are branches of the bronchi, and are part of the conducting zone of the respiratory system.
Cor Pulmonale
abnormal enlargement of the right side of the heart as a result of disease of the lungs or the pulmonary blood vessels.
Dorsal respiratory group
The dorsal respiratory group (DRG) has the most fundamental role in the control of respiration, initiating inspiration (inhalation). The DRG is a collection of neurons forming an elongated mass that extends most of the length of the dorsal medulla. … Most of the neurons are located in the nucleus of the solitary tract.
External respiration
External respiration refers to the process of respiration (or breathing) where gases are exchanged between the lungs and the ‘external’ environment. … Pulmonary gas exchange takes place in the lungs between the alveoli and the blood.
Haldane effect
The Haldane effect is a property of haemoglobin first described by John Scott Haldane. Oxygenation of blood in the lungs displaces carbon dioxide from hemoglobin which increases the removal of carbon dioxide. This property is the Haldane effect. Conversely, oxygenated blood has a reduced affinity for carbon dioxide.
Hematogenic
Pertaining to anything produced from, derived from, or transported by the blood.
Hypercapnia
Hypercapnia, also known as hypercarbia and CO2 retention, is a condition of abnormally elevated carbon dioxide (CO2) levels in the blood. Carbon dioxide is a gaseous product of the body’s metabolism and is normally expelled through the lungs.
Hypocapnia
Hypocapnia or hypocapnea (from the Greek words υπό meaning below normal and καπνός kapnós meaning smoke), also known as hypocarbia, sometimes incorrectly called acapnia, is a state of reduced carbon dioxide in the blood. Hypocapnia usually results from deep or rapid breathing, known as hyperventilation.
Hypoxemia
Hypoxemia is an abnormally low level of oxygen in the blood. More specifically, it is oxygen deficiency in arterial blood. Hypoxemia has many causes, often respiratory disorders, and can cause tissue hypoxia as the blood is not supplying enough oxygen to the body.
Internal respiration
Internal respiration is the process of diffusing oxygen from the blood, into the interstitial fluid and into the cells. … External respiration refers to the process of exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs, gills, or other tissues exposed to the external environment.
Intrapleural pressure
In physiology, intrapleural pressure (also called intrathoracic pressure) refers to the pressure within the pleural cavity. Normally, the pressure within the pleural cavity is slightly less than the atmospheric pressure, in what is known as negative pressure.
Macrophage
A macrophage is a type of phagocyte, which is a cell responsible for detecting, engulfing and destroying pathogens and apoptotic cells. Macrophages are produced through the differentiation of monocytes, which turn into macrophages when they leave the blood.
Non-productive cough
A non-productive cough is one that does not bring up any mucus or other secretion. Also known as a dry cough, a non-productive cough often is caused by some sort of irritation in the throat. … Conditions associated with this type of cough include asthma and bronchitis.
Pleura
each of a pair of serous membranes lining the thorax and enveloping the lungs in humans and other mammals.
Polycythemia
Polycythemia (also known as polycythaemia or polyglobulia) is a disease state in which the hematocrit (the volume percentage of red blood cells in the blood) is elevated.
Rales
Rales are abnormal lung sounds characterized by discontinuous clicking or rattling sounds. They can sound like salt dropped onto a hot pan or like cellophane being crumpled.
Respiratory membrane
The membrane separating air within the alveoli from the blood within pulmonary capillaries. It consists of the alveolar wall, the capillary wall, and their basement membranes. The respiratory membrane is very thin
Small cell carcinoma
Small-cell carcinoma (also known as small-cell lung cancer, or oat-cell carcinoma) is a type of highly malignant cancer that most commonly arises within the lung, although it can occasionally arise in other body sites, such as the cervix, prostate, and gastrointestinal tract.
Surface tension
the tension of the surface film of a liquid caused by the attraction of the particles in the surface layer by the bulk of the liquid, which tends to minimize surface area.
Type II cells
Type II cells secrete pulmonary surfactant to lower the surface tension of water and allows the membrane to separate, therefore increasing its capability to exchange gases. … These cells are granular and roughly cuboidal. Type II alveolar cells are typically found at the blood-air barrier.
Afferent arteriole
The afferent arteriole is the arteriole that brings blood to the glomerulus. It is larger in diameter than the efferent arteriole. The efferent arteriole is the arteriole that carries blood away from the glomerulus. It is smaller in diameter than the afferent arteriole.
Angiotensin
Angiotensin is a peptide hormone that causes vasoconstriction and an increase in blood pressure. It is part of the renin–angiotensin system, which regulates blood pressure. Angiotensin also stimulates the release of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex to promote sodium retention by the kidneys.
Azotemia
Azotemia (azot, “nitrogen” + -emia, “blood condition”) is a medical condition characterized by abnormally high levels of nitrogen-containing compounds (such as urea, creatinine, various body waste compounds, and other nitrogen-rich compounds) in the blood.
Bowmans capsule
Bowman’s capsule (or the Bowman capsule, capsula glomeruli, or glomerular capsule) is a cup-like sack at the beginning of the tubular component of a nephron in the mammalian kidney that performs the first step in the filtration of blood to form urine. A glomerulus is enclosed in the sac.
Capsular hydrostatic pressure
Capsular hydrostatic pressure (CHP) is a back-pressure that opposes filtration. As the filtrate is forced into the capsular space, it meets 2 forms of resistance: the wall of the capsule and the fluid that has already filled the renal tubule. As a result, some filtrate is pushed back into the capillary.
Cardiac output
Cardiac output is the product of the heart rate (HR), or the number of heart beats per minute (bpm), and the stroke volume (SV), which is the volume of blood pumped from the ventricle per beat; thus, CO = HR × SV. Values for cardiac output are usually denoted as L/min.
Collecting duct
The collecting duct system of the kidney consists of a series of tubules and ducts that physically connect nephrons to a minor calyx or directly to the renal pelvis.
Glomerulonephritis
acute inflammation of the kidney, typically caused by an immune response.
Ventilation-perfusion coupling
During external respiration, oxygen loads from alveoli into pulmonary capillaries and carbon dioxide unloads from pulmonary capillaries into alveoli. … During external respiration, ventilation-perfusion coupling maintains airflow and blood flow in proper proportions for efficient gas exchange.
Efferent arteriole
Remember that the afferent arteriole brings blood to the glomerulus and the efferent arteriole takes blood away from the glomerulus. The efferent arterioles either 1) carry blood to capillaries in the medulla (Vasa recta) or 2) form anastomotic capillaries in the cortex (peritubular plexus).
Glomeruler filtration
The process by which glomerular filtration occurs is called renal ultrafiltration. The force of hydrostatic pressure in the glomerulus (the force of pressure exerted from the pressure of the blood vessel itself) is the driving force that pushes filtrate out of the capillaries and into the slits in the nephron.
Hematuria
Hematuria is the presence of red blood cells in the urine. Visible hematuria, also known as gross hematuria (also frank hematuria or macroscopic hematuria), causes visible red or brown discoloration of the urine.
Hypernaturemia
Hypernatremia is a common electrolyte problem that is defined as a rise in serum sodium concentration to a value exceeding 145 mmol/L. [1, 2, 3] It is strictly defined as a hyperosmolar condition caused by a decrease in total body water (TBW) relative to electrolyte content
Lipiduria
Lipiduria or lipuria is the presence of lipids in the urine. Lipiduria is most frequently observed in nephrotic syndrome where it is passed as lipoproteins along with other proteins. It has also been reported as a sign following fat embolism.
Medullary Pyramids
The medullary pyramids are paired white matter structures of the brainstem’s medulla oblongata that contain motor fibers of the corticospinal and corticobulbar tracts – known together as the pyramidal tracts. The lower limit of the pyramids is marked when the fibers cross (decussate).
Nephritic syndrome
Nephritic syndrome is the name given to a collection of different signs and symptoms that occur as a result of inflammation in the kidneys. This inflammation causes the kidneys to work less effectively. It also causes protein and red blood cells to leak from the bloodstream into the urine.
Net filtration pressure
The net filtration pressure (NFP) represents the interaction of the hydrostatic and osmotic pressures, driving fluid out of the capillary. … Since filtration is, by definition, the movement of fluid out of the capillary, when reabsorption is occurring, the NFP is a negative number.
Oliguria
Common causes of decreased urine output include: Dehydration due to vomiting, diarrhoea or fever, and a simultaneous lack of adequate fluid intake. Total urinary tract obstruction, such as may result from an enlarged prostate. Severe infection leading to shock
Podocytes
Podocytes are cells in the Bowman’s capsule in the kidneys that wrap around capillaries of the glomerulus. The Bowman’s capsule filters the blood, retaining large molecules such as proteins while smaller molecules such as water, salts, and sugars are filtered as the first step in the formation of urine.
Proteinuria
Proteinuria is a condition characterized by the presence of greater than normal amounts of protein in the urine. It is usually associated with some kind of disease or abnormality but may occasionally be seen in healthy individuals. Plasma, the liquid portion of blood, contains many different proteins.
Renin-angiotensin mechanism
The renin–angiotensin system, or renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system, is a hormone system that regulates blood pressure and fluid and electrolyte balance, as well as systemic vascular resistance
Starlings law of the heart
The law states that the stroke volume of the heart increases in response to an increase in the volume of blood in the ventricles, before contraction (the end diastolic volume), when all other factors remain constant.
Tubular reabsorption
In renal physiology, reabsorption or tubular reabsorption is the process by which the nephron removes water and solutes from the tubular fluid (pre-urine) and returns them to the circulating blood.
Tubular secretion
Tubular secretion is the transfer of materials from peritubular capillaries to the renal tubular lumen; it is the opposite process of reabsorption. This secretion is caused mainly by active transport and passive diffusion. Usually only a few substances are secreted, and are typically waste products.
Urea
a colorless crystalline compound which is the main nitrogenous breakdown product of protein metabolism in mammals and is excreted in urine.
Uremia
Uremic syndrome (uremia) is a serious complication of chronic kidney disease and acute kidney injury (which used to be known as acute renal failure). It occurs when urea and other waste products build up in the body because the kidneys are unable to eliminate them.
Wilma tumour
Wilms tumor (also called Wilms’ tumor or nephroblastoma) is a type of childhood cancer that starts in the kidneys. It is the most common type of kidney cancer in children. About 9 of 10 kidney cancers in children are Wilms tumors. Cancer starts when cells in the body begin to grow out of control.
Angiogenesis
Angiogenesis is the physiological process through which new blood vessels form from pre-existing vessels, formed in the earlier stage of vasculogenesis. Angiogenesis continues the growth of the vasculature by processes of sprouting and splitting.
ATP
Adenosine triphosphate, or ATP for short, is the energy currency of life. ATP is a high-energy molecule found in every cell. Its job is to store and supply the cell with needed energy.
Fast glycolytic fibers
Often known as fast glycolytic fibers they are white in colour due to a low level of myoglobin and also contain few mitochondria. They produce ATP at a slow rate by anaerobic metabolism and break it down very quickly. This results in short, fast bursts of power and rapid fatigue
Fast oxidative fibers
Intermediate fibers, also known as fast oxidative-glycolytic fibers, are fast twitch muscle fibers which have been converted via endurance training. These fibers are slightly larger in diameter, have more mitochondria as well as a greater blood supply and more endurance than typical fast twitch fibers.
Interstitial cell
Interstitial cell refers to any cell that lies in the spaces between the functional cells of a tissue. … Interstitial cell of Cajal (ICC) Leydig cells, cells present in the male testes responsible for the production of androgen (male sex hormone) A portion of the stroma of ovary.
Mitochondria
Mitochondria are known as the powerhouses of the cell. They are organelles that act like a digestive system which takes in nutrients, breaks them down, and creates energy rich molecules for the cell. The biochemical processes of the cell are known as cellular respiration.
Mitosis
a type of cell division that results in two daughter cells each having the same number and kind of chromosomes as the parent nucleus, typical of ordinary tissue growth.
Oogenesis
Oogenesis is the process of producing the female gametes, the Ovum, from the primordial germ cells. The majority of the steps in oogenesis, up to the point of producing primary oocytes, occur pre-natally.
Luteal phase
The luteal phase is the latter phase of the menstrual cycle or the earlier phase of the estrous cycle. It begins with the formation of the corpus luteum and ends in either pregnancy or luteolysis
Oocytes
The resulting oocyte when meiosis I is completed, and gives rise to ootid and ovum (egg cell) upon the completion of meiosis II. Supplement. In humans, the secondary oocytes are produced when the primary oocytes complete meiosis I
Slow oxidative fibers
These muscle fibers twitch at a very slow rate and are very resistant to fatigue. The peak force exerted by these muscles is also very low. Slow muscle fibers have a lot of oxidative enzymes but they are low in ATP activity. Slow oxidative fibers are used for aerobic activities.
Proliferative phase
Also referred to as the follicular phase, the proliferative phase is the part of the menstrual cycle during which follicles inside the ovaries develop and mature in preparation for ovulation. The levels of FSH increase in the bloodstream during the proliferative phase, stimulating the maturation of follicles.
Vesicular follicle
Tertiary vesicular follicles (also called “mature vesicular follicles” or “ripe vesicular follicles”) are sometimes called Graafian follicles (after Regnier de Graaf). In humans, oocytes are established in the ovary before birth and may lie dormant awaiting initiation for up to 50 years.
Damage to which one of the following areas of the brain is LEAST likely to result in contralateral signs and symptoms? A) Basal nuclei B) Cerebrum C) Cerebellum D) Motor cortex
C) Cerebellum
Entry of which one of the following ions into neurons is responsible for initiating action potentials? A) Na+ B) K+ C) Ca++ D) Cl-
A) Na+
graded potentials can summate to generate an action potential when the membrane reaches which of the following states? a. sub-threshold b. threshold c. resting d. polarized
B) Threshold
In a neuronal pool post-synaptic action potentials are generated in which one of the following zones?
a. discharge
b. facilitated
c. depolarized
d. twilight
A) Discharge
Injury to lower motor neurons does NOT result in which one of the following ?
a. motor dysfunction
b. muscle weakness
c. hyperesthesia
d. flaccidity
C) Hyperesthesia
neuroplasticity does NOT allow for which one of the following states?
a. adaptability in perception
b. adaptability in reflex responses
c, functional recovery of neuronal pathways
d. regeneration of injured neurons
D) Regeneration of injured neurons
Ruffini's corpuscles in the skin provide information regarding which one of the following sensory modalities? a. tendon stretch b. pain and temperature c. deep pressure and stretch d. balance and body position
C) Deep pressure and stretch
The volume of blood supplied to the brain represents approximately what percentage of the total blood volume? a. 2% b. 4% c. 10% d. 20%
D) 20%
which area does the hypothalamus regulate?
a. pain discrimination
b. balance and muscle tone
c. gross motor coordination
d. autonomic functions
D) Autonomic functions
which area of the brain is associated with language comprehension?
a. Broca’s
b. Gnostic
c. Wernicke’s
d. Brodmann’s
C) Wernicke’s
which area of the cerebral cortex is associated with intellect memory and complex learning abilities?
a. general interpretation
b. visceral association
c. prefrontal cortex
d. Wernicke’s area
C) Prefrontal cortex
which connective tissue layer encases a bundle of nerve fibers?
a. mesoneurium
b. endoneurium
c. perineurium
d. epineurium
C) Perineurium
which of the following sensory receptors plays a key role in maintaining muscle tone?
a. GTO
b. muscle spindle
c. Merkel disc
d. Pacinian Corpuscles
B) Muscle spindle
which of the following statements regarding pyramidal tracts is TRUE?
a. composed of only lateral corticospinal tracts b. injury to the tracts results in flaccidity
c. a set of tracts located in the PNS
d. comprised of upper motor neurons
D) Comprised of upper motor neurons
which of the following statements regarding the nervous system is TRUE?
a. movements of the limbs do not affect it
b. forms a discontinuous and static tissue
c. function in isolation of other systems
d. a responsive and highly dynamic system
D) A responsive and highly dynamic system
which of the following types of cells is involved in myelination in the CNS?
a. astrocytes
b. schwann
c. ependymal
d. oligrodendrocytes
D) Oligodendrocytes
which one of the following areas of the brain does NOT receive sensory input?
a. cerebellum
b. thalamus
c. basal nuclei
d. cerebral cortex
C) Basal nuclei
which one of the following areas of the brain receives sensory input from the skin and proprioceptors and enables us to identify the body region being stimulated?
a. primary motor cortex
b. premotor cortex
c. primary somatosensory
d. somatosensory association
C) Primary somatosensory
which one of the following brain spaces contains CSF?
a. dural septa
b. dural sinus
c. subdural space
d. subarachnoid space
D) Subarachnoid space
Which one of the following characterizes action potentials?
a. known as receptor potentials
b. propagate and act over long distances
c. known as generator potentials
d. local and act over short distance
B) Propagate and act over long distances
which one of the following components does NOT affect intracranial pressure?
a. blood flow
b. mass of the brain
c. intracellular fluid
d. cerebrospinal fluid
C) Intracellular fluid
which one of the following components of the neuromuscular system is responsible for initiating voluntary skeletal muscle contraction? a. cerebellum b. motor cortex c. myofibres d. thalamus
B) Motor cortex
which one of the following factors is NOT a known risk factor predisposing a person to cerebrovascular accident?
a. moderate alcohol intake
b. hyperlipidemia
c. diabetes
d. smoking
C) Diabetes
which one of the following functions do extra-pyramidal nerve tracts NOT control?
a. axial muscles maintaining balance and posture
b. movement of muscles of facial expression and mastication
c. head and eye movements tracking objects in a visual field
d. muscle tone and various visceral motor functions
B) Movement of muscles of facial expression and mastication
which one of the following general statements regarding antibiotics is FALSE
a. are specific yet affect many types of bacteria
b. can interfere with bacterial cell wall synthesis
c. usually interfere with host cell functions
d. are ineffective in fighting viral diseases
C) Usually interfere with host cell functions
which one of the following infectious agents causes poliomyelitis?
a. a specific viral agent
b. an unknown pathogen
c. excessive muscle atrophy
d. meningococcal bacteria
A) A specific viral agent
Which one of the following nerve tracts transmits signals that are interpreted as pain sensation?
a. fasciculus gracilis
b. fasciculus cuneatus
c. lateral spinothalamic
d. anterior spinothalamic
C) Lateral spinothalamic
Which one of the following receptor types is sensitive to changes in light?
a. photoreceptors
b. chemoreceptors
c. thermoreceptors
d. mechanoreceptors
A) Photoreceptors
which one of the following sets of words describes spinal reflexes?
a. predictable protective involuntary
b. involuntary nonspecific random
c. nonspecific voluntary learned
d. protective random voluntary
A) Predictable protective involuntary
which one of the following statements about the effects of hypoxia and ischemia on the brain is TRUE?
a. Hypoxia severely reduces cellular metabolism but ischemia does not
b. Hypoxia is fairly well tolerated but ischemia leads to neuronal damage
c. Hypoxia and ischemia both cause severe damage due to reduced tissue perfusion
d. Hypoxia and ischemia can be compensated to a large extent by auto-regulation
B) Hypoxia is fairly well tolerated but ischemia leads to neuronal damage
Which one of the following statements describes spatial discrimination?
a. communication of signals between the hemispheres
b. the ability to identify the body region being stimulated
c. functional specialization of hemispheres activity
d. cerebral dominance in reflexive behaviours
B) The ability to identify the body region being stimulated
which one of the following statements describes the function of the autonomic nervous system?
a. coordinates sensory input from the internal organs
b. responsible for integrating peripheral nerve signals
c. coordinates voluntary functions of the internal environment
d. responsible for maintaining the stability of the internal environment
D) Responsible for maintaining the stability of the internal environment
which one of the following statements ragarding cerebral palsy is True?
a. movement patterns are spastic
b. manifests with flaccid paralysis
c. manifest with intention tremors
d. motor coordination is not impaired
A) Movement patterns are spastic
Which one of the following statements regarding 1st order neurons is TRUE?
a. transmit information from the cerebral cortex to the spinal cord
b. transmit signals from sensory receptors to the thalamus
c. the neuronal cell bodies are located in the primary motor cortex
d. the neuronal cell bodies are located in the dorsal root ganglia
D) The neuronal cell bodies are located in the dorsal root ganglia
which one of the following statements regarding conduction velocities in neurons is TRUE?
a. conduction velocities of different types of nerve fibers are the same
b. conduction velocity in neurons depends only on the degree of myelination
c. rate of conduction in large diameter - myelinated group A nerve fibers is rapid
d. lightly myelinated group B nerve fibers transmit signals at a rate of 150 m/sec
C) Rate of conduction in large diameter - myelinated group A nerve fibers is rapid
Which one of the following statements regarding neurotransmission is FALSE?
a. neurotransmitters are released into the synapse by exocytosis
b. neurotransmitters travel across the synapse by simple diffusion
c. neurotransmitters travel across the synapse by active transport
d. Ca++ promotes fusion of synaptic vesicles and the cell membrane
C) Neurotransmitters travel across the synapse by active transport
Which one of the following statements regarding post- synaptic potentiation is TRUE?
a. excitatory and inhibitory post-synaptic potentials are action potentials
b. EPSPs move the membrane towards the threshold and possible generation of an action potential
c. IPSPs move the membrane towards the threshold and slow down signal transmission
d. excitatory post-synaptic potentials surpass the threshold resulting in the generation of an action potential
B) EPSPs move the membrane towards the threshold and possible generation of an action potential
Which one of the following statements regarding synaptic inhibition is TRUE?
a. describes facilitation of neuronal pools
b. typical of depolarized association neurons
c. membrane potential becomes more negative
d. increase initiation of graded potentials
C) Membrane potential becomes more negative
which one of the following statements regarding the cerebellum is TRUE?
a. coordinates skilled voluntary movements controls equilibrium and muscle tone
b. works with the basal nuclei to smooth out movements of the limbs and trunk
c. consists of an outer layer of white matter and inner core of grey matter
d. communicates with the cerebrum through the midbrain and pons
A) Coordinates skilled voluntary movements controls equilibrium and muscle tone
which one of the following statements regarding the peripheral nervous system is TRUE?
a. The PNS has two major structural divisions - upper and lower
b. lower motor neurons emerge from the dorsal horns of the spinal cord
c. upper motor neurons emerge from the ventral horn of the spinal cord
d. lower motor neurons emerge from the ventral horns of the spinal cord
D) Lower motor neurons emerge from the ventral horns of the spinal cord
which one of the following structures forms part of the choroid plexuses that produce CSF?
a. dura mater
b. bony skull
c. arachnoid mater
d. pia mater
D) Pia mater
which one of the following structures is NOT involved in the regulation of muscle tone?
a. gamma motor neurons
b. intrafusal nerve fibres
c. Golgi tendon organs
d. cerebellum
C) Golgi tendon organs
Which one of the following terms is a group of neurons in the CNS that integrate signals that facilitate the initiation of appropriate responses?
a. ganglion
b. neuronal pool
c. neuronal track
d. nerve bundle
B) Neuronal pool
Which statement about ascending nerve tracts in the a spinal cord is TRUE?
a. originates in the dorsal horns of the spinal cord
b. transmit sensory input to cardiac muscles
c. transmit motor output to skeletal muscles
d. consist of nerve fibers composed of gray matter
A) Originates in the dorsal horns of the spinal cord
which statement about damage to the motor cortex is d FALSE?
a. damage to the motor cortex often results in paralysis of specific muscles
b. specific muscles paralyzed due to cortical injury depend on the site of injury
c. lesions on the cortex result in hemiplegia of the contralateral side
d. posterior primary cortex lesions lead to paresis of distal extensor muscles
D) Posterior primary cortex lesions lead to paresis of distal extensor muscles
which statement about public health considerations is TRUE?
a. infectious agents are rarely spread via respiratory system discharges
b. universal precautions are designed to protect clients and therapists
c. clients with a fever and stiff necks are to be advised to rest for a few days
d. massage therapists are not obliged to report contagious diseases
B) Universal precautions are designed to protect clients and therapists
Blue Bloaters is a term referring to people suffering from which one of the following pulmonary disorders?
a. chronic bronchitis
b. bronchiectasis
c. emphysema
d. asthma
A) Chronic bronchitis
Chronic bronchitis is NOT accompanied by which one of the following manifestations?
a. Hypoxemia and cyanosis
b. Ventilation-perfusion imbalances
c. A persistant productive cough
d. Pursed lip expiration
D) Pursed lip expiration
Chronic renal failure is often associated with anemia due to which one of the following factors?
a. Reduced levels of erythropoietin
b. Loss of red blood cells in the urine
c. Loss of vitamin B12 in the urine
d. Insufficient retention of iron
A) Reduced levels of erythropoietin
The collecting ducts are the site of which one of the following functions?
a. Final concentration of urine in the kidney
b. Draining of urine from the kidney
c. Temporary storage of concentrated urine
d. Draining of urine from the bladder
A) Final concentration of urine in the kidney
The diaphragm muscle is controlled by which of the following spinal nerve segments?
a. C2-C4
b. C5-C7
c. C3-C5
d. C4-C6
C) C3-C5
Emphysema is categorized as which one of the following types of respiratory disorder?
a. Inflammatory
b. Obstructive
c. Pulmonary
d. Lung inflation
B) Obstructive
Forced expiration is an active process facilitated by which one of the following muscles, or group of muscles? a. Abdominal wall b. External iintercostals c. Scalenes d. Diaphragm
A) Abdominal wall
Hematuria is a clinical term reflecting which one of the following states?
a. Protein in the urine
b. Reduced urine output
c. Elevated blood urea
d. Blood in the urine
D) Blood in the urine
Histotoxicity affects oxygen transport in the blood due to which one of the following statements?
a. Compromised blood vessels
b. Reduced affinity of cells for O2
c. Decreased hemoglobin levels
d. Ventilation-perfusion imbalances
B) Reduced affinity of cells for O2
An increase in which one of the following factors increases the affinity of O2 to hemoglobin?
a. Partial pressure of CO2
b. Concentration of hydrogen ions c. Air temperature
d. Partial pressure of O2
D) Partial pressure of O2
infection of the urinary tract due to E.coli is known as which one of the following?
a. pyelonephritis
b. glomerulonephritis
c. arteriosclerosis
d. renal calculi
A) Pyelonephritis
n general, chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases d (COPDs) are a group of disorders that manifest with
which one of the following?
a. Inflammation and fibrotic changes in lung tissue
b. Pulmonary edema and lung collapse
c. Infection, abscesses and granuloma formation
d. Recurrent obstruction of air flow in pulmonary airways
D) Recurrent obstruction of air flow in pulmonary airways
Interstitial lung disease are a group of disorders that manifest with which state?
a. pulmonary edema and hyperventilation
b. inflammation and fibrotic changes in lung tissue
c. destruction of elastin and alveolar tissue spaces
d. infection abscesses and granuloma formation
B) Inflammation and fibrotic changes in lung tissue
In the event of damaged passageways, which one of the following structures ensures equal pressure is maintained in the lungs? a. Alveolar pores b. Basal laminae c. Type I cells d. Type II cells
A) Alveolar pores
In which one of the following areas in the bronchial tree does gas exchange occur?
a. Respiratory
b. Conducting
c. Respiratory membrane
d. Visceral pleura
C) Respiratory membrane
In which one of the following respiratory structures does gas exchange take place?
a. bronchi
b. trachea
c. bronchioles
d. alveoli
D) Alveoli
In which one of the following respiratory system structures does gas exchange take place?
a. Alveoli
b. Trachea
c. Bronchi
d. Bronchioles
A) Alveoli
A person experiencing oliguria may have which one of the following disorders?
a. Dehydration
b. Hypotonic hydration
c. Hypertension
d. Edema
A) Dehydration
Pulmonary hypertension describes the elevation of blood pressure ______.
a. Due to a pulmonary infarct
b. In the pulmonary arterial system
c. In the pulmonary venal system
d. Due to inflammatory processes
B) In the pulmonary arterial system
Renal failure is least likely to affect which one of the following homeostatic functions?
a. maintenance of plasma volume
b. plasma electrolyte concentrations
c. control of systemic blood pressure
d. excretion of carbon dioxide
D) Excretion of carbon dioxide
Systemic manifestations of uremia include which of the d following?
a. Weakness, anemia, hypertension
b. loss of appetite, weakness, gastritis
c. Weight loss, hypertension, depression
d. Weakness, weight loss, anemia
D) Weakness, weight loss, anemia
The term ventilation is which one of the following b states?
a. amount of air you take in
b. amount of gas reaching the alveoli
c. air entering pulmonary capillaries
d. rate at which air reaches body cells
B) Amount of gas reaching the alveoli
under which one of the following conditions does blood pressure increase?
a. vascular smooth tone decreases
b. blood plasma volume decreases
c. peripheral vascular resistance increases
d. glomerular filtration rate increases
C) Peripheral vascular resistance increases
The ureters are responsible for which one of the following functions?
a. concentrating urine in the kidney
b. draining urine from the bladder
c. draining urine from the kidney
d. temporary storage of urine
C) Draining urine from the kidney
The urinary bladder is responsible for which one of the a following functions?
a. Temporary storage of urine
b. Draining urine from the kidney
c. Draining urine from the bladder
d. Concentrating urine in the kidney
A) Temporary storage of urine
What is a neoplasm affecting the kidney?
a. adenocarcinoma
b. nephroblastoma
c. small cell carcinoma
d. malignant melanoma
B) Nephroblastoma
What is NOT a direct function of the kidneys?
a. red blood cell production
b. removal of nitrogenous waste
c. regulation of water volume
d. regulation of the pH balance
A) Red blood cell production
What is the major contributor to plasma osmotic pressure?
a. sodium ion concentration
b. plasma protein levels
c. white blood cells
d. red blood cells
B) Plasma protein levels
what is the primary driving force that results in the initial filtration of blood in the nephron?
a. blood osmotic pressure
b. capsular hydrostatic pressure
c. glomerular hydrostatic pressure
d. intrapleural pressure
C) Glomeruler hydrostatic pressure
Where does the filtration of blood in the nephron begin?
a. The glomerulus
b. Proximal convoluted tubules
c. Bowman’s capsule
d. The loop of Henle
A) The glomerulus
Which clinical manifestation is NOT a characteristic of the nephritic syndrome?
a. hyperlipidemia
b. azotemia
c. hypertension
d. oliguria
A) Hyperlipidemia
which control does NOT affect glomerular filtration rate?
a. renal autoregulation
b. sympathetic nervous system
c. renin-angiotensin mechanism
d. somatic nervous system
D) Somatic nervous system
Which of the following statements defines expiratory reserve volume?
a. the sum of all lung volumes
b. total amount of exchangeable air in the lungs
c. amount of air that can be inspired after a tidal expiration
d. amount of air that can be exhaled after a tidal expiration
D) Amount of air that can be exhaled after a tidal expiration
Which endocrine gland is associated with the kidneys? A) Pituitary B) Adrenal C) Thyroid D) Pineal
B) Adrenal
What is characteristic of endocrine function?
A) Respond quickly to changes in the environment
B) Affects body systems through hormone action
C) Forms a wide spread structural network
D) Stimulation is local and short-lived
B) Affects body systems through hormone action
Which statement is TRUE of exocrine, but NOT endocrine glands?
A) Produce and secrete substances through a duct
B) Glands vary in number, size, shape and location
C) Are important in maintaining physiological functions
D) Secretion of substances may be into the lumen of an organ
A) Produce and secrete substances through a duct
Which hormone is secreted by the pituitary gland? A) Androgens B) Aldosterone C) Cortisol D) Adrenocorticotropic hormone
D) Adrenocorticotropic hormone
Which statement about the pituitary gland is TRUE?
A) The pituitary gland only secretes tropic hormones
B) The anterior pituitary is known as the neurohypophysis
C) The posterior pituitary is known as the adenohypophysis
D) The anterior pituitary secretes tropic and somatic hormones
D) The anterior pituitary secretes tropic and somatic hormones
What is a common attribute of all hormones?
A) Act on specific target organs
B) All are amino acid derivatives
C) Non specific, can be replaced by other hormones
D) Large concentrations are needed for the hormone to work
A) Act on specific target organs
What is characteristic of tropic hormones?
A) Are secreted by the thyroid
B) Activate other endocrine glands
C) Are secreted by secondary endocrine organs
D) Stimulate physiological functions of target organs
B) Activate other endocrine glands
In negative feedback mechanisms \_\_\_\_\_ blood plasma hormone levels result in \_\_\_\_\_\_ hormone synthesis and release A) Increased / decreased B) Increased / Increased C) Decreased / Decreased D) Decreased / Unchanged
A) Increased / Decreased
Which statement about the hypothalamic-pituitary axis is TRUE?
A) Releasing hormones secreted by the pituitary gland stimulate the hypothalamus
B) Hypothalamic and pituitary hormones affect a small number of body functions
C) Dysfunction of the hypothalamus affects the function of the pituitary gland
D) The hypothalamus and pituitary glands act independently of one another
C) Dysfunction of the hypothalamus affects the function of the pituitary gland
In which set is the hormone correctly matched with its target organ?
A) Growth hormone - Adrenal cortex
B) Lutenizing hormone - ovaries
C) Thyroid stimulating hormone - parathyroid gland
D) Follicle stimulating hormone - breast tissue
B) Lutenizing hormone - ovaries
Which mechanism is an increase in the number of membrane receptors on a target organ? A) Adaptation B) Up-regulation C) Hypersensitivity D) Down-regulation
B) Up-regulation
What is a likely cause of endocrine hyperfunction? A) Congential glandular defects B) Defective receptors C) Impaired cellular response D) Glandular hyperplasia
D) Glandular hyperplasia
Diabetes insipidus is a pathology associated with which organ? A) Pancreas B) Stomach C) Kidney D) Liver
C) Kidney
Which statement about Cushing’s syndrome is FALSE?
A) Often leads to the development of steroid diabetes
B) Hypercortisolism is a typical manifestation of the disease
C) A common cause is excessive use of steroid therapy
D) Characterized by adrenal atrophy and decreased glucocorticoid secretion
D) Characterized by adrenal atrophy and decreased glucocorticoid secretion
What is NOT a typical cause of endocrine gland hyperfunction? A) Neoplasm B) Defective cell receptors C) Hyperplasia of the gland D) Excessive glandular secretion
B) Defective cell receptors
Which of the following describes a growth hormone function? A) Increases systemic metabolic rate B) Enhances protein synthesis C) Reduces blood glucose levels D) Stimulates thyroxin release
B) Enhances protein synthesis
Which function is NOT affected by thyroid hormone? A) Consumption of oxygen B) Carbohydrate metabolism C) Renal absorption D) Regulation of body temperature
C) Renal absorption
Which function is NOT affected by thyroid hormone?
A) Regulation of the basal metabolic rate
B) Normal heart function
C) Renal absorption and secretion
D) Muscle development and tone
C) Renal absorption and secretion
Which sign/symptom would NOT be seen in hyperthyroidism? A) Weight loss B) Increased appetite C) Tachycardia D) Hypothermia
D) Hypothermia
Which sign/symptom is characteristic of hypothyroidism? A) Cold intolerance B) Heat intolerance C) Weight loss D) Excessive sweating
A) Cold intolerance
Which Etiology is common to Grave’s, Hashimoto’s and Addison’s disease? A) Neoplasms B) Hereditary C) Autoimmune D) Thyroidectomy
C) Autoimmune
Which process is NOT dependant on the presence of calcium ions? A) Neurotransmission B) Blood clotting C) Erythropoietin D) Muscle contraction
C) Erythropoietin
Which state is an effect of decreased blood calcium levels? A) Stimulate secretion of calcitonin B) Inhibit secretion of calcitonin C) Inhibit osteoclastic activity D) Stimulate osteoblastic activity
B) Inhibit secretion of calcitonin
Which statement about calcium metabolism is TRUE?
A) The human body contains about 10 kilograms of calcium in the bones
B) Maintaining blood levels of ionic calcium is critical to body function
C) Much of the ionic calcium in the body is found in the cytoplasmic fluid
D) Bone calcium levels are maintained at the expense of blood plasma levels
B) Maintaining blood levels of ionic calcium is critical to body function
Which sign/symptom is typical of hypoparathyroidism? A) Hypo-excitable neurons B) Kidney stones C) Muscle tetany D) Inflammatory myopathies
C) Muscle tetany
Which statement about the adrenal glands is TRUE?
A) The adrenal glands are located in the anterior neck
B) The adrenal cortex produces and secretes aldosterone
C) The adrenal cortex produces and secretes Epinepherine
D) The adrenal medulla produces and secretes sex hormones
B) The adrenal cortex produces and secretes aldosterone
Increased secretion of aldosterone is stimulated by which factor? A) Increased blood pressure B) Increased blood volume C) Low blood levels of sodium D) Low blood levels of potassium
C) Low blood levels of sodium
Which statement about hyperaldosteronism is FALSE?
A) It increases renin-angiotensin activity
B) It can lead to headaches and muscle weakness
C) It causes sodium retention and excess potassium secretion
D) It results in increased blood volume and hypertension
A) It increases renin-angiotensin activity
What is NOT an effect of cortisol in the body? A) Immune system depression B) Emotional stability C) Anti-inflammatory D) Decreased blood glucose levels
D) Decreased blood glucose levels
What manifestation is typical of Hypercortisolism? A) Moon face B) Hypoglycemia C) Hypotension D) Oliguria
A) Moon face
What is the most common cause of Cushing’s syndrome? A) Adrenal tumours B) Pituitary tumours C) Non-endocrine tumours D) Excessive steroid therapy
D) Excessive steroid therapy
Responsiveness is a trait that enables organisms to \_\_\_\_ changes in the environment A) Enhance B) Adapt to C) Modulate D) Segment
B) Adapt to
Which statement about stress is FALSE?
A) There are various physiological responses to psychological stressors
B) Stress is abnormal and leads to tissue pathology and death
C) The stress one can withstand without pathological consequences is individual
D) Too much stress can lead to systemic dysfunction
B) Stress is abnormal and leads to tissue pathology and death
Which manifestation is least likely to reflect a response of the body to stress? A) Headaches B) Dry mouth C) Hypertension D) Hypocortisolism
D) Hypocortisolism
Which statement about stressors is FALSE?
A) A stressor is a factor that requires a response or change
B) Stressors can be factors or events arising outside the body
C) Stressors can be factors or events produced inside the body
D) The body functions best with no stressors placed on it
D) The body functions best with no stressors placed on it
Sympathetic NS and HPA axis describes which stage of the general adaptation syndrome? A) Alarm B) Tolerance C) Resistance D) Exhaustion
A) Alarm
Which statement about responses to stress is TRUE?
A) Humans can only deal with stress by changing their environment
B) People always adapt extremely well to stressful situations
C) Adaptation allows us to withstand a stressor and continue to function
D) Humans are the only organisms able to respond appropriately to stress
C) Adaptation allows us to withstand a stressor and continue to function
What is a response of the endocrine system to stress?
A) Increased metabolic activity stimulated by cortisol
B) Increased secretion of Gastrin, CCK and secretin
C) Decreased blood glucose levels from hyposecretion of cortisol
D) Suppression of the immune and inflammatory responses
A) Suppression of the immune and inflammatory responses
Which statement about homeostasis is FALSE?
A) Homeostatic balance requires constant energy input
B) Changes in the environment are met with adaptation
C) Positive feedback mechanisms maintain homeostatsis
D) Adaptation is both physiological and psychological
C) Positive feedback mechanisms maintain homeostasis
Which of the following is key in humans anatomical reserve? A) The presence of paired organs B) Increased function of organs C) Individual coping strategies D) Sleep habits
A) The presence of paired organs
What is an uncommon response to stress? A) Dry mouth B) Tachycardia C) Pernicious anemia D) Sweaty hands and feet
C) Pernicious anemia
Which of the following is a possible cause of tension headaches? A) Sustained muscle tension B) Cold or flu symptom C) Head trauma D) Changes in neuroexcitability
A) Sustained muscle tension
Which one of the following is NOT a hypothesized cause of tension headaches? A) TMJ B) Family history C) Depression D) Overuse of caffeine
B) Family history
Which statement about migraine headaches is TRUE?
A) They are the most common headaches in adults
B) They are often accompanied by visual disturbances
C) They are often associated with watery eyes and nose
D) Most migraines are experienced with an accompanying aura
B) They are often accompanied by visual disturbances
Which statement about factors that affect adaptation to stress is TRUE?
A) Humans have a very limited capacity for adaptation
B) Our genes are unimportant in helping cope with stress
C) Infants and very old individuals are typically the least able to adapt to stress
D) Circadian rhythm does not affect ones ability to adapt to stress
C) Infants and very old individuals are typically the least able to adapt to stress
Which statement about psychosocial factors and withstanding stress is TRUE?
A) String social supports do not impact health and immunity
B) Individuals with social networks are more inclined to experience lonliness
C) People with ample social networks are less likely to be homeless
D) People with social supports have the same life expectancy as those who don’t
C) People with ample social networks are less likely to be homeless
Which statement about blood pressure is FALSE?
A) Blood pressure varies throughout the day
B) Blood pressure readings are affected by exercise
C) Hypertension is considered ‘a symptom’ not a ‘disease’
D) A blood pressure of 145/105 is considered normal
D) A blood pressure of 145/105 is considered normal
Which PTSD symptom is NOT an example of “hyper-arousal” A) Increased irritability B) Difficulty concentrating C) Having flashbacks D) Exaggerated startle Reflex
C) Having flashbacks
