Path Theory Test #6 Review Flashcards

1
Q

Through which respiratory structure does gas exchange occur?

A

Alveoli

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2
Q

What are the functions of the nasal passageways?

A
  • Warms air (conditions the air we breath)
  • Produces mucus
  • Filters
  • Moistens
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3
Q

What structure allows for the warming of inspired air?

A
  • Plexus of venule
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4
Q

What spinal nerve segments are responsible for the Innervation of the main inspiratory muscle? And which muscle?

A
  • The Diaphragm - Levels C3-C5
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5
Q

Gas exchange, is this process Active or Passive?

A
  • Passive (diffusion of gases following their concentration gradient)
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6
Q

Describe ventilation perfusion coupling

A
  • Oxygen present at the alveoli is a stimulus for vasodilation of alveolar capillary beds
  • Absence of oxygen in the alveoli creates vasoconstriction of alveolar capillary beds
  • I.e., When there is oxygen available to breath in the lungs this allows for increased perfusion so these are said to be linked - this is what ventilation-perfusion coupling is
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7
Q

Describe the Haldane effect

A
  • Describes affinity of CO2 to Hb as it relates to P-O2
  • Increased PO2 inhibits binding of CO2
  • Decreased PO2 promotes binding of CO2
  • Oxygenation of blood in the lungs displaces carbon dioxide from hemoglobin which increases the removal of carbon dioxide. This property is the Haldane effect. Conversely, oxygenated blood has a reduced affinity for carbon dioxide.
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8
Q

Describe the affinity of hemoglobin to O2, explain how it changes

A
  • As more O2 binds, the affinity of hemoglobin to O2 increases
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9
Q

What 3 factors effect gas exchange across the respiratory membrane?
Which of any are constant values?

A
  • Thickness of membrane (inverse)
  • Solubility of gasses
  • Pressure gradient of gasses (difference in pressure on either side of the respiratory membrane)
  • Solubility of gasses
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10
Q

What are the four respiratory centres in the brain stem (where are they in the brainstem as well?) Which are excitatory, which are inhibitory?

A
  • Dorsal respiratory group (DRG) - Excitatory
  • Ventral respiratory group (VRG) - Excitatory
  • Pneumotaxic area - Inhibitory
  • Apneustic area - Excitatory
  • They are located in the Medulla Oblongata & Pons
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11
Q

What is expirations reserve volume?

A
  • Amount of air that can be exhaled after a tidal volume
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12
Q

What is a Tidal Volume?

A
  • The amount of air Inhaled/Exhaled in a normal breath
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13
Q

COPDs - What is the major cause?

A
  • Cigarette smoking
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14
Q

What respiratory pathology leads to respiratory distress syndrome in premature babies?

A
  • Atelectasis - Lung inflation disorder - caused by lack of surfactant production (Type II cells not working)
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15
Q

Describe Atelectasis

A

Incomplete lung expansion/lung collapse

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16
Q

Bronchoconstriction can lead to dyspnea, True or False?

A

True

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17
Q

Lung disease can also affect the tissue in lungs that is not doing gas exchange. These disorders have to do with abnormal accumulation of substances within the lungs. What are these disorders classified as and list an example

A
  • Interstitial lung disease: Sarcoidosis, asbestosis, miner’s lung, silicosis
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18
Q

How do interstitial lung diseases affect lung tissue/present?

A
  • Inflammation leading to fibrotic changes in lung tissue
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19
Q

List 3 chronic pulmonary conditions that are COPDs?

A
  • Emphysema
  • Chronic Bronchitis
  • Cystic Fibrosis
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20
Q

What characterizes a COPD?

A
  • Obstruction of the airway that occurs repeatedly
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21
Q

Triggers for Asthma attacks - response to trigger can be immediate or delayed, True or False?

A

True

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22
Q

What are the S/S of asthma?

A
  • Wheezing
  • Coughing
  • Chest tightness
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23
Q

MIX N Match

  • Emphysema - Cyanotic Skin
  • Emphysema - ‘Blue bloaters’
  • Chronic Bronchitis - Barrel chested
  • Chronic Bronchitis - ‘Pink puffer’
A
  • Emphysema - Barrel chested
  • Emphysema - ‘Pink puffer’
  • Chronic Bronchitis - Cyanotic Skin
  • Chronic Bronchitis - ‘Blue bloaters’
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24
Q

Which body system is most similar to the urinary tract system in waste removal?

A
  • Integumentary system
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25
Q

List 4 macro components of the Urinary tract system and briefly their function

A
  • Ureter - Passage of urine from kidney to bladder
  • Kidney - Filtrate formation, reabsorption & tubular secretion (concentration & adjustment of urine after the creation)
  • Bladder - Holds urine
  • Urethra - Passageway for urine through which it is voided from the body
26
Q

Describe the site of filtration and the 3 components

A
  • Glomerulus - Cluster of blood capillaries present in Bowman’s Capsule
  • Glomeruler Membrane - Site of filtration formation, endothelial cells, podocytes (epithelial cells) & basement membrane
  • Bowman’s capsule - Close-ended Renal tubule that houses glomerulus
27
Q

List a function of the kidney that could be described as not direct?

A
  • Red blood cell formation (erythropoietin)
28
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the kidney is FALSE?
A) Gas exchange occurs at the peritubular capillaries
B) Afferent/Efferent arterioles carry oxygenated blood
C) Nephrons are concentrated parallel to each other in the renal cortex
D) Renal Veins carry waste containing deoxygenated blood from the kidneys

A

D) Renal veins carry waste containing deoxygenated blood from the kidneys

29
Q

NFP - What does this mean and what does it determine?

A
  • Net filtration pressure - difference in forces pushing fluid out of the glomerulus vs. Forces that pull fluid back in = how much filtrate is created
30
Q

Significant drop in blood pressure, how would this affect reabsorption?

A

Filtrate is created slower, more time available for reabsorption so an increase in reabsorption of waste products

31
Q

What is the greatest force acting on the GFR? This force acts as the primary driving force for filtration

A
  • Glomeruler hydrostatic pressure
32
Q

MIX N MATCH IT

  • Hypotonic Hydration - Fluid loss
  • Dehydration - Increased urine production
  • Polyuria - Blood cells in urine
  • Hematuria - Decrease blood (ion)
A
  • Hypotonic Hydration - Decrease blood (ion)
  • Dehydration - Fluid loss
  • Polyuria - Increased urine production
  • Hematuria - Blood cells in urine
33
Q

List causes of hypotonic hydration

A
  • ARF/CRF & drinking excessive amounts of H2O
34
Q

List mechanisms of the kidney that can affect glomeruler filtration Rate & regulate renal blood flow (2 Intrinsic, 2 Extrinsic)

A
  • Renal autoregulation - Intrinsic
  • Renin-angiotensin - Extrinsic
  • Sympathetic NS - Extrinsic
  • Myogenic Mechanism - Intrinsic
35
Q

If glomeruler blood pressure increased how would this be reflected in the urine composition?

A
  • Reabsorption would happen faster & solutes/electrolytes would be lost in the urine
36
Q

Low levels of sodium in the blood - what is the term?

A
  • Hyponaturemia
37
Q

Which term means high levels of sodium in the blood?

A

Hypernaturemia

38
Q

I have kidney stones, what are 3 common symptoms

A
  • Renal colic
  • Dysuria
  • Hematuria
39
Q

Damage to the glomeruler membrane is reflected in which 2 possible states?

A
  • Increased permeability of the glomeruler membrane

- Decreased permeability of the glomeruler membrane

40
Q

I have CRF, and I’m anemic. Loss of what molecule is leading to my anemia?

A
  • Erythropoietin
41
Q

‘An accumulation of nitrogenous wastes in the blood’ - what word describes this

A
  • Uremia

- Azotemia = Nitrogenous waste in blood

42
Q

List 3 systemic manifestations of uremia

A
  • Anemia
  • Fatigue
  • Weakness
43
Q

What 4 characteristics (symptoms) most commonly define nephrotic syndrome?

A
  • Proteinuria
  • Hyperlipidemia
  • Lipiduria
  • Anasarca
44
Q

List 3 symptoms of nephritic syndrome

A
  • Azotemia
  • Oliguria
  • Hypertension
45
Q

List 4 symptoms of nephrotic syndrome?

A
  • Hypoalbumemia
  • Hyperlipidemia
  • Lipiduria
  • Proteinuria (massive)
46
Q

Hypertension that is not associated with renal pathologies can be described as

A
  • Idiopathic
  • Primary
  • Essential
47
Q

MIX N MATCH IT

  • PCT - Filtration
  • DCT - Tubular reabsorption
  • Collecting duct - Tubular secretion
  • Glomerulus - Tubular secretion
A
  • PCT - Tubular reabsorption
  • DCT - Tubular secretion
  • Collecting duct - Tubular secretion
  • Glomerulus - Filtration
48
Q

What is the common substance being transported with each process?

A
  • Water
49
Q

What substances are being absorbed with Tubular reabsorption?

A
  • Trachea
  • Nasal passages
  • Larynx
50
Q

What is the function of the larynx?

A
  • Voice production
51
Q

Describe lung compliance

A
  • How easily the lungs expand with normal breathing
52
Q

Describe a non-productive cough

A
  • Dry cough, if persistent can indicate a tumour
53
Q

List the effects of air pollution

A
  • Decreased cilia activity
  • Inflammatory response
  • Detrimental effects to fetus
54
Q

Describe primary pneumothorax

A
  • Caused by smoking & small airway disease. Increased pressure in pleural space leads to lung deflation
55
Q

The kidneys are present in the body near the spinal segments of:

A
  • T12-L3
56
Q

List the elements of the nephron distal to the Bowman’s capsule

A
  • PCT
  • Loops of Henle
  • DCT
  • Collecting duct
57
Q

How much blood flows through the kidney in a minute

A
  • 4-4.5L
58
Q

List 3 types of muscle cells in order of endurance and list which type of activity they would be best at

A
  • Slow oxidative - Marathoning
  • Fast oxidative - Walking
  • Fast glycolytic - Sprinting
59
Q

List the most common cause of acute glomeruleronephritis

A
  • Bacterial infection
60
Q

Which pathogens tend to cause glomerulonephritis

A
  • Strep
  • Staph
  • Viral infection
61
Q

Compare and contrast external vs. Internal respiration

A
  • External respiration - O2 moves into pulmonary circulation from air and CO2 moves oppositely
  • Internal respiration - O2 moves from blood to tissues of body, CO2 moves from tissues of body into blood stream
62
Q

MIX N MATCH IT

  • Wilm’s - Lung disease
  • Cor Pulmonale - Taste
  • Gustation - Audition
  • Vestibulocochlear - Children
A
  • Wilms - Children
  • Cor Pulmonale - Lung disease
  • Gustation - Taste
  • Vestibulocochlear - Audition