Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Anatomy and Physiology lecture > the skeletal system > Flashcards

the skeletal system Flashcards

1
Q

define: skeletal system

A

network/ framework of bones working in conjunction with muscles, cartilage, tendons, and ligaments, to perform various functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are some functions of the skeletal system? (5)

A
  • provides structure/ form
  • protects vital internal organs
  • provides sites for muscle attachment, allows for movement
  • hematopoiesis (produces blood cells)
  • storage reservoir for minerals (calcium and phosphorus)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

define: hematopoiesis

A

production of blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

define: osteology

A

the study of bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the different classifications of bones? (5)

A
  1. long bone
  2. short bone
  3. sesamoid bone
  4. flat bones
  5. irregular bones
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the characteristics of a long-bone

A
  1. longer than they are wide
  2. are the main supporting bones
  3. diaphysis, 2 epiphysis, and a marrow cavity
    e.g., humerus, femur, radius, tibia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the characteristics of a short bone?

A
  1. are as long as they are wide (cube-like)
  2. small
  3. has a thin layer of hard compact bone with a softer spongy bone between the layers
    e.g., tarsals, carpals
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are the characteristics of flat bones?

A
  1. broad surface area
  2. thin and flat
  3. two layers of compact bone with a spongy bone between the layers
  4. no central marrow cavity
  5. have a protective function
  6. some contain air-filled spaces
    e.g., scapula, pelvis, ribs, many bones of the skull
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are the characteristics of sesamoid bones?

A
  1. sesame seed shaped
  2. small and short
  3. attached (embedded in) to tendons
  4. is in areas where a change in the direction of pull of a tendon or ligament is required (reduce friction along a joint)
    e.g., patella, fabellae
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are the characteristics of irregular bones?

A
  1. bones that don’t fit into any other category
  2. unpaired bones (b/c their shapes are more complex)
  3. misc.
    e.g., vertebrae, some skull bones
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the different structures of the long bone? (9)

A
  1. epiphysis
  2. diaphysis
  3. periosteum
  4. medullary cavity (contains red and yellow bone marrow)
  5. endosteum
  6. cortical bone
  7. cancellous bone
  8. articular surface
  9. epiphyseal plate (growth plate)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

epiphysis

A

the proximal and distal ENDS of the long bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

diaphysis

A
  • shaft of the long bone
  • hollow
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

periosteum (4)

A
  • thin but tough living connective tissue layer (like living saran wrap)
  • covers the external/outside surface of the long bone except where the articular cartilage is found
  • rich in blood, nerves, and lymphatic vessels
  • tightly adhered
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

medullary cavity

A
  • the inner center of the long bone
  • aka marrow cavity
  • contains blood-forming tissue (red bone marrow)
  • yellow bone marrow
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

red bone marrow

A
  • in the medullary cavity of any animal still growing, then recedes to the epiphysis
  • Blood-forming tissue
  • fills the marrow cavity in newborns
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

yellow bone marrow

A
  • fatty tissue
  • common in adult animals
  • can revert to red bone marrow to create RBC but this takes time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Endosteum

A
  • lines the INSIDE of the marrow cavity
    is similar to the periosteum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

cortical bone

A
  • is on the outside of ALL bones
  • AKA compact bone
  • located in the shaft of the bone and the entire rigid outer components of all bones
  • hard, dense, solid
  • provides support and strength
  • made of haversian system/osteons
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

describe the Haversian system

A

composed of:
- central haversian canal: houses blood vessels and nerves
- canaliculi: very small canals that radiate out connecting all lacunae to each other and to the central Haversian canal
- lamellae: concentric rings of bone
- lacunae: small (cave-like) spaces that house osteocytes (mature bone cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

cancellous bone

A
  • this is what gets weak as we age
  • aka spongy bone
  • no haversian system
  • has a spongy/moth-eaten appearance
  • spaces between trabeculae are filled with marrow
  • located near the ends of the long bones
  • is in most bones
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

trabeculae

A
  • lattice-like pieces of bone
  • has large spaces between them
  • found in the cancellous bone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

articular surface (3)

A
  • smooth and shiny
  • ends of bones that are joint surfaces
  • is covered by articular cartilage (a type of hyaline cartilage)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

epiphysial plate

A

aka growth plate
- growth area between diaphysis and epiphysis (responsible for lengthening growth of bone)
- seen as a wavy blue line
- composed of epiphyseal cartilage (same as articular cartilage)
- becomes an epiphyseal line in mature animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what are the 4 articular structures of the long bone?
1. articular cartilage 2. condyles 3. head 4. facet
26
articular cartilage
articular structure - covers the proximal and distal extremities of the long bone - is smooth, shiny, blue tinges, is hyaline cartilage
27
condyles
- curved - large, round articular structure - located on the femur, humerus, and skull
28
bone head
articular structure - spherical structure - proximal end of the humerus, femur, and rib
29
facet
- flat articular surface - creates a rocking motion - found in carpal and tarsal bones, radius, and ulna
30
5 bones/ bone groups found on the medial plane
1. skull 2. hyoid bone 3. vertebral column 4. ribs 5. sternum does not include clavicle
31
4 bones/ bone groups that are part of the appendicular skeleton
1. pelvis 2. hindlimb bones 3. scapula 4. forelimb bones
32
describe sutures
- jagged lines between adjacent flat bones on the skull - represent closure lines - initially fibrous but ossify with time
33
what are the 4 major sutures?
1. frontal suture 2. sagittal suture 3. coronal suture 4. squamous/ squamosal suture
34
describe the sinuses
- hollows/ excavations in some bones of the skull - all connect to the exterior - susceptible to infection (sinusitis)
35
what are the 2 major sinuses?
- frontal - maxillary
36
what are the 4 minor sinuses?
- nasal - palatine - ethmoid - sphenoid
37
what is the order of the different vertebral bone groups from cranial to caudal?
cervical thoracic lumbar sacral coccygeal
38
which vertebral group has the same number of vertebrae across different species?
cervical (7)
39
what are the 5 parts of a vertebra
- body - arch - vertebral (spinal) canal - processes - foramina
40
describe the body of a vertebrae
a cylindrical structure along the ventral aspect of vertebrae
41
describe the arch of a vertebrae
is the ROOF and SIDES of the vertebral canal
42
describe the vertebral (spinal) canal
- is the hole in the center of the vertebrae - is the space where the spinal cord runs
43
what are the different types of vertebral processes
1. spinous (can be dorsal or ventral) 2. transverse 3. articular (cranial or caudal)
44
what are the 2 types of foramina?
- vertebral (spinal cord) - intervertebral (where the spinal canal exits to the rest of the body)
45
another name for C1
Atlas
46
describe C1 (6)
Atlas - a large transverse process - small vertebra, small body - concave cranial and caudal articular surfaces - articulates cranially with occipital condyle - is a hinge joint (yes/no joint) - holds up the skull
47
describe C2 (5)
Axis - pivot joint (allows for rotation) - large - has a prominent dorsal spinous process - articulates cranially and caudally - has an odontoid process (aka dense) (crania)
48
describe the cervical vertebrae
- dorsal spinous process increase in height towards C7 - has a rudimentary ventral spinous process - well-developed cranial and caudal articular processes - a large plate-like transverse process that projects caudo-laterally - C7 has facets that articulate with the head of the 1st pair of ribs - foramina lateral to the body carry nerve and blood vessels
49
thoracic vertebrae (4)
- tall and narrow dorsal spinous process - a short transverse process has 2 points of attachment for the rib: 1. costo- articular facets (union with the head of the ribs) 2. transverse costal facet ( articulations with the tubercle of the rib having the same number)
50
lumbar vertebrae (3)
- a large transverse process - short to moderate dorsal spinous process - no rib attachment
51
sacral vertebrae
- fused - 3 articulations 1. cranially: last lumbar vertebrae 2. caudally: 1st coccygeal (caudal) vertebrea 3. craniodorsally: wing of the ilium (pelvis)
52
coccygeal vertebrae
- decreasing in size and becoming more cylindrical - spinal cord disappears - the number varies greatly
53
ligamentum nuchae
- nuchal ligament - attaches between C2 and T1 - helps support the head and neck
54
rib structure (8)
1. head 2. neck 3. tubercle 4. angle 5. costal groove 6. shaft/body 7. sternal end 8. costal chondral junction
55
3 major rib types
1. sternal: aka true rib, touch the sternum 2. asternal: aka false ribs, don't directly touch the sternum (connect to the costal cartilage of the rib cranial to it) 3. floating: no connection to the sternum at any point
56
intercostal spaces
- the area between each successive rib - contains skeletal muscle - surgery entry point for thoracic surgery - allows for flexibility and chest movement
57
which species have a keel
horses birds
58
components of the sternum
1. manubrium sterni: the cranial extremity of the sternum, projects cranially to the 1st rib, cariniform cartilage protects cranially 2. body: formed from the union of several segments known as sternebrae 3. xiphoid process: caudal extremity of the sternum
59
sternebrae shape in ruminants
flat
60
sternebrae shape in cats and dogs
cylindrical
61
functions of the sternum
- floor of the bony thorax (protection) - provides attachment to the costal cartilage of sternal ribs (flexibility in chest expansion) - place of origin for the pectoral muscles (adduction of forelimbs)
62
major scapular functions (3)
1. protection 2. muscle attachment 3. forelimb motion
63
what structure on the scapula is unique to the cat
metacromion
64
in the elbow joint, what bones are articulating?
humerus and ulna
65
is the radius or ulna more weight-bearing?
radius
66
major components of the ulna (3)
- olecranon - semi-lunar notch - styloid process
67
proximal articulation between the radius and ulna is with what?
facet
68
carpals aka _________
wrist
69
carpal is comprised of ________ rows
2
70
the carpals are a max of how many bones?
8
71
proximal carpal row is made up of how many bones?
4
72
name the proximal carpal bones from medial to lateral
radial intermediate ulnar accessory
73
what are the names of the bones in the distal carpal bones
medial: l-lV
74
there is a maximum of how many metacarpals?
5
75
describe the metacarpals of ruminants
cattle, sheep, goats - MC lll and MC lV fused - is only ONE BONE - small furrow remains where fusion occurred
76
horse metatarsals
canon bone = MC lll splint bones = MC ll (medial) and MC lV (lateral side)
77
how many bones make up the horse metatarsal?
3
78
the first metatarsal on a cat or dog is commonly called
dew claw
79
cats and dogs have how many metatarsals?
5
80
pigs have how many metatarsals?
4 missing l
81
describe the pig's metatarsals
l: absent ll and v: reduced lll and lV: very prominent
82
phalanges
- any digit that touches the ground - has 3 phalanxes
83
name the 3 rows of phalanges
1st / proximal / p1 / long pastern 2nd / middle / p2 / short pastern 3rd / distal / p3 / coffin bone
84
sesamoid bones in pigs
PIP DIP
85
distal sesamoid bone in horses
navicular bone
86
which is the big weight-bearing bone
femur
87
Os Coxae
complete pelvis
88
name the 3 parts of the pelvis
ilium ischium pubis
89
pubic symphysis
- line of union between each side - cartilaginous - fuses and ossified with time
90
acetabulum
- the point where the 3 pelvic bones unite - a concave socket (hip joint)
91
obturator foramen
- the large holes on each side of the pelvis - nerves and blood vessels pass through it MAIN PURPOSE: lightens the weight of the pelvis
92
parts of the femur:
1. head 2. neck 3. greator trochanter 4. lesser trochanter 5. shaft 6. medial condyle 7. lateral condyle
93
proximal and distal articulation of the femur
proximal: acetabulum distal: forms stifle with the tibia and the patella
94
fabellae
- paired - small sesamoid bones - found on the caudal aspect of the humerus - act to change direction
95
patella
- largest sesamoid bone - articulates with the femur and the tibia
96
tibial tuberosity
roughened ridge along the proximal cranial border of the tibia
97
tarsals aka
hock joint
98
the hock has how many rows
2-3
99
proximal tarsal row
- tibial tarsal bone (talus) - fibular tarsal bone (calcaneus) aka tuber calis, projects up and caudally
100
middle tarsal row
central tarsal bone (aka navicular tarsal bone)
101
distal tarsal row
numbered medial: l-lV
102
tuber calcis
top of the fibular tarsal bone
103
ossification
the formation of or conversion into bone or boney substances
104
osteoblasts form __________ and become mature ____________
1. new bone 2. osteocytes
105
what proportion organinc and inorganic are bones?
1/3 organic 2/3 inorganic
106
structurally, how is true bone formed
deposition of calcium salts onto an organic framework
107
which part is more rigid, the organic or the inorganic part of the bone?
inorganic
108
what makes bones twist like a pretzel
acid
109
what allows you to crush bones to dust
extreme heat
110
what 3 ways can bones form
- endochondral ossification - intramembranous ossification - heteroblastic ossification
111
describe endochondral ossification
- uses a cartilaginous framework to convert cartilage bars that are laid down in the embryo to bone - most bones are formed this way, which occurs in long bones
112
describe intramembranous ossification
- bone is formed within fibrous membranes that are laid down in the embryo - most flat bones are formed this way
113
describe heteroplastic ossification
- formation of bone in tissue other than the skeleton (os penis, os cordis)
114
bone lengthening
occurs in long bones - articular and epiphysial cartilage grows - replaced by bone
115
bone thickening
periosteum: - fibrous layer covering the bone shaft - proliferates cells (osteoblasts) endosteum - layer lining the marrow cavity - contains cells (osteoclasts) that remove formed bone - allow for bone thickening without any weight gain
116
types of cells of bone
- osteoblasts - osteocytes - osteoclast
117
osteoblasts
- immature bone cells - large cells - derived from primitive cells - bone-forming cells - ability to divide - produce matrix (osteoid) - have cell process - metabolically active
118
osteocytes
- mature bone cell, each occupies a lacunae in the bone - derived from osteoblasts - smaller - can't divide - long cell process - flattened nucleus
119
osteoclasts
- multinucleated giant cell - derived from macrophages - act to reabsorb cartilage and the bone matrix - can dissolve bone matrix and release minerals (osteolysis)
120
what are the 8 types of bone fractures
1. simple 2. oblique 3. comminuted 4. spiral 5. greenstick 6. transverse 7. epiphyseal 8. compound fracture
121
describe a greenstick fracture
- fracture straight across the bone - no perforation of the skin - good apposition of ends - heals well
122
describe an oblique fracture
- break occurs diagonally across the bone
123
describe a comminuted fracture
- multiple fragments but no break in the skin
124
describe a spiral fracture
break travels around the bone
125
describe a greenstick fracture
- incomplete fracture - only one side of the bone is fractured - happens in younger animals because they are bendier
126
describe a transverse fracture
bone fracture straight across two bones
127
describe an epiphyseal fracture
separation between the epiphysis and diaphysis
128
describe a compound fracture
a fracture that breaks the skin
129
what are the 5 phases of bone healing
1. fracture and inflammatory phase 2. granulation tissue formation 3. callus formation 4. lamellar bone deposition 5. remodelling
130
what are the 3 types of articulation?
- fibrous - cartilaginous - synovial
131
describe fibrous joints
- no joint cavity - united by fibrous tissue - limited movement - synarthroses eg. sutures, teeth, splints
132
describe cartilaginous joints
- no joint cavity - united by cartilage - moderate movement - amphiarthroses eg. intervertebral discs, pubic symphysis, epiphyseal plates
133
describe synovial joints
- has a joint cavity - fluid-filled (synovial fluid) - supported by ligaments and tendons - greatest movement
134
ligament
bone - bone
135
tendon
muscle - bone
136
what are the 6 types of synovial joint classification
- ginglymus - arthroidal - gliding - trochoid - spheroid - saddle
137
describe a ginglymus synovial joint
- hinge movement - cylindrical bone fits into depression - allows for movement - flexion, extension eg. stifle, elbow
138
describe an arthrodial synovial joint
- oval articulating surface - movement: fexion, extension - ligaments restrict movement - e.g. radiocarpal joints
139
describe a gliding synovial joint
- flat, articulating surfaces - movement: flexion, extension - e.g. radioulnar joint, most carpals and tarsals
140
describe a trochoid synovial joint
- pivot joint - movement: rotation - e.g. dense
141
describe the spheroid synovial joint
- ball and socket joints - movement: flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, rotation, circulation
142
describe a saddle synovial joint
- particular to primates - concave surface articulates with a convex bone - movement: flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, rotation, circumduction e.g: thumb
143
what makes up the stifle joint
1. synovial membrane (creates sterile condition) 2. articular cartilage (smooth) 3. menisci (under each femoral condyle 4. synovial fluid 5. ligaments and tendons
144
what are the 3 ligaments found in the stifle joint
1. cruciate ligament (crossing) 2. co-lateral ligaments 3. patellar ligament
145
what are 4 conditions that affect the performance of synovial joints
1. trauma 2. genetics 3. inflammation or infection 4. neoplasia
146
flexion
movement in a sagittal plane that tends to decrease the angle between the bone segments that make up a joint
147
extension
movement in a sagittal plane that tends to increase the angle between the bone segments that make up the joint
148
hyperextension
movement greater than 180 degrees
149
adduction
movement toward the medial plane
150
abduction
movement away from the median plane
151
rotation
twisting movement of a segment around its own axis
152
osteomyelitis
- infection of bone - not specific to joints - hard to treat - often after bone sx/ injury
153
arthritis
inflammation of any joint from any known cause
154
polyarthritis
multiple joints inflamed in the same animal at the same time
155
rheumatoid arthritis
- a chronic systemic disease involving joints - polyarticular - marked inflammation of the synovial membrane - unknown cause
156
dislocation
aka luxation - one or more bone is out of normal position
157
sub-luxation
partial dislocation
158
sprain
- in response to a stretch or tear of a ligament - acute injury from trauma that displaces a joint from its normal alignment
159
strain
- from a quick tear of a muscle or tendon - from over-stretching or over-contraction of a muscle can weight bear

Anatomy and Physiology lecture (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions