Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Anatomy and Physiology lecture > the skeletal system > Flashcards

the skeletal system Flashcards

1
Q

define: skeletal system

A

network/ framework of bones working in conjunction with muscles, cartilage, tendons, and ligaments, to perform various functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are some functions of the skeletal system? (5)

A
  • provides structure/ form
  • protects vital internal organs
  • provides sites for muscle attachment, allows for movement
  • hematopoiesis (produces blood cells)
  • storage reservoir for minerals (calcium and phosphorus)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

define: hematopoiesis

A

production of blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

define: osteology

A

the study of bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the different classifications of bones? (5)

A
  1. long bone
  2. short bone
  3. sesamoid bone
  4. flat bones
  5. irregular bones
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the characteristics of a long-bone

A
  1. longer than they are wide
  2. are the main supporting bones
  3. diaphysis, 2 epiphysis, and a marrow cavity
    e.g., humerus, femur, radius, tibia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the characteristics of a short bone?

A
  1. are as long as they are wide (cube-like)
  2. small
  3. has a thin layer of hard compact bone with a softer spongy bone between the layers
    e.g., tarsals, carpals
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are the characteristics of flat bones?

A
  1. broad surface area
  2. thin and flat
  3. two layers of compact bone with a spongy bone between the layers
  4. no central marrow cavity
  5. have a protective function
  6. some contain air-filled spaces
    e.g., scapula, pelvis, ribs, many bones of the skull
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are the characteristics of sesamoid bones?

A
  1. sesame seed shaped
  2. small and short
  3. attached (embedded in) to tendons
  4. is in areas where a change in the direction of pull of a tendon or ligament is required (reduce friction along a joint)
    e.g., patella, fabellae
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are the characteristics of irregular bones?

A
  1. bones that don’t fit into any other category
  2. unpaired bones (b/c their shapes are more complex)
  3. misc.
    e.g., vertebrae, some skull bones
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the different structures of the long bone? (9)

A
  1. epiphysis
  2. diaphysis
  3. periosteum
  4. medullary cavity (contains red and yellow bone marrow)
  5. endosteum
  6. cortical bone
  7. cancellous bone
  8. articular surface
  9. epiphyseal plate (growth plate)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

epiphysis

A

the proximal and distal ENDS of the long bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

diaphysis

A
  • shaft of the long bone
  • hollow
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

periosteum (4)

A
  • thin but tough living connective tissue layer (like living saran wrap)
  • covers the external/outside surface of the long bone except where the articular cartilage is found
  • rich in blood, nerves, and lymphatic vessels
  • tightly adhered
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

medullary cavity

A
  • the inner center of the long bone
  • aka marrow cavity
  • contains blood-forming tissue (red bone marrow)
  • yellow bone marrow
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

red bone marrow

A
  • in the medullary cavity of any animal still growing, then recedes to the epiphysis
  • Blood-forming tissue
  • fills the marrow cavity in newborns
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

yellow bone marrow

A
  • fatty tissue
  • common in adult animals
  • can revert to red bone marrow to create RBC but this takes time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Endosteum

A
  • lines the INSIDE of the marrow cavity
    is similar to the periosteum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

cortical bone

A
  • is on the outside of ALL bones
  • AKA compact bone
  • located in the shaft of the bone and the entire rigid outer components of all bones
  • hard, dense, solid
  • provides support and strength
  • made of haversian system/osteons
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

describe the Haversian system

A

composed of:
- central haversian canal: houses blood vessels and nerves
- canaliculi: very small canals that radiate out connecting all lacunae to each other and to the central Haversian canal
- lamellae: concentric rings of bone
- lacunae: small (cave-like) spaces that house osteocytes (mature bone cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

cancellous bone

A
  • this is what gets weak as we age
  • aka spongy bone
  • no haversian system
  • has a spongy/moth-eaten appearance
  • spaces between trabeculae are filled with marrow
  • located near the ends of the long bones
  • is in most bones
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

trabeculae

A
  • lattice-like pieces of bone
  • has large spaces between them
  • found in the cancellous bone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

articular surface (3)

A
  • smooth and shiny
  • ends of bones that are joint surfaces
  • is covered by articular cartilage (a type of hyaline cartilage)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

epiphysial plate

A

aka growth plate
- growth area between diaphysis and epiphysis (responsible for lengthening growth of bone)
- seen as a wavy blue line
- composed of epiphyseal cartilage (same as articular cartilage)
- becomes an epiphyseal line in mature animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what are the 4 articular structures of the long bone?

A
  1. articular cartilage
  2. condyles
  3. head
  4. facet
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

articular cartilage

A

articular structure
- covers the proximal and distal extremities of the long bone
- is smooth, shiny, blue tinges, is hyaline cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

condyles

A
  • curved
  • large, round articular structure
  • located on the femur, humerus, and skull
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

bone head

A

articular structure
- spherical structure
- proximal end of the humerus, femur, and rib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

facet

A
  • flat articular surface
  • creates a rocking motion
  • found in carpal and tarsal bones, radius, and ulna
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

5 bones/ bone groups found on the medial plane

A
  1. skull
  2. hyoid bone
  3. vertebral column
  4. ribs
  5. sternum

does not include clavicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

4 bones/ bone groups that are part of the appendicular skeleton

A
  1. pelvis
  2. hindlimb bones
  3. scapula
  4. forelimb bones
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

describe sutures

A
  • jagged lines between adjacent flat bones on the skull
  • represent closure lines
  • initially fibrous but ossify with time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what are the 4 major sutures?

A
  1. frontal suture
  2. sagittal suture
  3. coronal suture
  4. squamous/ squamosal suture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

describe the sinuses

A
  • hollows/ excavations in some bones of the skull
  • all connect to the exterior
  • susceptible to infection (sinusitis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what are the 2 major sinuses?

A
  • frontal
  • maxillary
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what are the 4 minor sinuses?

A
  • nasal
  • palatine
  • ethmoid
  • sphenoid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is the order of the different vertebral bone groups from cranial to caudal?

A

cervical
thoracic
lumbar
sacral
coccygeal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

which vertebral group has the same number of vertebrae across different species?

A

cervical (7)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what are the 5 parts of a vertebra

A
  • body
  • arch
  • vertebral (spinal) canal
  • processes
  • foramina
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

describe the body of a vertebrae

A

a cylindrical structure along the ventral aspect of vertebrae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

describe the arch of a vertebrae

A

is the ROOF and SIDES of the vertebral canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

describe the vertebral (spinal) canal

A
  • is the hole in the center of the vertebrae
  • is the space where the spinal cord runs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what are the different types of vertebral processes

A
  1. spinous (can be dorsal or ventral)
  2. transverse
  3. articular (cranial or caudal)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what are the 2 types of foramina?

A
  • vertebral (spinal cord)
  • intervertebral (where the spinal canal exits to the rest of the body)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

another name for C1

A

Atlas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

describe C1 (6)

A

Atlas
- a large transverse process
- small vertebra, small body
- concave cranial and caudal articular surfaces
- articulates cranially with occipital condyle
- is a hinge joint (yes/no joint)
- holds up the skull

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

describe C2 (5)

A

Axis
- pivot joint (allows for rotation)
- large
- has a prominent dorsal spinous process
- articulates cranially and caudally
- has an odontoid process (aka dense) (crania)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

describe the cervical vertebrae

A
  • dorsal spinous process increase in height towards C7
  • has a rudimentary ventral spinous process
  • well-developed cranial and caudal articular processes
  • a large plate-like transverse process that projects caudo-laterally
  • C7 has facets that articulate with the head of the 1st pair of ribs
  • foramina lateral to the body carry nerve and blood vessels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

thoracic vertebrae (4)

A
  • tall and narrow dorsal spinous process
  • a short transverse process
    has 2 points of attachment for the rib:
    1. costo- articular facets (union with the head of the ribs)
    2. transverse costal facet ( articulations with the tubercle of the rib having the same number)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

lumbar vertebrae (3)

A
  • a large transverse process
  • short to moderate dorsal spinous process
  • no rib attachment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

sacral vertebrae

A
  • fused
  • 3 articulations
    1. cranially: last lumbar vertebrae
    2. caudally: 1st coccygeal (caudal) vertebrea
    3. craniodorsally: wing of the ilium (pelvis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

coccygeal vertebrae

A
  • decreasing in size and becoming more cylindrical
  • spinal cord disappears
  • the number varies greatly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

ligamentum nuchae

A
  • nuchal ligament
  • attaches between C2 and T1
  • helps support the head and neck
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

rib structure (8)

A
  1. head
  2. neck
  3. tubercle
  4. angle
  5. costal groove
  6. shaft/body
  7. sternal end
  8. costal chondral junction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

3 major rib types

A
  1. sternal: aka true rib, touch the sternum
  2. asternal: aka false ribs, don’t directly touch the sternum (connect to the costal cartilage of the rib cranial to it)
  3. floating: no connection to the sternum at any point
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

intercostal spaces

A
  • the area between each successive rib
  • contains skeletal muscle
  • surgery entry point for thoracic surgery
  • allows for flexibility and chest movement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

which species have a keel

A

horses
birds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

components of the sternum

A
  1. manubrium sterni: the cranial extremity of the sternum, projects cranially to the 1st rib, cariniform cartilage protects cranially
  2. body: formed from the union of several segments known as sternebrae
  3. xiphoid process: caudal extremity of the sternum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

sternebrae shape in ruminants

A

flat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

sternebrae shape in cats and dogs

A

cylindrical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

functions of the sternum

A
  • floor of the bony thorax (protection)
  • provides attachment to the costal cartilage of sternal ribs (flexibility in chest expansion)
  • place of origin for the pectoral muscles (adduction of forelimbs)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

major scapular functions (3)

A
  1. protection
  2. muscle attachment
  3. forelimb motion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what structure on the scapula is unique to the cat

A

metacromion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

in the elbow joint, what bones are articulating?

A

humerus and ulna

65
Q

is the radius or ulna more weight-bearing?

66
Q

major components of the ulna (3)

A
  • olecranon
  • semi-lunar notch
  • styloid process
67
Q

proximal articulation between the radius and ulna is with what?

68
Q

carpals aka _________

69
Q

carpal is comprised of ________ rows

70
Q

the carpals are a max of how many bones?

71
Q

proximal carpal row is made up of how many bones?

72
Q

name the proximal carpal bones from medial to lateral

A

radial
intermediate
ulnar
accessory

73
Q

what are the names of the bones in the distal carpal bones

A

medial: l-lV

74
Q

there is a maximum of how many metacarpals?

75
Q

describe the metacarpals of ruminants

A

cattle, sheep, goats
- MC lll and MC lV fused
- is only ONE BONE
- small furrow remains where fusion occurred

76
Q

horse metatarsals

A

canon bone = MC lll
splint bones = MC ll (medial) and MC lV (lateral side)

77
Q

how many bones make up the horse metatarsal?

78
Q

the first metatarsal on a cat or dog is commonly called

79
Q

cats and dogs have how many metatarsals?

80
Q

pigs have how many metatarsals?

A

4
missing l

81
Q

describe the pig’s metatarsals

A

l: absent
ll and v: reduced
lll and lV: very prominent

82
Q

phalanges

A
  • any digit that touches the ground
  • has 3 phalanxes
83
Q

name the 3 rows of phalanges

A

1st / proximal / p1 / long pastern
2nd / middle / p2 / short pastern
3rd / distal / p3 / coffin bone

84
Q

sesamoid bones in pigs

85
Q

distal sesamoid bone in horses

A

navicular bone

86
Q

which is the big weight-bearing bone

87
Q

Os Coxae

A

complete pelvis

88
Q

name the 3 parts of the pelvis

A

ilium
ischium
pubis

89
Q

pubic symphysis

A
  • line of union between each side
  • cartilaginous
  • fuses and ossified with time
90
Q

acetabulum

A
  • the point where the 3 pelvic bones unite
  • a concave socket (hip joint)
91
Q

obturator foramen

A
  • the large holes on each side of the pelvis
  • nerves and blood vessels pass through it
    MAIN PURPOSE: lightens the weight of the pelvis
92
Q

parts of the femur:

A
  1. head
  2. neck
  3. greator trochanter
  4. lesser trochanter
  5. shaft
  6. medial condyle
  7. lateral condyle
93
Q

proximal and distal articulation of the femur

A

proximal: acetabulum
distal: forms stifle with the tibia and the patella

94
Q

fabellae

A
  • paired
  • small sesamoid bones
  • found on the caudal aspect of the humerus
  • act to change direction
95
Q

patella

A
  • largest sesamoid bone
  • articulates with the femur and the tibia
96
Q

tibial tuberosity

A

roughened ridge along the proximal cranial border of the tibia

97
Q

tarsals aka

A

hock joint

98
Q

the hock has how many rows

99
Q

proximal tarsal row

A
  • tibial tarsal bone (talus)
  • fibular tarsal bone (calcaneus) aka tuber calis, projects up and caudally
100
Q

middle tarsal row

A

central tarsal bone (aka navicular tarsal bone)

101
Q

distal tarsal row

A

numbered medial: l-lV

102
Q

tuber calcis

A

top of the fibular tarsal bone

103
Q

ossification

A

the formation of or conversion into bone or boney substances

104
Q

osteoblasts form __________ and become mature ____________

A
  1. new bone
  2. osteocytes
105
Q

what proportion organinc and inorganic are bones?

A

1/3 organic
2/3 inorganic

106
Q

structurally, how is true bone formed

A

deposition of calcium salts onto an organic framework

107
Q

which part is more rigid, the organic or the inorganic part of the bone?

108
Q

what makes bones twist like a pretzel

109
Q

what allows you to crush bones to dust

A

extreme heat

110
Q

what 3 ways can bones form

A
  • endochondral ossification
  • intramembranous ossification
  • heteroblastic ossification
111
Q

describe endochondral ossification

A
  • uses a cartilaginous framework to convert cartilage bars that are laid down in the embryo to bone
  • most bones are formed this way, which occurs in long bones
112
Q

describe intramembranous ossification

A
  • bone is formed within fibrous membranes that are laid down in the embryo
  • most flat bones are formed this way
113
Q

describe heteroplastic ossification

A
  • formation of bone in tissue other than the skeleton (os penis, os cordis)
114
Q

bone lengthening

A

occurs in long bones
- articular and epiphysial cartilage grows
- replaced by bone

115
Q

bone thickening

A

periosteum:
- fibrous layer covering the bone shaft
- proliferates cells (osteoblasts)
endosteum
- layer lining the marrow cavity
- contains cells (osteoclasts) that remove formed bone
- allow for bone thickening without any weight gain

116
Q

types of cells of bone

A
  • osteoblasts
  • osteocytes
  • osteoclast
117
Q

osteoblasts

A
  • immature bone cells
  • large cells
  • derived from primitive cells
  • bone-forming cells
  • ability to divide
  • produce matrix (osteoid)
  • have cell process
  • metabolically active
118
Q

osteocytes

A
  • mature bone cell, each occupies a lacunae in the bone
  • derived from osteoblasts
  • smaller
  • can’t divide
  • long cell process
  • flattened nucleus
119
Q

osteoclasts

A
  • multinucleated giant cell
  • derived from macrophages
  • act to reabsorb cartilage and the bone matrix
  • can dissolve bone matrix and release minerals (osteolysis)
120
Q

what are the 8 types of bone fractures

A
  1. simple
  2. oblique
  3. comminuted
  4. spiral
  5. greenstick
  6. transverse
  7. epiphyseal
  8. compound fracture
121
Q

describe a greenstick fracture

A
  • fracture straight across the bone
  • no perforation of the skin
  • good apposition of ends
  • heals well
122
Q

describe an oblique fracture

A
  • break occurs diagonally across the bone
123
Q

describe a comminuted fracture

A
  • multiple fragments but no break in the skin
124
Q

describe a spiral fracture

A

break travels around the bone

125
Q

describe a greenstick fracture

A
  • incomplete fracture
  • only one side of the bone is fractured
  • happens in younger animals because they are bendier
126
Q

describe a transverse fracture

A

bone fracture straight across two bones

127
Q

describe an epiphyseal fracture

A

separation between the epiphysis and diaphysis

128
Q

describe a compound fracture

A

a fracture that breaks the skin

129
Q

what are the 5 phases of bone healing

A
  1. fracture and inflammatory phase
  2. granulation tissue formation
  3. callus formation
  4. lamellar bone deposition
  5. remodelling
130
Q

what are the 3 types of articulation?

A
  • fibrous
  • cartilaginous
  • synovial
131
Q

describe fibrous joints

A
  • no joint cavity
  • united by fibrous tissue
  • limited movement
  • synarthroses
    eg. sutures, teeth, splints
132
Q

describe cartilaginous joints

A
  • no joint cavity
  • united by cartilage
  • moderate movement
  • amphiarthroses
    eg. intervertebral discs, pubic symphysis, epiphyseal plates
133
Q

describe synovial joints

A
  • has a joint cavity
  • fluid-filled (synovial fluid)
  • supported by ligaments and tendons
  • greatest movement
134
Q

ligament

A

bone - bone

135
Q

tendon

A

muscle - bone

136
Q

what are the 6 types of synovial joint classification

A
  • ginglymus
  • arthroidal
  • gliding
  • trochoid
  • spheroid
  • saddle
137
Q

describe a ginglymus synovial joint

A
  • hinge movement
  • cylindrical bone fits into depression
  • allows for movement - flexion, extension
    eg. stifle, elbow
138
Q

describe an arthrodial synovial joint

A
  • oval articulating surface
  • movement: fexion, extension
  • ligaments restrict movement
  • e.g. radiocarpal joints
139
Q

describe a gliding synovial joint

A
  • flat, articulating surfaces
  • movement: flexion, extension
  • e.g. radioulnar joint, most carpals and tarsals
140
Q

describe a trochoid synovial joint

A
  • pivot joint
  • movement: rotation
  • e.g. dense
141
Q

describe the spheroid synovial joint

A
  • ball and socket joints
  • movement: flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, rotation, circulation
142
Q

describe a saddle synovial joint

A
  • particular to primates
  • concave surface articulates with a convex bone
  • movement: flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, rotation, circumduction
    e.g: thumb
143
Q

what makes up the stifle joint

A
  1. synovial membrane (creates sterile condition)
  2. articular cartilage (smooth)
  3. menisci (under each femoral condyle
  4. synovial fluid
  5. ligaments and tendons
144
Q

what are the 3 ligaments found in the stifle joint

A
  1. cruciate ligament (crossing)
  2. co-lateral ligaments
  3. patellar ligament
145
Q

what are 4 conditions that affect the performance of synovial joints

A
  1. trauma
  2. genetics
  3. inflammation or infection
  4. neoplasia
146
Q

flexion

A

movement in a sagittal plane that tends to decrease the angle between the bone segments that make up a joint

147
Q

extension

A

movement in a sagittal plane that tends to increase the angle between the bone segments that make up the joint

148
Q

hyperextension

A

movement greater than 180 degrees

149
Q

adduction

A

movement toward the medial plane

150
Q

abduction

A

movement away from the median plane

151
Q

rotation

A

twisting movement of a segment around its own axis

152
Q

osteomyelitis

A
  • infection of bone
  • not specific to joints
  • hard to treat
  • often after bone sx/ injury
153
Q

arthritis

A

inflammation of any joint from any known cause

154
Q

polyarthritis

A

multiple joints inflamed in the same animal at the same time

155
Q

rheumatoid arthritis

A
  • a chronic systemic disease involving joints
  • polyarticular
  • marked inflammation of the synovial membrane
  • unknown cause
156
Q

dislocation

A

aka luxation
- one or more bone is out of normal position

157
Q

sub-luxation

A

partial dislocation

158
Q

sprain

A
  • in response to a stretch or tear of a ligament
  • acute injury from trauma that displaces a joint from its normal alignment
159
Q

strain

A
  • from a quick tear of a muscle or tendon
  • from over-stretching or over-contraction of a muscle
    can weight bear

Anatomy and Physiology lecture (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions