The Industrial Revolution

Question 1

Why?

Answer 1

• Any system with profit & motif = strive to sell good
• Private property is a right!

Restrictions on trade and commerce exercised by absolute monarchy were unnatural and inefficient

During the 18th century, the population of England grew enormously
 Industrialization
 The plague
 Better diets through more diversified food production
 There was an enormous explosion in the availability of capital
 Direct consequence of economic experiments

England benefited from being an island and having ports in every directions (English Channel, etc.)
 The ideas of ports – England would economically and militarily fail or survive on sea power
 Ships made all the difference (raw material transport, sustenance of empire, etc.)

Almost everything produced in Europe in the 19th century traveled on English ships
 England had HUGE opportunities and advantages – and made the most of them!

Question 2

Adam Scott

Answer 2

• He wrote a great book printed in 1776 called The Wealth of Nations which provided the clearest statement of ‘laissez faire’ capitalism
• –> Description of utopian world of economics defined a new kind of economic system
• England came the closest to this operation of a laissez faire economic world —> By the end of the 8th century, they had reached such a place of wealth and influence
• Part of the reason for this stems from what those enlightenment observers described as the remarkable freedom of Englishmen from their government
• Very few restrictions by birth for improvement, you were not limited by your social condition or determined by your status in society whatsoever
• England had a close relationship between urban mercantile classes and gentry
• In England, there was a deep deep tradition of scientific research, etc.
   Bacon
   Newton
   Continued throughout the 18th century

They made science and technology and curiously part of regular conversation

 Looking at England in the 17th century, you’d see it as a prosperous little island
 France = highly educated population, large, etc.
 19th century – England was the most powerful – not France!
 Why?
 INDUSTRIALIZATION

Question 3

Why did Industrializaton work?

Answer 3

Thanks to factorization of production of goods!

What really made the difference was the application of technology!

This gave England the unquestioned control of industrialization

Such a motivation to make things better = the idea of publishing new ideas was seen as threatening to traditional rulers of Europe

By the latter part of the 18th century, this sort of tinkering was BUMPIN

Textile industry felt this FIRST

By 1800, the textile industry was a huge factory based system producing so muchhhh

Most early attempts to improve manufacturing was of the “hand” variety (hand looms, etc.)