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Immunohematology (Blood Bank and Serology) > The Immune Response > Flashcards

The Immune Response Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two types of immunity?

A

humoral and cellular

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2
Q

What is humoral immunity, and what specific cell is associated with it?

A

refers to the synthesis and release of antibody into the blood and other body tissues, where it is capable of direct combination with and neutralization of antigen; B-cells

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3
Q

What is cellular immunity, and what specific cell is associated with it?

A

refers to the production of sensitized lymphocytes (T-cells) and their products (lymphokines), which play a role in the rejection of skin transplants, defense against infectious organisms, tumor immunity, and delayed-type hypersensitivity reactions

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4
Q

What is the parent cell of both B- and T-cells?

A

stem cells from bone marrow

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5
Q

In which organ do T-cells differentiate?

A

thymus

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6
Q

Where do B-cells differentiate?

A

fetal liver, bone marrow, or gut-associated lymphoid tissue (GALT)

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7
Q

What, in man, is considered to be the equivalent of the Bursa of Fabricius in birds?

A

bone marrow

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8
Q

What are T-cells considered to be once they are exposed to antigen?

A

activated

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9
Q

What kind of cell do B-cells become and what do they secrete?

A

plasma cells; antibody

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10
Q

What is the appearance of a plasma cell?

A

large, off-center nucleus, gradated blue cytoplasm (dark edges, lighter center)

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11
Q

In terms of B- and T-cells, what does CD stand for, and what is it?

A

cluster of differentiation; membrane protein found on all white cells

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12
Q

What is the purpose of the constant recirculation of B- and T-cells throughout the body?

A

increases contact with foreign antigens, as there are only a small number of lymphocytes that recognize any one antigen

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13
Q

What are null cells?

A

also called “natural killer” cells; a small percentage of lymphocytes (5-15%) that do not express the markers of either T- or B-cells; they do not have any unique surface antigens, but they do have specific antigen combinations that can be used for identification

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14
Q

What CD numbers can be found on null cells, and which ones do they lack?

A

possess CD16, CD56, and CD95; lack CD3, CD4, and CD8

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15
Q

Where are null cells found?

A

mainly found in the spleen and peripheral blood

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16
Q

What are null cells capable of?

A

mediate cytolytic reactions and kill target cells without prior exposure to them; can recognize and destroy any foreign cells without regard to MHC restrictions

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17
Q

Null cells represent the first line of defense against what other kinds of cells?

A

virally infected cells and tumor cells

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18
Q

What is the suspected relationship between null cells and cytotoxic lymphocytes?

A

if foreign cells escape the action of cytotoxic lymphocytes, null cells may take over the destruction of these foreign cells

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19
Q

What is the predominant type of lymphocyte in the peripheral blood, and in what percentage do they occur?

A

T-cells; 60-80%

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20
Q

What is the average half-life of T-cells?

A

2.2 years

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21
Q

What is meant by cloning in immunological terms?

A

once a T-cell becomes activated, it travels to the lymph nodes and spleen where copies of the T-cell are made and proliferated; further cloning will take place once these original clones colonize other lymphoid tissue

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22
Q

Besides the spleen and lymph nodes, what are the other three locations considered to be secondary organs?

A

appendix, Peyer’s patches in the intestines, and mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) in the GI, respiratory, and urogenital tracts

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23
Q

What happens if antigen contact occurs in the lymph nodes?

A

lymphocyte traffic halts for ~24 hrs. in an attempt to immobilize antigen, which causes the lymph nodes to become enlarged (lymphadenopathy)

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24
Q

What are T-effector cells?

A

also known as T-cytotoxic cells, or killer cells (NOT null cells); T-cells with the CD8 marker that react against foreign tissues, viruses, and tumors, and have the ability to destroy target cells

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25
Q

What are T-helper cells?

A

also known as T-inducer cells; T-cells with the CD4 marker that produce lymphokines, which assist B-cells in the production of antibody, as well as assist T-effector cells; also play a role in controlling the entire immune system

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26
Q

What percentage of T-cells are actually T-helper cells?

A

40-60%

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27
Q

What are T-regulatory cells?

A

formerly known as T-suppressor cells; also have the CD4 marker; produce lymphokines that suppress antibody production and cellular response

28
Q

How do T-regulatory cells relate to autoimmune disease?

A

they play an important role in suppressing immune response to self-antigen

29
Q

What are lymphokines?

A

cytokines produced primarily by lymphocytes; small polypeptides, given off by antigen-stimulated T-cells, that regulate the functions of other cells and tissues, such as growth, secretion, and differentiation

30
Q

What is the life-span of B-cells?

A

3 days

31
Q

Where are B-cells committed to forming antibodies to specific antigens or antigen groups?

A

bone marrow

32
Q

What are memory cells?

A

type of long-lived B-cell formed after an intial antigen encounter that can be quickly activated upon a second exposure to the same antigen

33
Q

Which virus is known to selectively invade B-cells?

A

Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

34
Q

What is rosette formation?

A

phenomenon exhibited when sheep red cells are mixed with T-cells, in which the red cells attach to CD2 receptors, forming a daisy-like pattern; because all T-cells express the CD2 marker, this technique can be used to identify T-cells in the laboratory

35
Q

What are the two most common methods for identifying T- and B-cells in the lab, and what do both methods rely on?

A

fluorescence microscopy and flow cytometry (most often used); the use of labeled monoclonal antibody against specific surface antigens

36
Q

What are the three fluorescent tags that can be used for T- and B-cell identification?

A

rhodamine, fluorescein, and phycoerythrin

37
Q

What is flow cytometry?

A

automated system based on the scattering of light as cells flow in single file through a laser beam

38
Q

What does the amount of forward light scatter measure in flow cytometry?

A

size

39
Q

What does the amount of side light scatter measure in flow cytometry?

A

granularity

40
Q

How do fluorescent-tagged antibodies identify the subgroups of T-cells?

A

each antibody has a fluorescent tag of a specific wavelength; the percentage of cells exhibiting fluorescence of a certain wavelength is determined and the ID is made

41
Q

How long after an initial antigen encounter can IgM antibody be found in the serum?

A

3-4 days

42
Q

What is the activity of IgM in the primary immune response?

A

quickly peaks and plateaus, and the decreases over the next few weeks

43
Q

How long after exposure does the presence of IgG occur?

A

1-2 weeks

44
Q

How does the activity of IgG compare to the activity of IgM in the primary immune response?

A

rises to higher levels, peaks within a few weeks, and decreases over the course of a few months

45
Q

When is a secondary (anamnestic) response induced?

A

upon second and subsequent exposure to the same antigen

46
Q

IgM occurs in the secondary response in the same fashion as the primary, but what is different about the occurrence of IgG?

A

reaches much higher levels and decreases very gradually, often over a period of several years

47
Q

What is the major benefit of memory cells?

A

provide long-lived protection against disease caused by the antigen it was originally formed for

48
Q

Are T-cells capable of memory?

A

yes

49
Q

What is the immune response (Ir) gene?

A

structural gene in the MHC that exerts a regulatory role on the immune response

50
Q

What is the Instructive/Template Theory of antibody synthesis?

A

antigen in some way directs the cells to form its corresponding antibody by serving as a mold or template and altering protein synthesis so that antibody with a specific fit is made

51
Q

What is Ehrlich’s Side Chain Theory?

A

cells contain specific surface receptors for antigen which are selected and turned on by contact of antigen with the cell; antibody is then produced by the receptors breaking off and circulating as antibody

52
Q

What is the Clonal Selection Theory?

A

each lymphocyte has the genetic information available to make one particular antibody, and molecules of the antibody are built into the cell surface membrane as receptors; antigen will then combine with the lymphocytes carrying antibody that is a good fit; these original lymphocytes will then be stimulated to divide or form clones of cells synthesizing antibody with the same specificity as that of the parent cell

53
Q

Which theory is the basis for the most presently accepted hypothesis of the mechanism of antibody formation?

A

Clonal Selection Theory

54
Q

What characterizes an immunodeficiency disease?

A

individual is deficient in B-cells, T-cells, phagocytic cells, and/or complement system

55
Q

What is congenital hypogammaglobulinemia (agammaglobulinemia)?

A

abnormal delay in synthesis of normal antibody by newborns, resulting in susceptibility to infection; patients usually recover by age 9-15 mos., and the condition is not normally threatening due to the probable protection offered by maternal IgG

56
Q

What is acquired agammaglobulinemia?

A

side effect of infection, malignancy, autoimmune disease, malnutrition, burns, or sometimes unknown sources; susceptibility to infection results, and testing will show a decrease in IgG and plasma cells

57
Q

What are immunoproliferative diseases?

A

diseases in which there is a malignant proliferation of one of the key cells of the immune system

58
Q

What is hypergammaglobulinemia?

A

increased gamma globulins

59
Q

What is a monoclonal gammopathy?

A

the overproduction of immunoglobulins or their fragments by a single clone of plasma cells; multiple myeloma, Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia, and heavy chain disease all fall under this category

60
Q

Define multiple myeloma.

A

consists of plasma cell tumors in the bone marrow that overproduce a single class of immunoglobulin (50-60% of cases are IgG); in about 20% of cases, Bence-Jones proteins will be found in the urine; survival time is around 2-5 years

61
Q

What are Bence-Jones proteins?

A

abnormal proteins that will coagulate upon heating to 45-55*C, then redissolve upon boiling

62
Q

Describe Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia.

A

involves IgM overproduction; bone lesions can be seen, though rarely; survival time is 3-5 years for high risk patients, and ~12 years for low risk patients

63
Q

What is heavy chain disease?

A

condition in which the serum contains high amounts of incomplete heavy chain fragments; can be IgG, IgM, or IgA in nature

64
Q

What is polyclonal gammopathy?

A

a generalized response to an antigen by a variety of cells arising from different clones; often seen in patients with chronic infections, hepatic disease, collagen diseases, and autoimmune diseases

65
Q

What is monoclonal antibody?

A

synthesized antibody used for diagnostic testing; created by fusing a plasma cell with a myeloma (cancerous plasma cell) that can be grown indefinitely in the laboratory

66
Q

Can monoclonal antibodies be used for treating patients?

A

no; they are cancerous in nature, and so can only be used for testing purposes

67
Q

What is a plasmacytoma?

A

plasma cell tumor

Immunohematology (Blood Bank and Serology) (15 decks)

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