Exam IV

Question 1

Which blood group system is associated with resistance to malaria?

Answer 1

Duffy

Question 2

Which antibodies are considered cold agglutinins?

Answer 2

N, P1, Ii

Question 3

Which autoantibody specificity is associated with paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria and what test is used to detect it?

Answer 3

P antigen, Donath-Landsteiner test

Question 4

What procedure might help to distinguish between an anti-Fya and an anti-Jka?

Answer 4

enzyme treatment; Jka will be enhanced

Question 5

Which blood group is produced in the tissues?

Answer 5

Lewis

Question 6

What is the McLeod phenotype?

Answer 6

recessive mutation of the Kell system, characterized by the absence of the XK protein on the X-chromosome

Question 7

What antibodies require the antiglobulin test (AHG phase) for in vitro detection?

Answer 7

Kell, Duffy, Kidd, Ss, Ii (with polyspecific)

Question 8

What is the rarest phenotype of the Lutheran system?

Answer 8

Lu(a-b-)

Question 9

Which antigen is X-linked?

Answer 9

Xga

Question 10

Which antibody is often found in patients with infectious mononucleosis, lymphoproliferative disease, and cold agglutinins?

Answer 10

anti-i

Question 11

Which antibodies are known for causing delayed HTR?

Answer 11

Kidd, anti-P1 (rare)

Question 12

Fy(a-b-) is found primarily in which population?

Answer 12

African-American

Question 13

Which antigen is found primarily in South, Central, and North American Indians and Asians?

Answer 13

Dia

Question 14

Which blood group systems are known for showing dosage?

Answer 14

MNSs, Kidd, Lutheran, Duffy, Rh (Cc, Ee)

Question 15

What is the most common antibody seen in the blood bank other than ABO and Rh?

Answer 15

anti-K

Question 16

Which blood group antigen increases in strength as a newborn grows older?

Answer 16

Ii

Question 17

Which genotype can immunize a patient with blood group Ss?

Answer 17

ss

Question 18

Which antigens are actually white cell antigens that are expressed in variable degrees on red cells and can cause confusing reactions in serological testing?

Answer 18

Bg

Question 19

Which antigens are well-developed at birth, susceptible to enzymes, and generally saline reactive?

Answer 19

Duffy

Question 20

What are three common antibodies most likely to react at 37*C?

Answer 20

anti-C, anti-D, anti-E

Question 21

What is the most practical manner of preventing transmission of malaria through blood transfusion?

Answer 21

permanent deferral from donating blood if you have ever been diagnosed with malaria or have ever been to an area where the disease is prevalent

Question 22

Can unused autologous donations be placed in the general supply and used for a patient other than who it was intended for?

Answer 22

no

Question 23

What is plasmapheresis?

Answer 23

process by which blood is drawn, plasma is removed and the remaining components are returned to the donor from whom they were taken

Question 24

What is cytapheresis?

Answer 24

process by which blood is drawn, the cells are removed, and the remaining components are returned to the donor from whom they were taken

Question 25

What is plateletpheresis?

Answer 25

process by which blood is drawn, platelets are removed, and the remaining components are returned to the donor from whom they were taken

Question 26

Why should donor units be tested for weak-D?

Answer 26

weak-D positive units are considered to be Rh+ and should only be given to Rh+ patients

Question 27

What are the two terms used to refer to AHG that contains both anti-complement and anti-IgG?

Answer 27

broad spectrum, polyspecific

Question 28

A transfusion that replaces approximately a patient's entire blood volume within a 24-hour period is called what?

Answer 28

exchange transfusion

Question 29

What is an emergency release?

Answer 29

a physician signs an order for uncrossmatched blood products and accepts full responsibility for the transfusion of these products

Question 30

What are homozygous cells used for "ruling out"?

Answer 30

antibodies that demonstrate dosage

Question 31

Why should a patient's serum/plasma for compatibility testing be stored?

Answer 31

in case the testing needs to be repeated

Question 32

Leukocyte antibodies are usually responsible for what type of transfusion reaction?

Answer 32

transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI)

Question 33

Which blood bank test detects in vitro sensitization?

Answer 33

IAT (indirect Coomb's)

Question 34

How is the shelf life of blood determined?

Answer 34

the preservative it is stored in, the temperature it is stored at, whether the hermetic seal has been broken or if the product has been pooled, whether or not it has been irradiated

Question 35

What is the purpose of the albumin or LISS portion of an antibody screen or crossmatch?

Answer 35

reduces the zeta-potential to enhance the reaction

Question 36

What information does a +DAT convey?

Answer 36

the patient's red cells are being coated with IgG antibody and/or complement in vivo (inside the body)

Question 37

What kind of transfusion reaction is a patient who has received multiple transfusions most likely to have?

Answer 37

febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction (FNHTR)

Question 38

What does CPDA stand for?

Answer 38

citrate-phosphate-dextrose-adenine

Question 39

What is the shelf like of a blood unit contained in CPDA-1?

Answer 39

35 days

Question 40

What is the shelf like of a blood unit contained in AS-1?

Answer 40

42 days

Question 41

How often should a new recipient sample be collected if a series of transfusions are to be administered over a period of several days?

Answer 41

no more than three days before each transfusion

Question 42

Incomplete antibodies usually belong to which immunoglobulin class?

Answer 42

IgG

Question 43

What does it mean to perform a major crossmatch?

Answer 43

patient serum/plasma is tested against donor red cells for compatibility

Question 44

How many time are cells washed in an antibody screen, and what is the purpose of doing this?

Answer 44

3-4 times to remove any unbound IgG or other unbound protein that can possible interfere with testing

Question 45

What is therapeutic phlebotomy and for what conditions can it be used?

Answer 45

the removal of blood as a means of treating a disease state; used for conditions such as polycythemia vera and hemachromatosis (iron overload)

Question 46

What is the Rule of Three and why is it used?

Answer 46

when identifying an antibody, there should be three cells + for the suspected antibody and three = cells that do not contain the suspected antibody; this provides statistical confirmation

Question 47

Explain an antibody screen, including why and when it is done, what the stages are, what happens if it is positive, and why there is a control.

Answer 47

performed using three different screening cells, usually alongside blood typing, and if a crossmatch is +, to determine if a potentially clinically significant antibody might be present in the patient plasma; if the screen is positive, a full antibody panel must be done to identify the specific antibody/antibodies; autocontrols are performed to rule out the possibility of autoagglutinins

Question 48

What is a directed/specific donation?

Answer 48

blood, typically donated by a friend or family of the recipient, that is compatible with and specifically for a particular recipient

Question 49

What blood group system does anti-Dia correlate to?

Answer 49

Diego

Question 50

What blood group system does anti-Sc2 correlate to?

Answer 50

Scianna

Question 51

What blood group system does anti-Xga correlate to?

Answer 51

Xg

Question 52

What blood group system does anti-Cob correlate to?

Answer 52

Colton

Question 53

What blood group system does anti-Ch3 correlate to?

Answer 53

Chido/Rodgers

Question 54

What blood group system does anti-Ge3 correlate to?

Answer 54

Gerbich

Question 55

If an antibody panel is performed and all cells are positive, including the control, what is the most likely explanation?

Answer 55

cold or warm autoantibody, or multiple antibodies