Exam II Flashcards
What is the best temperature range for cold agglutinins to react?
0-5*C
Give 4 examples of infections that might cause cold agglutinins to develop.
Mycoplasma pneumoniae, mononucleosis, Listeria monocytogenes, cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Explain desensitization.
the process in which a hypersensitive animal is given several very small subcutaneous injections of antigen at closely spaced intervals, which may enable it to tolerate a normally shocking dose without severe reaction
Briefly explain Graves’ disease.
hyperthyroidism; an immune system disorder that results in the overproduction of thyroid hormones; clinical findings would show increased T3 and T4, but decreased or absent TSH
Explain what the reactions mean in a hemagglutination inhibition test.
+ reaction (no agglutination) means that the patient has sufficient hapten to inhibit a secondary reaction; = reaction (agglutination) means that the patient does NOT have sufficient hapten to inhibit a secondary reaction
Which organ is thought to remove potentially self-reactive lymphocytes?
thymus
The Nichols strain of T. pallidum is used in what type of testing?
fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-ABS)
When do serum tests for syphilis usually become reactive?
first and third weeks following the initial lesion
What kind of reaction would the serological tests show in secondary syphilis, and how long after treatment does the serological test become nonreactive?
positive result; 12 months
The secondary stage of syphilis occurs how many weeks after the appearance of the primary chancre?
6-8 weeks
Name three pharmacologically active mediators of anaphylaxis.
histamine, eosinophilic chemotactic factor of anaphylaxis (ECFA), tryptase
How contagious is the late latent stage of syphilis between mother and child?
usually noncontagious
P24 is a viral antigen that is the first to be detected in which potentially deadly virus?
HIV
Name three means of transmission of HIV.
sexual intercourse, sharing needles, perinatal transmission
Needles that dispense antigen for VDRL testing must be calibrated to deliver how much, and how often do they need to be QC’d?
1/60 mL (60 drops/mL); before each batch of testing
T. pallidum crosses the placenta in which week of gestation?
18th
What does the fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-ABS) test identify in the patient’s serum, and what does the fluorescein-labeled antihuman globulin do for the purposes of interpreting this test?
treponemal antibodies; makes the antigen-antibody reaction visible
What is “labeled” with fluorescent dye in the direct fluorescent antibody test?
the antibody
Is the serum inactivated to destroy complement in the VDRL or the RPR test?
VDRL (venereal disease reference laboratory)
What part of the body do Hashimoto’s thyroiditis and Graves’ disease affect?
thyroid gland
What part of the body does pernicious anemia affect?
gastric parietal area, red cells
What part of the body does Addison’s disease affect?
adrenal glands
What part of the body does Type I diabetes mellitus affect?
pancreas
What part of the body does myasthenia gravis (MG) affect?
nerve-muscle synapses