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Immunohematology (Blood Bank and Serology) > Miscellaneous Quizzes > Flashcards

Miscellaneous Quizzes Flashcards

1
Q

What is the best temperature for cold agglutinins to react at?

A

0-5*C

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2
Q

In the direct fluorescent antibody test, what is labeled with the fluorescent dye?

A

antibody

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3
Q

Proteins can be complexed with red cells as antigen carriers in indirect or passive hemagglutination testing through the use of what?

A

tannic acid

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4
Q

What can a Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection cause to develop?

A

cold agglutinins

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5
Q

In a hemagglutination inhibition test, the presence of agglutination indicates what about the antigen being tested?

A

the antigen is not present

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6
Q

What phenomenon can lead to false positives when several antigens are closely related in structure?

A

cross reactivity

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7
Q

Which hormone is detected in pregnancy testing?

A

hCG

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8
Q

What urine specimen is recommended for the earliest detection of pregnancy?

A

first morning

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9
Q

For what reason may some technicians prefer serum over plasma for testing?

A

plasma may contain fibrin clots that can be difficult to distinguish from agglutination

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10
Q

Which Coomb’s test is used in detecting HDFN, HTR, and AIHA, and what kind of globulins does it test for?

A

direct Coomb’s (DAT); tests for gamma or beta globulins

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11
Q

What effect can drugs like Levodopa and Phenazopyridine have on a DAT?

A

can cause them to be positive

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12
Q

What kind of transfusion reaction is associated with antibodies to white cells, commonly due to multiple transfusions?

A

febrile non-hemolytic (FNHTR)

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13
Q

If a newborn’s A or B cells are coated with the mother’s immune anti-A or -B. which test would be positive?

A

DAT

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14
Q

Why should pretransfusion samples be kept after testing, and for how long?

A

keep for three days; the time of appearance of unexpected antibodies may be delayed

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15
Q

What should be done if there is any doubt as to the identity of a blood sample?

A

request a redraw

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16
Q

If a kk recipient receives Kk donor blood, to what foreign antigen would that recipient be immunized to?

A

K

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17
Q

Which antigen is most common in South, Central, and North American Indians and Asians?

A

Dia

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18
Q

Jk(a-b-) occurs most commonly in which population?

A

Polynesians, Chinese, and Filipinos

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19
Q

Which antibody is a hemolysin seen in paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria, referred to as the Donath-Landsteiner antibody?

A

anti-P

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20
Q

Which antibody is found in patients with mycoplasmal or viral pneumonia?

A

anti-I

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21
Q

Which antibody is found in patients with infectious mononucleosis?

A

anti-i

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22
Q

What is the general term for antibodies possessed by

A

low-incidence

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23
Q

Can a patient with the genotype MN be immunized by any of the following genotypes: MM, MN, or NN?

A

no

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24
Q

In what population is Lu(a-b-) the rarest?

A

this phenotype is rare in all populations

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25
Q

Which blood group system is associated with resistance to malaria?

A

Duffy

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26
Q

The McLeod phenotype is associated with the absence of what antigens?

A

Kx

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27
Q

Which antigen is actually a white cell antigen that is also expressed to varying degrees on red cells and can cause confusion in serological testing?

A

Bg

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28
Q

Which phenotype is found in the African-American population with a frequency of 68%?

A

Fy(a-b-)

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29
Q

Which antigens are enhanced by enzymes?

A

Ii, P, Kidd

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30
Q

Which antigens are destroyed by enzymes?

A

MNS, Duffy

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31
Q

Which antibodies react best at 37*C and AHG phases?

A

Duffy, MN (though not typical), S, k

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32
Q

What is the total sum of genes present on the chromosomes with respect to one or more characteristics, regardless of whether or not they produce detectable traits?

A

genotype

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33
Q

What kind of gene is always expressed whether it is present in the homozygous or heterozygous state?

A

dominant

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34
Q

What kind of gene produces no product even in the homozygous state?

A

silent or amorph

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35
Q

What kind of gene is expressed only when it is inherited in the homozygous state?

A

recessive

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36
Q

What is the name for the detectable products of genes only discovered through a description of observed traits or as the result of direct testing?

A

phenotype

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37
Q

What does PEG stand for?

A

polyethylene glycol

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38
Q

Which gene is necessary for the expression of the ABO genes?

A

H

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39
Q

When does T. pallidum cross the placenta?

A

from 18 weeks onward

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40
Q

What does the FTA-ABS test detect in patient serum?

A

treponemal antibody

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41
Q

Which stage of syphilis occurs 6-8 weeks after the appearance of the primary lesion?

A

secondary

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42
Q

In secondary syphilis, what can be expected of serological testing results, and how long after treatment do they become nonreactive?

A

they are invariably positive; become nonreactive 12-18 months after treatment

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43
Q

Is syphilis contagious in the late latent stage?

A

not usually

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44
Q

What component of the FTA-ABS test makes the antibody-antigen reaction visible?

A

fluorescein-labeled antihuman globulin

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45
Q

Which strain of T. pallidum is used as the antigen in the FTA-ABS test?

A

the virulent Nichols strain

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46
Q

How long after the appearance of the primary syphilitic lesion do serum tests become reactive?

A

between the first and third week

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47
Q

Why is the patient’s serum heated in the VDRL test?

A

to destroy complement

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48
Q

How often should the needles used to dispense antigen in the VDRL test be calibrated, and what volume of antigen do they need to deliver?

A

before each test batch is prepared; 1/60 mL

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49
Q

What substance is added to the RPR test to serve as an adsorption center for tissue lipids?

A

cholesterol

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50
Q

Which test uses modified VDRL antigen?

A

RPR

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51
Q

What is the name for the characteristic inflammatory lesion in primary syphilis?

A

chancre

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52
Q

What is the name of the antibody formed to tissue lipids in regards to syphilis?

A

reagin

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53
Q

VDRL and RPR are examples of what kind of serological testing?

A

flocculation

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54
Q

What speed does the rotator need to be set to in the RPR test?

A

100 rpm

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55
Q

What does the antigen in the RPR contain (i.e., what modifies it from the VDRL test)?

A

charcoal

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56
Q

Which syphilis test is read microscopically?

A

VDRL

57
Q

Which syphilis test does not require that patient serum be inactivated before testing?

A

RPR

58
Q

Which syphilis test requires a flat-bottomed bottle?

A

VDRL

59
Q

Can treating a pregnant woman for syphilis cure her fetus?

A

no

60
Q

Can tertiary syphilis be treated?

A

yes

61
Q

Is it necessary to undergo repeated blood tests for five years after syphilis treatment?

A

no

62
Q

Do repeated doses of penicillin have any effect on congenital, primary, or secondary syphilis?

A

no

63
Q

Does treatment for syphilis alter any tissue damage that has already occurred?

A

no

64
Q

What substance is found in >95% of SLE patients and is used in testing for the disease?

A

anti-nuclear antibodies (ANA)

65
Q

What is the name for a transplant from one species to another?

A

heterograft or xenograft

66
Q

What is the name for a transplant from one individual to a genetically identical individual?

A

isograft or syngeneic graft

67
Q

What is the name for a transplant from one region to another of the name person?

A

autograft

68
Q

What is the name for a transplant from one individual to another genetically nonidentical individual of the same species?

A

allograft or homograft

69
Q

Which antigen is encoded by the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) and is considered to be the most important immunologic barrier to the survival of transplanted organs and tissues?

A

human leukocyte antigen (HLA)

70
Q

Rheumatoid factor is an IgM antibody against what portion of IgG molecules?

A

Fc

71
Q

What is the name for an enlarged thyroid in the neck of a patient, commonly seen in disorders such as Hashimoto’s and Graves’ disease?

A

goiter

72
Q

What is the study of the noncellular portion of the blood known as serum?

A

serology

73
Q

What is the condition of being resistant to infection?

A

immunity

74
Q

What is a foreign substance that induces an immune response?

A

antigen

75
Q

What are the group of plasma proteins formed as a result of exposure to a foreign substance called? (2 names)

A

antibodies, immunoglobulins

76
Q

What is the study of the reactions of a host when foreign substances are introduced into the body?

A

immunology

77
Q

What is the term applied to any procedure of injecting immunogenic material into the body in order to induce immunity?

A

vaccination

78
Q

Metchnikoff first described the process of what?

A

phagocytosis

79
Q

Which scientist is attributed with working with the first attenuated vaccines?

A

Louis Pasteur

80
Q

Which scientist worked with cowpox, which provided immunity against smallpox, and what phenomenon did this work demonstrate?

A

Edward Jenner; cross-immunity

81
Q

What is the process in which cells tend to move in a certain direction under the stimulation of chemical substances?

A

chemotaxis

82
Q

What are serum proteins that attach to foreign substances and help prepare them for phagocytosis?

A

opsonins

83
Q

What kind of immunity results from the transfer of antigen-sensitive lymphocytes from an actively immunized donor to a non-immune recipient?

A

adoptive immunity

84
Q

What is the term for the engulfment of cells or particulate matter by leukocytes, macrophages, or other cells?

A

phagocytosis

85
Q

What is the ability of an individual to resist infection by means of normally present body functions called?

A

natural resistance

86
Q

What kind of immunity is induced by the exposure to an infectious agent as a result of natural infection or through vaccination?

A

active immunity

87
Q

What is absolute protection against particular diseases associated with species characteristics?

A

nonsusceptibility

88
Q

Which peripheral blood cell plays a key role in the killing of parasites?

A

eosinophils

89
Q

What is the structure formed by the fusion of engulfed material and enzymatic granules within the phagocytic cell?

A

phagolysosome

90
Q

What enzyme in secretions such as tears and saliva attacks the bacterial cell wall, especially Gram+ bacteria, thus playing an important role as an external defense mechanism?

A

lysozyme

91
Q

What kind of immunity results from the injection of antibodies derived from another individual, or from in utero or post-partum transfer of antibodies from mother to child?

A

passive immunity

92
Q

What process is characterized by increased blood supply to the area, white cell migration, the appearance of acute phase reactants, and increased capillary permeability?

A

inflammation

93
Q

Skin, lactic acid secretions, stomach acidity, and the motion of cilia all represent what kind of resistance?

A

natural

94
Q

The presence of what acts as an external defense mechanism by competing with pathogens for nutrients?

A

normal flora

95
Q

Which white cell is capable of further differentiation in the tissues?

A

monocyte (become macrophages)

96
Q

What substance acts as an internal defense mechanism against bacteria or foreign cells until antibody can be formed?

A

c-reactive protein (CRP)

97
Q

What are CRP and complement components examples of?

A

opsonins

98
Q

Which fragment of an antibody possesses antigen-binding ability?

A

Fab

99
Q

Which fragment of an antibody directs its biological activity?

A

Fc

100
Q

What are substances injected with an antigen that improves the immune response by extending the period of exposure through slow release of the antigen in the body?

A

adjuvants

101
Q

What are the two immunoglobulin classes that can “fix” complement?

A

IgG and IgM

102
Q

What kind of antigens exist in unrelated plants and animals and are identical or closely related in structure, so that antibody to one will cross-react with the other?

A

heterophile

103
Q

What are substances that are only antigenic when coupled with a protein carrier?

A

haptens

104
Q

What is the Davidsohn differential test used for and what two substances does it utilize the adsorption characteristics of?

A

aids in the diagnosis of Epstein-Barr (EBV); guinea pig kidney and beef red cells

105
Q

Which of the two substances used in the Davidsohn test absorbs the Forssman antibody?

A

guinea pig kidney

106
Q

Antigens found on all nucleated cells in the body that have been found to play a key role in the immune response are called what?

A

human leukocyte antigens (HLA)

107
Q

What is the system of genes responsible for controlling the expression of HLA?

A

major histocompatibility complex (MHC)

108
Q

Light chains of immunoglobulins can occur as either one of these two categories, but never both together.

A

kappa or lambda

109
Q

Generally, an antigen has to have what molecular weight to be recognized?

A

10,000 Daltons or more

110
Q

What is the key portion of the antigen that is actually recognized in an immune response?

A

epitope

111
Q

What is the main immunoglobulin in various body secretions?

A

IgA

112
Q

Which immunoglobulin’s synonym is (non-syphilitic) reagin?

A

IgE

113
Q

Which immunoglobulin contains a secretory component?

A

IgA

114
Q

Which immunoglobulin is made up of 5 basic structural units in a circular arrangement (pentameter)?

A

IgM

115
Q

Which immunoglobulin accounts for ~75% of all present in the body?

A

IgG

116
Q

Which immunoglobulin is responsible for allergic reactions through binding to mast cells?

A

IgE

117
Q

Which is the only immunoglobulin that can cross the placenta?

A

IgG

118
Q

Which immunoglobulin is very little known about?

A

IgD

119
Q

Which immunoglobulin is associated with the now-obsolete RAST test?

A

IgE

120
Q

Which immunoglobulin is formed mainly in the respiratory and GI tracts?

A

IgE

121
Q

Which immunoglobulin are the majority of virus-neutralizing antibodies?

A

IgG

122
Q

Which immunoglobulin is most often formed in response to Gram= bacteria?

A

IgM

123
Q

Which condition is defined as a monoclonal gammopathy in which plasma cell tumors in the bone marrow overproduce a single class of immunoglobulins (50-60% of cases overproduce IgG)?

A

multiple myeloma

124
Q

What kind of cells are produced in the immune response that are capable of being rapidly activated upon a second exposure to the same antigen?

A

memory cells

125
Q

Where are T-lymphocytes modified, and what kind of immunity are they responsible for?

A

modified in the thymus, responsible for cellular immunity

126
Q

What immunodeficiency disease is characterized by a decrease in IgG, resulting in susceptibility to infection?

A

acquired agammaglobulinemia

127
Q

What are the end product of T-cell antigen recognition that regulate the functions of other cells and tissues?

A

lymphokines

128
Q

Which antibody response occurs when an individual first encounters a foreign antigen, and which immunoglobulin is detected after a lag of a few days?

A

primary response; IgM

129
Q

What are the two names for the faster antibody response that occurs upon the next contact with the same antigen, and what immunoglobulin is predominant?

A

secondary or anamnestic; IgG

130
Q

Which immunoglobulin is overproduced in Waldstrom’s macroglobulinemia?

A

IgM

131
Q

What kind of cells do not express T- or B-cell markers, but have to ability to mediate cytolytic reactions and kill target cells without prior exposure to them?

A

natural killer cells

132
Q

What is the situation in which, under certain conditions, a foreign antigen fails to elicit the formation of antibody in the recipient by repeated injections of proper doses of certain antigens?

A

immune tolerance

133
Q

Which T-cell receptor is responsible for rosetting with sheep red cells?

A

CD2

134
Q

What type of lymphocyte is predominant in the peripheral blood?

A

T-cells

135
Q

Which virus selectively invades B-cells?

A

Epstein-Barr (EBV)

136
Q

Where are B-lymphocytes modified and what kind of immunity are they responsible for?

A

modified in the bone marrow; responsible for humoral immunity

137
Q

Which antigen is found on the T-cell subset known as helper/inducer cells?

A

CD4

138
Q

What kind of cells do sensitized B-cells differentiate into, and what do they secrete?

A

differentiate into plasma cells; secrete antibodies

139
Q

What in humans is thought to be the equivalent of the Bursa of Fabricius in birds?

A

bone marrow

Immunohematology (Blood Bank and Serology) (15 decks)

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