The Cell As A Unit Of Health And Disease Flashcards

1
Q

What are the five major classes of functional non-protein-coding sequences in the human genome?

A
  • Promoter and enhancer regions
  • Binding sites for factors that organise and maintain higher order chromatin structures
  • Noncoding regulatory RNAs
  • Mobile genetic elements
  • Special structural regions of DNA, e.g. telomeres and centromeres
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2
Q

Describe the two most common forms of DNA variation in the human genome

A

-Single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) - almost always bialleic, randomly spread across genome, most have only weak effect, if any, on disease susceptibility, can be used as markers if co-inherited.
-Copy number variations (CNVs) - different numbers of large contiguous stretches of DNA 1000 to millions of BPs, can be bialleic, have multiple variants, be duplicated or deleted, about 50% involve gene-coding sequences.

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3
Q

Name the substance acted on and the resulting effect of the following marking processes:
1. Histone methylation
2. Histone acetylation
3. Histone phosphorylation
4. DNA methylation

A
  1. Lysines and arginines. Transcriptional activation or repression
  2. Lysine residues. Generally increases transcription via opening chromatin
  3. Serine residues. Open DNA for transcription or condense DNA making it inactive
  4. DNA. High levels typically result in transcriptional silencing
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4
Q

Micro-RNA are 22 nucleotides on average in length. How do they cause post-transcriptional silencing of gene-expression?

A

By associating with RNA-induced silencing complexes and then base paring with the target mRNA which directs the RISC to either induce mRNA cleavage or repress its translation.

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5
Q

Name four ways long non-coding RNA (>200 nucleotides in length) can modulate gene expression

A
  • Gene activation
  • Gene suppression
  • Promote chromatin modification
  • Assembly of protein complexes
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6
Q

What is XIST?

A

A long non-coding RNA transcribed from the X chromosome that binds to chromatin and restricts RNA polymerase from accessing coding genes within that region. Has an essential role in physiologic X chromosome inactivation in females.

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7
Q

What discovery has made high-fidelity genome editing a possibility?

A

CRISPR (clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats) and CRISPR- associated genes (Cas) from prokaryotes.
Introduction of guide RNA and the Cas enzyme can induce double stranded DNA cleavages at specific sites. These can repair randomly or with introduced new genetic material

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8
Q

Name the face of the plasma membrane the following phospholipids tend to reside:
-Phosphatidylchlorine
-Phosphatidylinositol
-Phosphatidylethanolamine
-Phosphatidylserine
-Sphingomyelin (not a phospholipid)

A

Mostly outer - Phosphatidylchlorine, Sphingomyelin
Mostly inner - Phosphatidylethanolamine, Phosphatidylserine
Both faces - Phosphatidylinositol

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9
Q

Which phospholipid becomes a potent “eat me” signal during programmed cell death if flipped to the extra cellular leaflet of the plasma membrane.

A

Phosphatidylserine

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10
Q

What are the main constituents of “lipid rafts”?

A

Glycosphingolipids and cholesterol

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11
Q

What are the four main mechanisms by which proteins associate with the lipid bilayer?

A
  • As integral or transmembrane proteins by having one or more relatively hydrophobic a-helical segments.
  • Through post-translational addition of prenyl groups or fatty acids that insert into the cytosolic side of the plasma membrane.
  • Anchoring by glycosylphosphatidylinositol (GPI) tails on the extra cellular face.
  • Non-covalent association with transmembrane proteins
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12
Q

What are the criteria for molecules to be able to passively diffuse through the plasma membrane (at any rate)?

A

Small non-polar, hydrophobic, or polar and < 75Da in size

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13
Q

Which class of cytoskeletal proteins can be helpful in assigning a cell of origin for poorly differentiated tumours?

A

Intermediate filaments (they have characteristic tissue-specific patterns of expression)

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14
Q

Briefly summarise the function of tight junctions

A

Seal adjacent epithelial cells together to create a continuous barrier that restricts the paracellular movement of ions and other molecules. It also represents the boundary that separates apical and basolateral membrane domains and helps to maintain cellular polarity.

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15
Q

What are two shared features of adherens junctions and desmosomes?

A
  • anchoring junctions
  • formed by homotypic extracellular interactions between transmembrane glycoproteins called cadherins, on adjacent cells.
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16
Q

What can explain the discohesive invasion pattern of some gastric cancers and lobular carcinomas of the breast?

A

Loss of the epithelial adherens junction protein E-cadherin.
(Adherens junctions are associated with intracellular actin microfilaments through which they can influence cell shape and motility)

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17
Q

Cadherins in desmosomes and integrins in hemidesmosomes are linked to intracellular intermediate filaments. What is one important function of this?

A

Allows extracellular forces to be mechanically communicated and dissipated over multiple cells.

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18
Q

What is the name of the protein complexes that can generate intracellular signals when cells are subjected to shear stress and where do they localise?

A

Focal adhesion complexes.
Localise at hemidesmosomes.

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19
Q

What does a gap junction consist of?

A

A dense planar array of 1.5 to 2nm pores (connexons) formed by a pair of hexamers of transmembrane connexin proteins.

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20
Q

What are the possible destinations of proteins and lipids synthesised in the endoplasmic reticulum?

A

-Transmembrane (plasma membrane or cellular organelle membranes inc the ER)
- Golgi body (ultimately for secretion)

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21
Q

What is the ER stress response/unfolded protein response?

A

When detection of excess abnormally folded proteins leads to a reduction in protein synthesis with a concurrent increase in chaperone proteins in the ER. Along with enhanced proteasomal degradation of abnormal proteins. If this doesn’t correct the overload, cell death through apoptosis can be triggered

22
Q

What is the most common cause leading to reduced surface expression of the CFTR protein in cystic fibrosis?

A

Deletion of a codon that leads to the absence of a single amino acid - Phe508. This results in misfolding of the CFTR protein and so it is retained in the ER and catabolised.

23
Q

Name two cell functions that can lead to the smooth endoplasmic reticulum being large, and a function of the SER

A
  • steroid hormone synthesis or lipid-soluble molecule catabolism
  • sequesters intracellular calcium (this can mediate a number of responses to extracellular signals when released into the cytosol)
24
Q

What is the function of peroxisomes?

A

Catabolism of long-chained fatty acids

25
Q

If a protein is tagged with mannose-6-phosphate (M6P) in the Golgi apparatus, where is its destination?

A

A lysosome

26
Q

What are many proteins destined for destruction by proteasomes marked with?

A

Covalently bound ubiquitin

27
Q

Summarise three functions of the mitochondria

A
  1. Energy generation through oxidative phosphorylation. Produces 36-38 ATP and H2O + CO2
  2. Intermediate metabolism through aerobic glycolysis. Produces 2 ATP and intermediates for new lipids, amino acids, proteins and nucleic acids.
  3. Cell Death. Plays a role in necrosis and apoptosis (see later chapter for more detail)
28
Q

Where can the signals most cells respond to come from?

A
  • Danger (damaged cells) and pathogens
  • Cell-cell contacts (adhesion molecules and/or gap junctions)
  • Cell-ECM contacts (integrins)
  • Secreted molecules
29
Q

How is endothelium able to regulate vasomotor tone?

A

It can cause smooth muscle relaxation through signalling the generation of cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP) by producing nitric oxide which diffuses into smooth muscle cells, activating the enzyme guanylyl cyclase.

30
Q

Give examples of ligands for receptor tyrosine kinases

A

Insulin, epidermal growth factor, platelet-derived growth factor

31
Q

What are some kinds of receptors that interact with nonreceptor tyrosine kinase after ligand binding?

A

Immune receptors, integrins and some cytokine receptors

32
Q

The release of calcium from the ER through the generation of inositol-1,4,5-triphosphate (IP3) can be triggered by a signalling pathway initiated by what type of cell-surface receptor?

A

G-protein coupled receptor

33
Q

What do the SH2 and SH3 Src Homology (SH) domains typically do?
(Can be found on adaptor proteins)

A

SH2 - bind to receptors phosphorylated by another kinase, allowing aggregation of multiple enzymes
SH3 - mediate other protein-protein interactions

34
Q

What protein class plays a key role in organising intracellular signalling pathways? (Influence which proteins are recruited into signalling complexes)

A

Adaptor proteins

35
Q

Four functions of genes that growth factors influence the expression of are:

A
  • promotion of entry into the cell cycle
  • relieve blocks on cell cycle progression
  • prevention of apoptosis
  • enhance synthesis of components required for cell division (nucleic acids, proteins, lipids, carbohydrates)
36
Q

Transcription factors often contain modular domains that bind to DNA, small molecules such as steroid hormones, and intracellular regulatory proteins. What changes can posttranslational modification of these affect?

A
  • translocation from the cytoplasm into the nucleus
  • modify transcription factor protein half-life
  • expose specific DNA binding motifs
  • promote binding to components of the RNA polymerase complex to augment transcription factor activity
37
Q

What are three places where the interstitial matrix cushions tissue compression?

A
  • gastrointestinal tract
  • urinary bladder
  • periarterial soft tissues
38
Q

What are the two major constituents of the basement membrane?

A

Nonfibrillar type IV collagen and laminin

39
Q

What can explain why children with vitamin C deficiency have skeletal deformities and people of any age with the deficiency heal poorly and bleed easily?

A

The enzyme lysyl hydroxylase, which provides the tensile strength of fibrillar collagens by lysine hydroxylation, in turn resulting in covalent bond lateral cross-linking of collagen, is dependent on vitamin C.

(fibrillar collagens comprise a major proportion of the connective tissue in bone, tendon, cartilage, blood vessels, skin, healing wounds and scars)

40
Q

Mutation of of the nonfibrillar type VII collagen can cause what?

A

Blistering skin diseases

41
Q

What is the morphological relationship between elastin and fibrillin glycoprotein?

A

Elastin acts as a central core to an associated mesh-like network of fibrillin in elastic fibres

42
Q

As well as providing compressibility to tissues due to the viscous, gel-like matrix, proteoglycans can serve as a reservoir for what?

A

Growth factors secreted into the ECM

43
Q

Describe the structure of a proteoglycan

A

Long sulfated polysaccharides (and so negatively charged) (glycosaminoglycans) attached to a core protein in turn attached to hyaluronan (a hyaluronic acid polymer)

44
Q

What are three components of the ECM that can be classified under “Adhesive Glycoproteins and Adhesion Receptors”?

A
  • Fibronectin
  • Laminin
  • Integrins
45
Q

Which cyclin-CDK complexes can each of these CDK inhibitor families affect?
1- INK4 (p15, p16, p18, p19)
2- p21, p27, p57

A

1- cyclin D-CDK4 and cyclin D-CDK6
2- all CDKs

46
Q

Split the following cyclin-CDK (cyclin dependent kinase) complexes into groups relating to which phases of the cell cycle they are active:
1- Cyclin A-CDK2
2- Cyclin B-CDK1
3- Cyclin D-CDK4
4- Cyclin D-CDK6
5- Cyclin A-CDK1
6- Cyclin E-CDK2

A

Regulate G1 to S transition - 3, 4 and 6
S - 1,5
G2 to M - 2

47
Q

In the cell cycle what happens at the G1-S and G2-M checkpoints?

A

G1-S monitors DNA integrity before irreversibly committing cellular resources to DNA replication
G2-M insures there has been accurate generic replication before the cell divides

48
Q

List examples of where stem cell niches can be found in different tissues

A
  • hematopoietic stem cells of the bone marrow congregate in perivascular niches
  • epithelial stem cells of the intestines are confined to the crypts
  • bulge region of hair follicles
  • limbus of the cornea
  • sub-ventricular zone of the brain
  • canals of Hering in the liver
49
Q

What group of stem cells do not express human leukocyte antigen (and so are relatively immunologically privileged)?

A

Mesenchymal Stem Cells

50
Q

What does iPS stand for in the context of regenerative medicine?

A

Induced pluripotent stem cells

51
Q

In which cells types would you find the following intermediate filaments?
1. Cytokeratin
2. Vimentin
3. Desmin
4. Lamins

A
  1. Epithelial
  2. Mesenchymal
  3. Muscle cells
  4. Nuclear lamina (all types)