Genetic Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

Give an example of a nonconservative missense and a nonsense point mutation leading to disease respectively relating to the B-globulin chain of haemoglobin

A
  • CTC (glutamic acid) -> CAC (valine) altering the B-globulin chain leading to sickle cell anaemia
  • CAG (glutamine) -> UAG (stop) short B-globulin is rapidly degraded, resulting deficiency can give rise to a severe form of anaemia B0- thalassemia
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2
Q

What are two ways in which point mutations/deletions in noncoding sequences can lead to disease?

A
  • If in promotor or enhancer regions could interfere with binding of transcription factors leading to a reduction or lack of transcription as in some thalassemias
  • If in introns could lead to defective splicing of intervening sequences, interfering with normal processing of the initial mRNA resulting in failure to form mature mRNA.
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3
Q

Give an example of a 1) deletion of a multiple of three base pairs, 2) deletion resulting in a frameshift mutation, 3) insertion resulting in a frameshift mutation

A

1) The three base deletion in the common CF allele (lack of aa 508 (phenylalanine)
2) Single base deletion at the ABO (glycosyltransferase) locus leading to a frameshift mutation responsible for the O allele
3) Four base insertion in the hexosaminidase A gene, leading to a frameshift mutation (with a stop codon) that is a major cause of Tay-Sachs disease

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4
Q

What are alterations in protein-coding genes other than mutations?
Give an example

A

Structural variations like copy number changes - amplifications or deletions, or translocations.
E.g. translocation t(9;22) between BCR and ABL genes in chronic myeloid leukaemia (Philadelphia chromosome)

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5
Q

What are trinucleotide-repeat mutations?

A

Characterised by amplification of a sequence of three nucleotides. This is dynamic (degree of amplification increases during gametogenesis). Majority of affected sequences share G and C. Most lead to neurodegenerative disorders.
E.g. fragile X syndrome has 250-400 (average in normal populations is 29) repeats of CGG within the regulatory region of familial retardation 1 (FMR1) preventing normal expression.

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6
Q

What can mean that an autosomal dominant disorder is present, but is not expressed, or expressed differently to other individuals with the same disorder?

A

Variations in penetrance and expressivity respectively

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7
Q

Give an example of a disease resulting from an autosomal dominant loss of function mutation and a gain of function mutation:

A

Loss - Familial hypercholesterolemia (mutation of one gene leads to 50% loss in LDL receptors leading to elevation in cholesterol (the remaining ‘normal’ gene is unable to compensate))
Gain - Huntington disease (neo-protein huntingtin resulting from a trinucleotide repeat mutation in the Huntington gene)

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8
Q

What are four features that generally apply to most autosomal recessive disorders and distinguish them from autosomal dominant disease?

A
  • Expression of defect tends to be more uniform
  • Complete penetrance is common
  • Onset frequently early in life
  • Enzyme proteins are more frequently involved, as opposed to receptor or structural proteins
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9
Q

What is an example of an autosomal recessive disorder in each category of metabolic, hematopoietic and endocrine respectively?

A

Cystic fibrosis, sickle cell anaemia, congenital adrenal hyperplasia

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10
Q

What makes being heterozygous in an X-Linked recessive disorder different from being the same in an autosomal recessive disorder? (For females)

A

The random inactivation of one of the X chromosomes means females have a variable proportion of cells in which the mutant X chromosome is active. (Whereas both chromosomes are active in all autosomal pairs)

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11
Q

What are three examples of X-linked recessive disorders?

A
  • Duchenne muscular dystrophy
  • Haemophilia A and B
  • Diabetes insipidus
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12
Q

What are three major consequences that could result from an enzyme defect?

A
  • Accumulation of the substrate and/or intermediates. Increased concentration of some intermediate may also stimulate other minor pathways. High concentrations of any of these could be toxic.
  • Decreased amount of end product that may be necessary for normal function. Also could lead to over production of intermediates and their catabolic products if end product is a feedback inhibitor
  • Failure to inactivate a tissue-damaging substrate
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13
Q

Give an example each of a disease resulting from a single gene due to; 1. Defects in receptors and transport systems 2. Alterations in structure, function or quantity of nonenzyme proteins 3. Genetically determined adverse reactions to drugs

A
  1. Familial hypercholesterolemia
  2. Sickle cell disease
  3. G6PD deficiency (leads to severe haemolytic anaemia following some drugs e.g. primaquine)
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14
Q

What could be the biochemical and molecular basis of a single gene disorder?

A
  • Consequences of enzyme defects
  • Defects in receptors and transport systems
  • Alterations in structure, function or quantity of non-enzyme proteins
  • Genetically determined adverse reaction to drugs
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15
Q

What defect causes Marfan syndrome?

A

A defect in the extracellular glycoprotein fibrillin-1 (close to 1000 distinct mutations of the FBN1 gene on ch 15 have been found in individuals with Marfan syndrome, most are missense).

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16
Q

What are the two fundamental mechanisms by which loss of fibrillin leads to the clinical manifestations of Marfan syndrome?

A
  • Fibrillin is the major component of microfibrils in the ECM, these provide a scaffold for tropoelastin to form elastic fibres. Microfibrils are particularly abundant in the aorta, ligaments and ciliary zonules that support the lens.
  • Increased TGF-B bioavailability (normal microfibrils sequester TGF-B) leads to inflammation, deleterious effects on vascular smooth muscle development and increased metalloprotease activity (loss of ECM)
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17
Q

What are three morphological features Marfan syndrome can present with?

A
  • Skeletal abnormalities e.g. long bones and joint ligament laxity
  • Ocular changes e.g. bilateral subluxation or dislocation of the lens
  • Cardiovascular lesions e.g. mitral valve prolapse and dilation of the ascending aorta due to cystic medionecrosis
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18
Q

What are the variants of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome all characterised by?

A

Defects in collagen synthesis or assembly
(including ECM molecules that influence synthesis indirectly e.g. tenascin-X a large multimeric protein that interacts with fibrillar type I, II and V collagens. Gene TNXB)

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19
Q

What clinical features could someone with an Ehlers-Danlos syndrome present with?

A

Fragile, hyperextensible skin vulnerable to trauma; hypermobile joints, ruptures involving the colon, cornea or large arteries. Wound healing is poor.

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20
Q

What is a syndrome that encompasses all three Mendelian patterns of inheritance?

A

The Ehlers-Danlos Syndromes

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21
Q

Of the EDSs Classic, Vascular, Kyphoscoliosis, Arthrochalasia and Dermatosparaxis which
1. Results from mutations in the PLOD1 gene encoding lysyl hydroxylase?
2. Is genetically heterogeneous and results from abnormalities in type III collagen?
3. Have the fundamental defect in the conversion of type I procollagen to collagen?
4. 90% of the time is related to mutations in genes for type V collagen (COL5A1 and COL5A2)?
5. Is caused by mutations in the ADAMTS2 gene that encodes procollagen-N-peptidase?

A
  1. Kyphoscoliosis
  2. Vascular
  3. Arthrochalasia and dermatosparaxis
  4. Classic
  5. Dermatosparaxis
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22
Q

As well as being used for membrane synthesis, steroid hormones and bile acids, what four homeostatic actions does free cholesterol in the cytoplasm have?

A
  • Suppresses cholesterol synthesis by inhibiting the rate limiting enzyme 3-hydroxy-3-methlyglutaryl coenzyme A (HMG CoA)
  • Activates acyl-coenzyme A:cholesterol acyltransferase (favouring esterification and storage)
  • Suppresses synthesis of LDL receptors
  • Upregulates PCSK9 expression (reduces recycling of LDL receptors and causes degradation of endocytosed receptors)
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23
Q

How does cholesterol enter the body from the diet?

A

Incorporated into chylomicrons in the intestinal mucosa and travel to blood via gut lymphatics. Chylomicrons hydrolysed by an endothelial lipoprotein lipase in capillaries of muscle and fat. The remnants are rich in cholesterol which then deliver to the liver. Some enters the metabolic pool and some is excreted as free cholesterol or bile acids into biliary tract.

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24
Q

How does VLDL (rich in triglycerides) end up as LDL (rich in cholesterol)?

A

VLDL secreted from liver into blood. Has apolipoproteins ApoB(B-100), ApoC and ApoE on the surface. In capillary endothelium of adipose tissue and muscle lipolysis of VLDL leads to IDL(VLDL remnant) with reduced content of triglycerides and increased cholesterol esters. ApoC is lost. 50% then taken up by LDL receptors (ApoB/E receptors) in liver and recycled to VLDL. The rest undergo further metabolic processing elsewhere removing most of the remaining triglycerides and ApoE resulting in ApoB carrying LDL particles

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25
Q

What are some cell types that posses high-affinity LDL receptors? And which clears 70% of plasma LDL

A

Hepatocytes, fibroblasts, lymphocytes, smooth muscle cells, adrenocortical cells
Liver clears approx 70%

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26
Q

What proteins are required for cholesterol to leave lysosomes?

A

NPC1 and NPC2

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27
Q

How do mutations in the LDLR gene (80-85% of cases), the gene encoding ApoB and an activating mutation in the PCSK9 gene lead to FH respectively?

A
  • Reduced LDL receptors (heterozygotes 50%, homo 100%) ->increased plasma LDL, increased cellular synthesis of LDL, increased diversion of IDL to LDL (as uses same receptor)
  • ApoB is the ligand for LDL receptors. Similar effect to above
  • Greatly reduces number of LDL receptors on cell surface (because of increased degradation during recycling process). Similar effect to above
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28
Q

In hypercholesterolemia, what is responsible for the appearance of xanthomas and contributes to premature atherosclerosis?

A

The increased uptake of LDL by mononuclear phagocytes and possibly vascular walls through scavenger receptors

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29
Q

What to statins do?

A

Inhibit the enzyme HMG CoA and so suppressing intracellular synthesis of cholesterol leading to greater synthesis of LDL receptors

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30
Q

What are the consequences of a deficiency of a functional lysosomal enzyme?

A
  • Incomplete catabolism of the substrate leading to accumulation within the lysosome (primary accumulation) and enlargement of the lysosome which as they become big and numerous enough can interfere with normal cell function.
  • Reduced rate of processing of organelles in autophagy due to above accumulation
    -persistence of damaged mitochondria which can trigger apoptosis and generate free radicals
    • secondary accumulation of autophagic substances including ubiquinated and aggregate-prone polypeptides such as a-synuclein and huntingtin protein
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31
Q

What are three important roles of lysosomes?

A

Autophagy, immunity (phagosomes), membrane repair (fuse with plasma membranes)

32
Q

Briefly describe Tay-Sachs disease

A

A lysosomal storage disease resulting from mutations in the a-subunit locus for hexosaminidase A on ch15.
Results in accumulation of Gm2 gangliosides particularly in neurons of CNS, autonomic NS and retina. Leads to progressive destruction of neurons, proliferation of microglia and accumulation of complex lipids in phagocytes within the brain substance. Cherry red spot in macula characteristic sign (from pallor of surrounding swollen ganglion cells).

33
Q

Briefly describe Niemann-Pick disease types A and B

A

Lysosomal storage diseases. Deficiency in sphingomyelinase (note the gene is imprinted and preferentially expressed from maternal chromosome). Type A leads to accumulation in the nervous system and neuronal damage (live up to 2 years), type B does not have this (live to adulthood). Lipid stored in phagocytes in liver, spleen, bone marrow and lymph nodes causing enlargement (organomegaly)

34
Q

Briefly describe Niemann-Pick disease type C

A

Lysosomal storage disease. Mutation in NPC1 (95%) or NPC2. Accumulation of cholesterol and gangliosides particularly in the nervous system. Clinically heterogenous, hydrops fetalis and stillbirth, neonatal hepatitis, progressive neurologic damage (most commonly ataxia, dysarthria and psychomotor regression)

35
Q

Briefly describe Gaucher disease (the most common lysosomal storage disease, autosomal recessive)

A

Lack of functional glucocerbrosidase so accumulation of glucocerebroside in mononuclear phagocytic cells. Type I phagocytes become enlarged (Gaucher cells, “crumpled tissue” rather than vacuolated) and accumulate in liver, spleen and bone marrow causing hepatosplenomegaly and bone erosion. Types II and III are characterised by variable neuronal involvement (? Due to inflammation). Strong association with Parkinson’s disease

36
Q

Briefly describe mucopolysaccharidoses (a lysosomal storage disorder)

A

Accumulation of mucopolysaccharides due to mutation in one of the 11 enzymes involved in degradation. In multiple cell types and in tissues including liver, spleen, heart, blood vessels, brain, cornea and joints. All have coarse facial features. Hurler syndrome (MPSI-H) includes corneal clouding, coronary artery and valvular deposits, death in childhood. Hunter syndrome (MPS II) has a milder clinical course.

37
Q

What are the three major subgroups that glycogen storage diseases can be divided into on the basis of pathophysiology?

A
  • Hepatic forms
  • Myopathic forms
  • Miscellaneous (associated with deficiency of acid-alpha glucosidase (lysosomal enzyme) or lack of branching enzyme)
38
Q

What is commonly associated with hepatic forms of glycogen storage diseases? (E.g. von Gierke disease with a lack of glucose-6-phosphate)

A

Hypoglycaemia (as the liver releases glucose from broken down glycogen into the blood)

39
Q

What is an example of a myopathic form of a glycogen storage disease?

A

McArdle disease (Type V glucogenosis). Deficiencies of muscle phosphorylase

40
Q

What is Pompe disease?

A

A glycogen storage disease involving deficiency of acid alpha-glucosidase in lysosomes. Glycogen storage in lysosomes in all organs. Cardiomegaly is most prominent feature

41
Q

Give an example of a complex multigenic disorder

A

Type 1 diabetes (has 20-30 implicated genes)

42
Q

Assigning a disease to the complex multigenic disorder mode of inheritance must be done with caution. What are the first two factors to consider?

A

Familial clustering and exclusion of Mendelian and chromosomal modes for transmission

43
Q

How is a normal karyotype denoted?

A

46,XX or 46,XY

44
Q

What are the two usual causes of aneuploidy?

A

Nondisjunction (n-1 and n+1) and anaphase lag (n and n-1)

45
Q

Explain mosaicism

A

When mitotic errors in early development give rise to two or more populations with different chromosomal complement in the same individual. Note that autosomal mosaics are usually non-viable due to autosomal monosomy but that sometimes the non-viable cell population can be lost yielding a viable mosaic.

46
Q

What are the five forms structural abnormalities in chromosomes can take?

A
  • Deletion
  • Ring chromosome
  • Inversion
  • Isochromosome
  • Translocation
47
Q

What chromosomal abnormalities can lead to Down syndrome?

A
  • Trisomy 21 (95%)
  • Through a robertsonian translocation of the long arm of ch 21 to another acrocentric chromosome (4%)
  • Mosaicism of trisomy 21 (1%)
48
Q

In Down syndrome;
1.What are three characteristic features in appearance?
2. What are some commonly associated conditions/consequences?

A

1- Flat facial profile, oblique palpebral fissures and epicanthic folds
2- Intellectual disability (nearly all), congenital heart disease (40%, most are atrioventricular), high risk of leukaemia, abnormal immune responses, older than 40 develop neuropathic changes characteristic of Alzheimer disease

49
Q

What are three examples demonstrating how the gene dosage imbalance in Down syndrome may lead to the phenotype?

A
  • Overexpressed amyloid-beta precursor protein (could contribute to early onset Alzheimer’s)
  • Mitochondrial dysfunction, likely related to 10% of overexpressed genes in Downs being involved in mitochondrial function regulation
  • Ch21 has highest density of lncRNAs whose target sequences are expressed across the genome…
50
Q

What are the characteristic features of trisomy 18/Edwards syndrome?

A

Prominent occiput, ID, micrognathia, low set ears, short neck, overlapping fingers, congenital heart defects, renal malformations, limited hip abduction,
rocker-bottom feet

51
Q

What are the characteristic features of trisomy 13/Patau syndrome?

A

Microcephaly and ID, microphthalmia, cleft lip and palate, polydactyly, cardiac defects, renal defects, umbilical hernia, rocker-bottom feet

52
Q

What are characteristic features of the heterogenous chromosome 22q11.2 deletion syndrome?
(previously DiGeorge and velocardiofacial syndromes)

A
  • Thymic hypoplasia with resultant T cell immunodeficiency
  • Parathyroid hypoplasia with resultant hypocalcemia
  • Cardiovascular anomalies
  • Facial dysmorphism
  • Cleft palate
  • Learning disabilities
53
Q

What are three features common to all sex chromosome disorders?

A
  • Cause subtle, chronic problems relating to sexual development and fertility
  • Difficult to diagnose at birth and many first recognised at puberty
  • The greater the number of X chromosomes, the greater the likelihood of ID
54
Q

What are the two major factors that the clinical features of Klinefelter syndrome (two or more X and one or more Y) can be attributed to?

A

Aneuploidy with the impact of increased gene dosage by the supernumerary X and the presence of hypogonadism (most infertile)

55
Q
  1. What are physical features Klinefelter syndrome can have?
  2. What comorbid conditions are people with Klinefelter at increased risk of?
A
  1. Eunuchoid body habitus, long legs, small atrophic testes often associated with a small penis and lack of secondary male characteristics like deep voice, beard and make distribution of pubic hair, gynecomastia
  2. Below average cognition, type 2 diabetes and insulin resistance, congenital heart disease - 50% adults have mitral valve prolapse, osteoporosis, germ cell tumours, breast cancer and autoimmune diseases
56
Q

What are the three types of karyotypic abnormalities seen in Turner syndrome?

A

-45,X (query if this is true, may not be viable)
- Mosaicism of various kinds e.g. 45,X/46,XX, 45X/46,XY, 45,X/46X,i(X)(q10)
- Structural abnormalities of the X chromosome e.g. long arm isochromosome, ring chromosome, deletions

57
Q
  1. What are some physical features of Turner syndrome?
  2. What are some associated comorbidities?
A
  1. Peripheral and neck lymphedema at birth, short stature, low posterior hairline, webbing of neck, broad chest and widely spaced nipples, cubitus valgus, pigmented nevi
  2. Congenital heart disease - particularly coarctation of aorta, aortic root dilation, higher risk aortic dissection, failure to develop secondary sex characteristics, amenorrhea, streak ovaries and infertility, hypothyroidism secondary to autoantibodies, glucose intolerance, obesity, nafld, insulin resistance
58
Q

What is the SHOX gene at Xp22.33?

A

Short-stature homeobox gene. Pseudoautosomal found on Y also. Extra copies tend to lead to a taller phenotype and vice versa

59
Q

What are the four categories of single gene disorders that do not follow classic mendelian principles?

A
  • Caused by trinucleotide-repeat mutations
  • Caused by mutations in mitochondrial genes
  • Associated with genomic imprinting
  • Associated with gonadal mosacism
60
Q

What are the three key mechanisms by which unstable nucleotide repeats cause disease?

A
  • Loss of function of affected gene (usually noncoding region)
  • Toxic gain of function (coding region)
  • Toxic gain of function mediated by RNA (noncoding region)
61
Q

What are some characteristic features of fragile X syndrome?

A

Intellectual disability; neurologic and neuropsychiatric features including epilepsy, aggressive behaviour, autism spectrum disorder, anxiety disorder/hyperactivity disorder; long face, large mandible, large everted ears, macro-orchidism, hyperextensible joints, high arched palate, mitral valve prolapse

62
Q

In FXS, once the trinucleotide repeats exceed about 230, the DNA of the entire 5’ region of FMR1 becomes methylated with some extention to the promoter region. This causes transcriptional suppression. What functions of FMRP that are lost due to this are believed to cause FXS?

A

FMRP selectively binds mRNAs associated with polysomes and regulates their intracellular transport to dendrites. (For pre and post synaptic protiens). It then acts as a translation regulator by suppressing synthesis in response to signalling. It is believed that loss of suppression leads to an imbalance in the production of proteins at synapses resulting in loss of plasticity which is essential for learning and memory.

63
Q

What are two disorders caused in carriers of premutations for fragile X?

A

Fragile X-Associated Primary Ovarian Failure (menopause 5 years earlier) and Fragile X-Associated Tremor/Ataxia Syndrome (onset 6th decade)

64
Q

How do fragile X premutations cause disease?

A

Expanded CGG containing FMR1 mRNAs are “toxic” by recruiting RNA binding proteins, sequestering them from their normal locales then aggregate in the nucleus forming intranuclear inclusions

65
Q

Human mtDNA contains 37 genes, many related to oxidative phosphorylation. What criteria needs to be met for mutations in mt DNA to give rise to disease?

A

As each mitochondrion contains thousands of copies of mtDNAs, a minimum number of mutant mtDNAs must be present in a cell or tissue before oxidative dysfunction gives rise to disease. The “threshold effect”. The more metabolically active a tissue, the lower the threshold.

66
Q

What is heteroplasmy?

A

When tissues harbour both wild type and mutant mtDNA. (which I suspect is near 100% of all tissues)

67
Q

What is Leber hereditary optic neuropathy?

A

A disorder associated with mitochondrial inheritance. Progressive bilateral loss of central vision, starting age 15-35, eventually leading to blindness

68
Q

What are the characteristics of Prader-Willi syndrome and Angleman Syndrome respectively?

A
  • ID, short stature, hypotonia, profound hyperphagia, obesity, hypogonadism, small hands and feet.
  • ID, microcephaly, ataxic gait, seizures, inappropriate laughter
69
Q

Both Prader-Willi and Angelman syndrome are the product of errors in Ch15 q12, where some genes are maternally imprinted and others paternally so. Explain the three mechanisms that can result in these syndromes.

A
  • Deletions (70%). If the paternal gene corresponding to the imprinted maternal gene is deleted, this results in Prader-Willi Syndrome. The opposite is true for Angleman syndrome.
  • Uniparental disomy (20-25%). When two maternal (Prader-Willi) or two paternal (Angleman) chromosome 15 copies are inherited there is no functional gene to cover the imprinted gene.
  • Defective imprinting (1-4%) where both maternal and paternal copies of the gene are imprinted.
70
Q

What is gonadal mosacism?

A

When a mutation occurs in embryonic development that effects only cells destined to form gonads. Meaning the somatic cells of the individual are normal, but that individual can transmit the mutation to their offspring - the likelihood of this depending on the proportion of germ cells carrying the mutation.
The autosomal dominant disorder of osteogenesis imperfecta can be an example of this.

71
Q

What are common indications for analysis of inherited genetic alterations
1. Prenatally
2. Postnatally
3. Later in life?

A
  1. Advanced maternal age, parent known to carry a balanced chromosomal rearrangement, fetal anomalies seen on USS, maternal blood screening indicating increased risk of trisomy
  2. Multiple congenital abnormalities, suspicion of a metabolic syndrome, unexplained ID and/or developmental delay, suspected aneuploidy, suspected monogenic disease
  3. Inherited cancer syndromes (FHx or unusual cancer presentation), atypically mild monogenic disease, neurodegenerative disorders
72
Q

What are five common indications for analysis of acquired genetic alterations in the diagnosis and management of cancer?

A
  • Detection of tumour-specific mutations and cytogenetic alterations that are the hallmarks of specific tumours.
  • Determination of clonality as an indicator of a neoplastic condition
  • Identification of specific gene alterations that can direct therapeutic choices
  • Determination of treatment efficacy
  • Detection of drug-resistant secondary mutations in malignancies treated with targeted therapies
73
Q

What are three common indications for analysis of acquired genetic alterations in the diagnosis and management of infectious disease?

A
  • Detection of microorganism-specific genetic material for definitive diagnosis
  • Identification of genetic alterations associated with drug resistance in microbial genomes
  • Determination of treatment efficacy
74
Q

What genetic lesions are not readily amenable to detection using PCR or DNA sequencing approaches?

A

Large deletions, duplications or more complex rearrangements. (PCR usually runs DNA <1000bps)

75
Q

FISH can be used to label whole chromosomes, what is a limitation?

A

It requires prior knowledge of the one or few specific chromosomal regions suspected of being altered in the test sample