Environmental and Nutritional Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

What are four disease groups that climate change is expected to increase the incidence of? (and why?)

A
  • Cardiovascular, cerebrovascular and respiratory diseases (exacerbated by heat waves and air pollution)
  • Gastroenteritis (contamination of food and water e.g. with flooding)
  • Vector-borne infectious diseases (increased temps, crop failures and more extreme weather variation expected to change vector number and distribution)
  • Malnutrition (disruption to crop production)
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2
Q

Define xenobiotics

A

Exogenous chemicals in the environment in air, water, food and soil that may be absorbed into the body through inhalation, ingestion, and skin contact

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3
Q

Briefly describe the cytochrome P-450 enzyme system:

A

Large family of heme-containing enzymes, each with preferred substrate specificities. Catalyses reactions (in two parts) that either detoxify xenobiotics or, less commonly, convert xenobiotics into active compounds that cause cellular injury.

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4
Q

What are three important outdoor air pollutants, and the main reason for their toxicity?

A
  • Ozone - free radial production
  • Sulphur dioxide - converted into sulphuric acid and sulphuric trioxide in the air
  • Particulate matter - less than 10um reach alveoli and are phagocytosed leading to inflammation
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5
Q

CO can cause chronic and acute poisoning. How does it lead to death?

A

Induces insidious CNS depression (widespread ischemic change). Hb has 200-fold greater affinity for CO than O2 (creating a stable carboxyhaemoglobin) 20-30% saturation with CO leads to systemic hypoxia and unconsciousness and death are likely at 60-70% saturation.

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6
Q

What are some pollutants that may accumulate indoors and cause disease?

A

Smoke, bioaerosols, radon and formaldehyde

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7
Q

Lead poisoning can lead to haematological, skeletal, neurologic, gastrointestinal and renal toxicies.
What makes children more susceptible to these effects than adults?

A

Children absorb more than 50% of lead from food whereas adults absorb about 15%. They have a more permeable blood-brain barrier and are more actively developing bones and teeth.

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8
Q

What does lead have a high affinity for that leads to interference with two enzymes involved in heme synthesis (delta-aminolevulinic acid dehydratase and ferrochelatase) meaning iron incorporation into heme is impaired?

A

Sulphydryl groups

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9
Q

What neurologic condition is frequent in adults rather than children with lead poisoning?

A

Peripheral demyelinating neuropathy

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10
Q

Mercury can enter the food chain in organic form (high levels more likely in carnivorous fish), and people can be exposed to the metallic form from industrial processes. Both of these forms are readily absorbed by the body, where it binds to sulphydryl groups in certain proteins with high affinity. What are some symptoms of mercury toxicity?

A
  • CNS - cerebral palsy, deafness, blindness, ID and major effects if exposed in utero (Minamata disease)
  • Renal - acute tubular necrosis and renal failure. Chronic can cause nephrotic syndrome
  • GI - ingested can injure gut and cause ulcerations and bloody diarrhoea
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11
Q

Arsenic salts interfere with several aspects of cellular metabolism (including ox-phos). What are some possible consequences of exposure?

A
  • Death
  • GI upset
  • Neurological effects (usually sensorimotor neuropathy causing paresthesias, numbness and pain)
  • Cardiovascular effects including HTN and long QTc with ventricles arrhythmias
  • Hyperpigmentation and hyperkeratosis of skin
  • Increased cancer risk - particularly lung, bladder and skin
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12
Q

What are three important carcinogens in tobacco smoke?

A

Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons, nitrosamines and aromatic amines

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13
Q

What levels of ethanol cause drowsiness and stupor respectively?

A
  • 200mg/dL
  • 300mg/dL
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14
Q

What are four causes of toxicity in alcohol metabolism?

A
  • Acetaldehyde (direct product of alcohol oxidation)
  • Increase in NADH/NAD ratio (NAD is reduced by alcohol dehydrogenase). NAD required for fatty acid oxidation and lactate -> pyruvate
  • ROS generation
  • Provokes release of endotoxin from gram negative bacteria in intestinal flora
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15
Q

In order of increasing blood level what areas of the brain does alcohol depress?

A

Subcortical structures that modulate cerebral cortical activity -> cortical neurons -> lower medullary centres (including those that regulate respiration)

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16
Q

Paracetamol toxicity begins with nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea and sometimes shock. Severe overdose can lead to liver failure, starting with centrilobular necrosis. What is the cause of paracetamol toxicity?

A

5% of paracetamol is converted to NAPQI by CYP2E1 (Rest is detoxified by phase II enzymes and excreted). This is normally detoxified by conjugation with GSH. High levels overwhelm this mechanism, depletion of GSH makes hepatocytes susceptible to ROS-induced injury. NAPQI also covalently binds hepatic proteins causing damage to membranes and mitochondrial dysfunction.
(note NAC restores GSH levels)

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17
Q

What is analgesic nephropathy?

A

Tubulointerstitial nephritis caused by long term combined use of aspirin and paracetamol

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18
Q

What are the affects of 1. acute and 2. chronic injury by aspirin?

A
  1. Alkalosis (respiratory) followed by metabolic acidosis which can cause symptoms ranging from nausea to coma
  2. Headaches, dizziness, tinnitus, hearing impairment, mental confusion, drowsiness (can develop convulsions and coma) N&V&D. GI bleeding and ulceration.
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19
Q

What action does cocaine have in the body?

A

Blocks reuptake of dopamine in the CNS. Blocks reuptake of adrenaline and noradrenaline and stimulates presynaptic release of noradrenaline at adrenergic nerve endings

20
Q

What are some injurus effects of cocaine?

A
  • Tachycardia, hypertension and vasoconstriction (this can cause a MI), arrhythmias
  • Hyperpyrexia and seizures
  • Foetal hypoxia and abortion, impaired neurological development
  • Perforation of nasal septum (if snort)
21
Q

What are some pulmonary complications of heroin use?

A

Mod-severe oedema, septic embolism from endocarditis, lung abscess, opportunistic infections, and foreign-body granulomas from talc and other adulterants

22
Q

What are the mechanisms of death in heroin usage?

A

Profound respiratory depression, arrhythmia and cardiac arrest, severe pulmonary oedema

23
Q

What is the action of methamphetamine?

A

Releases dopamine in the brain

24
Q

In burns of more than 20% of the body surface, there is a rapid (within hours) shift of body fluids into the interstitial compartments throughout the body due to systemic inflammatory response syndrome. What are the greatest threats to life in burn patients?

A

Shock, sepsis and respiratory insufficiency

25
Q

What are the names for the following outcomes of prolonged exposure to elevated ambient temperature?
(Also note malignant hyperthermia from muscle rigidity increasing heat production following anaesthetics)
1. Sudden onset, prostration and collapse, results from failure of cardiovascular system to compensate for hypovolemia caused by dehydration.
2. Results from loss of electrolytes by sweating, usually affects voluntary muscles. Core temperature is maintained
3. Thermoregulatory mechanisms fail, sweating ceases and core body temperature rises to more than 40oC leading to multiorgan dysfunction. Vasodilation marked, sustained skeletal muscle contractions can lead to rhabdomyolysis.

A
  1. Heat exhaustion
  2. Heat cramps
  3. Heat stroke
26
Q

At a body temperature of about 32oC LOC occurs, followed by bradycardia and AF at lower core temperatures. Hypothermia causes injury by two mechanisms. Direct effects are probably mediated by physical disruptions in cells by high salt concentrations caused by the crystallisation of intracellular and extracellular water (frostbite). What do indirect effects result from?

A

Circulatory changes, which vary depending on rate and duration of the temperature drop. Slow may induce vasoconstriction and increase vascular permeability. Sudden, persistent, vasoconstriction and increased viscosity of blood in the local area may cause ischemic injury and degenerative changes in peripheral nerves. (Vascular injury and oedema only apparent as temp returns to normal)

27
Q
  1. What are the two types of injury caused by electricity?
  2. What is an important characteristic of alternating current?
A
  1. -Burns (more likely with sustained exposure)
    - VF or cardiac and respiratory centre failure resulting from disruption of nerve impulse conduction
  2. Induces tetanic muscle spasm
28
Q

In addition to the physical properties of radiation, what five factors does its biologic effects depend on?

A
  • Rate of delivery
  • Field size
  • Cell proliferation rate
  • Oxygen effects and hypoxia (ROS generation, hypoxic tumour tissue less sensitive)
  • Vascular damage (eg leading to ischemia and fibrosis)
29
Q

What makes it difficult for a pathologist evaluating irradiated tissues for the possible persistence of tumour cells?

A

Similar appearance. Radiation injured cells show pleomorphism, giant-cells, conformational nuclei changes and abnormal mitotic figures

30
Q

In total body irradiation, what is the main site of injury at doses of:
1. 1-2Sv
2. 2-10Sv
3.10-20Sv
4. >50Sv

A
  1. Lymphocytes
  2. Bone marrow
  3. Small bowel
  4. Brain
31
Q

Why does exposure to ionising radiation increase the risk of cancer?

A

It causes multiple types of DNA damage such as single base damage, single and double stranded breaks and DNA protein cross links.

32
Q

What three things should an appropriate diet provide?

A
  • Sufficient energy for the body’s daily metabolic needs (carbs, fats and proteins)
  • Amino acids and fatty acids to be used as building blocks for proteins and lipids
  • Vitamins and minerals which function as coenzymes or hormones or as important structural components
33
Q

What is the WHO definition for severe acute malnutrition (which manifests as a spectrum of clinical syndromes)?

A

A state characterised by a weight for height ratio that is 3 standard deviations below the normal range

34
Q

Briefly compare and contrast the two SAM syndromes - Marasmus (develops when diet is severely lacking in calories) and Kwashiokor (occurs when protein depravation is relatively greater than the reduction in total calories).

A
  • Weight - M falls to 60% or less of expected. K typically 60-80%, noting oedema masks the true extent
  • Protein compartment most affected. M somatic, K visceral
    • Therefore M serum albumin relatively normal while K hypoalbuminemia with oedema
  • Both have vitamin deficiencies and immune deficiency.
  • Occurrence - M overall insufficient oral intake. K commonly when weaned too early and fed, almost exclusively, on a carb diet.
  • K also “flaky paint” skin, enlarged fatty liver and develop listlessness, apathy and loss of appetite
35
Q

The clinical findings of anorexia nervosa are generally similar to those in SAM. What are some additional findings?

A
  • Prominent effects on the endocrine system- amenorrhea (decreased GnRH) and decreased thyroid hormone release
  • Gelatinous transformation of bone marrow (Increased fat associated with a mucinous matrix deposition)
36
Q

What are the major functions of vitamin A (retinoids)?

A

Maintenance of normal vision (light sensitive rhodopsin in rods and three iodopsins in different cone cells), regulation of cell growth and differentiation (particularly mucus secreting epithelium), and regulation of lipid metabolism

37
Q

What are the consequences of vitamin A deficiency?

A
  • Impaired vision - night blindness
  • Epithelial metaplasia and keratinisation - xerophthalmia: dry conjunctiva -> bitot spots (keratin debris) -> erosion of corneal surface -> keratomalacia -> blindness
    - resp increase infection risk and kidney/bladder increases stone risk
  • Immune deficiency
38
Q

Acute vitamin A toxicity symptoms include headache, dizziness, vomiting, stupor and blurred vision (pseudotumour cerebri). Chronic toxicity is associated with weight loss, anorexia, n&v and bone and joint pain. (with increased risk if fractures). Retinoids are also teratogenic. What dietary items may lead to toxicity?

A

Liver of polar bear, whale, shark and tuna

39
Q

What is the main function if vitamin D?

A

The maintenance of adequate plasma levels of calcium and phosphorus to support metabolic functions, bone mineralisation, and neuromuscular transmission

40
Q

Where is vitamin D converted to its most active form (1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D) allowing it to then e.g. enhance intestinal absorption of calcium and phosphorus as well as stimulate expression of RANKL on osteoblasts (stimulating maturation of osteoclasts)?

A

The kidney

41
Q

When hypocalcemia occurs due to vitamin D deficiency, PTH production is elevated, causing:

A
  1. Activation of renal 1a-hydroxylase (increasing amount of active vitamin D and calcium absorption)
  2. Increased resorption of calcium from bone by osteoclasts
  3. Decreased renal excretion of calcium
  4. Increased renal excretion of phosphate
42
Q

What are four functions of vitamin C?

A
  • Collagen synthesis
  • Neurotransmitter synthesis (noradrenaline)
  • Antioxidant functions
  • Modulating the immune response
43
Q

What are the main signals (and their source) from the afferent system which go to the arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus causing efferent signals that promote catabolic circuits and inhibit anabolic circuits (by producing brain-derived neurotrophic factor, TSH and corticotropin-releasing hormone)?

Note Ghlerin from parietal cells is orexigenic

A
  • Leptin (adipocytes)
  • Insulin (Pancreatic B cells)
  • Peptide YY and GLP-1 (L cells from ileum and colon)
44
Q

What first order neurons may be thought of the 1. gas pedal for appetite, and 2. what the brake pedal?

A
  1. NPY/AgRP
  2. POMC/CART
45
Q

What are some actions of adiponectin which is produced in adipose tissue?

A
  • Stimulates fatty acid oxidation in skeletal muscle (? decreases leptin resistance as less to cross the BBB)
  • Decreases glucose production
  • Increases insulin sensitivity
  • Anti-inflammatory, anti-atherogenic, anti-proliferative and cardio protective
46
Q

What cancers have increased incidence in overweight people?

A
  • oesophagus, kidney
  • in men thyroid and colon
  • in women endometrium and gallbladder
47
Q

What three aspects of the diet are of major concern for carcinogenesis?

A
  • Content of exogenous carcinogens
  • Endogenous synthesis of carcinogens from dietary components
  • Lack of protective factors