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S7- Special Populations > The Athlete Final Review > Flashcards

The Athlete Final Review Flashcards

1
Q

PART 1

A

PART 1

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2
Q

What are the (3) high-intensity exercises utilized?

A
  • EMOM
  • AMRAP
  • TABATA
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3
Q

EMOM:

  • What is EMOM?
  • What was it popularized by?
  • Can also utilize __EMOM.
  • What is a benefit of this training method?
A
  • EMOM (every minute on the minute) is a form of interval training where the goal is to complete a certain number of reps in the allocated time and utilize the rest of the time for rest.
  • Popularized by Crossfit.
  • rEMOM (Rehab every minute on the minute)
  • Can scale up/down more easily.
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4
Q

AMRAP:

  • What is AMRAP?
  • Can be applied in what (3) manners?
  • Give an example.
  • What patients is this form of training good for?
A
  • AMRAP (as many reps as possible) is a form of training where the goal is to do as many reps/rounds as you possibly can for an allotted amount of time.
  • Can be applied as single exercise, used during session, or used as “finisher”.
  • “As many reps of bent over rows as possible in 1 minute.”
  • Good for patients who want to continue working out. (short, challenging)
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5
Q

TABATA:

  • What is TABATA?
  • ___s max effort, ___s rest (__:__ ratio)
  • __-__ rounds
  • Focuses more on _____ and _________.
A
  • TABATA is a form of high-intensity training in which very short periods of extremely demanding activity are alternated with shorter periods of rest, typically over a period of four minutes.
  • 20s MAX EFFORT, 10s REST (2:1 ratio)
  • 7-8 rounds
  • form and stability
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6
Q
  • Which training routine can be scaled up/down more easily?
  • Which training routine is similar to HIIT and focuses on form and stability?
  • Which training routine is short and challenging?
A
  • EMOM
  • TANATA
  • AMRAP
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7
Q

PART 2

A

PART 2

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8
Q
  • Is weight/olympic lifting or powerlifting considered to be more specific to sports performance?
  • Is weight/olympic lifting or powerlifting considered to be most beneficial for developing muscle strength?
A
  • weight/olympic lifting

- powerlifting

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9
Q

Weight Lifting/Olympic Lifting:

  • Considered to be more specific to sports performance.
  • What are some types of olympic lifts?
  • Involves _______ muscle mass.
  • Explosive _____-______ movements.
  • ______ movement velocity.
  • ______ force, ______ velocity.
A
  • snatch, clean and jerk
  • larger
  • multi-joint
  • fast
  • high force, high velocity
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10
Q

Powerlifting:

  • Considered to be the most beneficial for developing muscle strength.
  • What are some types of powerlifts? (3)
  • _____ force, _____ velocity.
  • Can improve muscular strength and decrease severity and independence of sports injuries.
A
  • squat, bench, deadlift

- high force, low velocity

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11
Q

What are the (6) squat varieties?

A
  • Front Squat
  • Back Squat
  • Goblet Squat
  • Split Squat
  • Sumo Squat
  • Overhead Squat
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12
Q

What are the major muscles involved in the back, front, and goblet squat?

A
  • Glut Max
  • Semimem
  • Semitend
  • Biceps Femoris
  • Vastus Lat/Intermed/Med
  • Rectus Femoris
  • -Adductor Magnus (Goblet Squat)
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13
Q

Split Squat:

  • Great for what (4) things?
  • Must have for ____________ patients.
A
  1. ) Lower body strength
  2. ) Muscle hypertrophy
  3. ) Balance
  4. ) Stability

MUST HAVE for post-op ACL patients.***

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14
Q

Sumo Squat:

  • Increased activation of the ______ and ______.
  • Great exercise for ______ athletes due to the weight they routinely lift.
A
  • adductors and core

- tactile athletes

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15
Q

Overhead Squat:

  • Added difficulty.
  • Requires more ______, _______, and ________.
  • What can it mean if the patient tends to fall forward with the weight?
A
  • strength, balance, and stability

- tight latissimus dorsi

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16
Q

PART 3

A

PART 3

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17
Q

What are the (6) steps of the squat mobility assessment?

A
  1. ) Ankle Mobility
  2. ) Hip Flexion
  3. ) Knee Flexion
  4. ) Hip Scour
  5. ) Hip Rotation
  6. ) Craig’s Test
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18
Q

What are the (2) main ankle mobility assessments?

A
  • Dorsiflexion

- Lateral Tibial Glide

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19
Q

How do we perform the DF Closed Chain Mobility Assessment? (3)

A
  1. ) Foot 4’ from the wall.
  2. ) Heel remains in contact with the floor
  3. ) Drive knee forward over toe.
  4. ) Full ROM should be able to contact wall without heel lift.
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20
Q

What is expected from the DF Closed Chain Mobility Assessment?

A

Full ROM should be able to contact wall without heel lift.

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21
Q

How do we perform the Lateral Tibial Glide Closed Chain Mobility Assessment? (2)

A
  1. ) Stabilize midfoot in neutral.

2. ) Actively drive knee out laterally to assess frontal plane.

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22
Q

What is expected from the Lateral Tibial Glide Closed Chain Mobility Assessment?

A

20-30 degrees beyond vertical is normal.

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23
Q

How do we perform the Hip/Knee Flexion Assessment? (2)

A
  1. ) Lay supine and pull shins to thigh and knees to chest.

2. ) Monitor to limit pelvic motion.

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24
Q

What is expected from the Hip/Knee Flexion Assessment? What do we do if unable to do so?

A
  • Athlete should be able to clear 120 degrees of hip flexion without pelvic motion and shins should contact back of thighs.
  • If unable, retest without knee flexion included.
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25
Q

How do we perform the Hip Scour Assessment? (3)

A
  1. ) Maintaining pelvic position, move femur through straight plane available motion.
  2. ) Assess varying angles of flexion and ER/ABD.
  3. ) Find position of least resistance and comfort for athlete. (this may be “ideal” squat position)
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26
Q

How do we perform the Hip Rotation Assessment? (4)

A
  1. ) Lay supine and hold femur in straight 90 degree flexion.
  2. ) Assess available IR (35 degrees) and ER (45 degrees).
  3. ) Lay prone and hold femur in 0 degrees of flexion and ADD.
  4. ) Assess available ER and IR.
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27
Q

How do we perform Craig’s Test? (4)

A
  1. ) Femur in 9 degrees flexion and ADD>
  2. ) Palpate greater trochanter of femur.
  3. ) ER and IR hip to expose the most lateral aspect of the greater trochanter.
  4. ) Assess tibial angle from vertical.
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28
Q

Craig’s Test:

  • Normal = __-__ degrees
  • Retroversion = ____ degrees
  • Anteroversion = ____ degrees
A
  • Normal = 8-15 degrees
  • Retroversion = >15 degrees
  • Anteroversion = <8 degrees
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29
Q

PART 4

A

PART 4

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30
Q

1111

A

1111

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31
Q

What is Little League Elbow?

A

Commonly used to describe pain and injuries to the MEDIAL ELBOW during overhead throwing.

32
Q
  • What is the cause of Little League Elbow?

- With Little League Elbow, think ___________.

A
  • High levels of torque generated during the lack of cocking.
  • Think MICROTRAUMA.
33
Q

What are some injuries that are included in Little League Elbow? (5)

A
  • Epicondyle Apophysitis
  • Epicondyle Avulsion Fractures
  • Growth Plate Disturbances
  • UCL Injuries
  • Less Likely Injuries (MCL, common flexor tendon pathology, ulnar nerve injury)
34
Q

What is Medial Epicondyle Apophysitis?

A

Most common injury affecting young baseball pitchers whose bones have not yet stopped growing. (“little league elbow”)

35
Q

Medial Epicondyle Apophysitis S/Sx. (4)

A
  • Medial elbow pain/swelling.
  • Decreased throwing distance/speed.
  • Point tender over medial epicondyle.
  • Medial epicondyle hypertrophy.
36
Q

Medial Epicondyle Apophysitis Treatment:

  • ___-___ weeks rest
  • Is immobilization required?
  • Avoidance of aggravating activities and correction of _________.
  • _______ if avulsion injury present.
A
  • 4-6 weeks
  • No
  • biomechanics
  • ORIF
37
Q

What are some diagnosis that can cause lateral elbow pain? (3)

A
  • PANNER’S
  • Traumatic Fx
  • Avulsion Fx
38
Q

Panner’s Disease:

  • Also known as Osteochondrosis Dessicans of the Capitellum, what is this?
  • Children >___ years old.
  • Usually _______ arm.
  • What (3) things can be found when taking Hx of patient with Panner’s Disease?
A

Condition in which bone underneath the cartilage of a joint dies due to the lack of blood flow. Bone and cartilage can BREAK LOOSE CAUSING PAIN and LIMITING MOTIION.

  • <10 years old
  • dominant
  • Insidious onset w/ diffuse lateral elbow pain, repetitive trauma, “locking” in the elbow.
39
Q

Little Leaguer’s Shoulder Diagnosis. (5)

A
  • Osteochondritis
  • Epiphysiolysis of the proximal humeral epiphysis
  • Physeal widening of the proximal humerus
  • Avulsion fracture
  • Fracture to the glenoid rim
40
Q

Little Leaguer’s Shoulder:

  • Usually occurs in ages ___-___.
  • High levels of torque generated during the lack of _______ and early _______ phases.
  • Injury to the ____________ that occurs due to what (2) things?
  • What is the pathophysiology behind Little Leaguer’s Shoulder? (2)
A
  • 11-14
  • lack of cocking and early acceleration phases
  • Injury to the PROXIMAL HUMERAL EPIPHYSIS that occurs due to DISTRACTION and TORSION.
  • fatigue fracture, localized inflammatory reaction
41
Q

With Little Leaguer’s Shoulder, we have cessation of throwing until what (2) things?

A
  • Patient has pain free ROM

- Radiographs are normal

42
Q

PART 5: INTERVAL THROWING PROGRAM

A

PART 5: INTERVAL THROWING PROGRAM

43
Q

How long does the program last?

A

No set time for completion, based on individual variability.

44
Q

What happens if the patient has pain after one of the sessions? Will they still progress?

A
  • If athletes experience sharp pain, should be instructed to STOP all sport activity until pain ceases.
  • If pain persists, the athlete needs to undergo physical assessment.
45
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47
Q

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11

48
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49
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51
Q

PART 6: FIFA 11+

A

PART 6: FIFA 11+

52
Q

What is the FIFA 11+?

A

20 minute comprehensive warm-up program designed to reduce injuries among soccer players ages 14+.

53
Q

What are the (3) separate components of the FIFA 11+ and the time for each?

A
  1. ) Running exercises (8min)
  2. ) Plyometric and Balancing exercises (10min)
  3. ) Running exercises (2min) to conclude warm-up.
54
Q

Teams that performed the FIFA 11+ at least twice a week had ___-___% less injured players.

A

30-50%

55
Q

PART 7: ACL RECONSTRUCTION RTS

A

PART 7: ACL RECONSTRUCTION RTS

56
Q

What are the criteria for RTS after an ACL Reconstruction? (List #1)

A
  • Knee flexion ROM >95% of the uninjured side
  • Full active knee extension
  • Minimal to no pain
  • Minimal to no swelling
  • Strength of at least 85% of quad and HS compared to the C/L side
  • Hop tests >70% of the uninjured side
57
Q

What are the criteria for RTS after an ACL Reconsstruction? (List #2)

A
  • 12 weeks post op (minimum)
  • 90% or greater quad strength
  • 90% or greater on all hop tests
  • 90% or greater on KOS-ADL
  • 90% or greater on global rating score of knee function
58
Q

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59
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60
Q

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61
Q

PART 8: MENISCUS REPAIR REHAB PROTOCOL

A

PART 8: MENISCUS REPAIR REHAB PROTOCOL

62
Q

What are the (4) main rehab protocols for ACL with meniscus repair?

A
  1. ) Period of NWB based on MD and where the meniscus tear is: 2-4 weeks
  2. ) No WBing squats >45 degrees for 4 weeks
    - 3.) After 4 weeks, CKC squats progressed past 45 degrees to 90 degrees
    - 4.) After 8 weeks, no restrictions 🡪 resume normal ACL protocol
63
Q

PART 9

A

PART 9

64
Q

A child may participate in a structured resistance training program when what 2 things are met?

A
  1. ) Emotionally mature enough to follow directions.

2. ) Demonstrate proficient levels of balance and postural control (6-7 yo).

65
Q

There is a positive gain between gains in motor performance skills and ___________ (1RM).

A

-mean intensity

66
Q

Youth Resistance Training Program:

  • __-__ sets
  • __-__ reps
  • __-__% 1RM on __-__ exercises
A
  • 2-3 sets
  • 8-15 reps
  • 60-80% 1RM on 6-8 exercises
67
Q

What (3) things are needed when giving youth resistance training program?

A
  • Age-appropriate
  • Qualified
  • Enthusiastic instruction
68
Q

PART 10

A

PART 10

69
Q

What are the primary regenerative injection options? (6)

A
  • Hyaluronic acid
  • PRP (Platelet Rich Plasma)
  • Stem cells
  • Amniotic fluid injections
  • Prolotherapy
  • Lipogems
70
Q

Hyaluronic Acid:

  • What is it used primarily for and what does it do?
  • Acts as a ______ ________.
  • Is it a one-time injection or multiple injections?
  • ___% of patients became pain-free.
A
  • Primarily used for knee OA, acts similar to the substance that occurs naturally in the joints.
  • shock absorber
  • Can be one-time or multiple injections
  • 30%
71
Q

PRP (Platelet Rich Plasma):
-Contains a minimum of ____K platelets/µL.
Contains over 300 different molecules, including platelets, plasma, leukocytes, and erythrocytes.
-What are the effects of PRP? (4)
-Could possibly accelerate ______ healing.
-Can it help to shorten RTS?
-Limited evidence for PRP alone for focal articular cartilage defects.
-Variable outcomes with the use of PRP for chronic ____________.

A
  • 200k
  • Anti-inflammatory effects, stimulates chondrocytes, synovial proliferation, enhanced tissue regeneration
  • graft (ACL, MCL, RC)
  • Yes, autologous PRP with rehab leads to shortened RTS (2 weeks)
  • chronic tendinopathy
72
Q

Stem Cells:

  • Obtained from ____________.
  • Once taken from your hip/pelvis, they are spun to separate the stem cells and form a concentrate and then injected at the site of the injury.
A

-bone marrow

73
Q

Amniotic Fluid Injections:

  • What all does it contain?
  • What are the positives compared to others?
A
  • hyaluronic acid, electrolytes, growth factors, amino acids, proteins, enzymes, hormone
  • Less invasive and expensive
74
Q

Prolotherapy:

-Local injection that usually includes substances such as dextrose/saline used in __________ conditions.

A

inflammatory

75
Q

Lipogems:

  • What is the purpose?
  • What joint is it mainly used in?
A
  • Taking fat cells from the abdomen to be used to treat pain, arthritis, and swelling.
  • Used mainly in the knee joint, but has been used in the shoulder.

S7- Special Populations (18 decks)

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