Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

PSYC 493 > Textbook concepts Exam 1 > Flashcards

Textbook concepts Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What was one of the earliest examples of police selection testing by psychologists?

A

LLewis Terman used the Stanford Binet intelligence test to assist with police selection in California, this led him to recommend a minimum IQ score of 80 for future applicants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What kinds of selection procedures do police agencies typically use?

A

Background checks, medical exams, selection interviews, personality tests, drug testing, physical agility tests, polygraph tests, recommendation letters, cognitive ability tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is part of the RCMP selection process?

A 
Meet job requirements- Canadian citizen, 19 years old, valid drivers license, prepared to carry a firearm as well as relocate. No prior criminal convictions that have not been pardoned. 
Vision and hearing assessments
Online submission
Entrance Exam
Forms package
Pre-employment polygraph
Health assessment
Field investigation and security clearence
Cadet training
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How do we develop police selection instruments?

A

1) Job analysis stage: knowledge skills and abilities of a good police officer must be identified and defined
Construction and validation stage: Instrument must be developed for measuring the extent to which individuals possess a relevant KSA. Also must look at how the instruments generalize to actual on the job performance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which KSA’s are considered essential for policing?

A

Honesty, reliability, sensitivity to others, good communication skills, high motivation, problem-solving skills, and being a team player.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is predictive validity?

A

Tells us if there is a relationship between scores obtained from a selection instrument and measures oactual job performance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the most common selective instruments use by the police in the US and Canada?

A

Selction interview- semi structured. Has been shown to have moderate predictive ability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When are interviews most likely to result in useful information for selection purposes?

A

When they consist of a standard, predetermined list of questions that are asked of all applicants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which scale on the MMPI has been shown to be a significant predictor of problematic police behaviour?

A

The Lie scale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is an assessment centre?

A

A facility where the behaviour of police applicants can be observed in a number of different ways by multiple observers (uses the situational test)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is police discretion?

A

The freedom that a police officer often has for deciding what should be done in any given situation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are some important reasons for police discretion?

A

Police officers cannot attempt to enforce all laws all the time- they would be in court constantly and would be of little use for serious problems
Some laws do not need to be strictly enforced all the time
Some laws are vague and up for intepretation
Most law violations are minor in nature
Full enforcement of laws all the time would alienate the public and overwhelm the CJS
Limited resources with lots to do

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What justifies police discretion in court?

A

Discretion must have been exercised honestly and transparently on the basis of valid reasonable grounds, as well as must be proportionate to the seriousness of the conduct and must be exercised in public interest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is one of the primary reasons police have to deal with the mentally ill more often now?

A

Due to the move towards deinstitutionalization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the 3 options available to police when encountering an individual with a mental illness?

A

1) Transport the person to a psychiatric institution
2) Arrest the person and take them to jail
3) Resolve the matter informally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the 5 main sources of police stress?

A

1) Intra-organizational stressors- excessive paperwork
2) Inter-organizational stress- jurisdictional isolationism
3) Occupational stressors- human suffering
4) Criminal justice system stressors- unfavourable court decisions
5) Public stressors- distorted press accounts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What stressors more strongly affect officers according to research?

A

Organizational stressors- especially intra-organizational stressors (the public would believe it’s occupational)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are some of the consequences of stress?

A

Health issues, psychological and personal problems, job performance problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is resiliency training?

A

Training delivered to police officers to improve their ability to effectively adapt to stress and adversity- training has been shown to improve job performance in critical incident situations and improve stress reactions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are psychological debriefings?

A

A psychologically oriented intervention given to police officers following exposure to an event that resulted in psychological distress and an impairment of normal functioning. Research is conflicting depending on the type of debriefing that has taken place.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are some of the key investigative tasks that psychology plays a role in?

A

Evaluation of investigative information (information obtained through interrogation), investigative decision making- esp ones that require an in depth understanding of criminal behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the Mr. Big technique?

A

Noncustodial procedure that happens outside the interrogation room- involves undercover police officers posing as members of criminal organizations who attempt to lure the suspect into a gang. Suspect is made to commit minor crimes for which he may be rewarded, and then is interviewed for a higher level job. However, before he can seal the deal with the Big BOSS, he must confess to a serious crime (the one under investigation).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How effective is the Mr. Big technique?

A

75% success rate, and a 95% conviction rate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the nine steps in the REID procedure?

A

1) Suspect is confronted with their guilt- can imply evidence exists even if it doesn’t
2) Psychological themes developed that allow the suspect to rationalize or excuse the crime
3) Interrogator interrupts statements of denial
4) Interrogator overcomes suspects objections to charges
5) Ensure that they have the suspects attention by moving closer to the suspect
6) Interrogator exhibits sympathy and understanding, suspect urged to come clean (appeal to sense of decency)
7) Suspect offered explanations for the crime
8) Once suspect accepts responsibility, interrogator develops this admission into a full confession (they usually agree to the alternate options in Q7)
9) Write and sign full confession

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is the REID model of interrogation based on?
The idea that people make choices that they think will maximize their wellbeing given the constraints they face (attempt to downplay consequences of confession and increase anxiety associated with deception)
26
What are some of the most common REID techniques used by interrogators?
Isolating suspects from friends and family, trying to establish rapport
27
What are some other common but less frequently used REID techniques?
Confronting suspects with guilt, appealing self to self interest, providing justifications for the crime, implying or pretending to have evidence.
28
What are some of the rarest REID techniques?
Threatening the suspect with consequences for not cooperating and physically intimidating them.
29
What are the 3 main issues with the REID technique?
1) The ability of investigators to detect deception 2) Biases that may result when an interrogator believes that the suspect is guilty 3) Coercive or suggestive nature of interrogative practices.
30
What are Miranda rights?
Rights to silence and legal counsel- only when suspects knowingly and voluntarily waive these rights can their statements be used against them.
31
What is the 4 point framework that the Supreme Court uses to determine whether a confession should be deemed voluntary?
1) Court must consider whether police made any threats or promises 2) The court must look for an atmosphere of opression (unjust or inhumane treatment) 3) The court must consider whether the suspect had an operating mind 4) The court must consider the degree of police trickery that was used to extract the confession (degree cannot shock the community
32
What is the primary goal of the PEACE model?
To obtain complete and accurate information about the crime in question in order to conduct a more efficient and effective investigation.
33
What is the definition of a false confession according to Ofshe?
A confession is false if it is elicited in response to a demand for a confession and is iether intentionally fabricated or not based on actual knowledge of the facts that form its content.
34
What is a retracted confession?
A confession that the confessor later declares to be false
35
What are disputed confessions?
A confession that is later disputed at trial0 due to legal technicalities or due to the suspect disputing that it was ever made.
36
According to Gudjonsson, why do people voluntarily falsely confess?
1) A morbid desire for notoriety 2) Inability to distinguish fact from fantasy 3) The need to make up for pathological feelings of guilt by receiving punishment 4) A desire to protect somebody else from harm (prevalent among juveniles)
37
What is compliance?
A tendency to go along with demands made by people who seem to be in authority positions even though the person may not agree with them
38
What is internalization?
The acceptance of guilt for an act, even if the person did not commit the act.
39
What is confabulation?
The reporting of events that never actually occurred.
40
What is criminal profiling?
A technique for identifying major personality and behavioural characteristics of an individual based upon an analysis of the crimes he or she has committed. Most commonly used in violent serial crimes.
41
What is criminal profiling used for?
Narrowing down lists of suspects, providing new lines of inquiry, set traps to flush out offender, determine whether a threatening note should be taken seriously, advice on best interrogative techniques, informs prosecutors on how to break down defendants in cross examination
42
What information is typically included in a criminal profile?
Offenders sex, age, race, level of intelligence, educational history, hobbies, family background, residential location, criminal history, employment status, psychosexual development and post-offence behaviour.
43
What is deductive criminal profiling?
Involves the prediction of an offenders background characteristics generated from a thorough analysis of the evidence left at crime scenes.
44
What is inductive criminal profiling?
Involves the prediction of an offenders background characteristics generated from a comparison of that particular offenders crimes with similar crimes committed by other known offenders.
45
What is the organized-disorganized model?
They rely on previously solved cases to develop a framework for background characteristics, places more emphasis on rigorously testing the validity of the categories that are proposed as we as the degree of linkage between crime scene behaviours and background characteristics.
46
What are 2 assumptions made by criminal profilers?
1) The offenders behave in a stable fashion across the crimes they commit 2) That reliable relationships exist between the way in which offenders commit their crimes and their background characteristics.
47
What is geographic profiling?
Uses crime scene locations to predict the most likely area where the offender resides. More helpful to police than criminal profiling.
48
What are polygraph disclosure tests?
Tests used to uncover information about an offenders past behaviour.
49
What is the comparison question test?
Examiner conducts a non-accusatory pre-test interview, and then uses this interview to develop comparison questions.
50
What is the typical question series used in CQT
1) Gathering information 22) Pre interview 3) Attach sensors and conduct acquiantance test 4) Testing phase 5) Scoring phase 6) Post-test interview
51
What is the concealed information test? (guilty knowledge test)
Does not assess deception, instead seeks to determine whether the suspect knows details about a crime that only the person who committed the crime would know.
52
What is the general form of the CIT?
Series of questions in multiple choice format- each has one correct options and others are foils that could fit the crime but are incorrect.
53
What physiological response is the guilty suspec assumed to display under the CIT?
Larger physiological response to the correct options than to the incorrect ones.
54
hy is CIT used less than CQT?
Polygraph examiners believe in the accuracy of CQT and aren't quick to change their methods. For law enforcement to use this method, salient features of the crime must be known only to the perpetrator.
55
What is the idea of ground truth?
he main advantage of laboratory studies- the experimenter knows who is truly guilty or innocent
56
How are field studies conducted on polygraph validity?
Use of original examiners and blind examiners- original examiners conduct the actual evaluation of the suspect, blind investigators are provided with the original examiners charts.
57
at is the most difficult part about conducting field studies?
The establishment of ground truth.
58
How have we solved the issue of establishing ground truth in field studies?
Judicial outcomes and confessions. (this likely inflates polygraph accuracy rates)
59
What percentage of innocent suspects were falsely identified as guilty in polygraph studies?
9-24%- suggests innocent people respond more to relevant than comparison questions
60
How effective is the CIT?
Very effective at identifying innocent participants (95%), but less effective at guilty (76-85%)
61
What factors in CIT are associated with higher-accuracies?
Motives to succeed, verbal response to alternatives, five or more questions.
62
What are CQT and CIT most susceptive to with regards to errors?
CQT- Vulnerable to false-positive errors (falsely classifying innocent suspects as guilty) CIT- false negative errors (falsely classifying guilty suspects as innocent)
63
What are some of the best and worst countermeasures when trying to beat a polygraph exam?
Physical or mental countermeasures fare best, polygraph examiner cannot detect these. Drugs are worse, examiner was able to detect 90% of the participants receiving them.
64
What year were polgyraph results first submitted as evidence in the United States?
1923
65
How are ERP's used to measure deception?
P300 ERPS- guilty suspects respond to crime-relevant events with a large P300 response, compared with their response to noncrime relevant events. No difference should be observed in innocent suspects.
66
What is one of the main advanteges of ERPS?
Have been proposed as a measure resistant to manipulation.
67
How has fMRI been used to detect deception?
Researchers hope it measures the actual process of deception- attempting to determine which areas of the brain are associate with deception.
68
What are some of the most consistent findings from fMRI studies?
Lie conditions produce greater activation in the prefrontal and anterior cingulate regions as compared to truth conditions.
69
What is the average amount of lies that North American's tell in a day?
One to two.
70
What are not reliable ways of detecting deception?
Gaze aversion, smiling, self-manipulation (rubbing one's hands)
71
What are microexpressions?
Brief facial expressions reflecting the true emotions a person is experiencing.
72
What is the verbal indicator most strongly associated with deception?
Voice pitch and speech disturbances.
73
What are some of the verbal characteristics of deception?
``` Speech fillers Speech errors Pitch of voice Rate of speech Speech pauses ```
74
What are some potential non-verbal characteristics of deception?
``` Gaze aversion Smiling Blinking Fidgeting Illustrators (gestures) Hand or finger movements Body movements Leg or foot movements Shrugs Head movements Shifting positions ```
75
What is the accuracy rate for detecting deception amongst professional lie catchers?
55.5% (for comparison, students and other citizens had a 54.2% accuracy).
76
What determines a participants accuracy on lie detecting?
People who relie on multiple cues to assess credibility rather than one.
77
What do disorders of deception vary on?
1) Whether the person intentionally or consciously produces the symptoms 2) Whether the motivation is internal or external
78
What is malingering?
Person who fakes psychological or physical symptoms fexternal gain. Symptoms have to be clearly under voluntary control and there must be external motivations to produce such symptoms.
79
What is defensiveness?
A conscious denial or extreme minimization of physical of psychological symptoms.
80
What is the pathological explanation for malingering?
Due to a mental disorder- exaggerates pre-existing symptoms or creates symptoms to obtain control.
81
What is the criminological explanation for malingering?
Due to legal circumstances- antisocial individuals create symptoms to avoid legal consequences.
82
What is adaptation malingering?
Adverse or stressful circumstances or when personal stakes are high- create symptoms to cope with the situation.
83
When should malingering be suspected?
When there are substantial differences between what a person reports and what others observe, when someone refuses to comply with an evaluation, and when the person is diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder.
84
According to the adaptational model, when is malingering likely to occur?
1) When there is a perceived, adversarial context 2) When personal stakes are very high 3) When no viable alternatives are perceived. This is more accurate that the criminological model.
85
What is a simulation design?
Participants are told to malinger a specific disorder and then compared to a control group as well as a clinical comparison group.
86
What is a known group design?
Involves 2 stages: The establishment of a criterion group (genuine patients and malingerers) and then an analysis of the similarities and differences between these criterion groups.
87
What is instrumental psychosis?
Developed to identify patients (many with psychiatric histories) attempting to feign symptoms to secure special accomodations.
88
What are some typical indicators of malingered psychosis?
Malingerers tend to overact (more bizaarre), often willing to discuss their symptoms when asked, may attempt to control the assessment, may be evasive or take a long time to answer when asked to provide details. Report rare or atypical symptoms, blatant symptoms, or absurd symptoms.
89
Why are yes or no questions more problematic for children than open ended ones?
Because yes and no questions focus more on recognition than recall- increasing the likelihood of error.
90
What is misattribution?
Something that children tend to do- they may report on an event that they heard about as if it was something they epxerienced.
91
What are human figure drawings used for?
In place of anatomically correct dolls, as it is believed that children may understand the representational nature of a two dimensional drawing other than three dimensional- as well as avoiding things like fantasy play.
92
Are HFD's any better than anatomically correct dolls?
No- more incorrect touches were reported when the HFD's were used.
93
What is false memory syndrome?
Describes clients false beliefs that they were sexually abused as children.
94
What are the 5 criteria to consider when determining the veracity of a recovered memory?
1) Age of complainant at the time of the alleged abuse 2) Techniques used to recover the memory 3) Similarity of reports across interview sessions 4) Motivation for recall 5) Time elapsed since the alleged abuse.
95
What is historic child sexual abuse?
Allegations of child abuse having occurred several years, often decades prior to when they are being prosecuted.
96
What factor may prompt children to make more false-positives in the target-absent condition?
Social factors moreso than memory problems.
97
What is a competency inquiry?
Prior to 2006, children had to pass this before testifying- questions posed to a child witness under age 14 to determine whether they are able to communicate the evidence and understand the difference between the truth and a lie in the circumstances of testifying to see if they feel compelled to tell the truth.
98
What is physical abuse defined as?
Defined as the deliberate application of force to any part of a child's body that results or may result in non-accidental injury.
99
What is sexual abuse defined as?
Occurs when an adult or youth uses a child for sexual purposes.
100
What is neglect/failure to provide defined as?
Occurs when a child's caregiver does not provide the requisite attention to the childs emotional, psychological, or physical development.
101
What is emotional maltreatment?
Defined by acts or omissions by caregivers that cause or could cause serious behavioural, cognitive, emotional, or mental disorders (verbal threats, intimidation, exploitation etc).
102
What is the term "in need of protection?"
Used to describe a child's need to be separated from their caregiver because of maltreatment.
103
en is an individual no longer considered a child in Canada?
16-19 years of age.
104
What is incidence?
The number of new cases in a specific population occuring in a given time period, usually a year
105
What is prevalence?
The proportion of a population at that specific point in time that was maltreated during childhood.
106
What are the three primary categories substantiated maltreatment?
1) Neglect (34%) 2) Exposure to domestic violence (34%) 3) Physical abuse (20%).
107
What are some child factors that affect the type of abuse experienced?
1) Gender: Male (physical abuse) female (sexual abuse)
108
What are some parental factors that predict physical abuse?
``` Young maternal age Single-parent status History of childhood physical abuse Spousal assault Unplanned or negative attitude towards pregnancy History of substance abuse Social isolation or lack of support ```
109
What paternal factors contribute to likelihood of sexual assault occurring?
Living in a family without a biological parent Poor relationship between parents Presence of a stepfather Poor child-parent relations
110
What are some social factors that contribute to physical abuse?
Low socioeconomic status | Large family size
111
What are some short term effects of physical abuse?
Greater perceptual motor-deficits, lower measured intellectual functioning, lower academic acheivement, externalizing behaviours, internalizing mental health difficulties.
112
What are some long term effects of physical abuse?
Nonfamilial and familial violence.
113
What are three categories of outcomes in adults with a history of child sexual abuse?
1) Psychiatric disorders 2) Dysfunctional behaviours 3) Neurobiological disregulation
114
What are some of the short term effects of sexual abuse?
Behaviour problems, lowered self-esteem, inappropriate sexuality, PTSD symptoms
115
What are criminal cases?
Those in which an act was allegedly committed as found in the criminal code of Canada.
116
What are civil cases?
Those that involve a breach of contract or other claims of "harm" (known as torts).
117
How many jury members typically occur in criminal versus civil cases?
6-8 in civil, 12 in criminal.
118
In which types of trials to verdicts have to be unanimous in Canada?
Criminal. Civil doesn't have to be.
119
What are summary offences?
Involve a sentence of fewer than six months in prison and a fine of less than 2000$. (for some offences the maximum sentence is 18 months).
120
Does a defendant charged with a summary offence have a right to trial by jury?
No
121
What are the three types of indictable offences?
1) Less serious indictable offences 2) Highly serious indictable offences 3) Choice of trial by jury or judge alone
122
What are less serious indictable offences
Heard by a judge alone, include theft (other than theft of cattle), obtaining money or property by false pretenses, failure to comply with a probation order.
123
What are highly serious indictable offences?
Must be tried by a judge and jury, include murder, treason, and piracy. However, trial can proceed without a jury if the attorney general and the accused agree.
124
What are the indictable offences where the defendant can choose what method they get tried by?
Indictable offences not listed in sections 553 or 469 of the criminal code: robbery, arson, sexual assault with a weapon.
125
What are hybrid offences?
A cross between indictable and summary offences
126
What is the maximum sentence of hybrid sentences?
Five or more years in prison if they proceed by indictment, 6 moths if they proceed by summary (or 18 months in cases such as sexual assault).
127
What is the juries act?
Provincial and territorial legislation that outlines the eligibility criteria for jury service and how prospective jurors must be selected.
128
What is one of the key issues when Indigenous peoples are being selected for possible jury duty?
Those living on reserves are not part of municipal assessment lists that can be used to identify possible jurors, particularly in Ontario.
129
What are the three issues of juror impartiality?
1) Juror must set aside any pre-existing biases, prejudices, or attitudes and judge the case solely on the evidence 2) Juror must ignore any information that is not part of admissible evidence (media, biased defendant representations) 3) Important that the juror have no connection to the defendant.
130
What is the relationship between negative pretrial publicity and judgements of guilt?
Modest positive relationship
131
What is a preliminary hearing?
Where the Crown presents the evidence agains the defendant and the judge then decides if here is sufficient evidence for the case to proceed to trial.
132
What is the main legal function of a jury?
To apply the law, as provided by the judge to the admissible evidence in the case and to render a verdict of guilt or innocence.
133
What are the 4 other jury functions aside from the main legal ones?
1) To use the wisdom of 12 (rather than of 1) to reach a verdict 2) To act as the conscience of the community 3) To protect against out-of-date laws 4) To increase knowledge about the justice system.
134
What is chaos theory?
The theory that when jurors are guided by their emotions and personal biases rather than by the law, chaos in judgement results.
135
What is polarization?
When individuals tend to become more extreme in their initial position following group discussion.
136
What is a leniency bias?
When jurors move towards leniency following deliberations.
137
What is a hung jury?
A jury that does not reach a unanimous criminal verdict.
138
What is the black sheep effect?
When the evidence is strong, race similarity between the defendant and the jury leads to punitiveness.

PSYC 493 (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions