Tests for Infectious Mononucleosis Flashcards

1
Q

What is the principle behind the Paul Bunnel Test for Infectious Mononucleosis?

a. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
b. Hemagglutination
c. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
d. Western blot

A

b. Hemagglutination

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2
Q

What does the Paul Bunnel Test screen for in patients’ serum?

a. White blood cell count
b. Hemoglobin levels
c. Heterophil antibodies
d. Platelet count

A

c. Heterophil antibodies

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3
Q

Which reagent is used in the Paul Bunnel Test?

a. Serum sample from the patient
b. 2% suspension of sheep red blood cells
c. Antibiotics
d. Viral culture medium

A

b. 2% suspension of sheep red blood cells

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4
Q

A positive result in the Paul Bunnel Test indicates:

a. Presence of the Epstein-Barr virus
b. Absence of heterophil antibodies
c. Presence of heterophil antibodies
d. Negative for Infectious Mononucleosis

A

c. Presence of heterophil antibodies

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5
Q

What does the Paul Bunnel Test determine about the specificity of heterophil antibodies?

a. It can identify the exact type of heterophil antibody.
b. It cannot determine the specificity of heterophil antibodies, but can detect if there is either absence or present.
c. It identifies the source of the antibodies in the patient’s serum.
d. It quantifies the level of heterophil antibodies

A

b. It cannot determine the specificity of heterophil antibodies, but can detect if there is either absence or present.

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6
Q

Which of the following best describes the result of a Paul Bunnel test for Infectious Mononucleosis?

A) Presence of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) DNA
B) Presence of streptococcal antibodies
C) (+) result hemagglutination - presence of heterophil antibodies
D) Elevated white blood cell count

A

C) (+) result hemagglutination - presence of heterophil antibodies

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7
Q

What antibody will detect on this paul bunnel when all reacted with sheep blood cells?

A

Infectious mononucleosis
Forssman
serum sickness.

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8
Q

What is the next step if a Paul Bunnel Test if positive?

A
  • The next step is to determine the specificity of the antibody by performing the Davidson differential test.
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9
Q

What is the principle of the Davidson Differential Test?

A
  • Absorption-hemagglutination.
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10
Q

What is the first step of the Davidson Differential Test, and what does it involve?

A
  • The Absorption Step, which entails exposing the test serum to both beef cells and guinea pig cells, leading to the absorption of either one or both of these antibodies.
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11
Q

Which cells are used as indicator cells in the Davidson Differential Test?

A) Sheep cells
B) Guinea pig cells
C) Beef cells
D) Chicken cells

A

A) Sheep cells

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12
Q

In the Absorption Step of the Davidson Differential Test, what is absorbed by the test serum?

A) Guinea pig kidney cells
B) Beef RBCs
C) Both Guinea pig kidney cells and Beef RBCs
D) Chicken cells

A

C) Both Guinea pig kidney cells and Beef RBCs

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13
Q

What antibodies are targeted in the Davidson Differential Test?

A) Heterophil Abs
B) Agglutinins
C) Antibodies to Sheep cells
D) Autoantibodies

A

A) Heterophil Abs

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14
Q

What is the result of a positive reaction in the 1st step of the Davidson Differential Test?

A) Increase in antibody titer in the serum
B) Decrease in antibody titer in the serum
C) No change in antibody titer in the serum
D) Complete removal of antibodies from the serum

A

B) Decrease in antibody titer in the serum

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15
Q

What is the outcome of a negative reaction in the 1st step of the Davidson Differential Test?

A) Increase in antibody titer in the serum
B) Decrease in antibody titer in the serum
C) No change in antibody titer in the serum
D) Antibodies remain in the beef cells

A

A) Increase in antibody titer in the serum

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16
Q

What is the purpose of step 1 in the Davidson Differential Test?

A) To collect cells with antibody attachment
B) To centrifuge both tubes
C) To collect the supernatant
D) To remove unabsorbed antibodies

A

B) To centrifuge both tubes

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17
Q

What does the supernatant collected after step 1 of the Davidson Differential Test consist of?

A) Cells with antibody attachment
B) Unabsorbed antibodies
C) Centrifuged tubes
D) Unidentified substances

A

B) Unabsorbed antibodies

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18
Q

What is the purpose of the Hemeagglutination step in the Davidson Differential Test, and what is done with the supernatant after centrifugation?

A
  • Is used to remove the “Absorbed Agglutinins” (precipitates).
  • After centrifugation, the supernatant is then tested with sheep red blood cells (RBC) to assess agglutination reactions.
19
Q

What is the purpose of the 2nd step in the Davidson Differential Test?

A) To add indicator cells (sheep RBCs)
B) To observe agglutination in both tubes
C) To collect the supernatant/centrifugate
D) To prepare the test tubes

A

C) To collect the supernatant/centrifugate

20
Q

What is the indicator used in the Davidson Differential Test to observe agglutination?

A) Human RBCs
B) Goat RBCs
C) Sheep RBCs
D) Rabbit RBCs

A

C) Sheep RBCs

21
Q

In the Davidson Differential Test, what is the purpose of the 2nd step, which involves collecting the supernatant/centrifugate?\

A) To increase agglutination in Tube 1
B) To decrease agglutination in Tube 1
C) To observe low or weak agglutination in Tube 1
D) To observe high or strong agglutination in Tube 1

A

C) To observe low or weak agglutination in Tube 1

22
Q

Which tube in the Davidson Differential Test exhibits a high or strong agglutination reaction during the 2nd step?

A) Tube 1
B) Tube 2
C) Both Tube 1 and Tube 2
D) Neither Tube 1 nor Tube 2

A

B) Tube 2

23
Q

In a serological test, if the absorption is positive in step 1, what is the likely outcome in step 2?

A) Antibody titer decreases, and agglutination strengthens.
B) Antibody titer decreases, and agglutination weakens.
C) Antibody titer increases, and agglutination strengthens.
D) Antibody titer remains the same, and agglutination remains unchanged.

A

B) Antibody titer decreases, and agglutination weakens.

24
Q

In a serological test, if the absorption is negative in step 1, what is the likely effect on agglutination?

A) Agglutination will be weak.
B) Agglutination will be moderate.
C) Agglutination will be strong.
D) Absorption has no effect on agglutination.

A

C) Agglutination will be strong.

25
Q

Can Forssman antibodies react with Beef RBCs?

A
  • No
26
Q

Can IM (Infectious Mononucleosis) antibodies react with Beef RBCs?

A
  • Yes
27
Q

Can Serum Sickness antibodies react with Beef RBCs?

A
  • Yes
28
Q

Can Forssman antibodies react with Guinea Pig Kidney Cells?

A
  • Yes
29
Q

Can IM (Infectious Mononucleosis) antibodies react with Guinea Pig Kidney Cells?

A
  • No
30
Q

Can Serum Sickness antibodies react with Guinea Pig Kidney Cells?

A
  • Yes
31
Q

What is the agglutination pattern of Forssman antibodies on Beef RBCs and Guinea Pig Kidney Cells?

A

Beef ++++
Guine +

32
Q

How do IM antibodies react with Beef RBCs and Guinea Pig Kidney Cells?

A
  • IM antibodies result in a mild agglutination reaction (+) with Beef RBCs and a strong reaction (+++) with Guinea Pig Kidney Cells.
33
Q

What is the agglutination pattern of Serum Sickness antibodies on Beef RBCs and Guinea Pig Kidney Cells?

A
  • Serum Sickness antibodies cause a moderate agglutination reaction (++) with both Beef RBCs and Guinea Pig Kidney Cells.
34
Q

What is the principle of the Monospot test?

A) Precipitation
B) Absorption- Heagglutination
C) Absorption
D) Chromatography

A

B) Absorption- Heagglutination

35
Q

Which type of antigens are used in the Monospot test?

A) Human red blood cells
B) Guinea pig kidney cells and Beef RBCs
C) Beef liver cells
D) Chicken feathers

A

B) Guinea pig kidney cells and Beef RBCs

36
Q

What type of antibodies does the Monospot test detect in a patient’s serum?

A) IgA antibodies
B) IgE antibodies
C) IgG antibodies
D) Heterophil antibodies

A

D) Heterophil antibodies

37
Q

How does the Monospot test differ from the Davidson test?

A) The Monospot test uses different indicator cells.
B) The Monospot test detects a different type of antigen.
C) The Monospot test uses a different principle.
D) The Monospot test requires a longer incubation time.

A

A) The Monospot test uses different indicator cells.

38
Q

What is the principle behind the Rapid Differential Slide Test using Papain-Treated Sheep RBCs?

A) Hemolysis
B) Hemostasis
C) Hemagglutination
D) Hematopoiesis

A

C) Hemagglutination

39
Q

What happens to the receptors for antibodies (Abs) when papain is added to sheep cells in the Rapid Differential Slide Test?

A) They are activated.
B) They remain unchanged.
C) They are specifically inactivated.
D) They multiply.

A

C) They are specifically inactivated.

40
Q

What happens when native sheep RBCs are exposed to normal serum?

A
  • Agglutination
41
Q

How do papain-treated sheep RBCs react when exposed to normal serum?

A
  • No weak agglutination
42
Q

What is the reaction observed when serum from a patient with serum sickness or other heterophil antibodies is mixed with native sheep red blood cells (RBCs)?

A
  • Agglutination is observed
43
Q

How does the reaction change when papain-treated sheep red blood cells (RBCs) are used instead of native RBCs with serum containing heterophil antibodies?

A
  • Agglutination is also observed