Test Reviews Flashcards
1-35; 36-65; 66-95; 96-130; 131-160; 161-192; 193-226
1
Q
All ionizing radiation is harmful and produces biological change in living tissues.
TRUE OR FALSE
A
True
2
Q
- The two main mechanisms of radiation injury are ionization and free radical formation. 2. Free radical formation is an example of the indirect theory of injury.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false
d. statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true
A
a. both statements are true
3
Q
The following is (are) true about free radical formation:
a. It is responsible for most of the damage to living tissue during radiation exposure
b. to achieve stability, free radicals may combine with molecules and produce toxins
c. Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) is a toxin produced that causes damage to tissues
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
A
d. all of the above
4
Q
In the sequence of radiation injury, the period between exposure to ionizing radiation and observable signs is known as:
a. the period of injury
b. the recovery period
c. the latent period
d. none of the above
A
c. the latent period
5
Q
The amount of energy absorbed by a tissue, measured in RADs, refers to:
a. dose measurement
b. exposure measurement
c. dose equivalent (in man) measurement
A
a. dose measurement
6
Q
All of the following are true about background radiation EXCEPT:
a. It is naturally occurring radiation we are exposed to daily
b. two main types are cosmic and terrestrial
c. medical and dental radiation are sources of background radiation
d. none of the above
A
c. medical and dental radiation are sources of background radiation
7
Q
Which of the following could be a long-term effect of x-radiation?
a. vomiting
b. cancer
c. hair loss
d. hemorrhage
A
b. cancer
8
Q
The type of filtration produced when the x-ray beam passes through the glass window (in the tube), insulating oil and tubehead seal is known as:
a. added filtration
b. inherent filtration
c. total filtration
d. all of the above
A
b. inherent filtration
9
Q
Which of the following exposure factors will INCREASE patient exposure to x-radiation?
a. E-speed film rather than D-speed film
b. long-cone technique rather than short-cone technique
c. Circular collimation rather than rectangular collimation
d. high kVp (80kVp) rather than low kVp (60kVp)
A
c. Circular collimation rather than rectangular collimation
10
Q
Which of the following is TRUE of the dose-response curve for radiation injury?
a. a threshold dose level for damage does NOT exist
b. The response of the tissues is proportional to the dose
c. it has a linear, threshold relationship
d. all of the above
e. A and B only
A
e. A and B only
11
Q
Which of the following is NOT a factor for determining radiation injury?
a. dose rate
b. cell sensitivity
c. total dose
d. occupational exposure
e. age
A
d. occupational exposure
12
Q
- Short-term effects of x-radiation are associated with high doses over a short period of time. 2. Long-term effects of x-radiation are associated with small doses repeated over a long period of time.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false
d. statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true
A
a. both statements are true
13
Q
X-radiation injury to reproductive (genetic) cells:
a. is not seen in the person irradiated
b. can be repaired
c. is rarely passed on to the offspring
d. all of the above
A
a. is not seen in the person irradiated
14
Q
Radiation therapy is often successful at destroying cancer cells, this is due to the fact that cancer cells:
a. are immature (undifferentiated) cells
b. undergo mitotic activity at a rapid pace
c. have a fast cell metabolism
d. all of the above
A
d. all of the above
15
Q
Which of the following is NOT considered a critical organ in dentistry?
a. skin
b. thyroid gland
c. brain
d. bone marrow
A
c. brain
16
Q
Which units are TRADITIONAL UNITS of radiation measurement?
a. Roentgen, Gray, Roentgen Equivalent in Man
b. Roentgen, Radiation Absorbed Dose, Roentgen Equivalent in Man
c. Coulombs/kilogram, Gray, Sievert
d. Roentgen, Gray, Radiation Absorbed Dose
A
b. Roentgen, Radiation Absorbed Dose, Roentgen Equivalent in Man
17
Q
The unit(s) that measures the amount of ionization by radiation that occurs in AIR is the:
a. Roentgen
b. Gray
c. Coloumbs/kilogram
d. both A and B
e. both A and C
A
e. both A and C
18
Q
The risk of dental radiography inducing a fatal cancer is:
a. approximately three in a million
b. more likely to occur than from spontaneous cancer formation
c. approximately the same as the risk of death from riding a bicycle 10 miles
d. all of the above
e. A and C only
A
e. A and C only
19
Q
The FIRST important step in limiting the amount of x-radiation exposure is correctly prescribing dental radiographs. TRUE OR FALSE
A
True
20
Q
All of the following are true about pregnancy and x-radiation exposure EXCEPT:
a. the FDA recommendations do not have to be altered
b. in a FMS (18 films) with lead apron, the uterus receives 1 REM to the uterus
c. background radiation in 9 months accounts for 225 mREMs to the uterus
d. you should avoid exposure unless needed (weigh risk to benefit)
A
b. in a FMS (18 films) with lead apron, the uterus receives 1 REM to the uterus
21
Q
Which of the following is NOT used to focus the x-ray beam and reduce scatter?
a. lead collimators
b. Position-Indicating Device (PID)
c. aluminum disks
d. none of the above
A
c. aluminum disks
22
Q
Which of the following is an example of a radiosensitive cell?
a. muscle cells
b. nerve cells
c. mature bone cells
d. bone marrow cells
A
d. bone marrow cells
23
Q
When taking radiographs, for patient protection during exposure:
a. always use a lead apron and thyroid collar for intraoral films
b. protec reproductive and blood forming tissues from scatter radiation
c. don’t use a thyroid collar for panoramic films
d. all of the above
A
d. all of the above
24
Q
The single most effective method for reducing patient’s exposure to x-radiation DURING exposure is:
a. longer PID
b. utilizing a lead apron
c. using a fast film
d. proper prescription of radiographs
A
c. using a fast film
25
All of the following are operator protection guidelines EXCEPT:
a. never hold the tubehead during x-ray exposure
b. stand at least 4 feet away from the tubehead
c. stand at a position perpendicular to the primary beam (90-135 degree angle)
d. when the adequate distance from the tubehead is not possible, a protective barrier should be used
b. stand at least 4 feet away from the tubehead
26
Any radiation with the exception of the primary beam that is emitted from the tubehead is:
a. background radiation
b. Compton scatter radiation
c. leakage radiation
d. photoelectric radiation
c. leakage radiation
27
The Consumer-Patient Radiation Health and Safety Act:
a. was enacted in 1981
b. addressed the certification of persons using radiographic equipment
c. was set by the federal government
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
28
The maximum accumulated dose (MAD):
a. is determined by the worker's age
b. addresses an accumulated (lifetime) dose
c. is 0.1rems for non-occupationally exposed persons
d. both A and B
d. both A and B
29
Using E-speed film rather than D-speed film reduces the exposure time by at least half. TRUE OR FALSE
True
30
The film badge for personnel monitoring:
a. should be worn over the heart
b. should NEVER be removed
c. may be shared with personnel exposed to similar threat of radiation leakage
d. should NEVER be worn while the radiographer is undergoing x-ray exposure of their own
d. should NEVER be worn while the radiographer is undergoing x-ray exposure of their own
31
The purpose of the aluminum disks in the x-ray tubehead is:
a. to filter out the long wavelength x-rays
b. to focus the beam and reduce scatter radiation
c. to slow down the x-radiation and lower the energy and/or penetrating power of the x-rays
d. all of the above
a. to filter out the long wavelength x-rays
32
In dentistry, R=rad=rem. TRUE OR FALSE
True
33
What does ALARA stand for?
a. a least radiation acquired accumulated
b. aiming for lowest radiation achieved
c. as low as reasonably achievable
d. as low as radiation acheived
c. as low as reasonably achievable
34
A thyroid shield should NOT be used in panoramic radiography because:
a. the thyroid is not exposed to radiation
b. thyroid shield blocks radiation
c. thyroid shield interferes with image
d. both B and C
d. both B and C
35
Which is the best PID shape for reducing radiation exposure to the patient?
a. conical
b. round
c. rectangular
d. triangular
c. rectangular
36
The person who discovered x-rays while working with cathode ray tubes was:
a. W.J. Morton
b. W. H. Rollins
c. Wilhelm Roentgen
d. F. Gordon Fitzgerald
c. Wilhelm Roentgen
37
Of the following uses of dental radiographs, which is the primary benefit to the patient?
a. detection
b. confirmation
c. localization
d. documentation of change
a. detection
38
Which film size is also called the narrow anterior film?
a. Size 0
b. Size 1
c. Size 2
d. Size 3
e. Size 4
b. Size 1
39
The number of BWX films necessary is based on which of the following?
a. the curvature of the arch
b. the number of teeth present in the posterior areas
c. the size of film used
d. all of the above
e. A and B only
d. all of the above
40
Which component of x-ray film provides a stable support for the emulsion?
a. film base
b. adhesive layer
c. gelatin
d. halide crystals
a. film base
41
The latent image is stored by the ________ in the dental x-ray film.
a. gelatin
b. film base
c. adhesive layer
d. silver halide crystals
d. silver halide crystals
42
Which of the following statements about duplicating film is false?
a. it is not exposed to x-rays
b. it may be placed intraorally or extraorally
c. it is used in the darkroom
d. it is used to make copies of radiographs
b. it may be placed intraorally or extraorally
43
Which of the following is the correct sequence of film composition, from external to internal?
a. protective layer, film emulsion, adhesive layer, film base
b. film base, film emulsion, adhesive layer, protective layer
c. protective layer, film base, adhesive layer, film emulsion
d. protective layer, adhesive layer, film emulsion, film base
a. protective layer, film emulsion, adhesive layer, film base
44
The tube side of the dental film packet:
a. has the flap used to open the dental film
b. is solid white
c. should face the patient's tongue
d. is color coded
b. is solid white
45
The purpose of __________ is to chemically reduce the exposed, energized silver halide crystals into black metallic silver.
a. developer
b. fixer
c. rinsing
d. washing
a. developer
46
Where is the BEST place a box of OPENED extraoral films be stored?
a. in a well ventilated area
b. in a cool dry area
c. in the darkroom
d. none of the above
c. in the darkroom
47
What is the function of the gelatin in the film emulsion?
a. suspends silver halide crystals in the film base
b. helps absorb the fixing solution
c. absorbs radiation, allowing it to come into contact with the silver halide crystals
d. provides the stable support for the film
a. suspends silver halide crystals in the film base
48
Which of the following components is the same in both the developer and the fixer?
a. acidifier
b. hardening agent
c. accelerator
d. preservative
d. preservative
49
Which of the following film packet layers protects the film from back-scatter radiation?
a. paper film wrapper
b. lead foil sheet
c. outer package wrapper
d. none of the above
b. lead foil sheet
50
The aggregate of _________ that make up the latent image center in the crystal.
a. film emulsion
b. bromine atoms
c. neutral silver atoms
d. gelatin
c. neutral silver atoms
51
Which of the following conditions contribute to faster film speed?
a. double sided emulsion
b. the presence of radiosensitive dyes
c. larger silver halide crystals
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
52
The film emulsion is hardened during:
a. development
b. fixation
c. drying
d. washing
b. fixation
53
Reticulation of the film is most commonly caused by:
a. static electricity
b. extreme temperature changes
c. insufficient fixing time
d. air bubbles
b. extreme temperature changes
54
The central ray of the beam should be directed perpendicular to the curve of the arch and through the contacts to help avoid:
a. cone cuts
b. elongation
c. overlap
d. forechortening
c. overlap
55
1. Foreshortening is caused by excessive vertical angulation. 2. Elongation is caused by excessive vertical angulation.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false
d. statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true
c. statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false
56
During processing, unexposed silver halide crystals are removed from the film emulsion by which of the following?
a. Elon
b. Hydroquinone
c. Sodium thiosulfate
d. Potassium bromide
e. Sodium carbonate
c. Sodium thiosulfate
57
Which fo the following solutions is responsible for softening the emulsion during processing?
a. acetic acid
b. sodium carbonate
c. sodium thiosulfate
d. sodium sulfite
b. sodium carbonate
58
An unexposed radiograph will appear:
a. completely clear
b. completely dark
c. partially dark (fogged)
d. none of the above
a. completely clear
59
With ____________, images appear stretched and distorted.
a. film creasing
b. film bending
c. tubehead movement
d. patient movement
b. film bending
60
The fixing agent is commonly called?
a. clearing agent
b. gelatin agent
c. neutralizing agent
d. preservative
a. clearing agent
61
It is necessary to maintain an adequate distance of 4 feet or more and not exceed 2-3 min. under safelight illumination when unwrapping x-ray film for developing. TRUE OR FALSE
True
62
Which of the following is the largest intra-oral film?
a. size 4
b. size 3
c. size 2
d. size 1
a. size 4
63
The first step in =manual film processing is:
a. development
b. rinsing
c. fixation
d. washing
e. drying
a. development
64
An interproximal examination is ___________.
a. called a bitewing x-ray
b. used to examine in-between teeth and crestal bone
c. A and B
d. none of the above
c. A and B
65
A periapical examination is used to examine the ________.
a. interproximal areas
b. apex of the tooth only
c. the entire tooth
d. the crown of the tooth
c. the entire tooth
66
1. The quality of the x-ray beam refers to the energy or penetrating power of the x-ray beam. 2. The quality of the x-ray beam is controlled by the kVp.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. statement 1 is true and 2 is false
d. statement 1 is false and 2 is true
a. both statements are true
67
The overall darkness or blackness of the film is known as its:
a. opacity
b. density
c. contrast
d. shaprness
b. density
68
___________ refers to the number of x-rays produced and is controlled by the _________.
a. Quality; kVp
b. Quantity; kVp
c. Quality; mA
d. Quantity; mA
d. Quantity; mA
69
To keep the film DENSITY constant; If mA is increased, then the exposure time is decreased; if mA is decreased, then exposure time is increased. TRUE OR FALSE
True
70
What is the main function of changing the mA on the dental x-ray control panel?
a. wavelengths
b. speed of electron travel
c. penetrating ability of the x-ray beam
d. quantity of x-rays
e. all of the above
d. quantity of x-rays
71
When density of the tissues is being considered, a very low density area (tissue) will:
a. stop the x-ray completely and appear white on the radiograph
b. partially block the x-ray and appear gray
c. allow the x-rays to pass through and appear black on the film
d. none of the above
c. allow the x-rays to pass through and appear black on the film
72
When increasing the kVp on the control panel, which of the following is likely to occur?
a. a low contrast image
b. a radiograph with high density
c. an image with more black and white
d. all of the above
e. B and C only
d. all of the above
73
The measurement of force used to provide the penetrating ability of the x-ray is the:
a. amperage
b. voltage
c. velocity
d. frequency
b. voltage
74
A higher kilovoltage produces x-rays with:
a. greater energy levels
b. shorter wavelengths
c. more penetrating ability
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
75
Magnification can be caused by which of the following factors?
a. A long PID
b. a short object-film distance
c. a short target-film distance
d. all of the above
c. a short target-film distance
76
Which of the following are true concerning contrast?
a. short-scale (high contrast) results from a low kVp setting
b. long-scale (low contrast) can be described as having low contrast
c. long-scale contrast exhibits many densities or shades of gray
d. all of the above
e. B and C only
d. all of the above
77
The penumbra or fuzziness surrounding a radiographic image is used to distinguish which geometric characteristic?
a. distortion
b. magnification
c. sharpness
d. all of the above
c. sharpness
78
All of the following are true concerning the focal spot size EXCEPT:
a. it is found on the tungsten target of the anode
b. it is set by the manufacturer (can't be changed)
c. the larger the focal spot area, the sharper the image appears
d. none of the above (all of the above are true)
c. the larger the focal spot area, the sharper the image appears
79
The target-to-surface distance:
a. is the same thing as the object-to-film distance
b. is determined by the length of the PID
c. determines the amount of distortion you will get
d. all of the above
b. is determined by the length of the PID
80
The x-ray beam should be directed perpendicular to the tooth and film. TRUE OR FALSE
True
81
The tooth structure that appears the most radiolucent on the radiograph is the:
a. enamel
b. dentin
c. cementum
d. pulp
d. pulp
82
When radiographs are mounted labially, which of the following accurately describes the labial mount method?
a. the embossed dot is up/convex and the viewer's orientation is facing the patient
b. the embossed dot is down/concave and the viewer's orientation is facing the patient
c. the embossed dot is up/convex and the viewer's orientation if from inside the patient's mouth
d. the embossed dot is down/concave and the viewer's orientation is from inside the patient's mouth
a. the embossed dot is up/convex and the viewer's orientation is facing the patient
83
A high-energy radiation produced by the collision of a beam of electrons with a metal target in an x-ray tube is called?
a. radiography
b. wavelength
c. radiograph
d. x-radiation
d. x-radiation
84
The overall blackness of an image is termed?
a. contrast
b. density
c. overexposure
d. polychromatic
b. density
85
A decreased focal spot size = increased sharpness. TRUE OR FALSE
True
86
A radiograph that has high contrast is produced with:
a. high kilovoltage
b. low kilovoltage
c. high milliamperage
d. low milliamperage
b. low kilovoltage
87
The overall portion of a processed radiograph that appears light or white is termed
a. radiolucent
b. radiopaque
c. dense
d. high density
b. radiopaque
88
A dental patient has thick soft tissues and dense bones. To compensate for this increase in subject thickness and provide an image of diagnostic density, the dental radiographer may:
a. increase the exposure time
b. increase the milliamperage
c. increase the operating kilovoltage peak
d. any of the above
d. any of the above
89
Inverse square law: The intensity of radiation is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the source of radiation. Which statement is true?
a. PID length is changed from 8 inches to 16 inches - the result of the x-ray beam is 1/4 as intense.
b. PID length is changed from 16 to 8 - the result of the x-ray beam is tripled.
c. both statements are true
d. both statements are false
a. PID length is changed from 8 inches to 16 inches - the result of the x-ray beam is 1/4 as intense.
90
The distances to consider when exposing dental radiographs are:
a. target to surface
b. target to object
c. target receptor distance
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
d. all of the above
91
The length of the PID device is changed from 16 inches to 8 inches. The resultant intensity of the beam will be:
a. 4 times as intense
b. 2 times as intense
c. 1/2 as intense
d. 1/4 as intense
a. 4 times as intense
92
In the labial film mounting method, all the embossed identification dots are placed in the mount with the raised (convex) side facing the viewer. TRUE OR FALSE
True
93
Although all members of the dental team may view films, it is the responsibility of the dental hygienist to establish a final diagnosis. TRUE OR FALSE
False
94
What are the 2 methods of mounting?
a. anterior and posterior mount
b. posterior and lingual mount
c. labial and lingual mount
d. none of the above
c. labial and lingual mount
95
Anterior periapical images can be distinguished from posterior images because of:
a. the identification dot
b. the orientation of the x-ray film placement
c. the size of the x-ray film
d. the number of films used
b. the orientation of the x-ray film placement
96
The kind of ionizing radiation that occurs in the dental tube is called _________. The kind that leaves the x-ray tube and penetrates the patient is called __________.
a. particulate; electromagnetic
b. electromagnetic; particulate
c. particulate; particulate
d. electromagnetic; electromagnetic
a. particulate; electromagnetic
97
All of the following are component parts of the dental x-ray tubehead EXCEPT:
a. insulating oil
b. transformers
c. position-indicating device (PID)
d. kVp and mA selectors
d. kVp and mA selectors
98
The process of converting incoming current that flows in two opposite directions, or ______ to ______, and which flows in one direction is called _______.
a. AC; DC; rectification
b. DC; AC; rectification
c. AC; DC; transformation
d. DC; AC; transformation
a. AC; DC; rectification
99
Which of the following is true concerning the high-voltage circuit?
a. it uses 65,000 to 100,000 volts to operate
b. it requires the use of a step-up transformer to operate
c. it provides the high voltage required to accelerate electrons across the x-ray tube
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
100
When an electron hits the nucleus of a tungsten atom or when an electron passes very close to the nucleus, this kind of radiation occurs.
a. general radiation
b. Bremsstrahlung radiation
c. "braking radiation"
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
101
The following are true about wavelength EXCEPT:
a. it is the distance between one crest of a wave and the next crest of a wave
b. it determines the energy and penetrating power of electromagnetic radiation
c. the longer the wavelength, the higher the energy and the greater the penetrating power
d. none of the above (all of the above are true concerning wavelengths
c. the longer the wavelength, the higher the energy and the greater the penetrating power
102
1. Primary radiation is the x-ray beam produced at the tungsten target that exits the tubehead. 2. Secondary radiation is produced when the primary beam interacts with matter and scatter radiation occurs.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false
d. statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true
a. both statements are true
103
Which of the following is (are) true about the transformers in the dental x-ray tube?
a. there are 3 different kinds of transformers
b. the step-down transformer lowers the incoming voltage to the 3-5 volts used by the filament circuit
c. the step-up transformer raises the incoming voltage to the 65,000-100,000 volts used by the high-voltage circuit
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
104
The particular electromagnetic radiation wave concept is:
a. it's wavelength
b. it's frequency
c. it's velocity
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
105
Weightless bundles of energy, with no electrical charge, that are implicated in x-radiation are called:
a. protons
b. neutrons
c. photons
d. beta particles
c. photons
106
What is the main function of changing the mA on a dental x-ray machine?
a. wavelengths
b. speed of electron travel
c. penetrating ability of the x-ray beam
d. quantity of x-rays
e. all of the above
d. quantity of x-rays
107
The tungsten target in the anode of the dental x-ray tube is radioactive. TRUE OR FALSE
True
108
Which of the following BEST describes the anode?
a. negatively charged component
b. composed of the focusing cup and filament
c. contains the tungsten target
d. is the source of electrons
c. contains the tungsten target
109
What percentage of kinetic energy inside the x-ray tube is actually converted to X-radiation?
a. 1%
b. 10%
c. 50%
d. 99%
e. 100%
a. 1%
110
What is the purpose of the copper stem in the dental x-ray tube?
a. focus electrons into a narrow beam
b. dissipate heat from the tungsten target
c. provide the electron source for x-ray production
d. none of the above
b. dissipate heat from the tungsten target
111
Which interaction of x-radiation with matter results in the x-ray giving up ALL of its energy upon collision with a tightly bound inner shell electron?
a. coherent scatter
b. Compton scatter
c. photoelectric effect
d. all of the above
c. photoelectric effect
112
X-rays are generated when fast-moving electrons collide with matter. TRUE OR FALSE
True
113
Which of the following is a tiny hole located on the internal surface of the mandible near the apices of the incisors?
a. mental foramen
b. lingual foramen
c. mandibular foramen
d. genial tubercles
b. lingual foramen
114
The anterior nasal spine produces which shape radiographically?
a. "J"
b. "U"
c. "V"
d. inverted "Y"
c. "V"
115
Which structure of the mandible may actually be apparent on a maxillary PA?
a. condyle
b. coronoid process
c. internal oblique ridge
d. hamulus
b. coronoid process
116
Which structure is NOT found on the internal surface of the mandible?
a. lingula
b. mylohyoid ridge
c. genial tubercles
d. mental ridge
d. mental ridge
117
The "J"" or "U" shaped radiopaque structure that appears superior to the maxillary first molar region (and usually only seen when using the bisecting angle technique) is the:
a. maxillary tuberosity
b. coronoid process of the mandible
c. zygomatic process of the maxilla
d. maxillary sinus
c. zygomatic process of the maxilla
118
The space between the lamina dura and the root that appears as a thin dark radiolucent line (in health) represents which structure?
a. septum
b. periodontal ligament
c. dento-enamel junction
d. alveolar crest
b. periodontal ligament
119
A small ovoid/round, radiolucent area in the anterior of the hard palate, directly posterior to the central incisors is most likely the:
a. nasal cavity
b. incisive foramen
c. giant cell tumor
d. greater palatine foramen
b. incisive foramen
120
A small ovoid/round, radiolucent area by the apices of the mandibular premolars that can be confused with periapical pathology is probably:
a. mandibular foramen
b. lingual foramen
c. nutrient canal
d. mental foramen
d. mental foramen
121
The inverted "Y" is formed by the intersection of the lateral wall of the nasal cavity and what other structure?
a. maxillary sinus
b. nasal septum
c. zygoma
d. zygomatic process of the maxilla
a. maxillary sinus
122
If both the internal and external oblique ridges are visible on a radiograph (not superimposed) the superior line will be the:
a. internal oblique ridge
b. external oblique ridge
c. a localization technique (SLOB or Right-angle) must be used to tell
d. both B and C
b. external oblique ridge
123
Which of the following structures can be seen on a panoramic film, but can NOT normally be seen on an intraoral radiograph?
a. mental foramen
b. maxillary tuberosity
c. lamina dura
d. lingula
d. lingula
124
If a patient has a mandibular tori, the bitewing should be placed:
a. on the tori
b. between the tori and the tooth
c. between the tori and the tongue
d. wherever it will fit in the patient's mouth, it doesn't matter
c. between the tori and the tongue
125
Which of the following structure is NOT radiolucent?
a. external auditory meatus
b. pterygomaxillary fissure
c. tongue
d. palatoglossal air space
c. tongue
126
On a panoramic radiograph where do the soft palate and uvula usually appear?
a. superimposed over the median palatine suture
b. slightly inferior to the radiopaque hard palate in the middle of the film
c. on both sides of the film over the maxillary tuberosity region
d. none of the above
c. on both sides of the film over the maxillary tuberosity region
127
What can an interaction of an x-ray have with matter (the patient)?
a. coherent scatter
b. Compton scatter
c. no interaction
d. absorption or photoelectric effect
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
128
What is the correct sequence of x-ray production in the dental x-ray tube?
a. exposure button is activated, electrons strike tungsten target, filament circuit is activated.
b. filament circuit is activated, exposure button is activated, electrons strike tungsten target.
c. electrons strike tungsten target, filament circuit is activated, exposure button is activated.
d. filament circuit is activated, electrons strike tungsten target, exposure button is activated.
b. filament circuit is activated, exposure button is activated, electrons strike tungsten target.
129
The central ray of the beam should be directed perpendicular to the curve of the arch and through the contacts to help avoid:
a. cone cuts
b. elongation
c. overlap
d. foreshortening
c. overlap
130
The primary reason(s) for taking bite-wing radiographs is (are) to:
a. examine the interproximal surfaces for caries
b. examine the crestal bone
c. examine for periapical lesions
d. all of the above
e. A and B only
e. A and B only
131
The coin test is a quality assurance test used for monitoring which of the following?
a. the processing equipment
b. the freshness of the film
c. the light-tightness of the darkroom
d. the proper safelighting
e. both C and D
e. both C and D
132
In which quality assurance test do you expose 20 of the same films, process just one and set the other 19 aside to be processed on subsequent days?
a. normalizing test
b. stepwedge test
c. reference test
d. none of the above
b. stepwedge test
133
On the average, processing solutions should be changed _____?
a. once each day
b. once each week
c. every 3 to 4 weeks
d. every 8 to 10 weeks
c. every 3 to 4 months
c. every 3 to 4 weeks
134
If the processor is functioning properly the unexposed film should be ______ and the exposed film should be ______ and both should be _____.
a. black, clear, wet
b. clear, black, wet
c. black, clear, dry
d. clear, black, dry
d. clear, black, dry
135
Skills that promote good relationships between individuals are termed facilitation skills. TRUE OR FALSE
True
136
How many cases of cancer have dental x-rays caused?
a. 1 case in 20 years
b. 1 case in 50 years
c. possibility of a cancer case may be debated
d. not a single recorded case
d. not a single recorded case
137
Concerning patient records, the owner of the records is the:
a. patient
b. dentist
c. insurance agency
d. federal government
b. dentist
138
The process of informing the patient about the particulars of exposing dental radiographs is termed:
a. a treatment alternative
b. disclosure
c. self-determination
d. behavior modification
b. disclosure
139
What is the time period that a patient can bring a malpractice action against a dentist/auxiliary called?
a. grace period
b. latent period
c. statute of limitations
d. retention period
c. statute of limitations
140
The notion that the patient has the legal right to make choices about the care they receive is called:
a. informed consent
b. disclosure
c. standard of care
d. self-determination
d. self-determination
141
Consent given by a patient following complete disclosure is called:
a. informed consent
b. self-determination
c. liability
d. risk management
a. informed consent
142
Touching a cold virus contaminated door handle constitutes parenteral exposure. TRUE OR FALSE
False
143
Which of the following are considered to be semi-critical instruments?
a. the exposure button
b. the x-ray control panel
c. the lead apron
d. x-ray film holding devices
d. x-ray film holding devices
144
An instrument that does not contact mucous membranes is considered:
a. critical instrument
b. semi-critical instrument
c. occupational instrument
d. noncritical instrument
d. noncritical instrument
145
Parenteral exposure is when:
a. exposure to infection material resulting from procedures performed by the dental professional
b. exposure to infectious materials that results from piercing or puncturing the skin
b. exposure to infectious materials that results from piercing or puncturing the skin
146
The use of a physical or chemical procedure to destroy all pathogens, including the highly resistant bacterial and mycotic spores is:
a. asepsis
b. disinfect
c. sterilize
d. antiseptic
c. sterilize
147
Comparing traditional intraoral radiography to digital intraoral radiography, which of the following pairs DOES NOT belong?
a. film : sensor
b. silver halide crystal : pixel
c. processor : computer
d. radiation : light
d. radiation : light
148
If an existing x-ray film is digitized (using a CCD camera) in order to be viewed on and stored in the computer, which type of digital imaging has occured?
a. indirect digital imaging
b. storage phosphor imaging
c. direct digital imaging
d. all of the above
a. indirect digital imaging
149
Digital radiography reduces exposure of the patient to radiation by as much as 50-80%, if not more. TRUE OR FALSE
True
150
In digital radiography, the term digital subtraction refers to:
a. reversing the gray-scale
b converting x-ray energy into an electronic signal
c. converting a traditional image (on film) into digital form
d. changing the color of the image on the computer screen
a. reversing the gray-scale
151
The universal format for handling, storing, transferring three-dimensional images is termed:
a. MPR
b. DICOM
c. FOV
d. CBCT
b. DICOM
152
The smallest element of a 3D image is called a:
a. FOV
b. micro speck
c. voxel
d. sensor
c. voxel
153
Which of the following about film placement is correct?
a. anterior film is placed horizontally; posterior film is placed vertically
b. anterior film is placed vertically; posterior film is placed vertically
c. posterior film is placed horizontally; anterior film is placed vertically
d. none of the above
c. posterior film is placed horizontally; anterior film is placed vertically
154
Which of the following are advantages of the parallel technique?
a. increased accuracy
b. decreased magnification
c. ease of duplication
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
155
Which of the following describes the relationship between the receptor and the long axis of the tooth in the parallel technique?
a. the receptor and the tooth are parallel to each other
b. the receptor and the tooth are at right angles to each other
c. the receptor and the tooth are perpendicular to each other
d. the receptor and the tooth are intersecting each other
a. the receptor and the tooth are parallel to each other
156
Why is an increased target to receptor (film) distance required in the paralleling technique?
a. to avoid image magnification
b. to avoid distortion
c. to reduce scatter radiation
d. to improve receptor comfort
a. to avoid image magnification
157
What does the "dot in the slot" rule mean?
a. to make sure you can identify right and left
b. to avoid an artifact by the roots of the teeth
c. to make sure the film is facing the tube head correctly
d. none of the above
b. to avoid an artifact by the roots of the teeth
158
Identify XCP part: (blue, metal, postlike with pegs, step shaped with pegs on side of top "step")
a. posterior indicator arm
b. anterior indicator arm
c. aiming ring
d. bite block
b. anterior indicator arm
159
Identify XCP part: (blue, plastic, hollow circle-shaped, attachment is centered instead of off-centered)
a. posterior aiming ring
b. posterior indicator
c. anterior indicator
d. anterior aiming ring
d. anterior aiming ring
160
Identify correct XCP setup (yellow, posterior set, arm steps toward ring and XCP holder is seated upward when on the right side)
a. upper right and lower left setup
b. upper left and lower right setup
c. upper left and lower left setup
d. upper right and lower right setup
b. upper left and lower right setup
161
It is legal for the dental hygienist to make the final interpretation but not the final diagnosis. TRUE OR FALSE
False
162
Which of the following is (are) true concerning the alveolar crest?
a. it is pointed and thin in the anterior region
b. it appears more dense in the posterior region
c. it is located 4-5 mm below the CEJ in health
d. all of the above
a. it is pointed and thin in the anterior region
163
Which of the following is NOT used to hold the film in the mouth with the BISECTING-ANGLE technique?
a. XCP bite block
b. Stabe bite block
c. EEZZEE grip/Snap-A-Ray
d. Rinn XCP film holder and aligning ring
d. Rinn SCP film holder and aligning ring
164
The plane that divides in half the angle formed by the film and the long-axis of the tooth is called the:
a. hypotenuse
b. imaginary bisector
c. isometric bisector
d. all of the above
b. imaginary bisector
165
In the bisecting technique, if the PID (and resulting x-ray beam) is lined up with the tooth, which of the following is likely to result?
a. elongation
b. foreshortening
c. nothing, this is correct
a. elongation
166
Which of the three primary periapical radiolucencies require(s) root canal therapy or extraction as part of the treatment?
a. periapical granuloma
b. periapical cyst
c. periapical abscess
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
167
Which stage of interproximal caries extends to or through the DEJ and into dentin, but no more than 1/2 way through the dentin?
a. incipient interproximal caries
b. moderate interproximal caries
c. advanced interproximal caries
d. severe interproximal caries
c. advanced interproximal caries
168
The complete displacement of a tooth from the alveolar socket is called:
a. avulsion
b. luxation
c. propulsion
d. expulsion
a. avulsion
169
Which of the following is (are) true concerning pulp stones?
a. they are generally asymptomatic
b. root canal therapy and/or extraction are the treatment options of choice
c. caused by trauma to the pulp
d. all of the above
a. they are generally asymptomatic
170
Which of the following periapical radiopacities is found at the apex of a NONVITAL tooth?
a. sclerotic bone
b. condensing osteitis
c. hypercementosis
d. idiopathic periapical osteosclerosis
e. B and D
b. condensing osteitis
171
Which of the following is (are) true about root fractures?
a. less common than crown fractures
b. if the x-ray beam is parallel with the plane of the fracture, then the fracture appears as a sharp radiolucent line on the film
c. the space between the 2 fractured segments becomes more evident with time
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
172
The following are true about external resorption EXCEPT:
a. most often affects the apical area of the tooth
b. roots will appear blunted and shorter
c. can be caused from trauma or idiopathic reasons
d. the lamina dura and surrounding bone will also be affected
e. none of the above (all of the above are true)
d. the lamina dura and surrounding bone will also be affected
173
The type of interproximal caries that extend more than halfway through the enamel but do not involve the DEJ are:
a. incipient
b. moderate
c. advanced
d. severe
b. moderate
174
The type of caries that occur adjacent to existing restorations and appear on a film as a radiolucent area just below (or adjacent to) the restoration are:
a. refractory caries
b. restoration caries
c. recurrent caries
d. none of the above
c. recurrent caries
175
Resorption that occurs due to shedding of primary teeth is referred to as
a. primary resorption
b. pathologic resorption
c. physiologic resorption
d. characteristic resorption
c. physiologic resorption
176
When a tooth is displaced INTO the bone, we have:
a. intrusion
b. extrusion
c. avulsion
d. all of the above
a. intrusion
177
Which of the following pathologies is associated with a nonvital tooth?
a. pulp stones
b. pulpal obliteration
c. sclerotic bone
d. hypercementosis
b. pulpal obliteration
178
Which of the following is the correct order from most radiopaque to least?
a. gold, stainless steel, gutta purcha, acrylic
b. gutta purcha, acrylic, gold, stainless steel
c. gold stainless steel, acrylic, gutta purcha
d. gutta purcha, gold, stainless steel, acrylic
a. gold, stainless steel, gutta purcha, acrylic
179
A kVp at the lower end of the scale (65 kVp) is optimal for:
a. detecting periodontal disease
b. detecting caries
c. obtaining low contrast
d. none of the above
b. detecting caries
180
Which of the following terms is a type of radiolucent lesion?
a. target lesion
b. multifocal confluent
c. ground glass
d. moth-eaten pattern
d. moth-eaten pattern
181
Unilocular lesions tend to be:
a. small and expansile
b. small and nonexpansile
c. large and expansile
d. large and nonespansile
b. small and nonexpansile
182
A large, well-adapted radiopaque restoration with smooth borders is probably:
a. silver amalgam
b. gold
c. porcelain
d. composite
b. gold
183
Post and core restorations are often seen in ________ treated teeth.
a. periodontally
b. orthodontically
c. endodontically
d. nonendodontically
c. endodontically
184
A thin RADIOPAQUE line outlining the prepared tooth may be evident on a dental radiograph of an all porcelain crown. This thin line represents:
a. decay
b. cement
c. an air pocket
d. a metal substructure
b. cement
185
Diatorics are found in:
a. silver point endodontic fillings
b. gutta percha endodontic fillings
c. restorations as an anchoring device
d. anterior porcelain denture teeth
d. anterior porcelain denture teeth
186
Which radiographic technique is recommended for taking PAs on a child?
a. paralleling technique
b. bisecting technique
c. occlusal technique
d. children are too young to obtain intraoral PAs, instead a pano should be taken
b. bisecting technique
187
Which of the following describes the proper direction of the central ray in the bisecting technique?
a. 90 degrees to the long axis of the tooth
b. 90 degrees to the receptor and long axis of the tooth
c. 90 degrees to the receptor
d. 90 degrees to the imaginary bisector
d. 90 degrees to the imaginary bisector
188
Which of the following describes the distance between the receptor and the tooth in the bisecting technique?
a. the receptor is placed as close as possible to the tooth
b. the receptor is placed away from the tooth and toward the middle of the oral cavity
c. the receptor is placed parallel to the tooh
d. none of the above
a. the receptor is placed as close as possible to the tooth
189
Horizontal angulation refers to the placement of the position-indicating device (PID) in a(n) ______ plane. Vertical angulation refers to the positioning the PID in a(n) _____ plane.
a. side-to-side; side-to-side
b. side-to-side; up-and-down
c. up-and-down; side-to-side
d. up-and-down; up-and-down
b. side-to-side; up-and-down
190
Foreshortened images refer to images of the teeth that appear ______. Foreshortening of images results from _______ vertical angulation.
a. shortened; insufficient
b. shortened; excessive
c. too long; insufficient
d. too long; excessive
b. shortened; excessive
191
Which of the following techniques use the same principles of horizontal angulation? 1. paralleling 2. bisecting 3. bite-wing
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 2
c. 2, 3
d. 1, 3
a. 1, 2, 3
192
Identify primary beam, long-axis of tooth, imaginary bisector and receptor on an image.
primary beam - perpendicular to imaginary bisector
long-axis of tooth - line bisecting tooth, coronal-apically
imaginary bisector - line bisecting angle made by long-axis of tooth and plane of film
plane of film - line following long-axis of receptor film
193
Which of the following positioning techniques is NOT correct for a panoramic exposure?
a. position the midsagittal plane perpendicular to the floor
b. position the Frankfort plane perpendicular to the floor
c. instruct the patient to bite end-to-end in the notched bite-block
d. none of the above (all of the above are correct)
b. position the Frankfort plane perpendicular to the floor
194
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of the panoramic radiograph?
a. simplicity
b. minimal exposure compared to a FMS
c. patient cooperation
d. image quality
d. image quality
195
In panoramic radiography, a ghost image refers to:
a. radiolucent artifact with idiopathic origin
b. a radiopaque image that results from using the thyroid collar
c. a radiolucent image that results from failure to have the patient swallow and place their tongue on the roof of the mouth
d. a radiopaque artifact that resembles its counterpart and is found on the opposite side of the film
d. a radiopaque artifact that resembles its counterpart and is found on the opposite side of the film
196
Which of the following is (are) true concerning the alveolar crest?
a. it is pointed and thing in the anterior region
b. it appears more dense in the posterior region
c. it is located 4-5 mm below the CEJ in health
d. all of the above
a. it is pointed and thing in the anterior region
197
Before bone loss is identifiable on film, how much loss of mineralization must occur?
a. 10-20%
b. 20-30%
c. 30-50%
d. 50-80%
c. 30-50%
198
In which extraoral radiograph technique is the tope of the patient's head placed against the cassette in order to view the condyles, the base of the skull and the zygomatic arch?
a. Waters projection
b. submentovertex projection
c. posteroanterior projection
d. transcranial projection
b. submentovertex projection
199
Which of the following is NOT considered a predisposing factor for bone loss?
a. calculus
b. overhanging margins of restoration
c. a tooth with a long root
d. teeth (or restorations) with open contacts
c. a tooth with a long root
200
When bone loss does not occur in a plane parallel with the CEJ we have:
a. angular bone loss
b. vertical bone loss
c. infrabony pocket formation (pockets that go apical to the alveolar bone)
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
201
Which of the following cannot be determined about a patient's periodontal health from full-mouth series of radiographs?
a. identification of predisposing factors
b. location of bone loss
c. pocket depths
d. type of bone loss
c. pocket depths
202
Triangulation is an early sign of periodontal destruction and is the widening of what structure?
a. alveolar crest or interdental septum
b. periodontal ligament
c. lamina dura
d. junctional epithelium
b. periodontal ligament
203
The advanced periodontal disease is described as:
a. pattern of bone loss may be horizontal or vertical
b. pocket depth is 6 mm and greater
c. mobility and furcation involvement are more severe
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
d. all of the above
204
Which of the following is a (are) true difference(s) between an intraoral x-ray tubehead and an extraoral tubehead (used for a pano)?
a. the extraoral tubehead rotates around the patient while the intraoral tubehead remains stationary
b. the collimator in the extraoral tubehead is a lead plate with a narrow vertical slit
c. the x-ray beam in the extraoral unit is directed slightly upward
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
205
Screen film is more sensitive to light than regular film. TRUE OR FALSE
True
206
Calcium tungstate screens:
a. emit green light
b. emit blue light
c. require less radiation than rare earth screens
d. both A and C
b. emit blue light
207
In your dental office you only have a standard intraoral x-ray unit. Which of the following extraoral projections could you take in the office?
a. transcranial projection
b. lateral cephalometric projection
c. TMJ tomography
d. all of the above
a. transcranial projection
208
Device used in extraoral radiography to reduce the amount of scatter radiation to the film is:
a. a grid
b. a cephalostat
c. a craniostat
d. a filter
a. a grid
209
Which one of the extraoral techniques is used specifically to evaluate the maxillary sinuses?
a. lateral cephalometric
b. Waters
c. panoramic
d. lateral jaw
b. Waters
210
Intensifying screens in panoramic cassettes are used to:
a. increase sharpness
b. decrease magnification
c. increase film detail
d. reduce patient exposure to radiation
d. reduce patient exposure to radiation
211
In terms of panoramic radiography, the curved zone in which the dental arches should be positioned to see the clearest image is called the:
a. focal trough
b. end zone
c. tuve zone
d. clear layer
a. focal trough
212
To correct the slender appearance of the anterior teeth on a panoramic radiograph, the dental radiographer should:
a. position the patient further forward
b. position the patient further back
c. raise the patient's chin up
d. lower the patient's chin down
b. position the patient further back
213
On a panoramic x-ray machine, the kVp, mA and exposure time can all be adjusted. TRUE OR FALSE
False
214
A panoramic image with a 'jack-o-lantern' or extreme smile results from:
a. chin too low
b. chin too high
c. patient placed too far anteriorly
d. patient placed too far posteriorly
a. chin too low
215
Prior to a gag reflex which of the following will occur:
a. cessation of breathing
b. contraction of the muscles of the throat
c. contraction of the stomach muscles
d. all of the above
e. A and B only
d. all of the above
216
In which occlusal projection is it necessary to lower the chair to a supine position?
a. maxillary topographic
b. maxillary lateral
c. mandibular topographic
d. cross-sectional (90 degrees)
d. cross-sectional (90 degrees)
217
The gag reflex is a(n) ________ effort, preceded by _______ of respiration.
a. voluntary; an increased rate
b. involuntary; cessation
c. voluntary; cessation
d. involuntary; an increased rate
b. involuntary; cessation
218
Which of the following choices would represent the suggested film placement sequence for a patient who is likely to gag? 1. anterior 2. premolar 3. molar
a. 2, 3, 1
b. 3, 1, 2
c. 1, 2, 3
d. 2, 1, 3
c. 1, 2, 3
219
According to the SLOB rule, when two radiographs are compared, the object that lies to the lingual appears to have moved in the same direction as the position-indicating device (PID), and the object that lies to the buccal appears to have moved in the opposite direction as the PID.
ans
220
Which of the following suggestions are intended to help reduce the gag reflex?
a. instructing the patient to breathe rapidly through the nose
b. asking the patient to suspend an arm or leg in the air
c. placing a small amount of baking soda on the tip of the tongue
d. asking the patient to perform jumping jacks for 5 minutes in the treatment room
b. asking the patient to suspend an arm or leg in the air
221
A developmental disability is a substantial impairment of mental or physical functioning that occurs before age ___ years and is of indefinite duration.
a. 12
b. 18
c. 19
d. 22
d. 22
222
CASE STUDY Today is the first dental appointment for Elena Simonov, who is 8 years old. The first adult molars have erupted in Elena's mouth, and her primary first and second molars are present.
Which of the following image receptor sizes is/are recommended for a child such as Elena? 1. size 0; 2. size 1; 3. size 2; 4. size 3
a. 1, 2, 3, 4
b. 1, 2, 3
c. 1, 2
d. 2, 3
e. 1
d. 2, 3
223
CASE STUDY Today is the first dental appointment for Elena Simonov, who is 8 years old. The first adult molars have erupted in Elena's mouth, and her primary first and second molars are present.
Which of the following techniques is preferred in children with a primary or transitional dentition?
a. paralleling
b. bisecting
c. occlusal
d. anteroposterior
b. bisecting
224
CASE STUDY Today is the first dental appointment for Elena Simonov, who is 8 years old. The first adult molars have erupted in Elena's mouth, and her primary first and second molars are present.
How many images should be obtained for a complete mouth radiographic series for Elena?
a. 12
b. 14
c. 16
d. 18
a. 12
225
CASE STUDY Today is the first dental appointment for Elena Simonov, who is 8 years old. The first adult molars have erupted in Elena's mouth, and her primary first and second molars are present.
How many maxillary molar periapical images (right and left sides) should be exposed as part of a complete mouth radiographic series for Elena?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
b. 2
226
The dental radiographer can use a ____________ approach to prepare the pediatric patient for imaging procedures.
a. show and tell
b. do as I say
c. quizzing
d. minimal
a. show and tell
