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AIPM Test 2 > Test Review > Flashcards

Test Review Flashcards

1
Q

______________shows the results of the company’s business activities over a period of time, expressed as income. The form presents the net income over time.

A

An Income Statement

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2
Q

A Source Selection Advisory Council (SSAC) Required on solicitations over ______

A

$100 million

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3
Q

What are the Five Cost Allowability Criteria:

A
  • Reasonableness
  • Allocability
  • Cost Accounting Standards (CAS) and Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP)
  • ***Contract Terms
  • Cost Principles in accordance with FAR Part 31
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4
Q

The three primary purposes of Source Selection Planning.

A
  • Provide a structured, fair, impartial evaluation of offerors
  • Maximize competition and innovation
  • Select best source
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5
Q

Who creates the Source Selection Plan?

A

Source Selection IPT

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6
Q

The Test and Evaluation Master Plan (TEMP) is prepared by the ______________in conjunction with principal_________________________.

A
  • Program Manager (PM),

* Test Integration Working Group (TIWG) members

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7
Q

______________helps determine system operational suitability and effectiveness, and it addresses Critical Operational Issues (COIs) that are defined by the User.

A

Operational Test and Evaluation (OT&E)

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8
Q

Whenever possible, the Program Manger and test team should try to combine _________________ to save both cost and schedule time that would otherwise be lost in a serial testing process

A

Developmental and Operational Testing

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9
Q

Required for certain major system before full rate production can begin. Use to evaluate lethality and survivability

A

Live Fire Test and evaluation (LFT&E)

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10
Q

___________that the system meets the performance specifications accomplished through Developmental Testing it is called (Did you build it right?)

A

Verification

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11
Q

What are the 8 Technical Management Processes

A
  • Technical Planning
  • Requirements Management
  • Interface Management
  • Risk Management
  • Configuration Management
  • ***Technical Data Management
  • Technical Assessment
  • Decision Analysis
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12
Q

What are the Technical Processes for Designing Systems

A
  • Stakeholder Requirements Definition
  • Requirements Analysis
  • ***Architecture Design
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13
Q

Both _____________and the DoD have similar goals in product development and share key Systems Engineering processes.

A

Industry

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14
Q

In early stages of the acquisition lifecycle many Systems Engineering technical processes are performed by__________________.

A

the government

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15
Q

A_______________ is one that is not explicitly stated in a higher level set of requirements yet required to be satisfied in order to provide a complete system solution

A

Derived requirements

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16
Q

____________________is the technical process involved in realization of an end product when the assembled product consists of two or more end products from lower-layer system models

A

Integration

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17
Q

_____________establish and evolve project plans, assess progress against the plan, and evaluate and select alternatives

A

Technical Management Processes

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18
Q

___________ schedules are based on key events, related tasks and relevant completion criteria for the applicable engineering work model

A

Event—based

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19
Q

The _____________will play key roles in the development of external interfaces because these may involve interfaces with systems outside the control of the __________________

A

Government/Contractors

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20
Q

________________establishes and maintains consistency of a products attributes with its requirements and product configuration information.

A

Configurations Management

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21
Q

The ____________is an event-based plan that identifies the work that must be accomplished to complete the key program activities and events

A

Integrated master plan (IMP)

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22
Q

The ____________________will play key roles in the development of external interfaces because these may involve interfaces with systems outside the control of the _____________________

A

Government/Contractor

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23
Q

The __________________ is an event-based plan that identifies the work that must be accomplished to complete the key program activities and events

A

Integrated master plan (IMP)

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24
Q

________________ are a points in time where decision maker evaluate the status of the program and determine if the program should proceed to the next phase

A

Milestones

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25
Q

A________________ Directs a delay in a successor activity

A

Lag

26
Q

The _______________ is the longest path through the network (the path with the greatest sum of task time durations)

A

Critical path

27
Q

The 5 step scheduling process includes:

A
  • Identify the tasks;
  • Sequence the tasks;
  • Estimate the task duration,
  • ***Construct the schedule,
  • Implement the schedule.
28
Q

The Work Breakdown Structure is a Product-oriented family tree composed of hardware, software, ____________, data, and facilities.

A

Services

29
Q

A Functional WBS answers the question____________________ A Product WBS answers the question______________

A

What must it do?, What does it look like?

30
Q

Identify the two types of Product WBS.

A
  • Program WBS

* Contract WBS

31
Q

The program WBS is developed by the ____________

A

Government

32
Q

__________of the WBS includes Major Elements of the defense materiel item, such as hardware, software elements, program management, training, data, etc.

A

Level 2

33
Q

A neutral third party listens to the issues, helps develop options, and works with the disputing parties to obtain a negotiated settlement is called _________

A

Mediation:

34
Q

What are the Two Options for Resolving Contract Disputes

A
  • Litigation

* **Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR)

35
Q

The Changes clause allows the ______________to make changes within the scope of the contract.

A

Contracting Officer

36
Q

Identify the four categories of data rights.

A
  • Unlimited Rights
  • Limited Rights
  • Government Purpose Rights
  • Restricted Rights
37
Q

The _____________ is responsible to bring the program in on time and within budget while the ___________advises the program office on the statement of work (SOW)

A

PM/KO

38
Q

Define the three primary types of leadership styles found in today’s workplace. (missing)

A
  • Supervisory
  • ***Participative
  • Team Leadership
39
Q

Josephson Institute states personal ethics have to major aspects:

A
  • Knowing right from wrong

* Doing what is right

40
Q

The 6 pillars of core ethical values are:

A
  • Trustworthiness
  • Respect
  • ***Responsibility
  • Caring
  • Justice and Fairness
  • Citizenship
41
Q

Identify simplest approach to ethical decision-making.

A

apply the ‘hero test‘

42
Q

‘Higher Truths” are not flexible and there are no exceptions

A

Kants absolute moral duties

43
Q

_____________is a measure of future uncertainties in achieving program technical performance goals within defined cost and schedule constraints.

A

Risk

44
Q

Aspects of risk include:

A
  • Current Threat
  • Technology maturity
  • Supplier capability
  • Design maturation
  • Performance against plan
45
Q

Risk management includes these key elements:

A
  • Risk Identification
  • Risk Analysis
  • Risk Mitigation Planning
  • Risk Mitigation Plan Implementation
  • **Risk Tracking
46
Q

Know the three components of Risk

A
  • A future root cause,
  • A probability or likelihood of that future root cause occurring,
  • ***The consequences (or effect) of that future occurrence
47
Q

The program manager and the __________________should review and approve the final risk mitigation plan

A

Lead system engineer

48
Q

The 5 elements that are used to ensure a system design is capable of being produced into a uniform, defect-free, reproducible product

A 
(5 Ms) of Manufacturing
•	Material
•	Method
•	Machinery
•	Manpower
•	Measurement.
49
Q

The two main principles of lean manufacturing

A
  • Minimization of Waste

* Responsive to Change.

50
Q

The cost of quality can be broken down into three separate areas:

A
  • Prevention (50%)
  • **Appraisal (35%)
  • Correcting Failures (15%)
51
Q

What are the five top-level design goals for producible products

A
  • Design for Ease of Fabrication
  • Design for Ease of Assemble
  • Design for Multiuse
  • Minimize Number of Parts
  • Maximize Number of Common Parts
52
Q

The three steps in Production and Manufacturing Integration include:

A
  • Influence the Design Process
  • **Prepare for Production
  • Execute the Manufacturing Plan.
53
Q

_______________ ensures DOD has qualified personnel to manage the acquisition of Defense Systems

A

Defense Acquisition workforce Improvement Act (DAWIA)

54
Q

The ___________________streamlined and simplified many contracting procedures, and changed the face of contracting in the Federal Government

A

Federal Acquisition Reform Act (FARA)

55
Q

The ____________now governs the acquisition of software-intensive systems within the Federal Government

A

Clinger-Cohen Act (CCA)

56
Q

The _______________details key capabilities that a system must meet and is the baseline for the PMO’s effort

A

Capabilities Development Document (CDD)

57
Q

The three areas the defense acquisition workforce improvement Act (DAWIA) established standards in for use in certification

A
  • Education
  • Training
  • Experience
58
Q

What is the GIG?

A

the Global Information Grid (GIG) ie the “DOD internet”

59
Q

__________are groups of related systems sharing a set of common capabilities

A

Domain

60
Q

These type of architectures use open specifications to define interfaces, services and supporting formats

A

Open System Architectures

61
Q

______________provide an organization with a set of processes that , if done by qualified persons using appropriate tools and methods, will provide a capability to do effective and efficient engineering of systems including their software components

A

Standards

62
Q

A ______________is a grouping of software that satisfies an end-use function. It is specifically designated as an SI for purposes of specification, qualification testing, interfacing or other purposes.

A

Software Item (SI)

AIPM Test 2 (10 decks)

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