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1
Q

Consider the hierarchical organization of life as discussed in the text. Which of these lists is in correct order from smallest (least inclusive) to largest (most inclusive)? (not all levels are included)

a) cell, organism, organelle, molecule, community, population
b) molecule, organism, cell, organelle, population, community
c) organelle, molecule, organism, cell, community, population
d) molecule, organelle, cell, organism, population, community

A

D

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2
Q

Which of these statements is true?

a) Natural selection causes evolution
b) Evolution is a process that causes natural selection
c) Evolution is a hypothesis, not a theory

A

A

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3
Q

How many of these three bolded statements are false about our Blackboard Connect Homework Assignments?
You have 40 minutes to do an assignment
The assignments are open-book
You have 3 attempts to do each assignment

A

2

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4
Q

Which of these are most likely the first and second steps, respectively, of the scientific method?

a) data analysis, publication
b) publication, becoming rich and famous
c) doing an experiment, data analysis
d) observation, asking a question

A

D

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5
Q
The events       DNA  mRNA  protein      are a summary of the biological 
theory called
a) the Central Dogma
b) the Cell Theory
c) Evolution
d) Ecology
A

A

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6
Q

The study of interactions between organisms, and between organisms and their environment is called _______________.

a) mutation
b) covalent bonding
c) evolution
d) ecology
e) coordination

A

D

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7
Q

Covalent bonds and ionic bonds have equal strength.

a) True
b) False

A

B

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8
Q

If a molecule contains sodium, its molecular formula will include the symbol

a) S
b) So
c) Na
d) N

A

C

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9
Q

_________ are positive in charge.

a) neutrons
b) electrons
c) protons
d) all of the above

A

C

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10
Q

An atom has 12 protons. Another atom has 13 protons. Therefore they are isotopes of each other.

a) True
b) False

A

B

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11
Q

The bonds within a water molecule are _________ bonds.

a) ionic
b) hydrogen
c) polar covalent
d) matonic

A

C

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12
Q

Water shows surface tension. This is because

a) water molecules are polar
b) there is salt in the water
c) water has a low heat of vaporization
d) all of the above

A

A

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13
Q

If a molecule gains an electron, it has been

a) promoted
b) amplified
c) oxidized
d) reduced

A

D

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14
Q

Because R-COOH tends to release a/n ________ in aqueous solution, it is a/n ______________.

a) H+, acid
b) H+, base
c) OH-, acid
d) OH-, base

A

A

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15
Q

Consider the pH scale. A pH of _______ is neutral.

a) 0
b) 7
c) 50
d) 100

A

B

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16
Q

On this graph showing enzyme activity at different pH’s, the vertical axis should be labeled ______________. The horizontal axis should be labeled ________________.

a) pH, time
b) pH, temperature
c) enzyme activity, time
d) pH, enzyme activity
e) enzyme activity, pH

A

E

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17
Q

Of the following, which is the least common element in organic molecules?

a) C
b) O
c) H
d) N

A

D

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18
Q

In hydrolysis

a) monomers are put together to form polymers
b) energy is released
c) a) and b) are true
d) a) and b) are false

A

B

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19
Q

Glycogen and amylose are both

a) starches
b) cellulose
c) monosaccharides
d) disaccharides

A

A

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20
Q

Which of these molecules is a building block for other types of lipids? (Not much of this molecule as such is found in organisms.)

a) phospholipids
b) steroids
c) fat molecules
d) fatty acids

A

D

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21
Q

Which of these statements is false about lipids?

a) Lipids are water insoluble
b) Lipids include steroids
c) One kind of lipid is diagrammed as
d) All lipids function as energy storage molecules

A

D

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22
Q

The building blocks of proteins are

a) ATP
b) amino acids
c) nucleotides
d) waxes

A

B

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23
Q

The coiling of an amino acid chain into an α helix is defined as the ____________ structure of a protein.

a) quaternary
b) tertiary
c) secondary
d) primary

A

C

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24
Q

A nucleotide is made of ______ parts.

a) two
b) three
c) four
d) five

A

B

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25
Q

Which of these is true about both DNA and RNA?

a) They both contain the sugar deoxyribose
b) They both are always double-stranded
c) They both are nucleic acids
d) All of the above are true

A

C

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26
Q

The “T” in ATP stands for

a) turn
b) trans
c) temporary
d) tri

A

D

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27
Q

Which of these is not true of the Cell Theory?

a) Cells arise spontaneously.
b) All living things are made of cells.
c) Cells come from the division of other cells.
d) Hereditary information is in cells

A

A

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28
Q

Which of these terms is associated with a nucleus?

a) pores through the surrounding membranes
b) chromatin
c) both a) and b)
d) neither a) nor b)

A

C

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29
Q

A scientist examines a cell and determines that it contains a cell wall, ribosomes, and a nucleoid. The scientist

a) now knows that the cell is prokaryotic
b) now knows that the cell is eukaryotic
c) does not know if the cell is prokaryotic or eukaryotic

A

A

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30
Q

1 m = ____ nm

a) 10^ 6
b) 10^ -6
c) 10^ 9
d) 10^ -9
e) 10^ 3

A

C

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31
Q

Imagine a cell that is 7 μm in diameter. It is ______ mm in diameter.

a) 7 x 10^3
b) 7 x 10^-3
c) 7 x 10^6
d) 7 x 10^-6

A

B

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32
Q

A ribosome is about 23 nm in diameter. It can be distinguished from (resolved) by a

a) good electron microscope
b) good light microscope
c) both a) and b)

A

A

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33
Q

If a cell contains a lot of smooth ER, it is specialized to synthesize

a) protein
b) lipids and carbohydrates
c) both of the above

A

B

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34
Q

Molecules from the rough ER come to a Golgi body in __________, are modified, and leave in __________.

a) mitochondria, mitochondria
b) chloroplasts, chloroplasts
c) the nucleus, the nucleus
d) vesicles, vesicles

A

D

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35
Q

Think about lysosomes. If someone has a lysosomal storage disease, then

a) no ATP is made
b) the cell membrane is missing
c) no sugar is made
d) some compound accumulates because it is not broken down

A

D

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36
Q

Vesicles include

a) lysosomes
b) microbodies
c) both a) and b)
d) neither a) nor b)

A

C

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37
Q

Which of these statements is false about chloroplasts?

a) Both animals and plants contain chloroplasts
b) Chloroplasts contain some DNA
c) Sugar is made in chloroplasts
d) Chloroplasts contain thylakoids

A

A

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38
Q

_____________ are the site of cellular aerobic respiration.

a) Chloroplasts
b) Central vacuoles
c) Mitochondria
d) Contractile vacuoles

A

C

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39
Q

If a plant cell is specialized for water retention, its cell wall will contain more

a) lignin
b) lipids
c) DNA
d) carbohydrates

A

B

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40
Q

Which of these is false about central vacuoles?

a) They can store ions and pigments
b) Their content is mostly water
c) They help with support
d) They are found in animal cells

A

D

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41
Q

Imagine that you could add a chemical to a cell that destroys the protein tubulin. Which one of these processes would still occur?

a) chromosome movement in cell division
b) cilia and flagellar movement
c) muscle cell contraction
d) cell plate formation in plant cell division

A

C

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42
Q

Tight junctions are found between ______ cells, and serve __________.

a) animal, to prevent leakage between cells
b) plant, to prevent leakage between cells
c) animal, in communication
d) plant, in communication

A

A

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43
Q

Cell membranes are made of approximately

a) 30% lipid, 43% protein, and 50% DNA
b) 50% lipid and 50% protein
c) 65% protein and 35% carbohydrate
d) 15% protein and 85% lipid

A

B

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44
Q

The Fluid Mosaic Model refers to the structure of

a) flagella
b) DNA
c) membranes
d) ice

A

C

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45
Q
direct diffusion
osmosis
ion channel diffusion
facilitated diffusion
active transport
How many of these membrane transport processes are active (that is, do need ATP)?
a) 1
b) 2 
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5
A

A

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46
Q
direct diffusion
osmosis
ion channel diffusion
facilitated diffusion
active transport
How many of these membrane transport processes require a protein carrier?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5
A

B

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47
Q

Which one of these membrane transport processes is how O2 and CO2 get through cell membranes?

a) direct diffusion
b) osmosis
c) ion channel diffusion
d) facilitated diffusion
e) active transport

A

A

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48
Q

Exocytosis

a) is the same as endocytosis
b) occurs only in chloroplasts
c) both a) and b) are true
d) neither a) nor b) is true

A

D

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49
Q

Light energy is a “______” of energy, and its “state” is said to be ___________.

a) form, potential
b) form, kinetic
c) junction, potential
d) junction, kinetic

A

B

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50
Q

Anabolic reactions

a) are breakdown reactions
b) release energy
c) both a) and b) are true
d) neither a) nor b) is true

A

D

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51
Q

A way to state the ____________ is that in all reactions, entropy increases.

a) Endosymbiont Theory
b) Second Law of Thermodynamics
c) First Law of Thermodynamics
d) Fluid Mosaic Model

A

B

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52
Q

In the equation ∆G = ∆H - T∆S, change in entropy is symbolized as

a) ∆S
b) ∆H
c) T
d) ∆G

A

A

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53
Q

The breakdown of ATP to ADP and phosphate is an _________ reaction, and can be ___________ to a reaction requiring energy, allowing the latter to happen.

a) exergonic, doubled
b) exergonic, coupled
c) endergonic, doubled
d) endergonic, coupled

A

B

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54
Q

An endergonic reaction requiring 18 kcal/mole

a) will occur spontaneously
b) will need 18 ATP molecules/mole to occur
c) will need 1 ATP molecules/mole to occur
d) none of the above are true

A

D

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55
Q

How many of the following four bolded statements are true about enzymes?
End-product inhibition can help control enzymes.
The control site of an enzyme is called its active site.
NADH is a coenzyme.
All enzymes are free (unattached) and single in the cytoplasm.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

A

B

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56
Q

Photosynthesis on land accounts for about _______ of the total photosynthesis on earth.

a) 90%
b) 50%
c) 20%
d) 10%

A

B

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57
Q

Complete this overall equation for photosynthesis in the presence of light.

6 CO2 + ________  C6H12O6 + 6 H2O + __________

a) 12 H2O, 6 O2
b) 32 H2O, 3 NADPH
c) 6 O2, 32 ATP
d) 32 ADP and 32 P, 32 ATP

A

A

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58
Q

Which of these is the smallest?

a) chloroplast
b) stroma
c) thylakoid sac
d) granum

A

C

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59
Q

_____________ and ________________ are famous for their early work on photosynthesis.

a) Priestly, Ingenhousz
b) Krebs, Calvin
c) Blackman, Krebs

A

A

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60
Q
How many of these bolded items are false about chlorophyll?
There is only one type of chlorophyll
Chlorophyll absorbs green light
Chlorophyll a is an accessory pigment
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
A

C

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61
Q

Consider an absorption spectrum for chlorophyll c. The horizontal axis should be labeled ________________ and the vertical axis should be labeled _______________.

a) rate of photosynthesis, wavelength
b) wavelength, absorption
c) time, wavelength
d) absorption, time

A

B

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62
Q

Consider this sentence: Van Niel used the terms H2A and 2A in his hypothesized equation for photosynthesis to refer to a specific element A.
Which of the underlined items is incorrect?
a) H2A and 2A
b) hypothesized
c) photosynthesis
d) specific element A

A

D

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63
Q

Which of these is the smallest?

a) the antenna complex
b) a photosystem
c) thylakoid sac
d) a reaction center

A

D

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64
Q

Photosystems are located in

a) thylakoid membranes
b) the inner chloroplast membrane
c) the outer chloroplast membrane
d) the stroma

A

A

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65
Q

Electrons travel through the ______ diagram of photosynthesis.

a) L
b) P
c) D
d) Z

A

D

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66
Q

Of the following, which is the last to happen in the Light-Dependent Reactions of photosynthesis?

a) Photosystem I
b) Photosystem II
c) NADPH is made
d) Water is split
e) Oxygen is made

A

C

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67
Q

ATP and NADPH are produced by the Light-Independent Reactions, and used by the Light Dependent Reactions.

a) True
b) False

A

B

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68
Q

Rubisco

a) is an efficient enzyme
b) is found in mitochondria
c) both a) and b) are true
d) neither a) nor b) is true

A

D

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69
Q

If a chloroplast could not do the Light-Independent Reactions, the immediate result would be no

a) sugar
b) ATP
c) DNA

A

A

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70
Q

C3 and C4 plants both

a) have high photorespiration values
b) have both the C3 and C4 enzyme systems
c) both a) and b) are true
d) neither a) nor b) is true

A

D

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71
Q

An example of a CAM plant is

a) corn
b) crabgrass
c) a cactus
d) none of these are CAM plants

A

C

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72
Q

The immediate function of cellular aerobic respiration is

a) to make sugar
b) to make nucleotides
c) to make ATP
d) to make DNA

A

C

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73
Q

In Anaerobic Respiration, _______ are taken up by an inorganic compound.

a) low energy electrons
b) water molecules
c) high energy electrons
d) CO2

A

A

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74
Q

How many of these seven terms are incorrect in this overall formula for cellular aerobic respiration?
C6H12O6 + 6O2 + 32ATP + 32 P → 6CO2 + 6H2O + 32 ADP
a) 0
b) 2
c) 4
d) 6

A

B

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75
Q

Cellular Aerobic Respiration includes only anabolic reactions.

a) True
b) False

A

B

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76
Q

Which of these terms does not apply to mitochondria?

a) inner and outer membranes
b) cristae
c) thylakoids
d) inner matrix

A

C

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77
Q

Which of these symbolizes glycolysis?

a) 6C → 2-3C
b) 2-3C → 2-2C + 2-1C
c) 6C → 6-1C
d) 6-1C → 6C

A

A

78
Q

Pyruvate oxidation directly produces

a) ATP
b) NADH
c) NADPH
d) a) and b) are true
e) a) and b) and c) are true

A

B

79
Q

In Eukaryotes, in Cellular Aerobic Respiration, a cell gets about ______ ATP molecules from 1 glucose molecule.

a) 3
b) 30
c) 90
d) 200

A

B

80
Q

Which of these is false about the mitochondrial electron transport system?

a) H+ accumulates in the matrix
b) It uses ATP synthase to make ATP
c) there are five carriers in the chain
d) O2 is used, and makes H2O

A

A

81
Q

The Chemiosmosis Theory states that

a) ATP synthesis causes proton pumping, and this causes electron movement
b) the pumping of protons results in ATP production, and this causes electron movement
c) the movement of electrons results in the pumping of protons, and this results in ATP synthesis

A

C

82
Q

Acetyl CoA is always used to make ATP in cells; it is never used for any other purpose.

a) True
b) False

A

B

83
Q

If there is an abundance of ______, a cell uses feedback inhibition to slow Cellular Aerobic Respiration.

a) H20
b) glucose
c) O2
d) ATP

A

D

84
Q

In lecture, we did a skit of Cellular Aerobic Respiration. In that skit, markers were used to represent

a) the electron carrier Q
b) the electron carrier C
c) NADH
d) electrons

A

D

85
Q

In fermentation, ______ is regenerated so that a little ______ can continue to be produced.

a) DNA, RNA
b) ATP, sugar
c) NAD+, ATP

A

C

86
Q

A molecule that serves as a cellular signal is called a

a) ligand
b) communicator
c) biennial
d) tristander

A

A

87
Q

Signaling that involves hormones is called _________ signaling.

a) direct contact
b) synaptic
c) endocrine
d) paracrine

A

C

88
Q

An intracellular receptor is in that position because its signal is not able to cross the cell membrane.

a) True
b) False

A

B

89
Q

A chemically gated ion channel

a) is a type of cell surface receptor
b) is the same as a G protein-coupled receptor
c) both a) and b) are true
d) neither a) nor b) is true

A

A

90
Q

The type of enzyme that adds a phosphate group to a protein is called a

a) endase
b) litase
c) kinase
d) addase

A

C

91
Q

Which of the following statements is true about G protein-coupled receptors (GPCR’s)?

a) The signal binds on the inside of the membrane.
b) The G protein binding site is on the outside of the membrane.
c) These receptors are cell-surface receptors.

A

C

92
Q

When epinephrine binds to a G protein-coupled receptor in muscle and liver cells, which of these events occurs first?

a) G-protein is activated
b) a kinase activates a protein
c) much cAMP is made
d) glucose is produced from glycogen

A

A

93
Q

With regards to cell signaling, two different receptors on a cell can sometimes produce the same second messenger.

a) True
b) False

A

A

94
Q

How many of the following four bolded statements about chromosomes are false?
Euchromatin alternates between condensed and uncondensed.
Nucleosomes are made of protein and lipid.
Heterochromatin is DNA that is always condensed.
Chromosome number is constant between all animal species.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

A

B

95
Q

This diagram of ________ includes ___________.

a) 1 chromosome, 1 chromatid
b) 2 chromosomes, 1 chromatid
c) 1 chromosome, 2 chromatids

A

C

96
Q

Which cell cycle phase immediately follows the G1 phase?

a) G2
b) S
c) mitosis
d) cytokinesis

A

B

97
Q

In mitosis, chromosomes line up in

a) telophase
b) prophase
c) anaphase
d) metaphase

A

D

98
Q

Actin filaments cause “pinching in” of ________ cells.

a) plant
b) animal
c) both plant and animal

A

B

99
Q

At the spindle checkpoint, a cell

a) checks DNA integrity
b) determines if it is large enough to continue through the cell cycle
c) checks chromosome attachment

A

C

100
Q

Think about PDGF.

a) PDGF is a signal
b) PDGF action involves cyclins
c) PDGF action involves CdK’s
d) a), b), and c) are true
e) a), b), and c) are false

A

D

101
Q

Which of these describes what happens in meiosis?

a) four 1n cells → four 2n cells
b) one 2n cell → two 2n cells
c) one 2n cell → four 1n cells
d) one 1n cell → two 2n cells

A

C

102
Q
Think about the Haploid Life Cycle.  How many of these four bolded statements are true?
Fungi have this cycle.
The spores are n.
The haploid organism produces haploid gametes.
Meiosis is part of the cycle.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
A

D

103
Q

In the Alternation of Generations Life Cycle, the _________ produces gametes and the ________ produces spores.

a) gametophyte, sporophyte
b) sporophyte, gametophyte
c) gametophyte, gametophyte
d) sporophyte, sporophyte

A

A

104
Q

Crossing over occurs during

a) mitosis
b) meiosis I
c) meiosis II
d) a), b), and c) are all correct

A

B

105
Q

In meiosis, homologous chromosomes separate from one another in _______________.

a) prophase I
b) anaphase I
c) prophase II
d) anaphase II

A

B

106
Q

A reproductive cell undergoes meiosis to produce ______ gametes. These gametes have 32 chromosomes. The reproductive cell had ________ chromosomes.

a) 2, 16
b) 2, 64
c) 4, 16
d) 4, 64

A

D

107
Q

Which of the following is true of both mitosis and meiosis?

a) Crossing over occurs
b) Identical cells are produced
c) If you start with a 2n cell, resulting cells are all 2n
d) They are forms of cell division

A

D

108
Q

Kolreuter

a) lived before Mendel
b) did plant crosses
c) both a) and b) are true
d) neither a) nor b) are true

A

C

109
Q
How many of these four bolded statements are true about Mendel?
He studied at a university
He was English
He had training in mathematics
He used a total of about 2000 plants in his research
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
A

B

110
Q

Consider Mendel’s crosses (parental generation to F3 generation) with tall and dwarf plants. Tall is the dominant trait. When he selfed the F2 tall plants, he got

a) a mixture of tall and dwarf plants
b) only dwarf plants
c) only tall plants

A

A

111
Q

In approximately 1900,

a) Mendel was born
b) Mendel’s ideas were rediscovered
c) Mendel published his paper

A

B

112
Q

Rr is a ___________; it is said to be __________.

a) phenotype; homozygous dominant
b) genotype; homozygous dominant
c) phenotype; heterozygous
d) genotype; heterozygous

A

D

113
Q

A “locus” is found on a

a) gene
b) chromosome
c) phenotype
d) none of the above

A

B

114
Q

Consider the alleles T and t, and the cross Tt x TT. The genotypic ratio of the offspring of this cross will be

a) 1 TT : 2 Tt : 1 tt
b) 1 TT : 1 Tt
c) 3 TT : 1 Tt
d) 1 Tt : 1 tt

A

B

115
Q

Consider maple trees. Assume complete dominance. Imagine that leaf size is controlled by alleles L (large) and l (small). Leaf surface is controlled by alleles S (smooth) and s (rough). If the bolded cross below occurred, the genotypic ratio of the offspring would be LlSs x LLss

a) 1LLSs : 1LLss : 1 LlSs : 1 Llss
b) 1 LlSS : 1 LlSs
c) all LLSs
d) 3 LlSs : 1 LLss
e) 3 Ll : 1 Ss

A

A

116
Q

In cases of incomplete dominance, the ________ ratio in the F2 generation is 1:2:1.

a) genotypic
b) phenotypic
c) both a) and b) are true
d) neither a) nor b) is true

A

C

117
Q

Which of these is defined as one gene influencing the expression of a second gene? The example in the text is corn kernel color.

a) continuous variation
b) pleiotropy
c) epistasis

A

C

118
Q

A husband has genotype IAi. His wife has genotype IBi. Among their children, how many of the four blood types (A, B, AB, and O) are possible?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

A

D

119
Q

How many of these four bolded statements are true about the X and Y chromosomes of humans?
A male has chromosomes XX
A female has chromosomes XY
The X and Y chromosomes are different sizes
The X and Y chromosomes carry the same number of genes
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

A

A

120
Q

Down Syndrome

a) decreases in frequency with maternal age
b) is caused by an extra X chromosome
c) is an aneuploid condition

A

C

121
Q

A diagram of genetic relationships among family members is called a/n

a) offspring
b) karyotype
c) chromophore
d) pedigree

A

D

122
Q

A mother does not have a particular dominant genetic disorder, but the father is heterozygous for that disorder. What is the chance of the parents passing on the trait to a child?

a) 0.25
b) 0.5
c) 0.75
d) 1.0

A

B

123
Q

If two carriers of sickle-cell anemia were to marry, the probability that a particular child of theirs has two normal alleles is

a) 1.0
b) 0.75
c) 0.50
d) 0.25

A

D

124
Q

Two “linked” genes on a chromosome are less likely to be separated by crossing over if they are close to each other, than if they are far away from each other.

a) True
b) False

A

A

125
Q

Hammerling’s work with _______ involved the nucleus being in the _______.

a) fruit flies, the foot
b) an alga, the foot
c) bacteria, the cell
d) mice, body

A

B

126
Q

Consider the researchers whom we talked about who were trying to determine if DNA is the genetic information or not. Which of these did not provide direct evidence of this?

a) Hershey and Chase
b) Griffith
c) Avery, McCleod, and McCarty

A

B

127
Q

A bacteriophage is a _________ that attaches to a/n __________

a) bacterium, virus
b) virus, bacterium
c) bacterium, plant
d) bacterium, animal

A

B

128
Q

How many of the bolded items are not part of a DNA nucleotide?
phosphate group, sugar, phospholipid, N-containing base
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

A

A

129
Q

Chargaff and Levine both worked on DNA structure.

a) True
b) False

A

A

130
Q

How many of the following four bolded statements are true about DNA replication?
DNA polymerase III works at 10 nucleotides / second.
The strands of DNA in a double helix are oriented in opposite directions.
The main enzyme in DNA replication is DNA polymerase III.
Okasaki Fragments are made on the lagging strand.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

A

C

131
Q

How many of the following four bolded statements are true about DNA replication?
Helicase helps separate DNA strands in DNA replication.
Primase makes RNA primers.
Single-strand binding proteins help protect single strands.
Nucleotides are added in the 3’ → 5’ direction.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

A

C

132
Q

Prokaryotes and eukaryotes both have only one replication origin / chromosome.

a) True
b) False

A

B

133
Q

Many DNA repair systems have been discovered in cells.

a) True
b) False

A

A

134
Q

Which one of these is not made of nucleotides?

a) DNA
b) mRNA
c) proteins

A

C

135
Q

A codon is made of ____ nucleotides, and is found on the _______.

a) 3, mRNA
b) 4, mRNA
c) 3, tRNA
d) 4, tRNA

A

A

136
Q

Which of these describes transcription?

a) mRNA → lipid
b) mRNA → protein
c) protein → DNA
d) DNA → mRNA

A

D

137
Q

Which of these is false about transcription?

a) It involves a transcription bubble.
b) It involves initiation, elongation, and termination.
c) It adds an amino acid to the amino acid chain.
d) About 50 nucleotides are added / second.

A

C

138
Q

The additions of a poly-A tail and a 5’ cap are called __________________ modifications.

a) post replication
b) post transcriptional
c) post translational

A

B

139
Q

Introns

a) are DNA segments that do not code for protein
b) make up about 24 % of the human genome
c) both a) and b) are true
d) neither a) nor b) is true

A

C

140
Q

The process by which mRNA → protein is called

a) translation
b) transcription
c) DNA replication
d) none of the above

A

A

141
Q

Consider the E, P, and A sites on a ribosome. The ribosomal site which receives an amino acid-bearing tRNA is called the _____ site.

a) E
b) P
c) A

A

C

142
Q

Which of these is not a type of point mutation?

a) base substitution
b) insertion
c) deletion
d) chromosome mutation

A

D

143
Q

Depletion of our earth’s ozone layer is associated with

a) dimer formation
b) physical damage of DNA by UV light
c) both a) and b) are true
d) neither a) nor b) is true

A

C

144
Q

Both eukaryotic cells and prokaryotic cells regulate their genes based only on maintaining homeostasis of the entire multicellular organism.

a) True
b) False

A

B

145
Q

Of these four ways of regulating gene expression, which is in correct chronological (time) order?

a) at initiation of transcription, splicing exons together in alternate ways, variable half-life of mRNA’s, post-translational modifications
b) post-translational modifications, variable half-life of mRNA’s, splicing exons together in alternate ways, at initiation of transcription
c) at initiation of transcription, post-translational modifications, variable half-life of mRNA’s, splicing exons together in alternate ways
d) splicing exons together in alternate ways, post-translational modifications, variable half-life of mRNA’s, at initiation of transcription

A

A

146
Q

Consider transcriptional regulation of gene expression. Which underlined part of this sentence is incorrect?
Transcription factors bind to the regulatory region of DNA, are made of protein, and affect RNA polymerase’s ability to bind to the coding region of the DNA.
a) regulatory region of DNA
b) protein
c) RNA polymerase’s
d) coding region of the DNA

A

D

147
Q

Operons are found in eukaryotes.

a) True
b) False

A

B

148
Q

“Helix-turn-helix” is the name of a

a) particular tRNA
b) RNA subunit
c) DNA binding motif

A

C

149
Q

Which of these is false about the trp operon?

a) It makes the enzymes which make the amino acid tryptophan
b) It involves a promoter
c) It involves a repressor
d) If the amino acid tryptophan is present, the operon is ON

A

C

150
Q
Consider the lac operon.  How many of the following sets of conditions (indicating high and/or low amounts of glucose and lactose) will result in transcription at that operon?
[glucose] ↑, [lactose] ↓
[glucose] ↑, [lactose] ↑
[glucose] ↓, [lactose] ↓
[glucose] ↓, [lactose] ↑

a) zero
b) one
c) two
d) three

A

B

151
Q

Which of these has to be true for the lac operon to be transcribed?

a) CAP protein is attached to the CAP site
b) the repressor is bound to the operator
c) both a) and b) are true
d) neither a) nor b) is true

A

A

152
Q

The degree of complexity of development varies with Kingdom. Which of the following is the correct order from least complex to most complex?

a) Kingdom Animalia, Kingdom Viridiplantae, Kingdom Fungi
b) Kingdom Viridiplantae, Kingdom Fungi, Kingdom Animalia
c) Kingdom Animalia, Kingdom Fungi, Kingdom Viridiplantae
d) Kingdom Fungi, Kingdom Viridiplantae, Kingdom Animalia

A

D

153
Q

Drosophila is the biological Latin name for

a) fruit flies
b) nematodes (roundworms)
c) mice
d) a plant

A

A

154
Q

“Meristems” and “cotyledons” are terms associated with which of the following model organisms?

a) C. elegans
b) E. coli
c) Arabidopsis
d) Mus musculus

A

C

155
Q

A blastula

a) is the same as a morula
b) comes before a morula in development
c) both a ) and b) are true
d) neither a) nor b) is true

A

D

156
Q

The Human Genome Project

a) started in 1953
b) has identified every nucleotide in the human genome
c) both a) and b) are true
d) neither a) nor b) is true

A

D

157
Q

In the Human Genome, there are about _______ as many single-copy genes as there are gene products.

a) one quarter
b) half
c) twice
d) four times

A

A

158
Q

An example of a multigene family is

a) rRNA genes
b) the allele that causes Tay-Sachs Disease
c) the hemoglobin genes

A

C

159
Q

In humans, introns compose about ________ of the DNA, and simple sequence repeats compose about _________ of the DNA.

a) 45%, 24%
b) 5%, 15%
c) 45%, 15%
d) 24%, 3%

A

D

160
Q

Which two organisms’ genomes have about 99% nucleotide similarity?

a) humans and mice
b) humans and Drosophila
c) humans and chimpanzees

A

C

161
Q

If you want to have a career in Bioinformatics, you will particularly take courses in

a) economics and literature
b) math and biology
c) foreign languages and biology
d) history and biology

A

B

162
Q

A restriction endonuclease cuts ______ _______.

a) protein, at the end
b) protein, in the middle
c) DNA, at the end
d) DNA, in the middle

A

D

163
Q

Which of these is true about vectors as used in biotechnology?

a) Some vectors are plasmids
b) All vectors are animal viruses
c) All vectors are plasmids

A

A

164
Q

In gel electrophoresis

a) larger molecules move farther
b) only DNA fragments can be separated
c) an electrical current is used
d) all of the above

A

C

165
Q

In the recombinant DNA techniques that we spoke of in class, a “probe” is

a) double-stranded DNA
b) radioactive or florescently–tagged DNA
c) both a) and b) are true
d) neither a) nor b) is true

A

B

166
Q

The process of mRNA → cDNA is done by

a) reverse transcriptase
b) RNA polymerase
c) ligase

A

A

167
Q

The function of PCR is to

a) watch transcription
b) allow E. coli to take up plasmids
c) make many copies of DNA
d) watch transcription

A

C

168
Q

The polymorphic character that is used in Southern Blotting and RFLP analysis to get a DNA fingerprint is

a) chromosome number
b) number of tandem repeats
c) chromatid number
d) restriction fragment lengths

A

D

169
Q

A purpose of the Southern Blot / RFLP analysis procedure is to

a) transfer the insulin gene into E. coli
b) insert useful genes into the corn genome
c) distinguish between individuals
d) sequence proteins

A

C

170
Q

Consider paternity testing, using multiple loci (STR sites). At one locus, for example the TH01 locus, if the father has alleles 4 and 7, and the mother has alleles 10 and 12, a child of theirs could have alleles

a) 7 and 10
b) 4 and 7
c) 3 and 12
d) 10 and 12

A

A

171
Q

Human gene therapy

a) has been successful for many diseases
b) has many on-going clinical trials
c) both a) and b) are true
d) neither a) nor b) are true

A

B

172
Q

Agrobacterium tumefaciens

a) is an animal virus
b) contains a plasmid which is used as a vector in plant genetic engineering
c) is the source of Taq polymerase (thermal-stable DNA polymerase)

A

B

173
Q

In lecture, we spoke of the transfer of genes from ________ to ________.

a) pigs to chickens
b) ants to lions
c) an algae to pine trees
d) spiders to goats

A

D

174
Q

Consider epithelial tissue, as discussed in our cancer lecture, and the initial development of cancer. Which of these processes happens first?

a) cancer cells leave blood vessels to reside in foreign tissue
b) cancer cells enter blood vessels
c) cancer cells escape their original location through the basal lamina (basement membrane)

A

C

175
Q

Chromosomal painting

a) finds translocations
b) is a form of karyotyping
c) both a) and b) are true
d) neither a) nor b) is true

A

C

176
Q

How many of the following three bolded items are competitive advantages of cancer cells?
lack active telomerase, abnormally invasive, more likely to undergo apoptosis
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3

A

B

177
Q

p53 is mutated in about ________ of cancers.

a) 2 %
b) 20 %
c) 50 %
d) 100 %

A

C

178
Q

An oncogene

a) comes from a proto-oncogene
b) behaves in a recessive fashion
c) both a) and b) are true
d) neither a) nor b) is true

A

A

179
Q

Consider a population of frogs. Which one of these terms includes the others?

a) a nucleotide
b) an allele
c) a gene
d) the gene pool

A

D

180
Q
How many of the following bolded items are necessary for natural selection to occur?
The organisms are able to reproduce sexually
The organisms are animals
The organism can reproduce asexually
The organisms show inheritable variation
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
A

2

181
Q

Which of these is false?

a) Microevolution is a process that causes natural selection
b) Natural selection is a process that causes microevolution
c) Natural selection is a process that causes adaptations

A

A

182
Q

The values Heterozygosity (H) and Polymorphism (P) both

a) concern allozymes
b) concern variability
c) both a) and b) are true
d) neither a) nor b) is true

A

C

183
Q

Variability in DNA sequence is less in those portions of a gene that code for the active site of an enzyme, as opposed to those portions that code for the rest of the enzyme. (Do not worry about the allosteric site if there is one).

a) True
b) False

A

A

184
Q

Say that you are studying an enzyme in a turtle species. You find that the enzyme has different forms (allozymes) in turtles living at different latitudes (northern Washington State to southern California). This suggests that

a) these variants may have been selected by natural selection
b) these variants are neutral
c) nothing is suggested

A

A

185
Q
How many of these four bolded statements are assumptions of the Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium?
random mating
no net immigration
natural selection
large population size
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
A

C

186
Q

Assume Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium. Consider a population of 5000 individuals. Consider alleles G and g at a locus. If the number of GG individuals = 800, number of Gg individuals = 2400, and number of gg individuals = 1800, then f(G) = p = ________, and f(g) = q = __________.

a) 0.64, 0.32
b) 0.18, 0.84
c) 0.48, 0.52
d) 0.4, 0.6

A

D

187
Q

Assume Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium. Consider a locus with alleles M and m. If f(M) = 0.2, and f(m) = 0.8, then f (MM) =

a) 0.04
b) 0.16
c) 0.64
d) 0.32

A

A

188
Q

Relaxing the Random Mating Assumption of the ______________results in more inbreeding, and therefore more __________.

a) Central Dogma, homozygosity
b) Central Dogma, heterozygosity
c) Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium, homozygosity
d) Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium, heterozygosity

A

C

189
Q

How many of the following three bolded items are true of genetic drift?
It is defined as a change in allele frequency due to chance.
It can happen if a few individuals found a new population.
It can happen if a population experiences a population bottleneck.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 2

A

C

190
Q

If two related species reproduce at different times, they are separated by a/n ___________ Reproductive Isolating Mechanism.

a) temporal
b) behavioral
c) ecological
d) pristmatic

A

A

191
Q

The Gradualist School and the Punctuated Equilibrium School both

a) state that morphological change occurs only gradually
b) concern evolutionary change
c) both a) and b) are true
d) neither a) nor b) is true

A

B