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Biochem 2 > test questions > Flashcards

test questions Flashcards

1
Q

1) What are the two major types of nucleic acids? _________________, and _________________.

A

DNA & RNA

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2
Q

2) ______________ polymerize to form DNA and RNA

A

Nucleotides

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3
Q

3) Nucleosides are different from nucleotides because they don’t have a ____________________.

A

Phosphate group

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4
Q

4) The three main components of nucleotides are a _________________, _________________, and _________________.

A

Nitrougenous base, pentose sugar, phosphate group

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5
Q

5) Nucleotides are linked together by _____________________________.

A

phosphodiester bonds

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6
Q

6) The two nitrogenous base purines are _________________, and _________________.

A

adenine and guanine

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7
Q

7) The three nitrogenous base pyrimidines are _________________, _________________, and _________________.

A

cytosine, thymine, uracil

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8
Q

8) Guanine is found in a strand of DNA. What is the name of the Nucleotide? _________________.

A

deoxyguanylate

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9
Q

9) Adenine is found in a strand of RNA. What is the name of the Nucleoside? _________________.

A

adenosine

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10
Q

10) Deoxycytidylate is a _________________ (Nucleoside/Nucleotide) found in _________________ (DNA/RNA).

A

nucleotide and dna

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11
Q

11) Uridine is a _________________ (Nucleoside/Nucleotide) found in _________________ (DNA/RNA).

A

nucleoside and rna

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12
Q

12) The sugar found in RNA is _________________.

A

ribose

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13
Q

13) Label the ends of this short DNA strand as either 3’ or 5’: ___-GGTACGACCTAG-___.

A

5’ 3’

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14
Q

14) There are ____ hydrogen bonds between guanine and cytosine and ____ hydrogen bonds between adenine and thymine/uracil.

A

3, 2

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15
Q

15) A _________________ cleaves phosphodiester bonds WITHIN a polynucleotide chain.

A

endonuclease

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16
Q

16) A _________________ cleaves phosphodiester bonds at the end of a polynucleotide chain.

A

exonuclease

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17
Q

17) Alkalinity degrades _____ (DNA/RNA) but not _____ (DNA/RNA).

A

RNA DNA

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18
Q

18) The strand:

C-A-C-G-A-T-T _ A-A-T-C-G-T-G

G-T-G-C-T-A-A _ T-T-A-G-C-A-C

is an example of a _________________.

A

palindrome

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19
Q

19) The strand:

A-A-T-C-G-T-G _ G-T-G-C-T-A-A

is an example of a _________________.

A

mirror repeat

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20
Q

20) When a strand of DNA has an inverted repeat (aka palindrome) that is separated by a few nucleotides then it can form a _________________ structure with itself.

A

hairpin

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21
Q

21) When two of the hairpins form at the same location on opposite strands of DNA it is called a _________________ structure.

A

cruciform

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22
Q

22) A large loop formed from double-stranded DNA is called a _________________.

A

supercoil

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23
Q

23) True or False? DNA denaturation means breaking phosphodiester bonds.

A

false

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24
Q

24) When double-stranded DNA has completely denatured, then it is said to be in its _________________ ___________ state.

A

random coil

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25
Q

26) GCTACACCGA would have a _________________ (higher/lower) melting temperature than GGTAACTCAT.

A

higher

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26
Q

27) Renaturation is also known as _________________.

A

annealing

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27
Q

28) A partially denatured sample of DNA absorbs 260nm light more strongly than an unaltered sample of DNA. This is known as the _________________________.

A

hyperchromic effect

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28
Q

29) What enzyme relieves the strain of super coiled DNA?

A

Dna gyrase aka topoisomerase

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29
Q

Base pair

A

the pairing together of complementary nucleotides by hydrogen bonding

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30
Q

31) Define the term “Dinucleotide.”

A

two nucleotides linked together by a phosphodiester bond to form a single chain

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31
Q

32) Define the term “Melting Temperature (Tm)” as it applies to DNA.

A

the point at which 50% of a sample of double stranded DNA denatures

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32
Q

33) What is the preferred method of sequencing DNA? _________________________.

A

Sanger sequencing method

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33
Q

35) True or False? The Primer used for sequencing DNA must be identical to the template strand?

A

false- it must be complimentary

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34
Q

34) Double-stranded DNA cannot be sequenced as is and must first be _________________.

A

denatured

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35
Q

36) List the components needed for a single Sanger sequencing reaction mixture: _________________, _________________, _________________, _________________, _________________, and _________________.

A

denatured dna, dna polymerase, short oligonucleotide, a mixture of 4 dntps, amd 1 of the 4 ddNTPs, buffer

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36
Q

37) “dNTP” stands for __________________________________.

A

deoxynucleoside triphosphate

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37
Q

39) When using radio labeling, _________________ can be used to replace an atom of oxygen on the __________ (alpha/beta/gamma) phosphate group

A

sulfer, alpha

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38
Q

40) The Central Dogma of Biology is as follows: ______ -> ______ -> ________

A

DNA RNA proteins

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39
Q

41) The enzyme that can make DNA from RNA is _____________________.

A

reverse transcriptase

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40
Q

42) True or False? During DNA replication, both strands of double-stranded DNA can act as a template.

A

true

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41
Q

43) A piece of double stranded DNA will contain one of the old and one of the new strands. The term that best describes this is __________________________.

A

semiconservative replication

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42
Q

44) The three phases of DNA replication are _________________, _________________, and _________________.

A

initiation of replication, elongation, termination

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43
Q

45) DNA Polymerase reads the template strand in the ____ (3’/5’) to ____ (3’/5’) direction, but synthesizes the new strand in the ____ (3’/5’) to ____ (3’/5’) direction.

A

3’, 5’, 5’, 3’

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44
Q

46) The two individuals who first showed that DNA replication was semiconservative were _________________ and _________________.

A

Meselson and stahl

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45
Q

47) The leading strand of DNA is replicated continuously, but the lagging strand is replicated in segments known as ________________________.

A

okazaki fragments

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46
Q

48) Sometimes abbreviated as “oriC”, the _______________________ is the location where DNA replication starts.

A

origin of replication

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47
Q

49) “SSB Protein” stands for ________________________.

A

single stranded binding proteins

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48
Q

50) SSB protein serves to prevent single-stranded DNA from _________________ after it has been melted, and can be found in greater quantities on the _________________ (leading/lagging) strand.

A

annealing, lagging

49
Q

51) True or False? The lagging strand synthesis begins after leading strand synthesis has finished.

A

false because they occur at the same time

50
Q

52) _________________ is the enzyme responsible for synthesizing a RNA primer, and is part of a larger complex known as a _________________.

A

primase, primosome

51
Q

53) How many primers are needed in order to replicate the leading strand? _________________

A

1

52
Q

54) The primosome moves along the _________________ (leading/lagging) strand just behind the _______________________.

A

lagging strand, replication fork

53
Q

55) What enzyme removes RNA primers on Okazaki fragments and replaces them with DNA? _____________________.

A

dna polymerase

54
Q

56) The gap left behind where a phosphodiester bond is missing is called a _________________.

A

nick

55
Q

57) The activity by which DNA polymerase I removes RNA primers is known as ____________________ activity.

A

5’–3’ exonuclease

56
Q

58) _________________ is an enzyme that bridges the gaps left by DNA polymerase I by forming a ____________________ bond in between the DNA fragments.

A

dna ligase, phosphodiester

57
Q

59) _________________ associates with the primosome complex and helps unwind DNA.

A

DNA B helicase

58
Q

60) Which polymerase is involved in DNA repair? _________________________

A

DNA polymerase ||

59
Q

61) Rank the three DNA polymerases in terms of smallest to largest: _________________ -> _________________ -> _________________.

A

dna poly || –> dna poly |–> dna poly |||

60
Q

62) Rank the three DNA polymerases in terms of slowest to fastest: _________________ -> _________________ -> _________________.

A

dna poly | –> dna poly || –> dna poly |||

61
Q

63) Because eukaryotic chromosomes are much larger than prokaryotic, strands of eukaryotic DNA have multiple _____________________________ when replicating

A

origins of replication

62
Q

64) Transcription is the synthesis of ______ from ______.

A

rna and dna

63
Q

65) List the three major RNAs and their functions:

A

mRNA: messenger rna- carrier of information for making proteins

rRNA: ribosomal rna- catalyizes peptide bond formation in protein synthesis

tRNA: transfer rna- brings AA to mRNA for protein synthesis

64
Q

66) RNA that act as a catalysts are called _________________.

A

ribozymes

65
Q

67) True or False? mRNAs are relatively unstable and only last for a few minutes after synthesis.

A

true

66
Q

68) There are _______ of types of mRNA. They make up about ______% of the total RNA in a cell

A

1000s, 3%

67
Q

69) There are _______ types of rRNA. They make up about ______% of the total RNA in a cell.

A

3, 90%

68
Q

70) There are _______ types of tRNA. They make up about ______% of the total RNA in a cell.

A

50-60, 7%

69
Q

71) The template strand of DNA is also known as the _________________ strand and runs in the _____ (3’/5’) to _____ (3’/5’) direction.

A

nonsense, 3’, 5’

70
Q

72) The non-template strand of DNA is also known as the _________________ strand and runs in the _____ (3’/5’) to _____ (3’/5’) direction.

A

sense, 5’, 3’

71
Q

73) Of the template and non-template strands, which has the same sequence as the mRNA that is made? _________________.

A

nontemplate (sense strand)

72
Q

74) A sequence of DNA that signals the binding of RNA polymerase is called a _________________.

A

promotor

73
Q

75) A sequence of DNA that signals RNA polymerase to stop transcription is called a _________________.

A

terminator

74
Q

76) In prokaryotes, RNA polymerase is made of the subunits _______, _______, _______, and _______.

A

beta, beta’, alpha, sigma

75
Q

77) Of the RNA polymerase subunits, ______ functions in promoter recognition

A

sigma

76
Q

78) Give the general definition of a holoenzyme.

A

an enzyme that has all of its subunits associated and assembled

77
Q

79) Give the general definition of a core enzyme.

A

an enzyme that has nly the subunits which are needed to cataylze reactions

78
Q

80) How do RNA polymerase’s holoenzyme and core enzyme forms differ?

A

the core enzyme only has 2 alpha, 1 beta, and 1 beta’ subunits while the holoenzyme has sigma, 2 alphas, 1 beta, and 1 beta’ subunits.

79
Q

81) Give the location and products of the three RNA polymerases found in eukaryotes.

A

rna poly | : nucleolus, makes pre-rRNA

rna poly ||: nucleoplasm, makes mRNA and hnRNA

rna poly |||: nuleoplasm, makes pre-tRNA and 5S RNA

80
Q

82) There is a common sequence in eukaryotic DNA located ~25-30 base pairs before a transcription start site. This sequence is often referred to as a _________________.

A

TATA box

81
Q

83) Another common sequence located ~60-80 base pairs before a transcription start site is called a _________________.

A

CAAT box

82
Q

84) True or False? In eukaryotes transcription and translation occur simultaneously.

A

False, only in prokaryotes

83
Q

85) Transcription occurs in the _________________, and translation occurs in the _________________.

A

nucleus and cytoplasm

84
Q

86) Large mRNA precursors join with proteins to form _______________________.

A

ribonucleoproteins

85
Q

87) Adding or altering bases or sugars of RNA is called ___________________________________.

A

post transcriptional modification

86
Q

88) Removing nucleotides by cleaving phosphodiester bonds is called ___________________________________.

A

post transcriptional processing

87
Q

89) GMP being added to the 5’ end of mRNA is known as _________________.

A

capping

88
Q

90) Adding 50-150 adenine nucleotides to the 3’ end of mRNA is known as ____________________. These adenine nucleotides form a structure called a _________________.

A

polyadenylation, poly A tail

89
Q

91) ______________________ is the enzyme that adds adenine nucleotides to the 3’ end of mRNA.

A

poly A polymerase

90
Q

92) Give two benefits of adding the 5’ GMP and 3’ adenine nucleotides.

A

to help ribosomes bind to mRNA and to increase the halflife of mRNA

91
Q

93) The synthesis of proteins from mRNA by ribosomes is a process called _________________.

A

translation

92
Q

94) Translation occurs in the _____ (3’/5’) to _____ (3’/5’) direction along the mRNA, and synthesizes from the _____ terminus to the _____ terminus.

A

5’, 3’, N, C

93
Q

95) A _________________ is a set of three nucleotides

A

triplet codon or simply codon

94
Q

96) Having more than one codon coding for the same amino acid is due to __________________________________.

A

degeneracy of genetic code

95
Q

97) The first nucleotide of many tRNAs’ anticodon is _________________ which weakly base pairs with uracil, cytosine, and adenine, and is the reason this position is called the “wobble” position.

A

inosinate

96
Q

98) The size of a bacterial ribosome is _____, and is made from the small _____ subunit and large _____ subunit.

A

70s 30s 50s

97
Q

99) The size of a eukaryotic ribosome is _____, and is made from the small _____ subunit and large _____ subunit.

A

80s 40s 60s

98
Q

100) Coupling a tRNA with its correct amino acid forms ______________________ and is done by the enzymes __________________________________.

A

Aminoacyl tRNA, aminoacyl tRNA synthetases

99
Q

101) A synthetase enzyme requires _____, but a synthase enzyme does not.

A

ATP

100
Q

102) A tRNA that has its proper amino acid is said to be “_________________.”

A

charged-which does not mean positive or negative

101
Q

103) _____________________ is the process of dissociation and re-association of ribosomes.

A

ribosome cycling

102
Q

104) List two purposes of ribosome initiation factors

A

to help aminoacyl tRNA base pair with mRNA

to prevent the large ribosome subunit from associating prematurely

103
Q

105) The initiation complex is formed when _________________, _________________, _________________, and _________________ all come together.

A

mRNA, small ribosomal subunit, initiating aminoacyl tRNA in the large ribosomal subunit

104
Q

106) The first amino acid in a prokaryotic peptide chain is ________________________.

A

N-Formalmethionine aka fMET

105
Q

107) Of the ribosomal binding sites, E is the _________________ site, P is the _________________ site, and A is the _________________ site

A

exit, peptidyl, aminoacyl

106
Q

108) What factor helps bring tRNAs into the ribosome? ________________________

A

elongation factor Tu

107
Q

109) ________________________ is found with the _________________ (small subunit/large subunit) and forms a _________________ bond between two amino acids.

A

peptidyl transferase, large subunit, peptide

108
Q

110) A ___________________________ is a tRNA with two amino acids.

A

dipeptidyl tRNA

109
Q

111) A ___________________________is a tRNA that has lost its amino acid.

A

deacylated tRNA

110
Q

112) _________________ happens when the ribosome moves one codon toward the 3’ end of the mRNA.

A

translocation

111
Q

113) The two ribosomal subunits dissociate when a ______________________ binds to a stop codon in the A site.

A

release factor

112
Q

114) In general, proteins made by free ribosomes are ______________________ and those made by ribosomes bound to rough ER are ______________________.

A

water soluable (hydrophilic)

water insolbuable (hydrophobic)

113
Q

115) The mechanism for directing proteins to their destination is called _________________.

A

protein targeting

114
Q

116) True or False? All ER bound ribosomes start out as free ribosomes.

A

true

115
Q

117) A __________________________________ helps bring a ribosome along with a synthesizing protein to the rough ER.

A

signal recognition particle

116
Q

118) A ______________________ is a sequence of amino acids on the N-terminus of a protein that flags the protein for targeting

A

signal sequence

117
Q
A
118
Q

35) True or False? The Primer used for sequencing DNA must be identical to the template strand?

A

False - must be complimentary

Biochem 2 (7 decks)

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