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Test Day!!! Flashcards

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1
Q

Type 1 vs type 2 muscle fibers

A

Type one: small twitch, less force but slower to fatigue

Type two: fast twitch more force, fatigue quickly

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2
Q

Number of vertebras each part

A

Cervical spine 7
Thoracic spine 12
Lumbar spine 5
Sacrum 5
Coccyx 3-5

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3
Q

What are muscle spindles?

A

Receptor, sensitive to change and length of the muscle and the rate of change

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4
Q

Electrolytes

A

Sodium, potassium, magnesium, water

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5
Q

Which of the following nutrition professionals is nationally recognized by the Commission on Dietetic Registration to provide clinical, community, food service, and nutrition education?

a. Certified dietitian nutritionist
b. Certified nutrition specialist
c. Licensed dietitian
d. Registered dietitian nutritionist

A

Registered dietitian nutritionist

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6
Q

Which regions of the spine demonstrate kyphotic curves?

a. Cervical and thoracic
b. Cervical and sacral
c. Thoracic and lumbar
d. Thoracic and sacral

A

thoracic and sacral

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7
Q

what is lordosis and where does it occur?

A

Lordosis is the forward curved spine in your neck or lower back.
Your cervical and lumbar are naturally curved a little forward, toward the front of your body.

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8
Q

FITTE-VP stands for?

A

Frequency (how often?), Intensity (how hard?),
Time (how long?),
Type (what kind?),
Volume
Progression

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9
Q

Which muscles are typically underactive with knee valgus during the overhead squat?

a. Lower trapezius
b. Gluteus maximus and medius
c. Tensor fascia latae
d. Adductor complex

A

gluteus maximus and medius

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10
Q

In what training zone are you exercising at a challenging to hard intensity, where continual talking would become challenging?

a. Zone 2
b. Zone 4
c. Zone 1
d. Zone 3

A

zone 2

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11
Q

Which heart chamber gathers oxygenated blood coming to the heart from the lungs?

A

left atrium

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12
Q

which theory relates to the muscle contraction?

A

sliding filament theory

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13
Q

what is the process of getting oxygen from the environment to the bodies tissues?

A

diffusion

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14
Q

what transports deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs?

A

pulmonary artery

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15
Q

what transports oxygenated blood from the lungs?

A

right atrium

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16
Q

what is the process of breaking down fat for energy?

A

lipolysis

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17
Q

what transports oxygenated blood to the body?

A

left ventricle

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18
Q

what pumps the blood under low pressure through the pulmonary valve into the pulmonary artery?

A

right ventricle

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19
Q

Which muscles are typically underactive in association with lower crossed syndrome?

a. Lower trapezius
b. Abdominals
c. Adductor complex
d. Hip flexors

overactive

A

abdominals… as well as glutes, hamstrings

overactive: hipp flexors and lumbar extensors

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20
Q

The upper trapezius works with what muscle as a force couple to create upward rotation of the scapula?

a. Rotator cuff muscles
b. Serratus anterior
c. Deltoid
d. Rhomboids

A

serrates anterior

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21
Q

Besides Power Training, which phase of training would be the best option for someone who is attempting to improve their Olympic weightlifting?

a. Muscular Development Training
b. Stabilization Endurance Training
c. Maximal Strength Training
d. Strength Endurance Training

A

maximal strength training

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22
Q

What concern should you have when prescribing flexibility exercises to a client with osteoporosis?

a. Osteoporosis is considered a contraindication to myofascial rolling.
b. Osteoporosis is considered more than a precaution for myofascial rolling.
c. Osteoporosis is not considered a precaution for static stretching.
d. Osteoporosis is not a contraindication for any flexibility exercises.

A

Osteoporosis is considered a contraindication to myofascial rolling.

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23
Q

Which joint has the simplest movement, moving either back and forth or side to side?

a. Nonaxial
b. Synovial
c. Condyloid
d. Nonsynovial

A

non axial

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24
Q

Which of the following effects of the cardiovascular system occurs during exercise?

a. Decreased ventricular filling
b. Decreased venous return
c. Venous pooling
d. Increased ventricular filling

A

increased ventricle filling

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25
Q

Which structures of the body does osteoporosis commonly affect?

a. Neck of the femur and the lumbar (low-back) vertebrae
b. Cranium and facial bones
c. Scapula and humerus
d. Sternum and clavicle

A

neck of the femur and the lumbar low back vertebrae

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26
Q

Receptors involved with this sense are specifically responsible for determining foot position while standing on an unstable surface.

a. Vestibular
b. Somatosensation
c. Vision
d. Sensorimotor function

A

somatosensation

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27
Q

Which of the following phases does not reflect the traditional components of cardiorespiratory training?

a. Warm-up phase
b. Cool-down phase
c. Interval phase
d. Conditioning phase

A

interval phase

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28
Q

What is the most appropriate SAQ program design for a beginner adult who is apparently healthy?

a. 6 to 8 drills allowing greater horizontal inertia but limited unpredictability, such as 5-10-5, T-drill, box drill, and stand-up to figure 8

b. 4 to 6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability, such as cone shuffles and agility ladder drills

c. 10 to 12 drills allowing maximal inertia and unpredictability, such as modified box drill, partner mirror drill, and timed drills

d. 6 to 10 drills allowing maximal inertia and unpredictability, such as modified box drill, partner mirror drill, and timed drills

A

4 to 6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability, such as cone shuffles and agility ladder drills

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29
Q

pproximately what percentage of Americans aged 20 years and older are obese?

a. 0.2
b. 0.8
c. 0.6
d. 0.4

A

.4

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30
Q

In which phase of training would a person want to spend more time if they were looking to become better at beach volleyball and already has adequate leg strength?

a. Power Training
b. Strength Endurance Training Incorrect
c. Muscular Development Training
d. Stabilization Endurance Training

A

power training

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31
Q

When sequencing physiological assessments, which of the following would produce a better result if measured immediately after exercise rather than before exercise?

a. Body composition
b. Flexibility
c. Resting heart rate
d. Blood pressure

A

flexibility

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32
Q

Which of the following statements describes the abdominal skinfold location?

a. A horizontal skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)

b. A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)

c. A vertical skinfold taken on the mid-axillary line at the level of the xiphoid process (which is typically just below the nipple line)

d. A diagonal fold taken immediately superior to and in line with the natural angle of the iliac crest (top portion of the hip bone), aligned with the anterior axillary line

A

A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)

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33
Q

Which of the following is not a skill-related concept that would enhance core training?

a. Balance
b. Coordination
c. Quickness
d. Agility

A

quickness

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34
Q

he process of diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide gases in and out of the bloodstream occurs in what structure or structures?

a. Trachea
b. Bronchioles
c. Pulmonary arteries
d. Alveolar sacs

A

alveolar sacs

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35
Q

What component of breathing improves blood flow back to the heart?

a. Inspiration with an increase in intrathoracic pressure
b. Expiration with an increase in intrathoracic pressure
c. Inspiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure
d. Expiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure

A

Inspiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure

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36
Q

When performing a dumbbell biceps curl, the biceps brachii is considered the agonist (prime mover), and the triceps become the inhibited antagonist. What is this phenomenon called?

a. Reciprocal inhibition
b. Autogenic inhibition
c. Stretch reflex
d. Isometric contraction

A

reciprocal inhibition

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37
Q

What is cardiac output?

a. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction
b. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute
c. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per beat or contraction
d. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction

A

The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute

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38
Q

what type of diabetes occurs when cells are resistant to insulin, meaning that the insulin present cannot transfer adequate amounts of blood sugar into the cell?

A

type 2

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39
Q

What is adaptive thermogenesis?

a. Changes in energy intake due to changes in energy expenditure
b. Adaptations to exercise due to changes in energy intake
c. Metabolic adaptations and changes in energy expenditure due to changes in energy intake
d. Increased heat production due to changes in energy expenditure

A

Metabolic adaptations and changes in energy expenditure due to changes in energy intake

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40
Q

Which of the following statements would be accurate with regard to muscle force and velocity during a concentric contraction?

a. As the velocity of a concentric muscle action increases, its ability to produce force increases.
b. As the velocity of a concentric muscle action decreases, its ability to produce force decreases.
c. As velocity decreases, the force remains constant.
d. As the velocity of the muscle action increases, its ability to produce force decreases.

A

As the velocity of the muscle action increases, its ability to produce force decreases.

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41
Q

what would be accurate about the velocity during eccentric contraction

A

As the velocity of a concentric muscle action increases, its ability to produce force increases.

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42
Q

What must be maintained when performing exercises in a proprioceptively enriched environment?

a. A stable floor
b. The absence of perturbations Incorrect
c. Both feet on the floor
d. Correct technique

A

correct technique

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43
Q

Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain postural control within a stationary limit of stability but with a moving base of support?

a. Moderate-level balance
b. Dynamic balance Incorrect
c. Static balance
d. Semi-dynamic balance

A

semi-dynamic training

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44
Q

Ergogenic aids are typically consumed for what purpose?

a. To improve athletic performance and/or body composition
b. To correct nutrient imbalances
c. To mitigate the side effects of medication
d. For general well-being

A

to improve athletic performance and/or body composition
substances or devices that enhance energy production, use or recovery and provide athletes with a competitive advantage. e.g. creatine

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45
Q

Which form of SAQ training is characterized by the ability to start, stop, and change direction in response to a signal or stimulus quickly while maintaining postural control?

a. Agility
b. Stride rate
c. Quickness
d. Speed

A

agility

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46
Q

When a person loses body weight, what is the only way that mass is lost?

A

exhale carbon dioxide

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47
Q

Which of the following is characterized as a local muscle of the core?

a. Latissimus dorsi
b. Transverse abdominis
c. Erector spinae
d. Rectus abdominis

A

transverse abdominis

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48
Q

Which muscle acts to increase intra-abdominal pressure?

a. Diaphragm Incorrect
b. Pelvic floor musculature
c. Quadratus lumborum
d. Transverse abdominis

A

transverse abdominis

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49
Q

which muscles are typically underactive and overactive in association with lower crossed syndrome?

A

underactive: abdominals and gluteus maximus/medius

overactive: hip flexors and lumbar extensors

50
Q

what muscles are
underactive causing
low back arching & excessive forward lean during OHSA
overactive:

A

underactive: gluteus maximus, hamstrings, abdominals

overactive: hip flexors, lumbar extensor, latissimus dorsi

51
Q

what muscles are overactive leading to arms falling forward in OHSA

A

overactive: latissimus dorsi, pecs, teres major

underactive: mid/low trap, rhomboids, posterior deltoids

52
Q

what muscles are underachieve causing should elevation during pushing assessment?

A

lower trap

53
Q

Jackson pollock skinfold test

and

durnin wormsley

A

3 site: supraialac, thigh, tricep

7 sites add: axilla, abdominal, subscapular, chest,

durnin wormsley = bicep, tricep, sub scapular, spurailac

54
Q

what muscle is overactive causing knee vulgus in OHSA

A

overactive: tensor fascia and adductor complex

55
Q

what muscle is overactive/underactive causing arms to fall forward during OHSA

A

underactive: middle/lower trap
overactive: upper trap

56
Q

what muscles are overactive/underactive if feet turn out in OHSA

A

overactive: gastrocnemius and soleus or hamstrings

underactive:tibialis, gluteus maximus/medius

57
Q

If you have a client who wants to increase speed, what phase of the OPT model would they fall into?

a. Phase 4
b. Phase 5
c. Phase 1
d. Phase 3

A

phase 5

58
Q

The development of muscular endurance of the legs requires light weights and high repetitions when performing leg-related exercises. What is this an example of?

a. Posture specificity
b. Metabolic specificity
c. Neuromuscular specificity
d. Mechanical specificity

A

mechanical specificity

Mechanical = weight
Metabolic= energy demands
neuromuscular = seed of contraction and type

59
Q

In which phase of the OPT model would suspended bodyweight training be the most desirable for optimal outcomes?

a. Phase 4
b. Phase 5
c. Phase 2
d. Phase 3

A

phase 2

60
Q

You have a client seeking weight loss. What number of repetitions is most appropriate for SAQ drills?

a. 3 to 5 reps
b. 6 to 8 reps
c. 1 or 2 reps
d. 8 to 10 reps

A

3-5 reps

61
Q

During the standing cable chest press, the resistance should be positioned to do what?

a. Pull the shoulders into flexion and scapular protraction
b. Resist shoulder extension and scapular retraction
c. Resist shoulder horizontal adduction
d. Pull the elbows into extension

A

: Resist shoulder horizontal adduction

62
Q

What is a key mechanism involved in internal feedback?

a. Motivation Incorrect
b. Knowledge of performance
c. Proprioception
d. Knowledge of results
Feedback

A

proprioception

63
Q

Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the global muscles of the core?

a. Dead bug
b. Plank
c. Back extension
d. Medicine ball overhead throw

A

back extension

64
Q

If someone were performing repeated sprints with each sprint lasting between 30 and 90 seconds, which energy system would be contributing the most to ATP production during this activity?

a. The electron transport chain
b. The ATP-PC system
c. Oxidative phosphorylation
d. Glycolysis

Also, Explain the different levels of energy production

A

glycolysis

ATP-PC: 10-15 sec
fastest

glycolysis 30-50 sec
uses carbs
medium duration

Oxidative phosphorylation
slow process
(includes aerobic glycolysis, Krebs cycle, and electron chain transport) can use pyruvate

65
Q

What is sarcopenia?

a. Lower than normal bone mineral density
b. Chronic inflammation of the joints
c. Age-related loss in bone mineral density
d. Age-related loss of muscle tissue

A

Age-related loss of muscle tissue

66
Q

Which of the following tests is designed to test reaction capabilities, acceleration, and maximal sprinting speed?

a. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
b. Overhead squat
c. Pro shuttle
d. 40-yard dash

Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral speed and agility?

a. Pro shuttle Incorrect
b. 40-yard dash
c. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
d. Vertical jump

A

40 yard dash– acceleration, reaction capabilities, and max sprinting

lateral speed and agility–
Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)

pro-shuttle 5-10-5
acceleration, deceleration, agility and control

67
Q

What is it called when a ligament is overstretched or torn?

a. A sprain
b. A strain Incorrect
c. A twist
d. A pull

A

sprain (think ACL)

68
Q

Which of the following is a component of agility training?

a. Deceleration
b. Stride rate
c. Reaction
d. Assessment of visual stimuli

A

decceleration

69
Q

Which skinfold sites are measured if determining body composition via the Durnin-Womersley protocol?

a. Triceps, abdomen, mid-axillary, and suprailiac
b. Triceps, subscapular, chest, and thigh
c. Biceps, mid-axillary, subscapular, and chest
d. Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac

A

Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac

70
Q

Which of the following is a limiting factor for how long anaerobic glycolysis can proceed?

a. Lack of pyruvate Incorrect
b. Depletion of phosphocreatine
c. Free hydrogen ions
d. Lack of fatty acids

A

free hydrogen ions

71
Q

What is the best next progression for a client who can properly perform the power step-up exercise?

a. Depth jumps
b. Ice skaters
c. Proprioceptive plyometrics
d. Squat jump

A

ice skaters

72
Q

What differentiates change of direction from agility?

a. Acceleration
b. Deceleration
c. Changing directions
d. Reaction to a signal

A

reaction to signal

73
Q

You are training a youth client. What is the best choice for number of SAQ drills per workout for this athlete?

a. 4 to 8 drills per workout
b. 2 or 3 drills per workout
c. 9 or 10 drills per workout
d. 1 or 2 drills per workout

A

4-8 drills

74
Q

What are the two physiological responses that can occur from myofascial rolling?

a. Pain response and muscle spasm
b. Mechanical and neurophysiological response
c. Delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS) and increased strength
d. Davis’s law and Wolf’s law

A

mechanical and nuerophsyciological response

75
Q

You have a client seeking weight loss. What range of sets is most appropriate for SAQ drills?

a. 3 or 4 sets
b. 7 to 8 sets
c. 5 or 6 sets
d. 1 or 2 sets

A

3-4 sets

76
Q

Where in the heart is the sinoatrial node located?

a. Right atrium
b. Left ventricle
c. Right ventricle
d. Left atrium

A

right atrium

77
Q

spotting- barbell vs. free weights

A

free weights at wrist
barbell at armpits

78
Q

During the cable rotation exercise, which position of the hip will help to decrease stress to the low-back?

a. Hip adduction
b. Hip flexion
c. Hip internal rotation
d. Hip extension

A

hip extension

79
Q

Which of the following muscles is primarily targeted when performing a biceps curl exercise with the thumb up?

a. Brachioradialis
b. Triceps brachii
c. Brachialis
d. Biceps brachii

A

brachioradialis

80
Q

What RPE range (on a scale of 1 to 10) aligns with training in zone 2?

a. An RPE of 5 to 6
b. An RPE of 9 to 10
c. An RPE of 3 to 4
d. An RPE of 7 to 8

A

RPE 5-6

81
Q

What is the term for the higher-than-normal energy expenditure during the recovery period after exercise?

a. Nonexercise activity thermogenesis
b. Exercise activity thermogenesis
c. Thermic effect of food
d. Excess postexercise oxygen consumption

A

excess post exercise oxygen consumption

82
Q

The drawing-in maneuver increases activation of what muscle?

a. External obliques
b. Erector spinae
c. Diaphragm
d. Transverse abdominis

A

transverse abdominis

83
Q

Which type of joint includes the sutures of the skull?

a. Ball-and-socket
b. Nonsynovial
c. Condyloid
d. Pivot

A

nonsynovial

84
Q

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pushing assessment?

a. Lower trapezius
b. Cervical extensors
c. Serratus anterior
d. Upper trapezius

A

upper trapezius

85
Q

at is reached when a talk test during exercise reveals a client to be working at ventilatory threshold 2?

a. The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources
b. The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for more than a few minutes
c. The ability to talk or hold a conversation during an activity at various intensity levels
d. The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for only few seconds
Feedback

A

b. The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for more than a few minutes

86
Q

In what plane of movement do shoulder horizontal adduction and abduction occur?

a. Dorsal
b. Frontal
c. Sagittal
d. Transverse

A

transverse

87
Q

When ADP is converted to ATP, what is this process called?

a. Transformation
b. Phosphorylation
c. ATP-PC
d. Oxidation

A

phosphorylation

88
Q

What are the recommended training variables for dynamic stretching?

a. 15 sets, hold each stretch for 3 to 6 seconds, repeat for 2 to 5 repetitions

b. 1 set, 10 to 15 repetitions, 3 to 10 exercises

c. 4 to 6 sets, 10 to 15 repetitions, 1 or 2 exercises

d. 3 to 9 sets, hold each stretch for 4 to 15 seconds, repeat for 5 to 20 repetitions

A

1 set, 10 to 15 repetitions, 3 to 10 exercises

89
Q

Before amino acids can be used to make ATP, what process do they have to go through?

a. Oxidation
b. Gluconeogenesis
c. Oxidative phosphorylation
d. Glycolysis

A

gluconeogensis (the formation of glucose from noncarb sources- proteins AMINO ACIDS and fast

90
Q

What is a characteristic of a type I muscle fiber?

a. Less force production
b. Fewer capillaries
c. Larger in size
d. Quick to fatigue

A

less force production

91
Q

What is the scientific term that describes the nervous system’s role in the contract/relax relationship between agonists and antagonists?

a. Muscle imbalance
b. Length-tension relationship
c. Stretch-shortening cycle
d. Reciprocal inhibition

A

reciprocal inhibition

92
Q

What are two medical precautions for self-myofascial techniques?

a. Osteoporosis and uncontrolled hypertension
b. Cancer and bleeding disorders
c. Joint hypermobility and scoliosis
d. Extreme discomfort/pain and rheumatoid arthritis

A

joint hyper mobility and scoliosis

93
Q

Which synergist would assist the upper-body pectoral muscles to enhance chest stabilization, strength, or power?

a. Quadriceps
b. Biceps brachii
c. Latissimus dorsi
d. Triceps brachii

A

tricep brachii

94
Q

Which term describes the act of lightly pushing on a client’s shoulders when they are balancing on one foot so they can learn to maintain or recover balance?

a. Somatosensation
b. Sensorimotor function
c. Perturbation
d. Neuromuscular control
Feedback

A

perturbation

95
Q

In what training zone would you be exercising at a vigorous to very hard intensity, where talking is limited to infrequent, short phrases?

a. Zone 2
b. Zone 3
c. Zone 1
d. Zone 4

A

zone 3

96
Q

What condition is characterized by the narrowing of coronary arteries?

a. Heart valve problem
b. Ischemic heart disease
c. Arrhythmia
d. Hypertension

A

Ischemic heart disease

97
Q

When properly activated, which muscle of the core creates tension in the thoracolumbar fascia?

a. Rectus abdominis Incorrect
b. Diaphragm
c. Transverse abdominis
d. Sternocleidomastoid

A

Transverse abdominis

98
Q

Reactive training is another common name for which type of exercise?
Select one:
a. Power training
b. Stabilization training
c. SAQ training
d. Plyometric training

A

plyometric

99
Q

If someone went out for a 5-mile jog with their friend, which energy system would provide most of the ATP for this activity?

a. Beta-oxidation
b. Oxidative phosphorylation
c. Glycolysis
d. The ATP-PC system

A

Oxidative phosphorylation

100
Q

What term is defined as the generic modifiable factors that impact behavior?

a. Behavior change techniques Incorrect
b. Determinants
c. Self-efficacy
d. Attitudes

A

derminants

101
Q

Which subsystem is responsible for providing both frontal plane mobility and stabilization of the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex?

a. Lateral subsystem
b. Posterior oblique subsystem
c. Deep longitudinal subsystem
d. Anterior oblique subsystem
Feedback

A

lateral subsystem

102
Q

Which term defines the degree to which a test specifically measures what it is intended to measure?

a. Reliability
b. Relevance
c. Validity
d. Appropriateness
Feedback

A

validity

103
Q

If your client is working in Phase 1 of the OPT model, what type of flexibility training should they utilize?

a. SMR/ballistic stretching
b. SMR/active stretching
c. SMR/static stretching
d. SMR/dynamic stretching

A

smr and static stretching

104
Q

Which is a power-focused exercise for the back musculature?

a. Medicine ball chest pass
b. Medicine ball pullover throw
c. Front medicine ball oblique throw
d. Overhead medicine ball throw

A

medicine ball pull over throw

105
Q

What is the concentric motion of the shoulder blades during the standing cable row exercise?

a. Upward rotation
b. Elevation
c. Retraction
d. Protraction

A

retraction

106
Q

What two factors define any form or type of exercise?

a. Intensity and duration
b. Duration and time
c. Speed and complexity
d. Intensity and speed

A

intensity and duration

107
Q

Inadequate hydration and mild dehydration can have several negative effects on athletic performance, including which of the following?

a. Lower rate of perceived exertion (RPE)
b. Increased cardiac output
c. Lower body temperature
d. Decreased blood flow

A

decreased blood flow

108
Q

Competitive athletes who performed balance training exercises reduced the risk of which injury by 46%?

a. Ankle sprains
b. Concussions
c. Anterior cruciate ligament injuries
d. Medial collateral ligament injuries

A

ankle sprains

109
Q

lever types

A

type one lever = seesaw fulcrum in middle
type two lever = fulcrum on either side like a whellbarrow
type three lever= force between fulcrum and resistance like bicep

110
Q

fat soluble vitamins

A

A, D, E, K

111
Q

4 p’s of marketing

A

product, price, promotion, and place

112
Q

types of stretching:

A

static min. 1-3 sets 30 sec

dynamic: 1-3 sets, 5-10 repps, 3-10 exercises ROM

active: 1-3 sets, 1-2 sec 5-10 reps

113
Q

suggested vigorous and moderate exercise amounts

A

150 min mod
75 min vigorous

114
Q

list local core muscles

A

rotatores, multifidus, transverse abdominis, diaphragm, pelvic floor, quadrates lumborum

115
Q

list global core muscles

A

rectus abdominis, all obliques, erector spinae, latissimus doris, iliopsoas

116
Q

frontside mechanics

A

ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, hip flexion

117
Q

backside mechanics

A

ankle plantar flexion, knee extension, hip extension

118
Q

overactive and underactive muscles related to pes plants distortion

A

overactive: gastrocnemius and soleus, adductors, hip flexors

underactive: tibialis, glutes

119
Q

overactive and underactive muscles related to upper crossed syndrome?

A

overactive: pectoralis, neck muscles e.g. sternocleidomastoid, upper trap

underactive: lower/mid trap, rhomboids, deep cervical muscles

120
Q

underactive/overactive knees cave in during OHSA

A

underactive: glutes and tibialis

overactive: tensor fascia (near front of hip), adductor complex

Nasm Final (7 decks)

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