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Nasm Final > Practice Test Attempt 2 > Flashcards

Practice Test Attempt 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

What area of the body is most targeted during the single leg squat to row exercise?

A

Posterior chain

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2
Q

During a squat, the lowering phase would be described as what muscle action?

A

Eccentric

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3
Q

Which division of the skeleton is made up of arms, legs, and pelvic girdle?

A

Appendicular

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4
Q

When designing a four zone model for cardiorespiratory training, what range of intensity define zone 2

A

Midpoint between VT1 and VT2

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5
Q

What would make a person better at oxidizing fat?

A

Having more mitochondria in their muscles

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6
Q

Durnin wormsley skin folds

A

Bicep, tricep, subscapular, and supraillac

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7
Q

What is the limiting factor for how long anaerobically glycosis can proceed?

A

Free hydrogen ions

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8
Q

What is the next best progression for a client who can properly performed the power step up exercise?

A

Ice skaters

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9
Q

What differentiates change of direction from agility?

A

Reaction to signal

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10
Q

What is the recommended stability
ball size for someone under 5 feet tall?

A

45 cm

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11
Q

What number of SAQ drills per work out is suggested for a youth athlete?

A

4 to 8 drills per workout

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12
Q

What is one benefit of high intensity, interval training?

A

It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work

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13
Q

What type of movement happens during the concentric phase of a plyometric exercise?

A

Jump

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14
Q

What is the best way to monitor exercise intensity for a hypertensive client that is taking a beta blocker?

A

The talk test

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15
Q

What are the two physiological responses that can occur from myofascial rolling?

A

Mechanical and neurophysiological response

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16
Q

How many SAQ drills should’ve client do who is seeking to lose weight

A

3 to 4 sets

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17
Q

During what phase of the stretch shortening cycle is stored elastic energy converted to explosive force production?

A

Amortization

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18
Q

Where in the heart in the sinoatrial node located?

A

Right atrium

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19
Q

Where are you? Should you spot a

client who is doing a dumbbell overhead press?

A

The wrists

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20
Q

Which test is used to measure lateral speed and agility?

A

Left
lower extremity functional test

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21
Q

For someone training in the muscular development phase which is more optimal?
Body fat loss or muscle mass increase with no body fat loss

A

Body fat loss

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22
Q

Active and dynamic stretching utilize which physiological action?

A

Reciprocal inhibition

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23
Q

The ability of an individual to maintain proper spinal and Ted posture, while the extremities are moving, most accurately is described as ?

A

Core stability

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24
Q

Which disease is caused by specific medical conditions are medication, including alcohol, abuse, smoking, specific disease, or particular medication’s, that disrupts normal bone reformation?

A

Type two (secondary) osteoporosis

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25
Q

What term is used for a condition that would make it unsafe for a client to participate in any type of flexibility exercise?

A

Contraindication

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26
Q

During the cable, rotation exercise, which position of the hip will help decrease stress on the lower back?

A

Hip extension

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27
Q

What type of muscle contractions/action attenuates force through muscle fibers lengthening?

A

Eccentric action

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28
Q

Which of the following muscles is primarily targeted when performing a bicep curl exercise with the thumb up?

A

Not the tricep brachii

It is the brachioradaialis

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29
Q

Which joints are most associated with human movement?

A

Synovial

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30
Q

Which exercise is typically used to measure muscular endurance for the upper extremities during a pushing movement?

A

Push-up test

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31
Q

What does the Eccentric phase of a plyometric movement accomplish?

A

Deceleration

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32
Q

What are RPE range on a scale of 1-10 aligns with trainings in zone two

A

RPE 5 to 6

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33
Q

Recommended training variables for self myofascial rolling

A

1-3 sets holding each tender area for 30 seconds

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34
Q

What is the term for the higher than normal energy expenditure during the recovery period After exercise?

A

Excess postexercise oxygen consumption

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35
Q

The drawing in maneuver increases activation of what muscle?

A

Transverse abdominis

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36
Q

Which type of joint includes the sutures of the skull?

A

Non-synovial

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37
Q

Which muscle would be considered under active leading to shoulder elevation during the pushing assessment

A

Lower trapezius

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38
Q

What scientific term is used to describe the concept whereby a loaded eccentric contraction prepares the muscles for a rapid concentric contraction?

A

Stretch shortening cycle cycle

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39
Q

I what is reached wanna talk test during exercise reveals that the client is in VT2?

A

The level at which the body can work at its highest, sustainable, steady state intensity for more than a few minutes

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40
Q

In what plane of movement do shoulder, horizontal adduction, and abduction occur?

A

Transverse

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41
Q

What is an optional component of an OPT work out and is based on client goals and fitness levels?

A

Skill development
Not resistance

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42
Q

What surrounds the skeletal muscles and connect them to other surrounding muscles?

A

Fascia

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43
Q

Which muscles are typically underactive in association with pes planus distortion syndrome?

A

Anterior and posterior tibialis, and gluteus Maximus and medius

44
Q

Proper extensibility of which global core muscles important prior to performing a medicine ball, pool over throw?

A

Latissimus dorsi

45
Q

What type of flexibility training is most likely to use instruments or equipment to help the body improve range of motion?

A

Self myofascial techniques

46
Q

When a DP is converted to ATP what is this process called?

A

Phosphorylation

47
Q

What is excess post exercise oxygen consumption? EPOC

A

The increase in aerobic metabolism above baseline that occurs for a period after exercise

48
Q

Recommended training, variables for dynamic stretching

A

One set
10 to 15 reps
3 to 10 exercises

49
Q

What describes the passage of digested food into the blood system to be processed for energy nutrients, and tissue building?

A

Absorption

50
Q

What occurs during intermittent exercise regarding energy?

A

All three energy systems will be used at some point during activity

51
Q

Before amino acids can be used to make ATP what process do they have to go through?

A

Gluconeogensis

Not glycosis

52
Q

What type of input may provide a runner with a cute a contract that ever return muscles to avoid an inversion injury?

A

Proprioception

53
Q

What is a characteristic of type one muscle fibers?

A

Less force production

54
Q

What is the scientific term that describes the nervous system’s role in the contract/relax, relationship between agonist and antagonist?

A

Reciprocal inhibition

55
Q

In regards to eccentric muscle action, as the contraction velocity —- the force ——

A

As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force also increases

56
Q

What is the three categories within the lipid family?

A

Triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols

57
Q

What are two medical precautions for self myofascial techniques?

A

Joint, hyper mobility and scoliosis

58
Q

Which synergist would assist upper body pectoral muscles to enhance chest, stabilization, strength, or power?

A

tricep brachii
Not bicep

59
Q

If pyruvate is being created via glycolysis faster than oxygen can be delivered to the muscle, what will happen to the pyruvate?

A

The pyruvate will be converted into lactate

60
Q

What term describes the active lately pushing on a client shoulders when they are balancing on 1 foot, so they can learn to maintain an Recover balance?

A

Perturbation

61
Q

What is the process called that prepares fatty acid substrates to enter the citric acid cycle?

A

Beta-oxidization

62
Q

What term is used to describe muscle tension that is created without a change in muscle length and no visible movement of the joint?

A

Isometric (think hold)

63
Q

And an integrated training program what would be the last portion of training session?

A

Resistance training

64
Q

What muscle functions in a feedforward mechanism in anticipation of limb movement?

A

Multifidus

65
Q

Omega-3 fatty acids do not include which of the following fatty acids?

A

Palmitic acid

66
Q

What best describes core training the facts on decreasing the incidence of new injuries?

A

Injury resistance

67
Q

Which exercise primarily targets the transverse abdominous?

A

Drawing in maneuver

68
Q

Speed is the product of what two variables?

A

Stride rate in stride length

69
Q

For an individual training and stage one what training volume and frequency would qualify that person to progress to stage two?

A

Ability to maintain zone one intensity for at least 30 minutes 3 times a week

70
Q

When using battle ropes as a modality, what diameter of rope would be best be used for strength, power and anaerobic adaptations for 30 seconds or less?

A

2 in (largest)

71
Q

If someone repeatedly lift heavy weights, that person will produce higher levels of maximal strength. What is this an example of?

A

SAID principle
Human body adopt specifically to imposed demands

72
Q

The impact that family members, peers, or coworkers have on someone’s decision to exercise, describes which term?

A

Group influence, not societal

73
Q

Posture of the spine is primarily controlled by which muscles of the core?

A

Local muscles

74
Q

In what zone of training would you exercise vigorously at a heart, intensity, and talking would be very limited to short phrases

A

Zone three

75
Q

What is a ketone bodies?

A

Acetoacetic acid

76
Q

What would be an example of core musculature to stabilize the trunk and pelvis?

A

Pectoral group ?!

77
Q

Carbohydrate intake, Parton Tenzin, long duration, exercise serves what function?

A

Replenish is glycogen stores, and provide adequate fuel for performance

78
Q

What are two primary actions of a muscle spindle?

A

Since change in the muscle, length and speed of length change

79
Q

What condition is characterized by the narrowing of the coronary arteries?

A

Ischemic heart disease

80
Q

When properly activated, which muscle of the core creates tension in the thoracolumbar fascia?
a. Rectus abdominis
b. Diaphragm
c. Transverse abdominis
d. Sternocleidomastoid

A

transverse abdominis

81
Q

Using battle ropes is considered which sort of exercise?

A

low-impact activity

82
Q

What are the two components of a sarcomere?

A

actin and myosin

83
Q

Which component contributes the most to total energy expenditure?

A

resting metabolism

84
Q

What causes coronary heart disease?

A

Atherosclerosis

85
Q

Reactive training is another common name for which type of exercise?

A

plyometric training
not SAQ

86
Q

If someone went out for a 5-mile jog with their friend, which energy system would provide most of the ATP for this activity?

A

Oxidative phosphorylation

87
Q

What term is defined as the generic modifiable factors that impact behavior?

A

Determinants
not behavior change techniques

88
Q

What is defined as the ability to react and change body position with maximal force production, in all planes of motion, and from all body positions?

A

quickness

89
Q

Which subsystem is responsible for providing both frontal plane mobility and stabilization of the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex?
Select one:
a. Lateral subsystem
b. Posterior oblique subsystem
c. Deep longitudinal subsystem
d. Anterior oblique subsystem

A

lateral subsystem

90
Q

Which statement about lowering blood pressure is true?

a. Planned exercise alone is typically insufficient for acutely lowering and controlling hypertension.

b. There is no direct evidence that exercise will result in lower blood pressure.

c. Reducing excessive alcohol use will not have an impact on high blood pressure.

d. Exercise can help control body weight, but it cannot improve blood flow.

A

Planned exercise alone is typically insufficient for acutely lowering and controlling hypertension.

91
Q

Programming exercises that are too advanced or physically demanding can have a lasting effect on which of the client’s emotional considerations?

A

self-efficacy

92
Q

Which term defines the degree to which a test specifically measures what it is intended to measure?
Select one:
a. Reliability
b. Relevance
c. Validity
d. Appropriateness

A

VALIDITY
not reliability

93
Q

If your client is working in Phase 1 of the OPT model, what type of flexibility training should they utilize?

a. SMR/ballistic stretching
b. SMR/active stretching
c. SMR/static stretching
d. SMR/dynamic stretching

A

SMR and static stretching

94
Q

What are the three movements performed during the ball combo I exercise?

a. Wrist flexion, elbow flexion, and shoulder flexion
b. Shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation
c. Hip adduction, flexion, and internal rotation
d. Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra

A

Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra

95
Q

Clients with chronic lung disease often have shortness of breath, also known as which of the following?

A

dyspnea

96
Q

What is an appropriate tempo for Phase 1 of the OPT model?
Select one:
a. X-X-X-X
b. 4-2-1-1
c. 1-2-3-4
d. 2-0-2-0

A

4-2-1-1

97
Q

Which is a power-focused exercise for the back musculature?
Select one:
a. Medicine ball chest pass
b. Medicine ball pullover throw
c. Front medicine ball oblique throw
d. Overhead medicine ball throw

A

b. medicine ball pullover throw

98
Q

How many vertebrae make up the thoracic spine?

A

12

99
Q

Which total daily energy expenditure (TDEE) is responsible for the most energy expenditure throughout the day?

A

resting metabolic rate

100
Q

What is the concentric motion of the shoulder blades during the standing cable row exercise?
Select one:
a. Upward rotation
b. Elevation
c. Retraction
d. Protraction

A

c. retraction

101
Q

Which exercise is a total-body power-focused movement?
Select one:
a. Front medicine ball oblique throw
b. Soccer throw
c. Medicine ball chest pass
d. Two-arm push press

A

two are push press

102
Q

Which of the following core exercises best suits stabilization training?
Select one:
a. Deadlifts
b. Floor bridge
c. Barbell chest press
d. Repeat step-ups

A

floor bridge

103
Q

What two factors define any form or type of exercise?
Select one:
a. Intensity and duration
b. Duration and time
c. Speed and complexity
d. Intensity and speed

A

intensity and duration

104
Q

Inadequate hydration and mild dehydration can have several negative effects on athletic performance, including which of the following?

a. Lower rate of perceived exertion (RPE)
b. Increased cardiac output
c. Lower body temperature
d. Decreased blood flow

A

decreased blood flow

105
Q

What is the sufficient recovery time that is generally needed between plyometric exercises during a workout?

a. 0 seconds
b. 5 minutes
c. 60 to 120 seconds
d. 30 seconds

A

60-120

106
Q

Competitive athletes who performed balance training exercises reduced the risk of which injury by 46%?

a. Ankle sprains
b. Concussions
c. Anterior cruciate ligament injuries Incorrect
d. Medial collateral ligament

A

ankle sprains

Nasm Final (7 decks)

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