Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Nasm Final > Section 5 > Flashcards

Section 5 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
NASM ® CPT flashcards
1
Q

 exercises performed back to back in rapid succession

A

Superset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Synergist

A

Assist the main muscle in force production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Concentric vs eccentric

A

lifting the dumbbell is due to concentric contraction of the biceps brachii muscle, while lowering the dumbbell is the result of eccentric contraction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which synergist with a sister, upper body pectoral muscles to enhance chess stabilization, strength and power

A

 Triceps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which Adl would most likely involve hip hinge

A

Cleaning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is not a benefit of resistance training?

A

 Decreased metabolic rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which plyometric term relates to rapid eccentric motion, followed by an explosive concentric motion

A

 Stretched shortening cycle 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which phase of training would be most appropriate for a beginner who has had previous experience in the last few months

A

Strength, endurance, training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which term refers to the neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when synergist take over function for a week or inhibited prime movers

A

 Synergistic dominance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is altered, reciprocal inhibition

A

When an overactive agonist muscle decreases the neural drive to it’s functional antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which law states that soft tissue models along the line of stress

A

Davis’s law

Adhesion may begin to form structural changes in the soft tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the minimum duration that a static stretch should be held?

A

 30 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Define active stretching

A

 Using agonist and synergist muscles to dynamically, move the joint into a range of motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the mechanism of action for active stretching?

A

 Reciprocal inhibition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the recommended training variables for active stretching

A

1-3 sets
Hold 1-2 sec
Repeat 5-10x

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Relative flexibility

A

 Altered movement patterns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Process and speed from which frequency, intensity time and type are increased

A

 Rate of progression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Five components of fitness

A

Cardio respiratory aerobic fitness

Muscular strength
 Muscular endurance
Flexibility,
 body composition, 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

FITTE-VP

A

Frequency, intensity, type, time, enjoyment, volume, progression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does not reflect the traditional components of cardiorespiratory training

A

Interval phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Control spinal posture/control

Local muscles consist primarily of which type of muscle fiber

A

Type one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Local muscles

A

Provide dynamic control of spinal segments, limiting excessive compression and rotational force
Eg. Rotatores, multifidus, transverse abdominis, diaphragm, pelvic floor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Global muscles

A

 More superficial. Act to move the trunk transfer loads between upper and lower extremities and provide stability of the spine.
Eg. Rectus abdominis, obliques, erector spines, lat Doris, iliopsoas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Kyphotic/kyphosis

A

The normal curvature of the thoracic spine region, creating a convex portion of the spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Anterior pelvic tilt
 Posterior pelvic tilt

A

 Interiors excessive forward, rotation of the pelvis, the results in greater lumbar Lordosis (concave curvature of the cervical and lumbar spine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Eccentric

A

 Force reduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Concentric

A

 Force production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Isometric

A

Dynamic stabilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What issue is indicated by abdominal Petrushin during marching exercises

A

 Poor activation of the local core

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which anti-rotational exercise is designed to target the local core muscles

A

Kenneling pallof press

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Forward head posture is permitted during the drawing in maneuver, what muscles may be activated, leading to poor balance

A

Sternocleidomastoid (neck muscles)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is an example of an exercise that targets the global muscles of the core

A

 Back extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What exercise modality, well enrich the proprioceptive nature of exercise

A

Wobble board

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Excessive anterior pelvic tilt would lead to this posture of the lumbar spine

A

Increased lordosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Scoliosis refers to deviations of the spine in which plane of motion

A

Frontal plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Proper extensibility, of which of these global core muscles is important prior to performing a medicine ball pull overthrow through

A

 Lat dorsi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

When performing a flower, bridge, exercise, why should you not raise your hips too far off the floor?

A

It may place excessive stress on the lumbar spine through hyper extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

During the cable rotation exercise, which position of the heck will help decrease stress on the low by

A

Hip extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which muscle is classified as a local muscle involved in stabilizing the spine?

A

Multidus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What regions of the spine demonstrate lordotic curve

A

Lose back curve
Cervical and lumbar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How should back the position for bird dog?

A

Neutral

42
Q

Perturbation

A

An alteration of the bodies, current state caused by the application of external force

43
Q

What exercise is appropriate for entry level balance training

A

Single leg lift, and chop

44
Q

Sensorimotor function

A

Receptors involved with the sense responsible for determining position while standing on an unstable surface

45
Q

Vestibular

A

Senses controlled by receptors in the inner ear that provide the brain information about spatial orientation and movement around the head

46
Q

Which system provides information to the central nervous system about where the body is in space

A

Visual system

47
Q

Which is the most highly progress plyometric

A

Transverse (side) plane box jumps down

48
Q

Repeat, squat jumps are progression for which exercise

A

Multiplanar jump with stabilization

49
Q

What is the complete transition from eccentric to concentric action

A

Amortization phase

50
Q

What variable of plyometric training is determined by the clients fitness level current training program, training, history, injury, history, and, training, goals?

A

Training frequency

51
Q

What percentage of bone density loss does the risk of hip fracture increase 2.5 times?

A

10%

52
Q

SAQ drill amounts

A

Weight loss
3-4 sets 3-5 reps
15-60 sec rest

Beginner
4-6 drills

Kids
1-3x week
1-4 sets

intermediate
6-8 drills
0-60 sec rest

53
Q

What differentiates change of direction from agility

A

 Reaction to a signal

54
Q

What best describes the triple flexion when referring to the front side mechanics

A

Ankle, dorsiflexion, knee flexion, hip flexion of the lead leg

55
Q

Which is a component of quickness training

A

Assessment of visual stimuli

56
Q

Neuromuscular specificity

A

Refers to the speed of contraction and exercise selection

57
Q

Mechanical specificity

A

Refers to the weight and movements placed on the body

58
Q

Metabolic specificity

A

Refers to the energy demands placed on the body

59
Q

The Giant set system

A

Performing for more exercises in succession with as little rest as possible between sets

60
Q

Drop set

A

Performing a set to failures, and removing a small percentage of the loading continuing with the next set

61
Q

Split routine system

A

 Training different body parts on different days

62
Q

Three stages of the general adaptation syndrome

A

 Alarm reaction, resistance, development, exhaustion

63
Q

If a client is performing a barbell, squat exercise, how should they be spotted?

A

Underneath armpits

64
Q

4-3-2-1 push-up

A

4 eccentric action
2 concentric action

65
Q

Peripheral heart action system

A

Variation of circuit training that alternate upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit

66
Q

Common power, focused, resistance, training, exercise

A

Medicine ball soccer throw

67
Q

What type of muscle contraction occurs between landing in jumping during plyometric training?

A

Isometric

68
Q

What scheme is the most ideal to achieve stabilization muscular endurance adaptations?

Science for maximal strength?

A

2 sets, 20 reps @ 50%

Max strength
5 sets 5 reps @85%

69
Q

Define Ventilatory threshold one VT1

What defines zone 2

A

The point at which the body uses an equal mixture of carbohydrate in size fuel sources

Zone 2 between vt1 and vt2

Above vt2 = zone 4

70
Q

Shortest time. Per day for balance training for children 3 times a week

A

10 minutes

71
Q

Which client position during exercise has been shown to lead to the highest core muscle activity during breathing exercises?

A

Standing

72
Q

During balance training, gluteal muscles should remain in which state to hold the body stable?

A

Isometrically contracted

73
Q

What zone of training is the ability to talk limited to short phrases?

A

Zone 3

Zone 2 talking is becoming more challenging

74
Q

What exercise targets the triceps musculature

A

Close grip bench press

75
Q

What is a component of agility training?

A

Deceleration

76
Q

Recommended training, variables for dynamic stretching

A

 One set, 10 to 15 reps, 3 to 10 exercises

77
Q

Asking a client to turn their head to the side during a balancing exercise challenges which system?

A

 Vestibular

78
Q

What is one of the following things specified in the protocol to improve balance?

A

 Biomechanical ankle platform system

79
Q

Training, the E centric phase of plyometric movements with a new client, will help them improve, which of the following

A

Landing mechanics

80
Q

What is one advantage of using the Karvonen Method, (heart rate reserve)
to calculate training, heart rates versus percentage of maximal heart rate

A

Edit accommodates for discrepancies in resting heart rate

81
Q

Why is arching quadriceps stretch considered a controversial lower body stretch?

A

The stretch provides excessive stress on the kneecap and other tissues in the front knee

82
Q

The goal of the stabilization endurance phase is to focus on which aspect

A

Movement quality

83
Q

What is an example of an exercise that targets the local muscles of the core?

A

Side plank

84
Q

In phase 1 of the OPT model, what type of flexibility training should be utilized

A

Static stretching

85
Q

How is a general warm up best defined?

A

 Low intensity, exercise, consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following

A specific warmup is something diff

86
Q

What muscles work with the obliques will assist a client in standing cable rotation movement

A

Erector spinae

87
Q

Which body part is not subject to increase intensity, through resistance training

A

Nerves

88
Q

What is the key characteristic of plyometric exercise?

A

 A faster tempo similar to daily life

89
Q

What type of movement should be used before progressing to single foot plyometric exercises?

A

Dual foot drills

90
Q

What would be the back squat volume for a client who has completed 10 sets of three repetitions at 225 pounds

A

6750 lb
Volume= reps x sets x added weight

91
Q

What is considered a benefit of performing a warm up prior to cardiorespiratory training?

A

Increased respiratory rate and tissue temperature

92
Q

Tabata training

A

2:1 ratio
Total duration of the workout 4 minutes long and preformed at 170% of vo2max

93
Q

A client performing a multiplanar stop up with a curl to overhead press has a lower back arch what muscles are potentially overactive and underactive?

A

Overactive latissimus dorsi and underactive abdominals

94
Q

Knee valgus underactive and overactive

A

Overactive hip adductors and underactive glutues medius

95
Q

What phase of the OPT model aims to increase growth of muscles to maximal levels?

A

 Muscular development

96
Q

What variable of plyometric training is determined by clients fitness level crunch training program training, history, injury, history, and training goals?

A

Training frequency

97
Q

What is the component of quickness training?

A

Assessment of visual stimuli (not acceleration)

98
Q

What is a superficial muscle of the core?

A

Erector spinae

99
Q

What is defined as the ability to react, and change body position with maximal, force, production, and all planes of motion, and from all body positions?

A

Quickness

100
Q

Appropriate progression for a core training program to optimize function

A

Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic, stability, movement efficiency

101
Q

Agility plus ______

A

Change of direction

Nasm Final (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions