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Foundations Of Nursing > Test 4-Peds > Flashcards

Test 4-Peds Flashcards

1
Q

Motor vehicle accidents (MVAs) are the number one threat in which age group?

A

Adolescence

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2
Q

What are two mechanisms that can provide protection in a MVA?

A
  • car seats

- seat belts

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3
Q

Which age group is at the highest risk of drowning?

A

Infants and Toddlers

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4
Q

Which population is vulnerable to choking?

A

Younger population

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5
Q

Infants are most at risk for suffocation due to what?

A

Laying face down in a crib

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6
Q

Who are at risk of choking on foods, balloons, or plastic bags?

A

young children

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7
Q

What must a healthcare professional do as soon as they find an equipment is not working?

A

Label it as nonworking

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8
Q

Where should nonworking equipment be placed?

A

In a space specifically for repair; away from patient care

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9
Q

Any kind of outside electronic equipment brought in by the patient must have what happen to it?

A

Inspected by the engineering department before being plugged into a wall outlet

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10
Q

What is the RACE response?

A

Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish

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11
Q

Where do sharps injuries typically take place?

A
  • In a high stress environment

- a place that has frequent use of needles

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12
Q

What are three ways to prevent a sharps injury?

A
  • use of a needless system
  • NEVER recap a needle once used on a patient
  • sharps awareness (know where needle is at all times)
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13
Q

Any stick on puncture injury carries risk of what?

A
  • Hep Viruses
  • HIV
  • Bloodborne pathogens
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14
Q

What three ways can violence present itself in the workplace?

A
  1. verbal
  2. making threats
  3. physical attack (often last resort)
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15
Q

What is the key prevention in workplace violence?

A

Recognizing behavioral patterns (identifies opportunities to intervene early)

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16
Q

What are 5 things you should do to prevent workplace violence?

A
  • remain calm/provide reassurance
  • validate frustrations by hearing concerns
  • be mindful of body language
  • speak cautiously (gentle)
  • have boundaries
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17
Q

What are 5 things you should NOT do in the event of workplace violence?

A
  • respond with anger
  • be defensive
  • turn your back
  • touch an unrestrained patient
  • wear loose jewelry or things hanging from body
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18
Q

In RACE, what should you do in R?

A

Rescue- The very first step of your emergency evacuation plan is ensuring all people inside the premises are taken to safety.

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19
Q

In RACE, what should you do in A?

A

Alarm- Informing emergency services and sounding all internal alarms.

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20
Q

In RACE, what should you do in C?

A

Contain- Once people are evacuated and the authorities are informed, your focus should move to containing the fire

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21
Q

In RACE, what should you do in E?

A

Extinguish- Staff who are trained should operate fire extinguishers and other fire fighting equipment and attempt to put out the blaze as best as possible, without putting themselves in danger.

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22
Q

What is does the fall risk acronym of DAME stand for?

A

D- Drugs and Alcohol
A- Age Related Changes
M- Medical Factors
E- Environmental Factors

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23
Q

In DAME, what assessment should be done in D?

A

D-Drugs and Alcohol

  • look and see what meds the patient takes; how many
  • side effects of meds
  • med interactions
  • does the patient drink alcohol?
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24
Q

In DAME, what assessment should be done in A?

A

A-Age Related Changes

  • Evaluate patient’s gait
  • Do they have sensory impairment?
  • Any vision/hearing loss?
  • Urinary frequency/incontinence
  • is neuropathy present?
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25
Q

In DAME, what assessment should be done in M?

A

M- Medical factors

  • Review pt’s med hx
  • Look at reason for being admitted
  • What they’re being treated for
  • Any dysfunctions?
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26
Q

In DAME, what assessment should be done in E?

A

E- Environmental Factors

  • Do their shoes fit well?
  • Evaluate cleanliness of home
  • Evaluate for spills or trip hazards
  • Lightening of living environment should be assessed
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27
Q

What is are the three levels of fall risk?

A
  • Low
  • Moderate
  • High
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28
Q

How is the level of fall risk determined?

A

By what kind and how many interventions are needed

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29
Q

Name 5 HOSPITAL fall risk preventions

A
  1. keep call light within reach
  2. use fall mats next to patient’s bed
  3. use visual cues to alert staff of pt’s fall risk (colored socks/signs)
  4. Manage medications to reduce side effects
  5. Use a bed/chair alarm to alert if patient gets up
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30
Q

Name 5 HOME fall risk preventions

A
  1. Keep assistive devices nearby
  2. Reduce clutter/clear pathways
  3. Encourage use of home-installed assistive devices
  4. Educate pt to not rush getting up
  5. Evaluate pt for proper fitting shoes
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31
Q

If a patient begins to fall, what should a person do?

A

Help the patient safely complete fall (protect their head)

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32
Q

What kind of restraints are the standard of care?

A

No restraints; a restraint-free environment is the standard

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33
Q

When should restraints be applied?

A
  • If the patient’s behavior is interfering with their ability to receive medical treatment
  • Pt is attempting to cause harm to self or others
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34
Q

When are behavioral restraints used?

A

Used for patients who are threat to themselves or others’ safety

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35
Q

Example of a patient who needs behavioral restraints?

A

Patient experiencing psychotic episode

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36
Q

When are medical restraints used?

A

When a patient is confused and is interfering with medical interventions

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37
Q

Example of a patient who needs medical restraints

A

A patient pulling out IVs or tubes

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38
Q

What kind of intervention are restraints?

A

Dependent

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39
Q

How often does an order for restraints need renewed?

A

Every 24 hours

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40
Q

When can the application or removal of restraints be delegated?

A

Only for short periods of time (ex: if pt needs to use restroom)

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41
Q

Skin assessment while restrained and need for restraints is whose responsibility?

A

Nurse

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42
Q

What are the primary defenses of the immune system?

A
  • the skin
  • normal flora of the skin and GI tract
  • cilia (in the respiratory tract)
  • chemical composition of tears and saliva
  • acidity of vaginal fluids or urine
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43
Q

What are the secondary defenses of the immune system?

A

-Immune cells within our body (ex: WBCs or systemic responses that are activated by inflammation pathway)

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44
Q

What are the tertiary defenses of the immune system?

A

-things we provider our patients in order to provide immunity (ex: immunizations) [external interventions]

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45
Q

What PPE is required for contact precautions?

A
  • standard precautions
  • hand hygiene
  • gloves
  • gown
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46
Q

What PPE is required for droplet precautions?

A
  • *standard precautions
  • hand hygiene
  • gloves
  • gown
  • mask
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47
Q

What PPE is required for airborne precautions?

A
  • private room with negative pressure

- N95 mask

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48
Q

Tuberculosis requires what kind of isolation precautions?

A
  • Private room
  • Immunization can be offered
  • Airborne droplet precautions (N95 mask/room with negative pressure)
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49
Q

Lice requires what kind of isolation precautions?

A
  • Contact precautions (gloves, gown)

- can be cohorted with pt with same condition

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50
Q

Measles requires what kind of isolation precautions?

A
  • Private room
  • Immunization can be offered
  • Airborne droplet precautions (N95 mask/room with negative pressure)
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51
Q

Influenza requires what kind of isolation precautions?

A
  • Droplet precautions (gloves, gown, mask)
  • Remain 3 feet away if possible
  • Can be cohorted with pt with same condition
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52
Q

MRSA requires what kind of isolation precautions?

A
  • Contact precautions (gloves, gown)

- can be cohorted with pt with same condition

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53
Q

Chicken pox requires what kind of isolation precautions?

A
  • Private room
  • Immunization can be offered
  • Airborne droplet precautions (N95 mask/room with negative pressure)
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54
Q

CDiff requires what kind of isolation precautions?

A
  • Contact precautions (gloves, gown)

- can be cohorted with pt with same condition

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55
Q

Meningitis requires what kind of isolation precautions?

A
  • Droplet precautions (gloves, gown, mask)
  • Remain 3 feet away if possible
  • Can be cohorted with pt with same condition
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56
Q

What do objective assessments of infection include? (4)

A
  • Physical appearance
  • Physical assessment findings
  • Vital Signs
  • Labs
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57
Q

What does a CBC look for in an infection?

A

WBC count- elevated if infection is present

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58
Q

What do cultures look for in an infection?

A

presence of bacteria

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59
Q

What do titers look for in an infection?

A

Previous exposure to a pathogen

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60
Q

What does C-reactive protein (CRP) and Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR) look for in an infection?

A

Chronic inflammation

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61
Q

What two age groups are at the highest risk of infections?

A
  • infants

- elderly

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62
Q

What risk factor will inhibit the secondary defenses of the immune system intentionally?

A
  • chemotherapy
  • immunosuppressants
  • steroids
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63
Q

What two vital signs will be elevated as part of the immune system?

A
  • Temperature

- Heart rate

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64
Q

What actually cleans the hands when using soap and water?

A

Friction and rinsing

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65
Q

What is a never event?

A

An event that is preventable, but presents serious risk

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66
Q

The freedom to choose and make decisions

A

autonomy

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67
Q

Actions that will benefit others

A

beneficence

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68
Q

Avoid causing harm (intentionally or unintentionally)

A

Non-maleficence

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69
Q

Acting fairly to all

A

Justice

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70
Q

Telling the truth

A

Veracity

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71
Q

Keeping promises; maintaining confidentiality

A

Fidelity

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72
Q

T/F: Informed consent must be witnessed

A

True

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73
Q

Children over what age may sign an assent form

A

8 years old

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74
Q

Affirms the child’s participation and helps the child understand his or health- ensures the child is not unduly influenced

A

Assent form

75
Q

Teaching and rewarding desirable behavior and decreasing or eliminating undesirable behavior

A

Discipline

76
Q

A negative consequence applied for undesirable behavior

A

Punishment

77
Q

What are three appropriate discipline strategies?

A
  1. maintain a positive/supportive child/caregiver relationship
  2. use positive reinforcements
  3. remove positive reinforcements for negative behaviors
78
Q

Freud’s oral passive stage is typically geared to what age group?

A

1-6 months

79
Q

Freud’s oral aggressive stage is geared to what age group?

A

6 months-1 year

80
Q

What happens in the oral passive stage?

A

Infant receives gratification through sucking/eating

81
Q

What happens in the oral aggressive stage?

A

Infant bites for pleasure

82
Q

Erikson’s Trust Vs Mistrust

A
  • Birth to One Year
  • “Hope”
  • Quality of Caregiver (biggest impact)
  • Negative: Fear or suspicion
83
Q

Erikson’s Autonomy Vs Shame and Doubt

A
  • Ages 1-3
  • “Will”
  • Begins to assert independence
  • Encourage child to problem solve
  • Negative: shame
84
Q

Erikson’s Initiative Vs Guilty

A
  • Ages 4-6
  • Learns to take initiative
  • “Purpose”
  • Can feel guilt if not living up to expectations
  • Negative: Inadequacy
85
Q

Erikson’s Industry vs Inferiority

A
  • Ages 6-12
  • Learns difference of work/play
  • “Competence”
  • Negative: Inferiority
86
Q

Erikson’s Identity vs Role Confusion

A
  • Ages 12-20
  • “Fidelity”
  • Role confusion can occur
  • Explores independence
  • Negative: Rebellion
87
Q
  • Behavior and judgements based on experience
  • Obedience=reward
  • Withholding love leads to guilt
  • Obedience vs Punishment
  • Ages 3-7
A

Kohlberg’s Premoral or Preconventional Stage

88
Q
  • Wants to follow rules (8-10) “Good Boy”

- Believes in rules for good relationships (10-12) “Law and Order”

A

Kohlberg’s Conventional Level

89
Q
  • View of morality transcends laws and rules
  • Believes in higher rules/values
  • Self acceptable principles
  • Adult
A

Kohlberg’s Post conventional Level

90
Q
  • Ethical principles and conscience governs acts
  • Not everyone reaches this stage
  • Adult
A

Kohlberg’s Human Rights Concept

91
Q
  • Cognitive ability
  • Sensorimotor 0-2 years
  • Reflexes: Birth to 4 months
A

Piaget Sensorimotor: Cognitive Abilitiy

92
Q
  • 1-4 months
  • Coordinating sensation and then repeating them for pleasure
  • Voluntary activity replaces reflex
  • Object permanence begins at 4 months
A

Piaget Sensorimotor: Primary Circular Reactions

93
Q
  • 4-12 months
  • Focused more on the words/repeats action (4-8 mo)
  • Intentional actions (8-12 mo)
  • Associates acts with response
  • Object permanence by 9 months
A

Piaget Sensorimotor: Secondary Circular

94
Q
  • Early representational thought
  • Mental operations done by trial and error
  • Judges right from wrong by amount of damage done
A

Piaget’s Preoperational

95
Q
  • Connects things that are unrelated if they occur together or appear similar
  • Egocentric
  • Transductive Reasoning
  • Ages 2-4
A

Piaget’s Preoperational Though

96
Q
  • No logical thinking/magical thinking
  • Centration (look at one thought at a time)
  • Animism
  • Intuitive Thought
  • Time—poor concept of time
  • Ages 4-7
A

Piaget Preoperational Thought

97
Q
  • Starts to think logically but no abstract though
  • Begins to understand cause and effect
  • Considers alternative solutions
  • Can articulate processes
  • Learns different view points
  • Ages 7-11
A

Piaget Concrete Operational Thoughts

98
Q
  • Deductive logic
  • Considers themselves to be exceptional
  • Hypothetical reasoning
  • 11 years-adult
A

Piaget Formal Operations/Abstract Thought

99
Q

What are the four types of parenting styles?

A
  1. Authoritative
  2. Authoritarian
  3. Permissive
  4. Rejecting/neglecting
100
Q

Signs and symptoms of lead poisoning

A
  • blood levels 5ug/ml or higher
  • headaches
  • irritability
  • cognitive impairments
  • stomach pain
  • problems with coordination
  • problems with language and speech
  • inattentiveness
  • hearing problems
  • seizures
101
Q

What are 4 toilet training tips?

A
  1. Use gentle approach (no criticism)
  2. Remain calm and positive
  3. If potty is unavailable, face forward on toilet
  4. Use potty after meal
    * Diaper may still be needed at night
102
Q

Tripod sits

103
Q

Sits from standing position; walks independently

104
Q

Pulls to stand; “Cruises”

105
Q

Sits unsupported

106
Q

Sits alone with some use of hands

107
Q

Crawls; abdomen off the floor

108
Q

What age does stranger anxiety typically begin to develop?

109
Q

Coos, other vocalizations, and demonstrates differentiated crying

A

1-3 months

110
Q

Simple vowel sounds, laughs aloud, performs “raspberries,” responds to his or her name and “no”

A

4-5 months

111
Q

Squealing and yelling; may express joy or displeasure

112
Q

Attaches meaning to mama and dada; tries to imitate sounds

A

9-12 months

113
Q

1-3 recognizable words, recognizes objects by name, may say “ugh-oh”

114
Q

Begins to babble

115
Q

Improves head control

116
Q

Fists mostly clenched

117
Q

First real smile

118
Q

Holds hands in front of face; hands open

119
Q

Bats at objects, lifts head and looks around; rolls from prone to supine

120
Q

By ____ months, infant should double their birthweight.

121
Q

Grasps rattles; rolls from supine to prone and back

122
Q

Releases object to grasp another object

123
Q

Transfers objects from one hand to another and enjoys interactive games

124
Q

Offers objects to others and releases them

125
Q

Fine pincer grasp; puts objects in container and takes them out

126
Q

Infants typically triple their birthweight by which age?

A

1 year old

127
Q

Cups, bowls, buckets, large building blocks, balls, dolls, board books with large pictures, and toy telephones are all great toys for which age group?

128
Q

Bangs objects together

129
Q

Climbs upstairs with help; pulls toys while walking

130
Q

Can begin to run; knows how to kick a ball; climbs up and down furniture without assistance

131
Q

Stacks blocks, puts things in slots, turn pages, remove shoes/socks, can build four blocks

132
Q

Can build tower of 6/7 blocks, turns knobs, puts pegs in holes

133
Q

Can follow a one-step command without gesture; understands 100-150 words; repeats words they hear

134
Q

Vocabulary of 40-50 words

135
Q

Understands “no,” can comprehend 200 words, uses 5-20 words

136
Q

Can stand on tiptoe

137
Q

Vocabulary of 150-300 words

A

2 years old

138
Q

Climbs well, pedals tricycle, runs easily, walks up and down stairs with alternate feet, bends easily without falling

139
Q

Can build tower of 9-10 blocks

140
Q

Has a 1000 word vocabulary

141
Q

Throws ball overhead, draws circles and squares, can speak in complete sentences

142
Q

Counts to 10

143
Q

Somersaults and swings well; can understand most speech-vocabulary of 2100 words

144
Q

Stands on one foot for 5+ seconds

145
Q

How long should a car seat face backward?

A

Until at least 2 years old

146
Q

What are three things to consider when installing a car seat?

A
  • Correct type
  • Position of the child in the carseat
  • Properly securing carseat to vehicle
147
Q
  • Mobiles with contrasting colors
  • Unbreakable mirror
  • Soft music via tape or music box
  • Soft, bright colored toys
A

0-1 months

148
Q
  • Bright mobile
  • Unbreakable mirror
  • Rattles
  • Singing by parent/caregiver
  • High contrast patterns in books or images
A

1-4 months

149
Q
  • Plastic cups, bowls, or buckets
  • Large building blocks
  • Busy boxes
  • Balls
  • Dolls
  • Board books
  • Toy telephone
  • Push-pull toys
  • Stacking toys
A

8-12 months

150
Q
  • Fabric or board books
  • Different types of music
  • Easy to hold toys (fancy rattles)
  • Floating, squirting bath toys
  • Soft dolls or animals
A

4-7 months

151
Q
  • familiar household items (bowls, cups, utensils, ect)
  • child-size household item toys (kitchen, broom, ect)
  • blocks, cars, trucks, animals, plastic figures
  • manipulative toys with handles and knobs
  • Gross motor toys
  • tapes or cd players
  • chalk, crayons, finger paints
  • bath toys
A

Toddler toys

152
Q
  • Blocks
  • Jigsaw puzzles
  • Creativity supplies (chalk, paint, ect)
  • Puppets
  • Dress up clothes
  • Bath toys
  • Sandbox
  • Dolls
  • Blocks, legos, cars/trucks, plastic animals
  • Simple board games
  • Dollhouse
A

Preschool toys

153
Q

Breastmilk or formula until how old?

A

6 months of age

154
Q

Soft and mashed food for infants until when

A

teeth erupt

155
Q

Food can be introduced when _______

A

tongue extrusion reflex disappears

156
Q

What foods should an infant avoid?

A
  • honey
  • popcorn
  • small hard foods
  • foods that can cause allergic reactions
157
Q

What should be the total daily fat intake for toddlers?

A

20-30% of total calories

158
Q

What should be the total fat intake for preschoolers?

A

10-35% of total calories

159
Q

What should the nutritional breakdown of carbs, proteins and fats be for school age children and adolescents?

A
  • 45-65% carbs
  • 10-30% proteins
  • 25-35% fats
160
Q

Infants usually engage in this kind of play

161
Q

What is solitary play?

A

Play where the infant does not share or directly play with other infants

162
Q

What type of play do toddlers usually engage in?

A

Parallel play (play alongside other children rather than cooperatively)

163
Q

What type of play do preschoolers engage in?

A
  • Associative play (engaged in mutual activity, but not working towards a common goal)
  • Cooperative play (using imagination to play with friends)
164
Q

What type of play do school aged children and adolescents usually engage in?

A
  • Cooperative play
  • Team play (sports)
  • Solitary play (video games)
165
Q

Which age group should be offered 3 full meals and two snacks a day?

166
Q

What is the least effective disciplining method?

167
Q

Adolescents engage in what kind of behavior?

A

Risky

-Education about substance abuse, sexual health, and tobacco is important for this age group

168
Q

What are the five barriers to care?

A
  1. Financial
  2. Ethnic
  3. Sociocultural
  4. Health Care Delivery System
  5. Personal Biases
169
Q

Follows a series of two independent commands; 150-300 word vocabulary

170
Q

Follows a 3-part command; speech understood by family; asks “why?”; 3-4 word sentences; 1000 words

171
Q

Teens require what increased nutrients

A

Calcium, Zinc, Iron

172
Q

Preschooler up until the age of 4, should sit in what kind of car seat?

A

Forward-facing with harness and top tether

173
Q

What are the booster seat recommendations?

A
  • Up until 4’9” (57 inches)

- And ages 8-12 are reached

174
Q

Children should not sit in the front seat of a car until what age?

A

13 years old

175
Q

When can a child sit with only a seatbelt?

A

-After he/she reaches 57 inches

176
Q

What are the common fears of a toddler?

A
  • Loss of parents
  • Fear of strangers
  • Toddlers may also be afraid of loud noises or afraid of the dark
177
Q

What are common fears of preschoolers?

A
  • Loud noises
  • Imaginary monsters
  • Afraid of people they do not know
  • Afraid of the dark
  • Body mutilation
178
Q

What are common fears of school age children?

A
  • Real life things (death, natural disasters, getting hurt)
  • Fear of being kidnapped
  • Dogs or other animals
179
Q

When punishing an adolescent, what should the parent/caregiver do?

A

Incorporate autonomy with the teen

180
Q

Which theorist is based on the concept of rule-following?

181
Q

A child cries out that the CT scan is going to eat her, what kind of behavior is the child displaying?

182
Q

What is the major challenge of formation to an adolescent’s identity?

A

Changing bodies

183
Q

What is the most important consideration when a nurse is educating a child?

A

Their developmental level

Foundations Of Nursing (7 decks)

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